PHYSICS

Basic SI units
Quantity Unit
Length Meter
Mass Kilogram
Temperature Kelvin
Electric current ampere
Luminous intensity candela
Time second

Prefixes and corresponding power of 10

Prefix Symbol Power of 10
Atto a 10-18
Femto f 10-15
Pico p 10-12
Nano n 10-9
Micro μ 10-6
Milli m 10-3
Centi c 10-2
Kilo k 103
Mega M 106
Giga G 109
Tera T 1012
Peta P 1015
Exa E 1018

Units of Force, Mass and Acceleration

SI system of units:
Force newton
Mass kilogram
Acceleration meter/sec2
cgs system of units:
Force dyne
Mass gram
Acceleration cm/sec2
British system of units:
Force pound
Mass slug
Acceleration ft/sec2

Conversion:
1 slug = 14.6 kg
1 dyne = 10-5 N
1 pound = 4.45 N
1kg = = 2.205 lb

Newton’s Laws of Motion

Newton’s First Law

A body acted by no net force moves with constant velocity (which may be zero) and zero acceleration.
Newton’s Second Law:
If a net external force acts on a body accelerates. The direction of acceleration is the same as the direction of the net
force. The net force vector is equal to the mass of the body time the acceleration of the body.

Newton’s Third Law:

If body exerts a force on body B, then the body B exerts a force on body A. These two forces are equal in magnitude but
are opposite in direction.

Properties of pressure in a fluid

1. The forces a fluid at rest exerts on the walls of its container, and vice versa always acts perpendicular to the
walls.
2. An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the fluid.
3. The pressure on a small surface in a fluid is the same regardless of the orientation of the surface.

The Gas Laws

Boyle’s Law
At constant temperature, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
p1V1 = p2V2
Charles’s Law:
At constant pressure, the volume of gas is proportional to its absolute temperature.
𝑉1 𝑉2
=
𝑇1 𝑇2

Ideal Gas Law

When the two laws, Boyle’s law and Charles’s Law are combined into a single formula, it results to an ideal gas law.
𝑝1 𝑉1 𝑝2 𝑉2
=
𝑇1 𝑇2

Absolute temperature
Absolute zero temperature, T:
T=0K (Kelvin)
o
T=0 R (Rankine)
o
T = -273 C (Celsius)
o
T = -460 F ( Fahrenheit)
To convert Celsius scale to Fahrenheit scale:
9
TF = 𝑇𝑐 + 32
5
To convert Fahrenheit scale to Celsius scale:
5
𝑇𝑐 = (𝑇𝐹 − 32)
9
Kelvin temperature scale:
TK = Tc + 273
Rankine scale:
TR = TF +460

Index of refraction
Index of refraction of a substance is the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a particular
medium.
The following are the indexes of refraction of common substances:

Substance n
Water 1.33
Air 1.0003
Ice 1.31
Glass, crown 1.52
Glass, flint 1.63
Benzene 1.50
Carbon disulfide 1.63
Diamond 2.42
Ethyl alcohol 1.36

Kepler’s Law
German astronomer and mathematician, Johannes kepler discovered three empirical laws that accurately described the
motions of planets, as follows:
1. Each planet moves in an elliptical orbit, with the sun at one focus of the ellipse.
2. A line from the sun to a given planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time.
3. The periods of the planets are proportional to the 3/2 powers of the major axis lengths of their orbits.

The nature of wave and wave motion

Wave is a periodic disturbance. Waves are produced in all forms of matter even in empty space where ordinary matter
does not exist.
Wave motion is some sort of periodic displacement of an elastic medium from its normal position.

Types of waves in matter

1. Transverse wave a wave in which the vibration direction is perpendicular to the direction of the wave
propagation.
Examples:
Water waves, waves in strings under tension, electromagnetic waves – light and radio waves.
2. Longitudinal (or compressional) Wave a wave in which vibration direction is parallel to the direction of
propagation.
Examples:
Sound waves, waves in rods and in vibrating helical spring.

Wave Terminology
Period of vibration (T) – the time taken for a particle to move through in one complete cycle.
Frequency of vibration (f) – the number of such vibrations executed by the particle each sound.
Crest – the top points on the wave.
Trough – the bottom points on the wave.
Amplitude (A) – the maximum displacement from their normal position of the particles that oscillate back and forth.
Wavelength(𝝀) – the distance between two successive points in a wave.
Standing wave – a stationary wave pattern formed in a medium when two sets of identical wave pass through the
medium in opposite directions.
Wave Equations
A. Velocity of the wave
V = λf
Where:
V = velocity
λ = wavelength
f = Frequency
B. Period
Period is the reciprocal of the frequency
1
T=
𝑓
Where:
T = period
F = frequency
C. Velocity of longitudinal waves in solids and liquids
𝐸
V=√
𝜌

Where:
E = modulus of elasticity
𝜌 = density
D. Velocity of longitudinal waves in gases
𝑉 = √𝑘𝑅𝑇
Where:
𝑅̅
R=
𝑀𝑊
R =gas constant
R = 8.314 J▪ mol/K
MW= molecular weight
𝐶𝑝
K=
𝐶𝑣
K = 1.4 for air, oxygen. nitrogen
T = absolute temperature
E. Velocity of transverse wave on stretched spring or wire
𝑇
𝑉=√
𝜌𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑎𝑟

where:
T = tension
ρlinear = linear density, = mass per length

Laws of vibrating string under tension

String under tension at a certain vibration frequency will resonate. Meaning, it will vibrate with large amplitude in
vibration patterns. These similar vibration patterns called standing waves.
For string having n segments long;
𝜆 𝑣
L = n( ) and fn = n( )
2 2𝐿
where:
L = length of the string
n = number of segments
fn = frequency of n segments
V = velocity
Fundamental frequency and natural frequencies
The lowest natural frequency is called the fundamental frequency.
𝑣 n T
f1 = n( ) = √ = 𝑛𝑓1
2𝐿 2L ρlinear

The set of frequencies ; f1, f2 = 2f1, f3 = 3f1 ... are called harmonic series.

The nature of sound

Sound is a disturbance or vibration whose energy must be communicated into a medium. Sound is one of the examples
of longitudinal waves which needs a medium in order for it to travel and reach a certain point. The definition of sound is
completed by these three very important things:
1. These must be a vibrating body
2. There must be a medium to transmit the vibration
3. There must be a receiver to detect the sound

Classification of Sounds
1. Musical - a sound of one regular vibration or more definite frequencies
2. Noise - a sound of irregular vibration or of no definite range of frequency.

Three physiological characteristics of sound

1. Pitch - is the highness of lowness of a note or tone. It is frequency dependent for note of high pitch must be of high
frequency and for low pitch must be of low frequency as well.
2. Intensity - is also known as the "loudness" of sound. It is the rate at which sound energy flows through a unit area. It
is amplitude dependent, bigger amplitude will produce a loud sound. the intensity of sound also depends on the
distance of the source to the observer. It is inversely proportional to the square of the distance.
3. quality - also known as timbre which depends o the waveform or vibration form of the source.
 PHYSICS QUESTIONS
1. What is the standard unit of mass?
a. Kilogram b. found c. gram d. Newton
2. The International Standards of mass equal to 1 kg or 100 grams, refers to a cylinders of what elements
a. Iridium-cessium b. platinum-cessium c. Kryptin-cessium d. platinum-iridium
3. The “second” is defined as 9,192, 631, 770 times period of vibration of radiation from what atom?
a. Cesium b. hydrogen c. helium d. platinum
4. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299, 458 second?
a. Yard b. feet c. meter d. inch
5. What is the SI unit of work?
a. Newton b. Watt c. newton-second d. Joule
6. What is the SI unit of temperature?
a. Fahrenheit b. Kelvin c. Celsius d. rankine
7. What is the SI unit of power?
a. Newton b. watt c. Newton-second d. joule
8. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?
a. Candela b. lumens c. lux d. candlepower
9. What is the unit of relative density?
a. Pa b. N-m c. N-m/s d. unitless
10. What is the SI unit of pressure?
a. Pa b. N-m c. N/m d. N-m/s
11. Which one is equivalent of the unit “pascal”?
a. N/mm2 b. N/m2 c. N/m d. N/mm
12. Which of the following units for measurements is NOT an SI based of derived units?
a. oC b. pascal c. Joule d. Kelvin
13. What is the unit of capacitance?
a. farad b. weber c. coulomb d. Gauss
14. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “farad “?
a. Coulomb /volt c. joule/coulomb
b. Joule/volt d. coulomb/joule
15. What is the unit of electric current?
a. Volt b. watt c. ampere d. coulomb
16. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “ampere”?
a. Joule/second b. volt/second c. coulomb/second d. watt/second
17. What is the unit of resistance?
a. Ohm b. watt c. volt d. ampere
18. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?
a. Coulomb/ampere b. watt/ampere c. volt/ampere d. joule/ampere
19. What is the unit of luminous intensity?
a. Footcandle b. lumen c. candela d. lux
20. What is the unit of illumination?
a. Lux b. lumen c. candela d. lumen/watt
21. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?
a. Lumen/cm2 b. lumen/ft2 c. lumen/m2 d. lumen/in2
22. In magnesium, a “gauss” is a unit of _____.
a. Flux density b. permeability c. magnetic flux d. magnetic line of force
23. What is an element unit of energy?
a. Quartz b. quark c. photon d. quantum
24. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per second per second when acted on by a
force of one pound?
a. Slug b. Erg c. Dyne d. BTU
25. The size of some bacteria and living cells in the order of ___________.
a. Centimetre millimetre c. nanometer d. micrometer
26. The size of the largest atom is in the order of __________.
a. Centimetre b. millimetre c. nanometer d. micrometer
27. That mass of a grain of salt is in the order of __________.
a. Milligram b. gram c. microgram d. nanogram
28. Which one is equivalent to the unit “ joules”?
a. Newton-second c. Newton-meter per second
b. Newton-meter d. Newton-meter per second squared
29. What is an equivalent to the unit “watt”?
a. Newton-second c. Newton-meter per second
b. Newton-meter d. Newton-meter per second squared
30. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of ____________.
a. Work b. energy c. power d. work or energy
31. The unit N-m/s is a unit of ___________.
a. Work b. force c. power d. energy
32. The English unit “slug” is a unit of _______.
a. Mass b. weight c. force d. energy
33. How is sound intensity measure?
a. In beats b. in decibels c. in phons d. in sones
34. What refers to the time interval between successive appearances of the Sun at the highest point it reaches in the
sky each day?
a. Lunar day b. standard day c. solar day d. sidereal day
35. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?
a. Single vector b. unit vector c. Dot vector d. scalar vector
36. What is the purpose of a unit vector?
a. to describe the direction in space.
b. To indicate a magnitude without references to direction
c. To serve a comparison with other vectors
d. To set a standard among vector
37. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors?
a. Cross product b. vector product c. Dot product d. plus product
38. What is another term for vector product of two vectors?
a. Cross product b. vector product c. Dot product d. plus product
39. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always _______.
a. Equal o 1 b. greater than 1 c. less than 1 d. equal to zero
40. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors is always ___________.
a. Equal to 1`` b. greater than 1 c. less than 1 d. equal to zero
41. The vector product of any vector with itself is __________.
a. Equal to 1 b. greater than 1 c. less than 1 d. equal to zero
42. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number ad unit or physical quantities that
have magnitudes only?
a. Scalar quantities b. vector product c. Dot product d. vector quantities
43. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a direction?
a. Scalar quantities b. vector product c. Dot product d. vector quantities
44. Which is NOT a vector quantity?
a. Displacement b. velocity c. acceleration d. time
45. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?
a. Length b. mass c. volume d. time
46. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector quantity and whose direction
is that of the quantity?
a. Vector diagram b. vector c. component d. resultant
47. What is a scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities involved in the motion of a
body?
a. Vector diagram b. vector c. component d. resultant
48. In physics, motion is categorized as _______.
a. Translational and rotational c. translational, rotational and vibrational
 b. Translational and curvilinear d. translational, curvilinear and rotational
49. The ________ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval by the time interval.
a. Acceleration b. instantaneous speed c. average speed d. instantaneous velocity
50. The ____________ of a particle is defined as its change in position in some time interval.
a. Distance b. displacement c. speed d. acceleration
51. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as ________.
a. Acceleration b. instantaneous speed c. average speed d. instantaneous velocity
52. Which quantity is equal to the derivative of the velocity with respect to time?
a. Instantaneous velocity c. instantaneous acceleration
b. Average acceleration d. average velocity
53. Which of the following statements is NOT true about acceleration?
a. Acceleration is uniform for straight line motion
b. For circular motion, acceleration is constant in magnitude and direction.
c. Acceleration is uniform if the velocity changes by equal amount in equal time.
d. The average of acceleration cannot be used in precise calculations unless the acceleration is uniform
54. An apparatus for increasing the kinetic energies of charged particles, used for research in nuclear and particle
physics is called a/an __________.
a. Accelerator b. acceptor c. thyratron d. atwood’s machine
55. A weight-pulley system used to measure the acceleration due to gravity at Earth’s surface by measuring the net
acceleration of a set of weights of known mass around a frictionless pullet is called _________.
a. Accelersator b. pulley system c. atwood’s machine d. Newton’s machine
56. The _________ acting on an object is defined as the vector sum of all force acting on the object.
a. Net force b. gross force c. total force d. contact force
57. Which of the following is true if the net force exerted on an object is zero?
a. The acceleration is zero and the velocity is zero
b. The acceleration is zero and the velocity remains constant
c. The acceleration is zero and the velocity is variable
d. Both acceleration and velocity are variable.
58. Since forces behave as vectors, one must use the rules of _______ to obtain the net force on an object.
a. Vector addition c. vector multiplication
b. Vector subtraction d. vector division
59. “The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particle’s kinetic energy”. This
statement is known as __________.
a. Law of conservation of energy c. Law of conservation of work
b. Work-energy theorem d. Total work theorem
60. The ________ of a particle is equal to the work that particle can do i the process of being brought to rest.
a. Kinetic energy b. potential energy c. total energy d. mechanical energy
61. Work is defined as the product of:
a. Force and displacement c. displacement and time
b. Force and time d. power and time
62. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?
a. Impulse b. momentum c. power d. Work
63. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object?
a. Impulse b. force c. energy d. work
64. What is a measure of the inertia of an object?
a. Density b. weight c. mass d. force
65. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform motion?
a. Impulse b. momentum c. inertia d. equilibrium
66. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will remain in motion at
constant velocity”. This statement is the ________.
a. First law of motion c. third law of motion
b. Second law of motion d. d’ Alembert’s principle
67. “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of the object. The direction
of the force is the same as that of the acceleration”. This statement is the __________.
a. First law of motion c. third law of motion
b. Second law of motion d. d ‘Albert’s principle
68. “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a force of the same
magnitude but in the opposite direction”. This statement is the _________.
a. First law of motion c. third law of motion
b. Second law of motion d. d ‘Albert’s principle
69. Which of the following id the Newton’s first law of motion?
a. Law of impulse and momentum c. law of inertia
b. Law of acceleration d. law of reaction
70. What refers to the force with which earth attracts an object?
a. Gravitational pull c. weight
b. Mass d. all of the above
71. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contacting surfaces?
a. Action force c. friction
b. Reaction force d. drag
72. What refers to the force between to stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion between them?
a. Kinetic friction c. starting friction
b. Sliding friction d. static friction
73. What is the maximum value of the static friction?
a. Starting friction c. kinetic friction
b. Sliding friction d. dynamic friction
74. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?
a. Kinetic friction is always equal to static friction
b. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction
c. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction
d. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction
75. What is another term for kinetic friction?
a. Dynamic friction c. sliding friction
b. Starting friction d. all of the above
76. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and coefficient of kinetic
friction?
a. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
b. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
c. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction
d. Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
77. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:
a. Power output to power input c. total work done to total energy
b. Power input to power input d. total energy to total power
78. What is energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?
a. Kinetic energy c. rest energy
b. Potential energy d. mechanical energy
79. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?
a. Kinetic energy c. rest energy
b. Potential energy d. mechanical energy
80. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?
a. Kinetic energy c. rest energy
b. Potential energy d. mechanical energy
81. The negative value of the work done by gravity on the body is ________ of the body.
a. Negative gravitational energy c. net gravitational energy
b. Gravitational potential energy d. gravitational energy
82. In which of the following does sound wave travels faster?
a. Liquids b. in vacuum c. in air d. in solids
83. Considering the law of conservation of mechanical energy, which of the following is an example of non-conservative
force?
a. Compressive force c. frictional force
b. Elastic friction d. gravitational force
84. When the vector sum of the external force acting on the system of particles equals zero, the total linear momentum
of the system __________.
a. Becomes zero b. maximizes c. changes abruptly d. remains constant
85. What will happen to the kinetic energy of the body if its linear momentum is doubled?
a. It will increase four times c. it will double
b. It will decrease four times d. it will become half the value
86. Which of the following is conserved in measuring the velocity of a bullet on impact by using a ballistic pendulum?
a. Kinetic energy c. angular momentum
b. Linear momentum d. dynamic energy
87. What is conserved in an elastic collision?
a. Kinetic energy c. rest energy
b. Potential energy d. mechanical energy
88. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is:
a. True c. is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies
b. False d. is either true or false, depending on the impact of the two colliding bodies
89. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision?
a. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum
b. When the kinetic energy is conserved
c. When the tow colliding objects stick together after impact
d. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact.
90. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?
a. It is conserved c. it is gained from the loss of potential energy
b. It is lost to maximum value d. it is lost to minimum value
91. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:
a.Relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision
b.Relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision
c.Relative speed to absolute speed
d.Absolute speed to relative speed
92. What is the coefficient of restitution for perfectly elastic:
a.0 b. 1 c. less than 1 d. greater than 1
93. What is the coefficient of restitution of a perfectly inelastic collision?
a.0 b. 1 c. less than 1 d. greater than 1
94. The coefficient of restitution always applies ____.
a.The only one of the colliding objects c. jointly to the colliding objects
b.To neither of the colliding objects d. to the bigger colliding object
95. What refers to a collision between two bodies which occurs in a very infinitesimal of time during which they exert a
relatively large force on each other?
a.Elastic collision c. collision-impact
b.Explosive collision d. static collision
96. Momentum is the product of:
a.mass and time c. force and time
b.velocity and mass d. force and mass
97. “It is impossible simultaneously to determine exactly both the position of an object and its momentum, or any
quantity related to momentum”. This statement refers to ___________.
a.Uncertainly principle c. precession principle
b.Rutherford’s principle d. Thomson’s principle
98. The coefficient of restitution always applies ________.
a.To only on one of the colliding objects c. jointly to the colliding objects
b.To neither of the colliding objects d. to the bigger colliding objects
99. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a curve path?
a. Centrifugal force c. reverse-effective force
b. Centripetal force d. gravitational force
100. The centripetal force is:
a.Directed away from the center of the curvature of the path
b.Directed toward the center of the curvature of the path
c.Tangent to the curvature of the path
 d.Either directed away or toward the center of the curvature of the path
101. You swing a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular motion. You increase the length of a string to tow times
its original length. Assuming the same speed, what will happen to the force on the string?
a.The force will increase 4 times c. the force will reduce by one-fourth
b.The force will increase 2 times d. the force will reduce by one-fourth
102. You swing a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular motion. You increased the speed twice that of the
original speed. What effect does it have on the tension of the string?
a.The tension is increased eight times c. the tension remains the same
b.The tension is increased four times d. the tension is increased four times
103. Two identical satellites are orbiting the earth in circular orbits. The speed of the first satellite is four times the
speed of the second satellite. The orbital radius of the first satellite is approximately _______ of the orbital radius
of the second satellite.
a.One-fourth b. one-half c. one-eight d. one sixteenth
104. What will happen to the gravitational attraction of earth for the satellite if the distance between the orbiting
satellite and the center of the earth in increased by two times?
a.It will increase two times c. it will reduce by one-fourth
b.It will reduce to one-half d. it will increase four times
105. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion to complete an orbit?
a.Path time b. orbit time c. revolution d. period
106. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is ______ to the radius of its path.
a.Directly proportional c. equal
b.Inversely proportional d. not related in any way
107. An old phonograph with a record turning at a constant speed. Two flies are on top of the spinning record. With
one near the outer edge while the other is near the center. The centripetal acceleration of the fly near the edge is
_________ the one near the center.
a.Less than b. equal to c. greater than d. either less than or greater than
108. The rate of rotary motion is called _________.
a.Angular displacement c. angular velocity
b.Angular motion d. angular acceleration
109. What refers to the acceleration produced when a particle moves away from its center of rotation?
a.Centrifugal acceleration c. tangential acceleration
b.Coriolis d. centripetal acceleration
110. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their ___________.
a.Mass b. density c. weight d. volume
111. “Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly proportional to the product of their
masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating them”. This statement is known as:
a.Inversely as c. directly as
b.Inversely as the square of d. directly as the square of
112. What factor is necessary in order to complete the period of a satellite orbiting the Earth?
a.Shape of the orbit c. gravitational force present in the orbit
b.Centripetal force in the orbit d. radius of the orbit
113. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is ________.
a.Sometimes true c. always true
b.Sometimes false d. always true
114. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion?
a.Kinetic energy c. mechanical energy
b.Potential energy d. rest energy
115. Angular momentum is the product of____________.
a.Moment of inertia and linear speed c. moment of inertia and angular speed
b.Moment of area and angular speed d. moment of inertia and angular speed
116. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total angular momentum of
the system remains constant”. This statement is known as:
a.Conservation of energy c. conservation of linear momentum
b.Conservation of impulse d. conservation of angular momentum
117. What particles will experience tangential accelerations?
a.Those particles whose angular speed changes
 b.Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
c.All particles
d.Those particles whose angular speed is zero .
118. The ___________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is distributed about
the axis.
a.Moment of mass c. moment of inertia
b.Moment of area d. torque
119. The _________ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force and the
perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.
a.Inertia b.mass moment c. torque d. moment
120. When the forces that acts on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in _______.
a.Unstable equilibrium c. rotational equilibrium
b.Stable equilibrium d. translational equilibrium
121. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?
a.A cone balanced on its apex c. a cone its side
b.A cone balanced on its base d. a cone on the circumference of its base
122. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?
a. cone balanced on its apex c. a cone its side
b.A cone balanced on its base d. a cone on the circumference of its base
123. A device that transmits force or torque is called _________.
a.Mechanical tool c. axle
b.Machine d. wedge
124. If cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?
a.Stable equilibrium c. unstable equilibrium
b.Neutral equilibrium d. translational equilibrium
125. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in ________.
a.Unstable equilibrium c. rotational equilibrium
b.Stable equilibrium d. translational equilibrium
126. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?
a.Lever b. incline plane c. hydraulic press d. wedge
127. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?
a.It is always inside the object c. it is always at its geometric centre
b.It is always outside the object d. it may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object
128. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?
a.Density b. weight density c. relative density d. specific gravity
129. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?
a.Density b. weight density c. relative density d. specific gravit
130. The ________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?
a.Density b. weight density c. viscosity d. specific gravity
131. What is another term for specific gravity?
a.Density b. weight density c. relative density
132. What principle states that “ for a horizontal flow of fluid through a pipe, the sum of the pressure and the kinetic
energy per unit volume of the fluid is constant”?
a.Bernoulli’s principle c. Archimedes’ principle
b.Pascal’s principle d. Torricelli’s principle
133. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the fluid”. This
statement is known as:
a.Bernoulli’s energy theorem c. Archimedes principle
b.Pascal’s principle d. Torricelli’s theorem
134. “The hydrostatic pressure a fluid exerts on an immersed object or on container walls is a function only of fluid
depth.” This is known as the __________.
a.Hydrostatic paradox c. Bernoulli’s theorem
b.Pascal’s principle d. Archimedes’ principle
135. “The buoyant force of a body immersed in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.” This statement is
known as _________.
a.Hydrostatic paradox c. Bernoulli’s theorem
b.Archimedes’ principle d. Pascal’s principle
136. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
a.Bernoulli’s energy theorem c. Archimedes principle
b.Pascal’s principle d. Reynolds’s principle
137. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
a.Bernoulli’s energy theorem c. Archimedes principle
b.Pascal’s principle d. Reynolds’s principle
138. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure ______________.
a.Pressure of liquid c. Reynolds’s density
b.Density of liquid d. viscosity of liquid
139. What is used to determine the type of flow of a liquid?
a.Reynolds’s number c. froude’s number
b.Kutter’s number d. Bernoulli’s number
140. Reynolds’s number is the ratio of __________ to ________ in a liquid.
a.Inertial force; viscous force c. Newtonian force; hydrostatic force
b.Viscous force; inertial force d. inertial force; Newtonian force
141. Which of the following most accurately describe the Newton fluids?
a.Newtonian fluids have varies values of shear strain
b.The shear stress of Newtonian fluids is proportional to strain
c.The shear stress of Newtonian fluids is proportional to the rate of strain
d.The viscosity of Newtonian fluid is zero
142. Kinematic viscosity is defined as the ratio of absolute viscosity to ________.
a.Density b. mass c. specific gravity d. specific volume
143. The viscosity force between different layers of a liquid flowing through a tube is __________.
a.Proportional to the area of the layer and the velocity gradient
b.Inversely proportional to the area of the layer and the velocity gradient
c.Inversely proportional to the area of the layer and directly proportional to the velocity gradient
d.Proportional to the area of the layer and inversely proportional to the velocity gradient
144. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its equilibrium position
is called the _____ of the motion.
a.Frequency b. oscillation c. period d. amplitude
145. The energy stored in a spring, when a stone and spring is made to oscillate in a vertical direction, neglecting
friction is maximum at _________.
a.The upper vertical extremes c. both the upper and lower vertical extremes
b.The lower vertical extremes d. both the vertical and horizontal extremes
146. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?
a.Amplitude b. frequency c. period d. oscillation
147. The period of the simple harmonic motion is ________ its amplitude.
a.Directly proportional to c. equal to
b.Inversely proportional to d. independent of
148. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body in the opposite
direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to
the magnitude of the displacement?
a.Damped harmonic motion c. simple harmonic motion
b.Pendulum d. Damped harmonic oscillation
149. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?
a.Force b. period c. frequency d. friction
150. The _____ of a privotal object is that point at which it can be struck without producing a reaction force on its
privot?
a.Center of gravity c. axis of oscillation
b.Center of oscillation d. centre of mass
151. What is longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?
a.Sound b. resonance c. wave d. beat
152. Sound interference is needed to produce what phenomenon?
a.Echo b. resonance c. beat d. reverberation
153. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system at a frequency equal to one of its natural
frequencies of oscillation?
a.Beat b. resonance c. Doppler effect d. shock
154. In the study of waves, what refers to the efficient transfer of energy that takes place at a neutral frequency?
a.Beats b. echo c. Doppler’s effect d. resonance
155. The fundamental frequency of a standing wave on a string has ______ node(s) and _______ antinod(s).
a.One, one b. one, two c, two, one d. two, two
156. Two vibrating sound systems are said to be in resonance if ____________.
a.The frequency of one is an integral multiple of the other
b.Their frequencies are equal
c.Their amplitudes are equal
d.Their waveform are similar
157. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed exceeds that of
sound?
a.Shock wave b. mach wave c. beat wave d. sonic wave
158. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its source and an
observer?
a.Superposition principle c. Doppler effect
b.Shock effect d. wave motion
159. According to Doppler effect, waves emitted by moving object as received by an observer
a.Blueshifted c. blackshifted
b.Redshifted d. whiteshifted
160. According to Doppler effect. Waves emitted by moving object as received by an observer will be ______ is
recording.
a.Bkuehsifted c. blackshifted
b.Redshifted d. whiteshifted
161. Doppler effect occurs only in what phenomenon?
a.Sound c. both sound and electromagnetic
b.Electromagnetic d. sound, electromagnetic and electrostatic
162. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the direction in which the waves
travel?
a.Longitudinal waves c. wave motions
b.Transverse waves d. shock waves
163. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side, to side perpendicular to the direction
in which the waves travel?
a.Longitudinal waves c. wave motion
b.Transverse waves d. shock waves
164. “When two or more waves of the same nature travel past a given point at the same time, the amplitude at the
point is the sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves”. This statement is known as _________.
a.Mach principle c. principle of superposition
b.Doppler principle d. wave motion principle
165. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has an amplitude greater than that of either of the original
waves?
a.Local interference c. constructive interference
b.Ordinary interference d. destructive interference
166. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has an amplitude less than that of either of the original waves?
a.Local interference c. constructive interference
b.Ordinary interference d. destructive interference
167. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called _________.
a.Beats c. gain
b.Frequency d. intensity
168. What refers to the study of sound and waves?
a.Sound science c. wave science
b.Acoustics d. spectrum science
169. Which of the following about the speed of sound is correct?
a.The speed of sound in moist air is greater than in dry air
b.The speed of sound increases with the increase of the gas density
c.The speed of sound increases with the density of the medium.
d.The speed of sound decreases with increasing temperature
170. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _______.
a.Wave factor c. sonic number
b.Supersonic number d. mach number
171. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant”. This statement is known as ________.
a.Principle of conservation of attraction c. Couomb’s law
b.Principle of conservation of charge d. principle of superconductivity
172. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of the charges and
inversely proportional to the square of distance between them”. This statement is known as ________.
a.Coulomb’s law c. Lenz’s law
b.Kirchhoff’s law d. Faraday’s law
173. What states that the line integral of the magnetic flux around a closed curve is proportional to the algebraic sum
of electric currents flowing that closed curve?
a.Joule’s law c. Kirchhoff’s law
b.Ampere’s law d. Faraday’s law
174. What law describes the contributions to a magnetic field by an electric current and is analogous to coulomb’s
law?
a.Balmer’s law c. Ampere’s law
b.Biot-savart law d. Faraday’s law
175. What law states that the amount of chemical change during electrolysis is proportional to the charge passed?
a.Faradays first law of electrolysis c. faradays first law of electromagnetic induction
b.Faradays second law of electrolysis d. faradays second law of electromagnetic induction
176. What law states that the charge required to deposits or liberates a mass is proportional to the charge of the ion,
the mass and inversely proportional to the relative ionic mass?
a.Faradays first law of electrolysis c. faradays first law of electromagnetic induction
b.Faradays second law of electrolysis d. faradays second law of electromagnetic induction
177. “The sense of induced electromotive force depends on the direction of the of the rate of change of the field.”
This is known as _____.
a.Faradays first law of electrolysis c. faradays first law of electromagnetic induction
b.Faradays second law of electrolysis d. faradays third law of electromagnetic induction
178. “The magnitude of the electromotive force is proportional to the rate of change of the field.” This is known as
_____.
a.Faradays first law of electrolysis c. faradays first law of electromagnetic induction
b.Faradays second law of electrolysis d. faradays third law of electromagnetic induction
179. An electromotive force is induced in a conductor when the magnetic field surrounding it changes .” this
statement is known as ______.
a.Faradays first law of electrolysis c. faradays first law of electromagnetic induction
b.Faradays second law of electrolysis d. faradays third law of electromagnetic induction
180. What law of states that the flux through a closed surface is proportional to the algebraic sum of electric charges
contained within that closed surface?
a.Faradays law c. Gauss’ law
b.Coulomb’s law d. Maxwell’s law
181. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object would experience a force?
a.Energy field c. magnetic field
b.Electric field d. force field
182. The _______ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume associated with it.
a.Capacitance c. energy density
b.Polar energy d. dielectric constant
183. What is the unit for electric field strength?
a.Newton-meter2 per coulomb c. Newton per coulomb
b.Newton-meter per coulomb d. Newton per volt
184. What is the ratio between the charges on either plates of a capacitor and the potential difference between the
plates?
a.Resistance c. capacitance
b.Inductance d. potential difference
185. What refers to the measure of how effective a material is in reducing an electric field set up across a sample of
it?
a.Electronegativity c. dielectric constant
b.Potential difference d. energy density
186. Which of the following has the highest dielectric constant at room temperature?
a.Porcelain c. transformer oil
b.Teflon d. natural rubber
187. Which of the following materials has the largest electrical resistivity at moon temperature?
a. Aluminum b. iron c. platinum d. tungsten
188. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of electric energy when it s not connected
to any external circuit is called its _________.
a.Electromechanical force c. electromotive force
b.Electrostatic force d. internal resistance
189. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?
a.Luminous intensity c. luminous flux
b.Illumination d. lumen
190. What refers to the brightness of a light source?
a.Luminous intensity c. luminous flux
b.Illumination d. luminous efficiency
191. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of platinum at its melting point?
a.Footcandle b. candela c. lux d. lumen
192. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source?
a.Luminous intensity c. luminous efficiency
b.Luminous flux d. illumination
193. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power input?
a.Luminous factor c. luminous intensity
b.Luminous efficiency d. illumination
194. Keeping the partial pressure of water vapour constant while increasing the temperature will cause the relative
humidity in air to ________.
a.Stabilize c. decrease its value
b.Reach its saturation point d. increase its value
195. What is another name for grease-spot photometer?
a.Photo-electric photometer c. Bunsen photometer
b.Joule photometer d. spherical photometer
196. What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light when it is excited by
an ultraviolet radiation?
a.mercury b. inert gas c. phosphor d. argon
197. What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a particular medium?
a.Index of reflection c. index of dispersion
b.Total internal reflection d. Index of refraction
198. What refers to the ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the speeds
of light in the two media”. This statement is known as ___.
a.Huygen’s principle c. maxwell’s law
b.Snell’s law d. Dopper’s effect
199. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the surface between the two
media. What is this phenomenon called?
a.Dispersion c. refraction
b.Reflection d. incidence
200. “Every point on wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets that spread out in all directions
with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any time is the envelope of these wavelets”. This statement
is known as _____.
a.Huygen’s principle c. maxwell’s law
b.Snell’s law d. Dopper’s effect
201. Which one states that each point on a wavefront maybe regarded as a new source of disturbance?
a.Foucault’s theory c. Newton’s wave theory
b.Huygen’s principle d. Hertz’s theory of wave motion
202. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source are in the same phase of
oscillation?
a.Gamma ray b. wavefront c. electromagnetic wave d. microwave
203. what refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into a corresponding
number of different beams when it is refracted?
a.Flux b. refraction c. reflection d. dispersion
204. what refers to the hand of colors that emerges from the prism?
a.Spectrum b. luminance c. facet d. reflection
205. what type of deviates parallel light outward as though it originated at a single virtual focal point?
a.Magnifying lens c. divergent lens
b.Convergent lens d. microscopic lens
206. what type of lens brings parallel light to a single real focal point?
a.Magnifying lens c. divergent lens
b.Convergent lens d. microscopic lens
207. what is a defect of version caused by the cornea having different curvatures in different planes?
a.Astigmatism c. hyperopia
b.Myopia d. presbyopia
208. in telescope, what refers to the ratio between the angle subtended at the eye by the image and the angle
subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?
a.Magnifying power c. angular magnification
b.Linear magnification d. object magnification
209. what is expected nature of the image if the distance of the object from the lens is beyond two times the focal
length when using concave lens?
a.Vertical but inverted c. vertical and upright
b.Real, diminished in size and inverted d. real and enlarge
210. what type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges parallel light to a single real focal point?
a.Convex mirror c. spherical mirror
b.Concave mirror d. chromatic mirror
211. what type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges parallel light as though the reflected
light come from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?
a.Convex mirror c. spherical mirror
b.Concave mirror d. chromatic mirror
212. in which of the following mirrors is the image always vertical and erect?
a.Concave-spherical mirror c. magnifying mirror
b.Convex-spherical mirror d. diverging mirror
213. what refers to the apparent change in position of a light-emitting object due to the constancy of the speed of
light and the motion of the observer relative to the emitter?
a.Illusion b. aberration c. absorption d. absorptance
214. not all rays parallel the principal axis of a spherical mirror are reflected to a single focus. They rays fartherfrom
the axis are reflected to cross the axis nearer to the mirror than those close to the axis. What do you call this
imperfection?
a. Optical illusion b. optical aberration c. spherical aberration d. spherical error
215. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a compound microscope that uses two lenses, namely the
eyepiece and the objective lens?
a. The focal length of the eyepiece is greater than the objective.
b. Sometimes, the focal lengths of the eyepiece and the objective are equal
c. Depending on the intent usage, focal length of the objective is made greater than the eyepiece.
d. The focal length of the eyepiece is shorter than the objective
216. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits light with only a single plane of
polarization?
a. Quartz b. fiber optic c. Polaroid d. tourmaline
217. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby objects?
a. Coherent power b. brewster’s power c. polarization power d. resolving power
218. The resolving power of an optical system is ______ the objective lens of the optical system?
a. Directly proportional c. inversely proportional
 b. Equal d. not related to
219. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in the paths?
a. Coherence b. reflection c. refraction d. diffraction
220. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the interference of light that is
diffracted?
a. Diffraction grating c. coherent waves
b. Polarization d. reflection
221. The polarization behaviour of light is best explained by considering light to be a______.
a. Charged particle c. transverse wave
b. Longitudinal wave d. either transverse wave or longitudinal wave
222. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called _______.
a. Absorption effect b. spectrum emission c. quantum effect d. photoelectric effect
223. What refers to the wavelength of a particle given as the ratio of Plancks’ constant to momentum?
a. Huygen wavelength c. De Broglie wavelength
b. Thompson wavelength d. Doppler wavelength
224. What are the high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on matter?
a. Beta rays b. Alpha rays c. X-rays d. De Broglie waves
225. What is the wavelength range of x-rays in the electromagnetic spectrum?
a. 1 pm – 1nm b. 1 nm – 500 nm c. 1 pm – 500nm d. 1 pm – 10 nm
226. What refers to the substance that results when you heat a gas to a very high temperature, consisting now of
mixture of electrons and positive ions?
a. Liquefied gas b. quanta c. plasma d. quark
227. The fundamental particles that make up matter are divided into two groups namely the particle of matter and
the particle that transmit forces. What do the particles of matter called?
a. Cations b. anions c. fermions d. quark
228. What refers to the increase in the measures mass of an object when it is moving relative to an observer?
a. Exclusion principle b. quantum theory of mass c. state of mass d. relativity of mass
229. The allowed discrete energy levels that bound particles may occupy is called ______ energies.
a. Quantum b. state c. photon d. fermion
230. What is a set of numbers that describes the quantum state of a particle, such as an electron in an atom?
a. Fermi number b. quantum number c. state number d. dirac number
231. What refers to a particular state of electron that may be described by a set of quantum numbers?
a. Quantum state b. Fermi-Dirac state c. Dirac state d. Fermi state
232. What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of light?
a. Spectral device b. prism c. fiber optic d. laser
233. What refers to the spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid or gas?
a. Light spectrum b. dispersed spectrum c. excited spectrum d. emission spectrum
234. What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance?
a. Excited spectrum b. light spectrum c. absorption spectrum d. emission spectrum
235. What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance when white light is passed through it?
a. Excited spectrum b. light spectrum c. absorption spectrum d. emission spectrum
236. What is the range of wavelengths of light visible to human eye?
a. 4000 angstrom to 9000 angstrom c. 4000 angstrom to 7000 angstrom
b. 4000 angstrom to 8000 angstrom d. 4000 angstrom to 6000 angstrom
237. Which law expresses the relationship between heat of body and wavelength?
a. Boltzmann’s law b. Wien’s law c. Doppler’s law d. Huygen’s law
238. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its ______.
a. Spin b. shell c. state d. quantum number
239. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called
a. Focal index b. focal factor c. focal length d. all of the above
240. What does LASER stands for?
a. Light Amplification by Spectral Emission of Radiation
b. Light Amplification by State Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of radiation
d. Light Amplification by saturated Emission of radiation
241. A free falling body is acted upon by which of the following?
 a. Weight of the body c. Gravitational pull
b. Air resistance and gravitational pull d. air resistance
242. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body continues to fall at a constant velocity. What
is this constant velocity called?
a. Instantaneous velocity c. gravitational velocity
b. Free-falling velocity d. terminal velocity
243. The first law of motion is also known as _____.
a. Law of acceleration c. law of interaction
b. Law of inertia d. law of momentum
244. The second law of motion is also known as _______.
a. Law of acceleration c. law of interaction
b. Law of inertia d. law of momentum
245. The third of law of motion is also known as _______.
a. Law of acceleration c. law of interaction
b. Law of inertia d. law of momentum
246. Air exerts a force that is opposite to the car’s motion. What is this force called?
a. Reverse effective force c. drag force
b. Terminal force d. aerodynamic force
247. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human being?
a. Stropomanometer c. electromanometer
b. Pumpmanometer d. sphygmomanometer
248. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves, and X-rays have in common?
a. These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell
b. These do not need a medium to travel in
c. These waves are all mechanical waves
d. These waves are all serendipitous discoveries
249. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865?
a. Roentgen b. Maxwell c. Tesla d. Doppler
250. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound?
a. Intensity b. loudness c. pitch d. sone
251. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound wave?
a. Intensity b. loudness c. pitch d. sone
252. How can loudness of sound be increased?
a. By increasing the energy of sound
b. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions
c. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end.
d. All of the choices
253. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound vibrations?
a. Timbre b. loudness c. intensity d. pitch
254. The “Doppler Effect” is named after which scientist?
a. Christopher Jacques Doppler c. Christian Jacques Doppler
b. Christopher Jason Doppler d. Christian Johann Doppler
255. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is high. He is referring to ______.
a. The intensity of the voice
b. The number of sound waves you are sending out per second
c. The loudness of your voice
d. The quality of your voice
256. At what density level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment?
a. Above 50 dB b. above 100 dB c. above 120 dB d. above 150 dB
257. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air?
a. Because water has greater density than air.
b. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air
c. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air
d. Because water has more in volume than air
258. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a wave are both reduced to one-half?
a. It will double b. it will reduce in half c. it will quadruple d. it will remain the same
259. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a. A high-frequency sound has high pitch. c. a high-frequency sound has low energy
b. A high-frequency sound has low pitch d. a high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy
260. What part of human ear where sound energy is converted into electrical energy?
a. Ear drum b. cochlea c. tympanum d. ear canal
261. In which medium do sound waves travel the fastest?
a. Liquids b. solids c. gases d. vacuum
262. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature and that they travel at the
same sped and exhibit the same properties such as refraction, reflection and interference?
a. Townes b. Maxwell c. Hertz d. Huygens
263. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band?
a. Blue b. Indigo c. Green d. Yellow
264. What colour has the longest wavelength?
a. Red b. orange c. yellow d. green
265. What colour has the shortest wavelength?
a. Indigo b. violet c. blue d. green
266. What constant describes the relationship between temperature and kinetic energy for molecules of ideal gas?
a. Planck constant c. biot constant
b. Balmer constant d. Boltzmann constant
267. What is the wavelength band of orange?
a. 550 nm- 600 nm c. 600 nm – 650 nm
b. 650 nm – 700 nm d. 500 nm – 550 nm
268. What is the wavelength band in manometer of visible light?
a. 350 – 700 b. 350 – 800 c. 300 – 700 d. 300 – 800
269. What refers to the particle –like packet of thermal radiation?
a. Photon b. quanta c. muon d. lepton
270. Using E as energy in photon and h as the Planck’s constant, what equation is used to determine the frequency of
a particular colour of light?
a. h/E b. Eh c. E/h d.Eh/2
271. What refers to the electric charge carried by one mole of electron or singly- ionized ions?
a. Boltzmann constant c. De Broglie constant
b. Faraday constant d. Helmholtz constant
272. Faraday constant is the product of the absolute value of the charge on an electron and the ______
a. Avogadro constant b. Boltzmann constant c. De Broglie constant d. Faraday constant
273. What relation is use to measure photons, the energy of the particle of light?
a. Einstein’s relation c. De Broglie’s relation
b. Helmholtz’s relation d. Planck’s relation
274. What term is used to describe the angular opening of a sphere that encloses the mirror?
a. Angle of curvature c. Aperture
b. Focal point d. vertex
275. What makes the sun visible even before it is in line with the horizon?
a. Diffraction c. Refrection
b. Reflection d. Diffusion
276. When the white is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying degrees and are dispersed
into different colors. Which of these colors bends most?
a. Violet b. red c. orange d. green
277. When the white light passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying degrees are dispersed into
different colors. Which of these colors bends the least?
 a. Violet b. red c. orange d. green
278. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to_________.
a. Diffraction b. reflection c. refraction d. diffusion
279. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of the different colors?
a. Chromatic diffraction c. chromatic aberration
b. Chromatic polarization d. chromatic dispersion
280. What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength?
a. Color b. shape c. size d. density
281. What is diffraction?
a. it is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction
b. it is the separation of white light into its component colors.
c. It is the merging of component colors into white light
d. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere
282. What is dispersion?
a. it is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction
b. it is the separation of white light into its component colors.
c. It is the merging of component colors into white light
d. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere
283. What are primary colors?
a. Blue, Red and White c. Colors which then combined produce white light
b. Light colors d. Blue, Red and Green
284. What device use to measure atmospheric pressure and is consists of a glass tube scaled at one end and filled
with mercury and a slide with a vernier scale?
a. Bourdon gage c. mercury barometer
b. Aneroid barometer d. manometer
285. A wave that needs a material medium through which it can travel as it transfer energy?
a. Electromagnetic wave c. microwave
b. Radiowave d. mechanical wave
286. What refers to the band of colors produced when sunlight passes through a prism?
a. Light spectrum c. white spectrum
b. Solar spectrum d. visible spectrum
287. What refers to the property of sum media to transmit light wave in a diffused matter to make objects behind
them undistinguishable?
a. Lucidity b. limpidity c. transparent d. translucent
288. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the visible violet wave but longer than the
Roentgen ray?
a. Beta ray b. ultraviolet rays c. Alpha ray d. X-ray
289. What refers to the part of the shadow from which all light excluded?
a. Footprint b. Lumbra c. Umbra d. Sunspot
290. The range of the projectile is:
a. Directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration
b. Directly proportional to the square of the velocity
c. Directly proportional to the velocity
 d. Inversely proportional to the velocity
291. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling towards the surface of the Earth has a velocity that is ______________.
a. Dependent on the weight of the object c. decreasing
b. Decreasing d. constant
292. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air?
a. Hydrometer b. hygrometer c. Lactometer d. Radiometer
293. “The radius vector drawn from the sun to the planet sweeps out equal areas in interval of time”. This statement
is known as __________.
a. Kepler’s first law of planetary motion c. Kepler’s third law of planetary motion
b. Kepler’s second law of planetary motion d. law of universal gravitation
294. “The planets revolve around the earth in elliptical orbits, the sun being one of the foci of the ellipse”. This
statement is known as _________.
a. Kepler’s first law of planetary motion c. Kepler’s third law of planetary motion
b. Kepler’s second law of planetary motion d. law of universal gravitation
295. “The ratio of the square of the time required by a planet to complete one revolution about the sun to the cube
of the distance of the planet to the sun is the same for all planets in the solar system”. This is known as ________.
a. Kepler’s first law of planetary motion c. Kepler’s third law of planetary motion
b. Kepler’s second law of planetary motion d. law of universal gravitation
296. Kepler’s second law of motion is based on which of the following?
a. Law of universal gravitational c. theory of relatively
b. Law of conservation of angular momentum d. law of conservation of energy
297. According to Kepler’s laws planetary motion, what parameter of the planet will always remain constant?
a. Gravitation force c. angular momentum
b. Gravitational resistance d. centrifugal force
298. Kepler’s third law states that the period of a planet’s motion and its distance from the sun as ______.
a. Radius squared divided by the period squared equals a constant
b. Radius raised to the 3rd power divided by period raised to the 3rd power equals a constant
c. Radius raise to the 3rd power over the period squared equals to a constant
d. Radius raised to the 4th power divided by period raised to the 3rd power is constant
299. According to Kepler’s law of planetary motion, if “t” is the time required by a planet to complete one revolution
about the Sun, and “R” is the distance of the planet from the Sun, which of one below is a constant value?
a. T squares over R squared c. t raised to third power over R raised over R raised to third power
b. T squared over R raised to third power d. t raised to third power over R squared
300. Who enunciated the famous three laws of planetary motion?
a. James Kepler b Johanes Kepler c.Joseph Kepler d. Joshua Kepler
301. The velocity of projection of a body which takes it beyond the earth’s gravitational attraction is called _____ of
the body.
a. Terminal velocity c. escape velocity
b. Drag velocity d. geostationary velocity
302. Which of the following is the law of reflection?
a. The angle incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
b. The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal to the surface are all in the same plane
c. Neither A or B above
303. “The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the reflecting surface, lie in the same place.” This is known
as ___________.
a. First law of reflection c. Newton’s law of reflection
b. Huygen’s law of reflection d. second of reflection
304. The escape velocity is:
a. The same for all bodies c. inversely proportional to the gravitational constant
b. Dependent on the mass of the body d. dependent on the distance of the body from the surface of
of the earth
305. The speed of sound is _________ the density of a gas?
a. Directly proportional to c. independent of
b. Inversely proportional to d. speed of light divided by
306. The velocity of sound in air is equal to the square root of the ratio of the pressure of the gas to the density of the
medium. This equation is known as:
a. Maxwell’s formula c. Laplace formula
b. Huygen’s formula d. Newton’s formula
307. According to Newton, the velocity of sound in air is equal to the square root of the ratio of:
a. Volume of gas to density of medium c. pressure of gas to density of medium
b. Density of medium to volume of gas d. density of medium to pressure of gas
308. Indicate the FALSE statement:
a. Sound travels faster in hydrogen than nitrogen
b. Sound travels faster in low density gases
c. Speed of sound increases with the increase in temperature
d. Speed of sound in dry air is more than the speed of sound in moist air
309. The density of sound is _________ the pressure of gass.
a. Directly proportional to c. independent of
b. Inversely proportional to d. the speed of light divided by
310. The _______ of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the source.
a. Luminous emittance b. luminous intensity
b. Luminous efficiency d. illumination
311. Brightness is the same as _______.
a. Luminous emittance c. luminous intensity
b. Luminous efficiency d. illumination
312. What refers to the ratio of the radiant or luminous flux absorbed by a body to a flux falling on it?
a. Luminous emittance c. luminous absorption
b. Absorptance d. black body
313. What is a monochromatic light?
a. light with only one color c. light with only one color and one wavelength
b. light with only one wavelength d. light with many colors
314. what is three dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad band of coherent light?
a. Hologram b. polygram c. Opaque image d. translucent image
315. In opaque material,
a. Light is able to pass through
b. The refracted energy is absorbed within every thin layer and converted t heat
 c. Light is partially absorbed
d. The refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
316. In translucent material,
a. Light is able to pass through
b. The refracted energy is absorbed within every thin layer and converted t heat
c. Light is partially absorbed
d. The refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
317. In transparent material.,
a. Light is able to pass through
b. The refracted energy is absorbed within every thin layer and converted t heat
c. Light is partially absorbed
d. The refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
318. What refers to the property of transparent material which is an inverse measure of the speed of light through
the material?
a. Optical density b. optical wavelength c. optical frequency d. optical index
319. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is known as ________.
a. Index of refraction c. relative index of refraction
b. Index of diffraction d. index of diffusion
320. What occurs when tow waves combine so that one subtracts from the other?
a. Interference b. superposition c. reinforcement d. polarization
321. What type of waves is produced in the stem when a tuning fork vibrates?
a. Transverse wave c. neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave
b. Longitudinal wave d. both transverse wave and longitudinal wave
322. The moment of inertia of an object on which of the following?
a. The object’s size and shape c. the location of the axis of rotation
b. The object’s of mass d. all of the above
323. Which of the following statements about center of gravity is TRUE?
a. It may be outside the object c. it is always in the interior of the object
b. It is always at its geometrical centre d. it is sometimes arbitrary
324. What refers to two colors which combine to form white light?
a. Complementary colors c. primary colors
b. Secondary colors d. elementary colors
325. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated wavelength is called ________.
a. Visible spectrum c. emission spectrum
b. Continuous spectrum d. discontinuous spectrum
326. Mechanical energy is conserved provided that __________ work is done by nonconservative forces.
a. Either positive or negative c. no negative
b. No positive d. no net
327. When sunlight passes through a slit and is dispersed by a prism, there occur superimposed on the continuous
band of colors, a number of sharp dark lines that correspond to individual image of the slit. What do you call these
lines?
a. Prismatic lines b. chromatic lines c. Fraunhofer lines d. spectrum lines
328. The six colors of which sunlight is composed are called __________.
 a. Secondary colors b. primary colors c. complementary colors d. elementary colors
329. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid and gas is called__________.
a. Visible spectrum c. emission spectrum
b. Continuous spectrum d. discontinuous spectrum
330. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom?
a. Drag force b. bind force c. exchange force d. intact force
331. The “f” number of the lens is the ratio of the:
a. Focal length of the lens to the effective aperture
b. Effective aperture to the focal length of the lens
c. Magnifying power of lens to effective aperture
d. Effective aperture to magnifying power of lens
332. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number of radioactive nuclei will disintegrate?
a. Active life b. half cycle c. half life d. half period
333. What is defined as the spontaneous uncontrollable disintegration of the nucleus of an atom with the emission of
particles and rays?
a. Nuclear integration b. fusion c. fission d. radioactivity
334. An isotope is said to be “radioactive” if its atomic number is ___________.
a. Between 60 and 63 c. greater than 83
b. Less than 60 d. between 53 and 73
335. What refers to the number of disintegration per second which occur in a radioactive source?
a. Life cycle b. activity c. radioactivity d. radiation
336. What is the SI unit of activity?
a. Rem b. Becquerel c. curie d. Rad
337. What is the SI unit of biological equivalent dose?
a. Sievert b. Curie c. Rem d. Becquerel
338. What refers to a measure of radiation that considers the biological effect resulting from the radiation?
a. Rem b. Roentgen c. Curie d. Rad
339. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source?
a. Treble b. bass c. octave d. fundamental
340. What is an electromagnetic radiation of every short wavelength emitted from the nucleus of an radioactive
atom?
a. Beta ray b. Alpha ray c. Gamma ray d. X-ray
341. What is an instrument used to detect and measure radioactivity?
a. Edison counter b. radioactive counter c. Fraunhofer counter d. Geiger counter
342. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose frequencies are whole number multiplies of the
fundamentals?
a. Harmony b. beats c. treble and bass d. harmonics
343. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having wavelengths characteristics of the atoms parent is
called ________.
a. Line spectrum b. continuous spectrum c. slit spectrum d. image spectrum
344. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of atomic particles?
a. Mass indicator c. mass counter
b. Mass spectrograph d. mass technograph
345. Which of the following is the fundamental atomic constant?
a. Velocity of light c. Planck’s constant
b. Mass and charge of electron d. all of the above
346. What is a nucleon?
a. A proton in the nucleus of an atom c. a neutron in the nucleus of an atom
b. An electron in the nucleus of an atom d. a proton or a neutron of an atom
347. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids?
a. Beaker b. flask c. pycnometer d. graduated cylinder
348. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the plane of polarized light?
a. Polariscope b. polarimeter c. polargraph d. polargram
349. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the number of harmonics present and on their
prominence?
a. Pitch b. quality c. harmonic d. fundamental
350. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be stimulated?
a. Retinal failure b. retinal fatigue c. pupil imperfection d. astigmatism
351. The theory that the retinal of the eye is provided with three sets of receptors, each of which is sensitive to one
of the three primary colors is known as __________.
a. True color vision theory c. primary vision theory
b. Young-Helholtz color vision theory d. Young-Huygens primary vision theory
352. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by abundant data?
a. Theory b. hypothesis c. axiom d. conclusion
353. A thoroughly tested model that explains why experiments give certain results is a _____________.
a. Scientific observation b. scientific law c. theory d. hypothesis
354. A tempered scale is a musical scale with ________ equal frequency ratio intervals between the successive notes
of an octave.
a. 9 b. 10 c. 12 d. 11
355. What is a unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light which assumes that the transfer of
energy between light and matter occurs only in discrete quantities proportional to the frequency of the energy
transferred?
a. Quantum theory c. nuclear theory
b. Radioactive theory d. quark theory
356. What refers to a quantum-mechanic principle with the consequence that the position and momentum of an
object cannot be precisely determined?
a. Heisenberg uncertainly principle c. Helmholtz uncertainly principle
b. Bose uncertainly principle d. Huygen’s uncertainly principle
357. the Heisenberg uncertainly principle is used to determine the ________.
a. Total number of electrons
b. Number of orbiting electrons in each orbit
c. Number of electronegative in each orbit
d. Size of the atom
358. According to the Plate Tectonic Theory, the spreading of sea floor takes place at what boundary?
a. Convergent boundary c. fault boundary
b. Divergent boundary d. base boundary
359. The time is 2:00 P.M what des P.M mean?
a. Post midnight b. post morning c. after the meridian d. before the meridian
360. The time is 8:00 A.M what does A.M mean?
a. Post midnight b. post morning c. after the meridian d. before the meridian
361. How many times a year will the sun appears directly above the equator?
a. Once b. twice c. four times d. twelve times
362. The expansion or collapse of the universe into another “big bang” is dependent on the _______.
a. Density of matter in the universe c. age of galaxies
b. Presence of number of black holes d. all of the above
363. The mass of nucleus is always less than the combined mass of its constituent particles by an amount called
_______ which is equivalent the nuclear binding energy.
a. Point defect b. mass defect c. volume defect d. weight defect
364. An increase in temperature of a reaction will result to an increase in the
a. Kinetic energy of the molecules c. number of collisions
b. Activation energy d. all of the above
365. In nuclear physics, most of the energy liberated during fission appears
a. As kinetic energy of the emitted neutrons
b. As alpha rays
c. As kinetic energy of the fission fragments
d. As gamma rays
366. what will happen if a convex lens is immersed in a liquid whose refractive index is greater than that of glass?
a. It will act like a magnifying glass c. it will act like a convergent lens
b. It will act like a spherical lens d. it will act like a divergent lens
367. For particles falling slowly through a viscous fluid, the differential equation of motion and its solution are
derived from ___________,.
a. Reynold’s theorem c. Newton’s first law
b. Bernoulli’s theorem d. Newrton’s second law
368. A satellite moving around the earth with uniform speed has_________,
a. Variable acceleration c. uniform acceleration
b. Zero acceleration d. increasing acceleration
369. Which of the following quantities will not change when the amplitude of a system moving in simple harmonic
motion is increased to twice its original value?
a. Potential energy c. maximum acceleration
b. Kinetic energy d. period
370. The total mechanical energy of an object is proportional to the _________.
a. Speed of the object c. mass the object
b. Square of the speed of the object d. height of the object
371. What is a natural unit for electron magnetic dipole moment used in atomic physics?
a. Rutherford magneton c. Bohr magneton
b. Einstein magneton d. Gauss magneton
372. What refers to the effect that is due to the enhancement of a spark-discharge caused by passing ultraviolet light
to promote ionization?
a. Hertz effect b. luminous effect c. sparking effect d. ultraviolet effect
373. What will happen to the kinetic energy of the body if you increase the speed of the body two times?
a. It will reduce to half c. it will double
b. It will increase four times d. it will reduce to one-fourth
374. Which if the following lenses resembles that of a binocular?
a. Galilean telescope c. astronomical telescope
b. Terrestrial telescope d. all of the above
375. What do you call the part of the human ear that connects sound energy into electrical energy and sends to the
brain as nerve pulses?
a. Ear follicles b. ear drum c. tympanic membrane d. cochlea
376. In capillarity, what is expected to happen when the adhesive force is greater than the cohesive force?
a. The liquid flows slowly c. the liquid tends to stick to the solid
b. The liquid flows freely d. all of the above