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FMGE DEC 2022: MICROBIOLOGY TEST

B. Pasteurella plague, Glossina palpalis
1. India is considered capital of which
C. Bacillus lethalae, Chrysops
infectious disease
D. Arbovirus, Culex tritaenorhynchus
A. Tuberculosis

B. HIV
4. All are non-suppurative complications of
C. Dengue
Streptococcus pyogenes except
D. Cholera
A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Reactive arthritis
2. Type of leprosy
C. Rheumatic carditis

D. Rheumatic fever

5. A 12 year old presented with step ladder

fever and rose spots. All are possible
except

A. Salmonella Typhi

B. Salmonella Typhimurium
A. Lepromatous
C. Salmonella Paratyphi A
B. Tuberculoid
D. Salmonella Paratyphi B
C. Pure neuritic

D. Indeterminate
6. A 15 year old presented with fever and
cardiac murmurs. All of the following are

3. Plague is caused and transmitted by included in Jones major criteria except

A. Yersinia pestis, Xenopsylla cheopis A. Lymphadenopathy

B. Polyarthritis

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C. Sydenham’s chorea B. 2nd week

D. Pancarditis C. 3rd week

D. 4th week

7. Type of diarrhoea in cholera is

A. Colloidal 11. Most common test for syphilis is

B. Osmotic A. TPHA

C. Secretory B. VDRL

D. Haemorrhagic C. FTA ABS

D. ELISA

8. Most common cause of UTI is

A. E. coli 12. All are correct cholera outbreaks except

B. Klebsiella pneumonia A. 4th pandemic – V. cholera O1 Classical

C. Enterococcus B. Yemen 2016-2022 – V. cholera O1 El Tor

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. 6th pandemic - V. cholera O1 El Tor

D. 8th pandemic - V. cholera O139 Bengal

9. Most common cause of burns infection

A. Clostridium perfringens 13. Meningococcal vaccine given to Hajj

travelers includes the following serotypes of
B. Pseudomonas
Neisseria meningitides
C. E coli
A. Serotypes A, C, Y, W-135
D. Staphylococcus
B. Serotypes A, B, C, Y

C. Serotypes A, B, C, Y, W-135
10. Widal test is done in
D. Tubercular abscess
st
A. 1 week
14. Epidemic typhus is caused by

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A. Rickettsia prowazekii 18. Most common cause of travelers

diarrhoea
B. Rickettsia typhi
A. EIEC
C. Rickettsia rickettsiae
B. ETEC
D. Rickettsia akari
C. EHEC

D. EPEC
15. All drugs can be used for VRSA except

A. Teicoplanin
19. Weil’s disease is caused by
B. Daptomycin
A. Legionella
C. Linezolid
B. Leptospira
D. Dicloxacillin
C. Leishmania

D. Listeria
16. Tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin act by
preventing release of

A. Acetylcholine and (GABA and glycine) 20. Vietnam Time Bomb is related to

B. (GABA and glycine) and acetylcholine A. Brucella melitensis

C. Histamine and Serotonin B. Burkholderia mallei

D. CAMP and CGMP C. Burkholderia pseudomallei

D. Bartonella bacilliformis

17. Which antibiotics can reduce Staph toxic

shock syndrome toxin synthesis
21. All are louse borne diseases except
A. Clindamycin, gentamicin
A. Epidemic relapsing fever
B. Spiramycin, rifampicin
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Vancomycin, Teicoplanin
C. Endemic typhus
D. Erythromycin, Isavuconazole
D. Trench fever

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22. Drug of choice for MRSA for empirical C. Assman and Weigert’s focus/complex
therapy, mild infection and severe infection
D. Simon’s and Rich focus/complex
is

A. Cloxacillin, Clindamycin, Dicloxacillin

26. All are correct about syphilis except
B. Linezolid, Teicoplanin, Vancomycin
A. Primary syphilis - Oral chancre
C. Vancomycin, Clindamycin, Vancomycin
B. Secondary syphilis - Mucous patch
D. Teicoplanin, Vancomycin, Clindamycin
C. Congenital syphilis - Hutchison’s teeth

D. Stigmata of syphilis - Mulberry molar

23. Most common cause of endocarditis is

A. Streptococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus sanguis
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
27. 65 year old with peptic ulcer and GERD.
C14 urease test positive. Diagnosis and
treatment

D. Staphylococcus aureus A. Oesophageal Candidiasis, fluconazole

B. Camplylobacter, azithromycin

24. DOTS plus and 99 DOTS are for C. Helicobacter, clarithromycin +metronidazole

A. Pediatric TB and adult TB D. Giardia, metronidazole

B. Treatment failure and HIV+TB

C. MDR/XDR TB and telemonitoring 28. 14 year female with XDRTB. Treatment?

D. Latent TB and pulmonary TB A. 2 (HRZE) + 4 (HRE)

B. Delamanid 100 mg BD x 6 months

25. Primary and fibrocavitatory complex of C. 2 (HRZES) + 1 (HRZE) + 5 (HRE)

TB is known as
D. Linezolid 600 mg BD X 1 year
A. Ranke’s and Assman complex

B. Ghon’s and Simon’s complex

29. Donovanosis is caused by

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A. Mycoplasma genitalium D. Meyer’s Kouwenaar syndrome

B. Leishmania donovani

C. Klebsiella granulomatis 33. All are matched syndromes except

D. Hemophilus ducreyi A. Hemolytic uremic syndrome – E. coli

O157:H7

B. Lady Windermere syndrome -Mycobacterium

30. 20 year old with ulnar nerve thickening.
avium
Diagnosis, drugs for treatment?
C. Toxic Shock Syndrome – Yersinia pestis
A. Tuberculosis, Rifampicin, Isoniazid
D. Scalded Skin Syndrome - Staphylococcus
B. Leprosy, Rifampicin, Clofazimine
aureus
C. Rabies, Minocycline, Clarithromycin

D. Gas gangrene, Tigecycline, Colistin

34. Identify intestinal ulcers

31. Reason for cut off titres in Widal test is

A. Test has low sensitivity

B. Test has low specificity

C. Test may detect some antibodies in endemic

area even in asymptomatic and subclinical
cases

D. Test is only for screening A. Tubercular and amoebic

B. Typhoidal and amoebic

32. All are complications of Neisseria C. Amoebic and tubercular

gonorrhoeae except D. Typhoidal and tubercular

A. Waterhouse Fredericksen syndrome

B. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome 35. 12 year old underwent cochlear implant

C. Water Can perineum surgery. Vaccine required?

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A. Meningococcal capsular vaccine D. Strep agalactiae

B. Pneumococcal capsular vaccine

C. Gonococcal live vaccine 39. 16 year old with severe acne. Etiology,
treatment?
D. Streptococccal killed vaccine
A. Staph aureus, Clindamycin

B. Corynebacterium, erythromycin
36. 45 year old disseminated TB. Diagnosis,
liquid culture media? C. Methylobacterium, permethrin

A. Extrapulmonary TB, LJ medium D. Cutibacterium, Isotretinoin

B. Miliary TB, Middlebrook 7H9 medium

C. Potts spine, Pawlowsky media 40. Vaccine used for treatment of bladder ca

D. Latent TB, LSS media A. Shigella vaccine

B. BCG

37. 26 year Indian female with C. Covishield

hypopigmented hypoaesthetic patch. Most
D. Oka vaccine
common form?

A. Borderline lepromatous leprosy

41. An 18 year old was positive for Elek’s gel
B. Lepromatous leprosy
precipitation test. Diagnosis, treatment?
C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
A. Tetanus, antitetanus serum
D. Indeterminate leprosy
B. Diphtheria, antidiphtheritic serum

C. Botulism, antitoxin
38. Blood agar shows pinpoint beta
D. E coli food poisoning, monoclonal antibodies
hemolytic colonies. All are possible except?

A. Staph aureus
42. 65 year old with hemorrhagic diarrhea.
B. Strep pyogenes
Etiology, toxin and treatment?
C. Strep pneumoniae

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A. ETEC, labile toxin, azithromycin B. Vitamin A deficiency

B. EPEC, NSP4 toxin, erythromycin C. Gastric bypass surgery

C. EHEC, verotoxin, ciprofloxacin D. Cochlear implant surgery

D. EAEC, EAST-1 enterotoxin, no treatment

45. 36 year old with Nugent’s score>7.

Diagnosis, treatment?
43. An 11 year old child presented with
trismus and risus sardonicus. Cultures A. Vaginal Candidiasis, fluconazole
revealed the following. Identify the
B. Bacterial vaginosis, metronidazole
pathogen. Which toxin is produced?
C. Aerobic vaginitis, penicillin

D. All of the above

46. A 19 year old Indian girl with frequent

scanty sticky non foul smelling motions
with blood and mucus, tenesmus.
Diagnosis, treatment?

A. Shigella dysenteriae, ciprofloxacin

B. Entamoeba histolytica, metronidazole

A. Clostridium difficile, A and B toxins
C. Campylobacter, azithromycin
B. Clostridium perfringens, alpha toxin
D. EIEC, no treatment
C. Clostridium tetani, tetanospasmin

D. Clostridium botulinum, botulinum toxin

47. 63 year old was prescribed probiotics.
Most common probiotic?

44. A 15 year old child with disseminated A. Lactobacillus

Neisseria infection. Predisposition?
B. Saccharomyces
A. C5-C9 complement deficiency
C. E coli

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D. Enterococcus 51. The phenomenon is known as

48. 22 year old intern found as a MRSA

nasal carrier. Treatment

A. Clindamycin

B. Vancomycin

C. Linezolid

D. Mupirocin

A. Eleks gel precipitation

49. 43 year old with rice water stools and B. Satellitism

dehydration. First test?
C. Quellung reaction
A. Culture
D. Neil Mooser reaction
B. PCR

C. Hanging drop
52. A 6 month healthy infant was brought in
D. Antigen a motionless state. Vitals were normal.
History of pacifier containing honey from a
local beehive was elicited. Identify the
50. A baby born to a Neisseria gonorrhoeae
infected mother was referred to
ophthalmologist. Diagnosis and treatment?

A. Conjunctivitis, moxifloxacin

B. Chorioretinitis, cotrimoxazole

C. Ophthalmia neonatorum, 1% silver nitrate

D. Keratitis, fluconazole

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condition, etiology and treatment. Gram stain finding?

A. Gonococcal urethritis, Neisseria

A. Acute flaccid paralysis, Campylobacter,
gonorrhoeae, Gram negative diplococci
plasma exchange
B. Non gonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia, Gram
B. Transient infantile paralysis, unknown
negative coccobacilli
etiology, spontaneous recoveryC. Floppy baby
syndrome, botulinum toxin, no treatment C. Genital mycoplasmosis, Ureaplasma, Gram
positive intracellular pigments
D. Neurological poisoning, cobra bite,
antivenom D. Syphilis, Treponema pallidum, Gram variable
coccobacilli

53. A 35 year old male patient presented

with a 15 day old history of severe purulent 54. Identify the phenomenon, microbe
urethral discharge after unprotected sexual exhibiting this, and method of inhibition of
contact. Gram stain of pus revealed the
following. Likely diagnosis, etiology and

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the phenomenon? disease?

A. Emprosthotonus, strychnine poisoning

A. Opalescence, Clostridium perfringens, B. Opisthotonus, tetanus

removal of egg in agar
C. Trismus, furious rabies
B. Swarming, Proteus, chloral hydrate
D. Neck rigidity, meningococcal meningitis
C. Spiral gradient system, Vibrio, bile

D. Waving, Plesiomonas, cutting the agar

56. 22 year old patient of meningitis by
diplococci. Identify the reaction and
pathogen
55. A 9 year old boy in Africa was found to
be in this condition and brought by tourists
to the hospital. Child was stiff and had poor
general condition. Identify the condition and

A. McFadyean’s reaction, Bacillus anthracis

B. Quellung’s reaction, Neisseria meningitides

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C. Naegler’s reaction, Clostridium perfringens following condition is

D. None of the above

57. 22 year old bus driver with perianal

abscess. Identify test and medium

A. Penicillin + nerve transaction + debridement

B. Antiserum + penicillin + myomectomy

C. Antitoxin + clindamycin + suturing

D. Amputation + meropenem + metronidazole

59. Match the following

E. coli Disease Toxin

A. Kirby Bauer disk diffusion, Mueller Hinton W. ETEC 1. Infantile diarrhoea E. Verotoxin
agar X. EPEC 2. Bloody diarrhoea F. No toxin
Y. EHEC 3. Travelers G EAST-1
B. Stokes test, nutrient agar
diarrhea enterotoxin.

C. Epsilometer test, peptone agar Z. EAEC 4. Persistent H. Labile toxin

diarrhea
D. Hodge test, McConkey agar
A. W4E, X3F, Y2G, Z1H

B. W2G, X3H, Y4E, Z1F

58. A 17 year old presented with foul
C. W3H, X1F, Y2E, Z4G
smelling serosanguinous discharge and
gangrene of tissues after road traffic D. W1E, X4F, Y3G, Z2H

accident. Most appropriate treatment of the

60. Match the following Rickettsiae

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Rickettsia Disease Vector A. W4E, X3F, Y2G, Z1H

W. R. 1. Epidemic typhus E. Tick
B. W2G, X3H, Y4E, Z1F
rickettsiae
X. R. akari 2. Endemic typhus F. Mite C. W3H, X1F, Y2E, Z4G
Y. R. typhi 3. Rickettsial pox G. Flea
D. W1E, X4F, Y3G, Z2H
Z. R. 4. Rocky Mountain H. Louse
prowazekii Spotted Fever

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