XII Numericals and MCQs

Chapter # 11
Heat, Temperature and Thermal Expansion:

i. A metre bar of steel is correct at 0oC and another at -2.5oC what will be the difference between their lengths at
30oC? (for steel 𝛼 = 1.1 × 10−5 oC-1). (1995)Ans: 2.75x10-5m
ii. A glass flask is filled to the mark with 60cm of mercury at 20 C. if the flask and its content are heated at 40oC, how
3 o
much mercury will be above the mark? 𝛼for glass = 9x10-6/oC and 𝛽 for mercury = 182x10-6/oC.(1997)Ans:0.186cm3
iii. A cylinder of diameter 1cm at 30oC is to be slide into a hole in a steel plate. The hole has a diameter of 0.99970 cm
at 30oC. To what temperature must the plate be heated? 𝛼 = 1.1 × 10−5 oC-1. (2002)Pre EngAns: 57.28oC
iv. A brass ring of 20cm diameter is to be mounted on a metal rod of 20.02cm diameter at 20 oC. To what temperature
should the ring be heated? (𝛼brass=19x10-6oC-1). (2005)Ans: 72.63oC
v. Find the change in volume of a brass sphere of 0.6m diameter when it is heated from 30 C to 100oC?
o
(𝛼=19x10-6oC-1). (2006)Ans: 4.5x10-4m3

o
vi. A Celsius thermometer in a laboratory reads surrounding temperature as 30 C, what is the temperature on
Fahrenheit and Absolute scale? (2006)Ans: 86oF, 303K
o o
vii. A steel bar is 10cm in length at -2.5 C. what will be the change in its length when it is at 25 C?
(𝛽for steel = 3.3x10-5 K-1). (2008)Ans: 3.025x10-3m
viii. Find the change in volume of an aluminum sphere 0f 0.4m radius when it is heated from 0 to 100 oC.
(𝛼=2.4x10-5K-1) (2019) Ans: 0.0019m3
Gas Laws and General Gas Equation:
i. One gram mole of a gas occupies a volume of 24.93m3 at a pressure of 500N/m2. Find the temperature of the gas
in centigrade. (1991)Ans: 1226.27oc
ii. A tank contains 20.0 liters of air at 30oC and 5.01x105N/m2 pressure. What is the mass of air and what volume will
it occupy at one atmospheric pressure at 0oC? the average molecular mass of air is 28.8 gmole-1.
(1993)Ans: 0.1145kg, 89.38liters
iii. Calculate the volume occupied by a gram mole of gas at 10oC and pressure of one atmospheric. (2000)Ans:0.023m3
iv. An air storage tank whose volume is 110liters contains 2Kg of air at a pressure of 15atm. How much air would have
to force into the tank to increased the pressure to 18atm, assuming no change in temperature.
(2003)Pre MedAns: 0.4Kg
v. A scientist stores 22gm of a gas in a tank at 1200 atmospheres. Overnight the tank developed slightly leakage and
the pressure drops to 950 atmospheres. Calculate the mass of the gas escaped. (2009)Ans: 4.58gm
Kinetic Molecular theory of Gases:
i. At a certain temperature the average kinetic energy of hydrogen molecule is 6.2x10 -21J, the mass of the hydrogen
molecule is 3.1x10-27Kg. Find a) The temperature and b) RMS speed. (1990)Ans: 299.5K, 2x103m/s
o
ii. Find the rms speed of nitrogen molecules at 27 C. given the mass of nitrogen molecules to be 4.67x10-26Kg,
K=1.38x10-23Joules/K. (1996)Ans: 515.71m/s
o
iii. Find the root mean square velocity of a hydrogen molecule at 7 C. take the mass of hydrogen molecule to be
3.32x10-27Kg and Boltzmann’s constant=1.38x10-23J/K. (1998)Ans: 1868.57 m/s
o -27
iv. Find the Vrms of hydrogen molecules at 100 C. take mass of molecule 3.32x10 Kg.
(2002)Pre MedAns: 2156.66m/s
v. Calculate the density of the hydrogen gas, considering it to be an ideal gas, when the Vrms of its molecule is
1850m/s at 0oC and 1atm. (2004)Ans: 0.08853Kg/m3
vi. Calculate the density of hydrogen gas, considering it to be an ideal gas, when the V rms of its molecule is 1850m/s at
0oC and 1atm. (2007)Ans: 0.08853 Kg/m3
vii. Calculate root mean square speed of oxygen molecules at 800K. its molar mass is 32gm and universal gas constant
R=8.31J/mole-K.(2014) Ans: 789.6 m/s
viii. Calculate the temperature at which the root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules is 3300m/s. give
your answer in degree Celsius (m=3.32x10-27kg) (2017) Ans: 600oC
YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

Specific heat and First law of thermodynamics:
i. 10kg of water falls through a height of 854m and all the energy is effective in heating the water. To what
temperature will the water be raised if it was initially at 20oC? (1986)Ans: 21.99oC
ii. A cylinder contains an ideal gas below frictionless piston in it. If the gas in the cylinder is supplied 3000J of heat and
the pistons rise by 0.35m, while the internal energy of the system increases by 400J. Calculate the work done by
the piston. (1991)Ans: 2600J
iii. The molar specific heat of a monatomic gas at constant volume is 3/2R. find its molar specific heat at constant
pressure. Also show that 𝛾 =1.66 for monatomic gases. (1993)
iv. 1200 Joules of heat energy are supplied to the system at constant pressure. The internal energy of the system is
increased by 750 joules and the volume by 4.5 cubic meters. Find the work done against piston and the pressure
on the piston. (1994)Ans: 450J, 100N/m2
v. In an isobaric process when 2000J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder, the piston moves through 0.1m
under a constant pressure 1.01x105N/m2. If the area of the piston is 5x10-2m2, calculate the work done and the
increase in the internal energy of the system. (1996)Ans: 505J, 1495J
vi. Show that for a monatomic gas Cp=5/2R, where the symbols Cp and R have their usual meanings. (1999)
vii. When 2000J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder at constant pressure of 1.01x105N/m2, piston of area
of cross section 2x10-2m2, moves through 0.5m, calculate work done and increase in internal energy.
(2000)Ans: 1010J, 990J
viii. If one mole of monatomic gas is heated at constant pressure from -30oC to 20oC, find the change in its internal
energy and the work done during the process. (2001)Ans: 625J, 415J
ix. When 2000J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder at constant pressure of 1.01x10 5N/m2, piston of area
of cross section 2x10-2m2. Moves through 0.5m, calculate work done and increase in internal energy.
(2002)Pre MedAns: 1010J, 990J
x. 1200J of heat energy are supplied to a system at constant pressure. The internal energy of the system is increased
by 750 Joules and the volume by 4.5 cubic meter, find the work done on piston and pressure on piston.
(2003)Pre EngAns:450J, 100N/m2
xi. A 100gm copper block is heated in boiling water for 10min and then it is dropped into 150gm of water at 30 oC in a
200gm calorimeter. If the temperature of water is raised to 33.6oC. determine the specific heat of the material of
the calorimeter. (Sc = 386J/Kg.K). (2005)Ans: 409.77J/KgoC
xii. In an isobaric process when 2000J of heat energy is supplied to a gas in a cylinder, the piston of area 2.0x10 -2m2
moves through 40 cm under a pressure of 1.01x105 N/m2. Calculate the increase in internal energy of the system.
(2009)Ans: 1192J
o
xiii. A 200gm piece of metal is heated to 150 C and then dropped into an aluminum calorimeter of mass 500gm,
containing 500gm of water initially at 25oC. find the final equilibrium temperature of the system if the specific heat
of metal is 128.100 J/Kg.K, specific heat of aluminum is 903 J/Kg.K, while the specific heat of water 4200 J/Kg.K.
(2011)Ans: 26.243oC
xiv. A system absorbs 1147 joules of heat, loses 233 joules of heat by conduction to the surroundings and
delivers 614 joules of work. Calculate the change in the internal energy of the system. (2018) Ans: 600J
Second Law of Thermodynamics:

i. The efficiency of a heat engine is 50%. If the temperature of the cold reservoir is 300K, find the temperature of the
hot reservoir. (1987)Ans: 600K
ii. A heat engine performs work 0.4166 watts for one hour and rejects 4500J of heat energy to the sink. What is the
efficiency of the engine? (1990)Ans: 25%
iii. A heat engine performs work at the rate of 500K.W. The efficiency of the engine is 30%. Calculate the loss of the
heat per hour. (1995)Ans: 4.2x109J
iv. A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 200K has an efficiency of 50%. It is desired to increase this
75%. By how many degrees must the temperature be decreased, If higher temperature of the reservoir remains
constant? (1997)Ans: 100K

v. 540 calories of heat is required to vaporize 1gm of water at 100oC. Determine the entropy change involved in
vaporizing 5gm of water. (1 calori = 4.2Joules) (1998)Ans: 30.40J/K
vi. Find the efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 100 oC and 50oC. (1999)Ans: 13.4%
o o
vii. An ideal heat engine operate in Carnot’s cycle between temperature 227 C and 127 C and it absorbs 600 Joules of
heat energy, find the a) work done per cycle b) efficiency of the engine. (2002)Pre Med Ans: 120J, 20%
viii. A heat engine performs 1000J of work and at the same time rejects 4000J of heat energy to cold reservoir. What is
the efficiency of the engine if the difference in the temperature between sink and source of this engine is 75oC,
find temperature of its source. (2002)Pre Eng Ans: 20%, 375k
ix. The low temperature reservoir of Carnot engine is at 5oC and has efficiency of 40%. It is desired to increase the
efficiency to 50%. By how much degrees should the temperature of hot reservoir be increased?
(2003)Pre MedAns: 92.67K
x. The low temperature reservoir of Carnot engine is at 5oC and has efficiency of 40%. It is desired to increase the
efficiency to 50%. By how much degrees should the temperature of hot reservoir be increased?
(2003)Pre EngAns: 92.67K
xi. The low temperature reservoir of Carnot engine is at -3oC and has efficiency of 40%. It is desired to increase the
efficiency to 50%. By how much degrees should the temperature of hot reservoir be increased? (2004) Ans: 90K
xii. A heat engine performs work at the rate of 500KW. The efficiency of the engine is 30%. Calculate the loss of the
heat per hour? (2007)Ans: 4.2x109J
xiii. A Carnot engine performs 2000J of work and rejects 4000J of heat to the sink. If the difference of temperature
between the source and the sink is 85oC, find the temperatures of the source and the sink? (2008)Ans: 255K, 170K
xiv. A heat engine performing 400J work in each cycle has an efficiency of 25%. How much heat is absorbed and
rejected in each cycle? (2010)Ans: 1600J, 1200J
xv. The difference of temperature between hot and a cold body is 120OC. if the heat engine is 30% efficient, find the
temperature of the hot and cold body. (2013)Ans: 400k, 280k
xvi. A heat engine performs 200J of work in each cycle and has efficiency of 30%. For each cycle of operation, a) How
much heat is absorbed? B) How much heat is expelled? (2015) Ans: 666.6 J, 466.6 J
o
xvii. The high temperature reservoir of a Carnot engine is at 200 C and has an efficiency of 35%. To increase the
efficiency to 45%, by how many degrees should the temperature of cold reservoir be decreased if the temperature
of the high temperature reservoir remains constant? (2016) Ans: 47.3 K
Chapter # 12
Electric charge, Electrostatic Force, Electric field, Electric flux and
Gauss’ Law:
i. An oil drop having a mass of 0.002kg and charge equal to 6 electron’s charge is suspended stationary in a uniform
electric field. Find the intensity of electric field. (Charge of electron = 1.6x10-19C) (1990) Ans: 2.04x1016v/m
ii. A thin sheet of positive charge attracts a light charged sphere having a charge 5x10 -6C with a force 1.69N. calculate
the surface charge density of the charged sheet. (𝜖0 =8.85x10-12C2/Nm2) (1996) Ans: 5.98x10-6C/m2
iii. Calculate the force of repulsion on +2x10-8 C charge. If it is placed before a large vertical charged plate whose
charge density is +20x10-4 Coulombs/m2. (1998)Ans: 2.26 N
iv. A charged particle of -17.7 µC is close to a positively charged thin sheet having surface charge density 2x10-8C/m2.
Find the magnitude and direction of the force acting on the charged particle. (2000)Ans: 0.02N, Towards the
thin sheet.
v. A small sphere of weight 5x10-3N is suspended by a silk thread which is attracted to a point on a large charge
insulating plane. When a charge of 6x10-8C is placed on the ball the thread makes an angle of 30o with the vertical.
Find the charge density on the plate. (2002)Pre Eng Ans:7.355x10-7C/m2
vi. An electron has a speed of 106m/s. find its energy in electron volts. (2004)Ans : 2.8125ev
vii. How many electrons should be removed from each of the two similar spheres, each of 10gm, so that electrostatic
repulsion is balanced by the gravitational force. (2006) Ans: 5.39x106

viii. How many electrons must be placed on each of the small spheres placed 3.0cm apart if the fore of repulsion
between the spheres is 10-19N? (2007) Ans: 625
ix. How many electrons should be removed from each of the two similar spheres, each of 10gm, so that electrostatic
repulsion is balanced by the gravitational force. (2010)Ans: 5.4x106
x. Two point charge of +2x10-4C and -2x10-4C are placed at a distance of 40cm from each other. A charge of +5x10-5C
is placed midway between them. What is the magnitude and direction of force on it? (2012)
Ans: 4.5x103N, Towards from q1 to q2.
xi. The surface charge density on a vertical metal plate is 25x10-6C/m2. Find the force experienced by a charge of 2x10-
10
C placed in front of close to the sheet. (𝜖𝑜 =8.85x10-12C/Nm2) (2013)Ans: 2.824x10-4N
xii. A thin infinite sheet of uniformly distributed positive charge attracts a light sphere having a charge -5x10-6C with a
force of 1.695N. Calculate the surface charge density of the sheet (𝜖𝑜 =8.85x10-12C/Nm2). (2015) Ans:
xiii. How many electrons should be removed from each of the two similar spheres, each of 10g, so that electrostatic
repulsion is balanced by the gravitational force?
(Gravitational constant = G = 6.67x10-11Nm2/Kg2 and K = 9x109Nm2/C2) (2015)Ans: 5.4x106
xiv. Two unequal charges repel each other by a force of 10 newtons when they ar 10cm apart. Find the force
which they exert on each other when they are 1cm apart. If the magnitude on one charge is -
-4 -8
4.25x10 C, find the magnitude of other. (2018) Ans: 1000N, 2.61x10 C
Potential Difference and Capacitors:

i. Calculate the potential difference between two plates when they are separated by a distance of 0.005m and are
able to hold an electron motionless between them. (Mass of electron=9.1x10-31Kg).
(1991)Ans: 2.79x10-13V
ii. Calculate the equivalent capacitance and charge on 5µF capacitors as shown in the figure. C 1=3µF C2=2µF C3=5µF
C4=4µF V=10volts (1993)Ans: 6.1µF, 15µc C2
C 1
C3
C4
V
iii. Two horizontal metallic parallel plates, separated by a distance of 0.5cm are connected with a battery of 10volts.
Find (1994)Ans: 2000V/m, 3.2x10-16N
a) The electric field intensity between the plates.
b) The force on a proton placed between the plates.
iv. Two capacitors of capacitances 400µF and 600µF are charged to the potential difference of 300volts and 400volts
respectively. They are then connected in parallel. What will be the resultant potential difference and charged on
each capacitor? (1995) Ans: 360V, 0.144C, 0.216C
v. A particle of mass 0.5g and charge 4x10-6C is held motionless between two oppositely charged horizontal metal
plates. If the distance between them is 5mm, find;
a) The electric intensity b) The potential difference between the plates. (1996)Ans: 1225V/m, 6.125V
vi. A capacitor of 200pF is charged to a P.D of 100volts. Its plates are then connected in parallel to another capacitor
and are found that the P.D between the plates falls to 60volts. What is the capacitance of the second capacitor?
(1997)Ans: `133.3pF
vii. The capacitor of 2.0 µF and 8.0 µF capacitance are connected in series and a potential difference of 200 volts is
applied. Find the charge and the potential difference for each capacitor.
(1999)Ans: 3.2x10-4C, 160V, 40V
viii. A parallel plate capacitor has the plates 10cmx10cm separated by a distance of 2.5cm. it is initially filled with air,
what be the increase in its capacitance if a dielectric slab of the same area and thickness 2.5cm is placed between
the two plates? The dielectric constant is 2. (2001)Ans: 3.54pF

ix. Find the equivalent capacitance in the given circuit and charge on each capacitor. (2002)Pre Med
C2=2.0µF
C1=6µF
C3=4µF
V= 10v Ans: 3µF, 30µC, 10µC, 20µC

-27 -19
x. A proton of mass 1.67x10 Kg and a charge of 1.6x10 C is to be held motionless between two horizontal parallel
plates 10cm apart. Find the voltage required to be applied between the plates.
(2002)Pre Eng Ans: 1.0228x10-8V
xi. A particle carrying a charge of 10 C starts from rest in a uniform electric field of intensity 50Vm-1. Find the force on
-5
the particle and the kinetic energy it acquires when it is moved 1m.
(2003)Pre MedAns: 5x10-4N, 5x10-4J
xii. A capacitor of 12 µF is charged to a potential difference of 100V. its plates are then disconnected from the source
and are connected parallel to another capacitor. The potential difference in this combination comes down to 60V
what is the capacitance of the second capacitor? (2008)Ans:
8µF
xiii. A proton of mass 1.67x10-27Kg and a charge of 1.6x10-19C is to be held motionless between two horizontal parallel
plates 6cm apart. Find the voltage required to be applied between the plates.
(2009)Ans: 6.137x10-9V
xiv. A proton of mass 1.67x10-27Kg and a charge of 1.6x10-19C is to be held motionless between two horizontal parallel
plates. Find the distance between the plates when the potential difference of 6x10 -9Volts is applied across the
plates. (2011)Ans: 5.86cm
xv. A 10µF capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 220V. it is then disconnected from the battery. Its plates
are then connected in parallels to another capacitor and it is found that the potential difference falls to 100V. what
is the capacitance of the second capacitor?(2014)Ans: 12µf
xvi. An 𝛼-particle of charge 3.2x10-19C and mass 6.68x10-27kg is held motionless between two horizontal parallel plates
separated by 10cm. Find the potential difference between the plates.
(2016) Ans: 2.04x10-8V
xvii. A particle of mass 1.67x10-27kg and charge 1.6x10-19C is to be held motionless between two horizontal
parallel plates, the voltage applied between the plates is 14.32x10-4volt. Calculate the distance between
the plates. (2017) Ans: 13999.75 m
xviii. Two capacitors of 2𝜇F and 4 𝜇F are connected in series to a volt battery. Calculate the charge on these
capacitors and potential difference across each. (2019)
Chapter # 13
i. A platinum wire of diameter 0.2mm is wound to make a resistor of 4Ω. How long a wire is needed for this purpose?
(𝜌=11x10-8Ωm) Ans: 1.1424m (1995)
ii. The resistance of a copper wire is 1.27Ω at 20oC. find its resistance at 0oC and at 100oC. the temperature
coefficient of resistivity of copper is 𝛼 = 0.0039oC-1. Ans: 1.178Ω, 1.637Ω (1996)
iii. You are given three resistors each of 2 ohms. How would you arrange these resistors to obtain the equivalent
resistance of (i) 1.33 ohms (ii) 3 ohms (iii) 6 ohms? Also prove the result mathematically.
(2000)

iv. Find the equivalent resistance and the current through R3 and R4. Give R1=20Ω, R2=30Ω, R3=20Ω, R4=40Ω,
R5=10Ω.
R1=20Ω
R5=10Ω R2=30Ω
R3=20Ω R4=40Ω
V=6v
Ans: 20Ω,0.05A (2001)

v. A battery of 24V is connected to a 10Ω load and current of 2.2 amp is drawn; find the internal resistance of the
battery and its terminal voltage. Ans: 0.9Ω, 22V (2002)Pre Med
vi. The resistance of tungsten wire used in filament of a 60watt bulb is 240Ω when the bulb is hot at a temperature of
2020oC. what would you estimate its resistance at 20oC? (The temperature coefficient of tungsten 𝛼=0.0046/oC).
Ans: 25.4Ω (2003)Pre Eng
vii. Find the equivalent resistance in the given circuit, current I and potential difference between “a” and “b”. R1=5Ω,
R2=2Ω, R3=3Ω, R4=6Ω, V=6v
R2=2Ω
a R1=5Ω b R3=3Ω c
R4=6Ω
V=6v
Ans: 1A, 5V, 6Ω (2003)Pre Med
viii. A 50 ohm resistor is to be wound with platinum wire, 0.1mm in diameter. How much wire is needed (𝜌=11x10-
8
Ωm) Ans: 3.57m(2003)Pre Eng
ix. Two resistances of 10 ohms and 50 ohms are connected in series with a 6 volt battery.
Calculate:
a) The charges drawn from the battery per minute
b) The power dissipated in 10 ohm resistance. Ans: 6C, 0.1watt (2005)
x. A 50 ohm resistor is required from a copper wire, 0.2mm in diameter. What is the length of the wire needed?
(𝜌=1.6x10-8Ωm) Ans: 98.18m (2006)
xi. A rectangular block of iron has the dimensions 1.2cmx1.2cmx1.5cm.
a) What is the resistance between two opposite square ends?
b) What is the resistance between two of the rectangular faces?
(The resistivity for iron at room temperature is 9.6x10-8Ωm). Ans: 1x10-5Ω, 6.4x10-6Ω (2008)
xii. In the given diagram R1=R2=4Ω and R3=6Ω. Calculate the current in the 6Ω resistor.
R2
R1 R3
V=6v
Ans: 0.37A (2009)

xiii. A water heater that will deliver 1Kg of water per minute is required. The water is supplied at 20 oC and an output
temperature of 80oC is desired. What should be the resistance of the heating element in water if the line voltage is
220V? (Sp.Heat of water=4200J/kg K) Ans: 11.52Ω (2010)
xiv. A rectangular bar of iron is 2cmx2cm in cross-section and 20cm long. What is the resistance of the bar at 500oC if
𝜌=11x10-8Ωm and 𝛼=0.0052K-1? Ans: 1.98x10-4 Ω (2011)
xv. You are given three resistors each of 2 ohms. How would you arrange these to obtain equivalent resistance of (a)
1.33 ohms (b) 3 ohms (c) 6 ohms. Verify the results mathematically.
(2012)
xvi. Two resistors of 5ohm and 2ohm are connected in parallel with a 9V battery. Calculate the current and power
dissipated in each resistance. Ans: 1.8A, 4.5A, 16.2watt, 40.5watt (2013)
xvii. Three resistors each of 50Ω can be connected in four different ways. Find the equivalent resistance for each
combination.(2014) Ans: 150Ω, 16.67Ω, 33.33Ω and 75Ω
xviii. Find the resistance at 100oC of Silver wire, 1mm in diameter and 1000cm long. 𝜌=1.59x10-8Ωm 𝛼=0.0061/oC.
(2016) Ans: 0.325 Ω
xix. The resistance of a platinum resistance thermometer is 200 ohm at 0oC and 257.6 ohms when immersed
in hot bath. What is the temperature of the bath? ( 𝛼=0.00392/oC)
(2017) Ans: 73.46 oC.
xx. Find the potential difference across the two ends of 15m long copper wire 0.5mm in diameter to
maintain steady current of 4 amperes. (Resistivity of copper = 1.54 × 10−8 ohm-m).
(2018) Ans: 4.705 V.
xxi. A rectangular bar of iron is 2cmx2cm is cross section and 20cm long. What will be its resistance at
500oC? (𝛼=0.0052k-1 and 𝜌=11x10-4 Ohm-m) (2019) Ans: 1.98x10-4 Ω
Chapter # 14
Force on a moving charge, Force on a current carrying conductor,
Torque on a current carrying coil in a uniform magnetic field,
Magnetic Flux & Flux Density:
i. A coil of 100 turns and area (4cmx2cm) is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.45T. The coil carries a current of
1.5 amperes. Calculate the torque on the coil when the plan is at 60 o with B.
(1996) Ans: 0.027Nm
ii. A coil of 50 turns is wound on an ivory frame 3cmx6cm which rotates in a magnetic field of induction B = 2
Web/m2. What will be the torque acting on it if a current of 5 amp passes through it and the plane of the coil
makes an angle of 45o with the field. (2003)Pre Eng Ans: 0.6363Nm
i. An electron having a speed of 1.6x106m/s is moving along a circle of radius 1.82x10-6m entering perpendicularly in
a uniform magnetic field. Find the value of magnetic field. (1987) Ans: 5Tesla
ii. A 10ev electron is moving in a circular orbit in a uniform magnetic field of strength 10 -4weber/m2. Calculate
the radius of the circular path. (1993) Ans: 0.107m
iii. An electron is moving along a circle of radius 1.8x10-7m. calculate the speed of the electron on entering
perpendicularly in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5Tesla. (1995) Ans: 15.81x104m/s
iv. 𝛼 particles are accelerated from rest at a P.D of 1KV. They then enter a magnetic field B=0.2T perpendicular to
their direction. Calculate the radius. Given m=6.68x10-27kg & q = 2e.
(1997) Ans: 0.032m
v. A 10ev electron is moving in a circular orbit in a uniform magnetic field of strength 10-4weber/m2. Calculate the
radius of the circular path. (1999) Ans: 0.107m

vi. An electron is accelerated by the potential difference of 1000 volts. It then enters into a uniform magnetic field of
induction B=2.5weber/m2 at an angle of 45o with the direction of the field. Find the value of the path described by
the electron. (2001) Ans: 6.04x10-5m
vii. Calculate the speed of an electron entering perpendicularly in a uniform magnetic field of 5.0w/m 2which moves
along a circle of radius 1.8x10-6m in the field. (2003)Pre Eng Ans: 1.58x106m/sec
viii. How fast the proton of mass 1.67x10-27kg be moving if it is to follow a circular path of radius 2.0cm in a magnetic
field of 0.7Tesla? (2004) Ans: 1.34x106m/s
ix. A proton accelerated through 1000 volts is projected normal to a 0.25 Tesla magnetic field. Calculate the following.
a) The kinetic energy of the proton on entering the magnetic field
b) The radius of the circular path of the proton (2005) Ans: 1.6x10-16J, 0.0182m
x. A proton of charge 1.6x10 C and mass 1.67x10 kg is accelerated by a potential difference of 6x105volts. Then it
-19 -27
enters perpendicularly into a magnetic field of intensity 0.5 Tesla. Find the radius of the circular path of the proton.
(2016) Ans: 0.223m
Ampere’s Law:
i. A toroidal coil has 300 turns and its mean radius is 12cm. calculate the magnetic field of induction “B” inside the
coil when a current of 5 amperes passes through it. (1985) Ans: 2.5x10-3Wb/m2
ii. A solenoid of diameter 5.0cm is 25cm long and has 25 turns. If the current flowing in it is 5 amperes. Find “B”
inside the solenoid. (1988) Ans: 6.28x10-4web/m2
iii. Find the current required to produce a field of induction B=2.51x10-3web/m2 in a 50cm long solenoid having 4000
turns of wire. (1990) Ans: 0.25A
iv. A current of 2 amperes is passing through a solenoid. If the solenoid has 24 turns per cm of its length. Find the
value of “B”. (1992) Ans: 6.03x10-3web/m2
v. A solenoid 25cm long has a cross section of 5 square cm with 250 numbers of turns on it. If a current is 5 ampere is
passed through it. Find “B” in it. (1994) Ans: 6.28x10-3web/m2
vi. A solenoid 20cm long has three layers of winding of 300 turns each. If a current of 3 amperes is passed through it.
Find the value of the magnetic field of induction. (1998) Ans: 0.016web/m2
vii. A long solenoid is wound with 10 turns per cm and carries a current of 10 amperes. Find the magnetic flux density
within it. (2002)Pre Med Ans: 0.0125web/m2
viii. A long solenoid is wound with 35 turns in 10cm, and carries a current of 10A. Find the magnetic field in it.
(2006) Ans: 4.3x10-3wb/m2
ix. Find the current required to produce a field of induction B=2.512x10 -3T in a 50cm long solenoid having 4000 turns
of wire. (𝜇 o=4πx10-7Wb/A-m). (2010) Ans: 0.785A
x. The inner and the outer diameters of a toroid are 22cm and 26cm. If a current of 5.0 amp is passed which produces
0.025 Tesla flux density inside the core. Find the approximate length of the wire wound on the toroid. (𝜇 o=4πx10-
7
Wb/A-m). (2011) Ans:188.5m
xi. Find the current required to produce a field of induction B=2.512x10-3T in a 50cm long solenoid having 4000 turns
of wire. (𝜇 o=4πx10-7Wb/A-m). (2012) Ans: 0.785
xii. A current of 6.25 amperes is maintained in a long straight conductor by a source. Calculate the force per
metre on a similar parallel conductor in air at a distance of 0.5m from the first and carrying a current of
𝑇.𝑚
2 amperes. (𝜇𝑜 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 ) (2018) Ans: 5x10-6 N
𝐴
Faraday’s law, Mutual induction, Self induction & Motional EMF:

i. Current of 2 amperes passes through an inductive circuit. What is the self inductance of the circuit if the current
falls to zero in 0.1 second? The average value of induced EMF is 20 volts.
(1985) Ans: 1.0 Henry
ii. A train is moving directly towards south with a uniform speed of 10m/s, if the vertical component of the earth’s
magnetic field of induction is 5.4x10-5Tesla. Compute the EMF induced in the axle 1.2m long.
(1986) Ans: 6.48x10-4Volts

iii. A coil having an area of cross section 0.05m2 and number of turns 100 is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field
of induction 0.08weber/m2. How much EMF will be induced in it if the field is reduced to 0.02weber/m 2 in
0.01seconds? (1993) Ans: 30Volts
iv. An aero plane is flying in a region where the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is 3.2x10 -4T. If the
wingspan of the aero plan is 50m and its velocity is 360km/h. find the potential difference between the tips of the
wing of aero plane. (1996) Ans: 1.6V
v. What will be the mutual inductance of two coils when the change of current of a 3 amperes in one coil produces
the change of flux of 6x10-4Weber in the second coil having 2000 turns?
(2001) Ans: 0.4H
vi. An EMF of 45mili-volts is induced in a coil of 500 turns, when the current in a neighboring coil changes from 10
amperes to 14 amperes in 0.2 seconds.
a) What is the mutual inductance of the coils?
b) What is the rate of change of flux in the second coil? (2002)Pre Eng Ans: 2.25x10-3H,
-5
9x10 Web/sec
vii. The current of coil of 325 turns is changed from zero to 6.32 amperes thereby producing a flux of 8.46x10 -4Webers.
What is the self induction of the coil? (2003)Pre Med Ans: 0.0432H
viii. The current of coil of 500 turns is changed from zero to 5.43 amps. Thereby producing a flux of 8.46x10 -4Webers.
What is the self induction of the coil? (2004) Ans: 0.07845H
ix. An aero plane is flying in a region where the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is 3.2x10 -4T. If the
wingspan of the aero plan is 50m and its velocity is 360km/h. find the potential difference between the tips of the
wing of aero plane. (2007) Ans: 1.6V
x. A pair of adjacent coil has a mutual inductance of 850mH. If the current in the primary coil changes from 0 to 20A
in 0.1sec. what is the change in the magnetic flux in the secondary coil of 800 turns?
(2009) Ans: 2.12x10-2Webers
xi. An iron core of solenoid with 500 turns has a cross section of 5cm 2. A current of 2.3 ampere passing through it
produces flux density of B=0.53 Tesla. How large an EMF is induced in it, if the current is turned off in 0.1 second?
What is the self inductance of the solenoid?
(2014) Ans: 1.325V, 0.0576H
xii. An e.m.f of 45milivolts is induced in a coil of 500 turns. When the current in a neighboring coil changes from 15
amps to 4 amps in 0.2 sec, a) what is the mutual inductance of the coils? B) what is the rate of change of flux in the
second coil?(2015) Ans: 8.18x10-4H, 9x10-5web/s
xiii. An iron core of solenoid with 600 turns has a cross section of 2.0cm2. A current of 4.0 ampere passing through it
produces B=0.4 web/m2. What emf is produced in it, if the current is turned off in 0.2 second? What is its self-
inductance? (2016) Ans: 0.24V, 0.012H
A.C Generator & Transformer:
i. A transformer has 1000 turns in its primary coil. If the input voltage of the transformer is 200 volts, what should be
the number of turns of the secondary coil to obtain an output of 6.0 volts?
(1992) Ans: 30turns
ii. A 500 turns coil in AC generator having an area of 1000cm2 rotates in a magnetic field of value 50 Tesla. In order to
generate 220 volts maximum, how fast is the coil to be rotated? Express your answer in terms of the number of
revolutions per second. (1998) Ans: 0.088rad/sec, 0.014rev/s
iii. A transformer has 1000 turns in the primary coil. If the input voltage of the transformer is 200 volts, what should
be the number of turns of the secondary coil to obtain an output of 6.0 volts?
(1999) Ans: 30turns
iv. A step-down transformer having 4000 turns in primary is used to convert 4400 volts to 220 volts. The efficiency of
the transformer is 90% and 9Kwatt output is required. Determine the input power, the number of turns in the
secondary coil and the current in the primary and secondary coils? (2005) Ans: 10000W, 200turns, 2.23A,
40.9A
v. A step-down transformer reduces 1100V to 220V. the power output is 12.5KW and overall efficiency of the
transformer is 90%. The primary winding has 1000 turns. How many turns do the secondary have? What is the

power input? What is the current in each coil? (2008) Ans: 200turns, 13.8x103Watt, 12.6,
56.81A
vi. An alternating current generator operating at 50Hz has a coil of 200 turns, while the coil has an area of 120cm 2.
Calculate the magnetic field intensity applied to rotate the coil to produce the maximum voltage of 240.
(2011) Ans: 0.31831T
vii. An alternating current generator operates in at 70Hz the area of coil is 500cm 2. Calculate the number of turns in
the coil when a magnetic field of induction 0.06 web/m2 produces a maximum potential difference of 149V.
(2013) Ans: 113 turns
viii. An alternating current generator operates at 70Hz. the area of coil is 500cm2. Calculate the number of
turns in the coil when a magnetic field of induction 0.06 tesla produces a maximum potential differences
of 149volts. (2017) Ans: 113 turns
ix. A coil of 400 turns in ac generator having an area of 0.1m2 is rotating in a magnetic field of 50T in order
to generate a maximum voltage of 220 volts, how fast if the coil to be rotated? Express your answer in
revolution/second. (2019)
Chapter # 15
i. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 50 ohms and it gives a full-scale deflection for
P.D of 150mV. What should be the resistance of the shunt used with the galvanometer in order
to use it as an ammeter reading up to 4 amperes? (1987) Ans: 0.0375Ω
ii. A galvanometer of resistance of 50 Ω gives full-scale deflection with a current of 0.005
amperes. How will you convert it into an ammeter measuring maximum current of 1.0
ampere? (1989) Ans: 0.251 Ω
iii. A galvanometer of resistance 60 Ω gives full-scale deflection with a current of 4mA, a resistance
of 10940 Ω is connected in series with the coil to convert it into voltmeter. Find the range of
voltmeter obtained. (1995) Ans: 44volts
iv. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 25 Ω and it gives a full-scale deflection for a P.D
of 50mV. If the galvanometer is to be converted into a voltmeter reading up to 50 volts, what
should be the resistance of the series resistor? (1997) Ans: 24975 Ω
v. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 50 Ω and it gives a full-scale deflection for P.D of
100mV. If the galvanometer is to be converted into a voltmeter reading up to 50 volts, what
should be the resistance of the series resistor? (2000) Ans: 24950 Ω
vi. The coil of a galvanometer having a resistance of 50 ohms and current of 500micro-ampere
produces a full-scale deflection in it. Compute:
a) The shunt required to convert it into an ammeter of 5 ampere range.
b) The series resistance required to convert it into a voltmeter of 300 volt range.
(2002)Pre Eng Ans: 0.005 Ω, 599950 Ω
vii. An ammeter deflects full-scale with a current of 5 amperes and has a total resistance of 0.5
ohms. What shunt resistance must be connected to it measure full scale current up to 30
amperes? (2003)Pre Med Ans: 0.1 Ω
viii. A 300volts voltmeter has total resistance of 20 kilo-ohms. What additional resistance is
required to convert it into a voltmeter, reading up to a maximum of 600 volts?
(2003)Pre Eng Ans: 20000 Ω

ix. A 250 volt voltmeter has total resistance of 20000 Ω. What additional series resistance must be
connected to it to increase its range to 400 volts? (2004) Ans: 12000 Ω
x. A maximum 50mili-ampere current can be allowed to flow through a 19.8 ohm coil of a
galvanometer. The galvanometer is to be used to measure 5-ampere maximum current.
Calculate the length of a copper wire to be used as a shunt. the diameter of te wire is 4mm, the
specific resistance (𝜌) of copper is 1.6x10-8ohm-m. (2005) Ans: 0.2 Ω, 157.1m
xi. An ammeter deflects full-scale with a voltage of 2.5 volts, and has a total resistance of 0.5 Ω.
What small resistance must be connected to measure 20A full-scale? (2006) Ans: 0.166 Ω
xii. A 300 volts voltmeter has a total resistance of 20kilo-ohms. What additional resistance is
required to convert it into a voltmeter, reading up to a maximum of 600 volts?
(2007) Ans: 20000 Ω
xiii. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100 ohms. A difference of potential of 50mV gives the full-
scale deflection. Calculate the shunt resistance to read from 0-5A. What is the value of series
resistance if the galvanometer is to be converted into a voltmeter to read up to 250V?
(2008) Ans: 0.01 Ω 499900 Ω
xiv. A galvanometer whose resistance is 50 Ω deflects full-scale for a potential difference 100mV
across its terminals. How can it be converted into a voltmeter of 50V range?
(2010) Ans: 24950 Ω
xv. A galvanometer of resistance of 50 ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 10mA. A
shunt of 0.05 ohm is connected in parallel to convert it into an ammeter. Find the range of the
ammeter. (2012) Ans: 10.01 ampere
xvi. A voltmeter measuring up to 200V has a total resistance of 20000 ohms. What additional series
resistance must be connect to it to increase its range to 600V. (2013) Ans: 40000 Ω
xvii. A galvanometer, having resistance 50 Ω, deflects full scale for a potential difference of 100mV
across the terminals. What resistance should be connected to increase its range to 50 volts?
(2014) Ans: 2450 Ohm
xviii. A galvanometer, whose resistance is 60 ohms, deflects full scale for a potential difference of
100 millivolts across its terminals. What shunt resistance must be connected to convert it into
an ammeter of 5 ampere range? (2015) Ans: 0.10 ohm
xix. A 400volts voltmeter has a total resistance of 40,000Ω. What additional series resistance must be
connected to it to increase its range to 750volts? (2017) Ans: 35000 ohm
Chapter # 17
Special theory of relativity:
i. A 50m trailer is moving with relativistic speed. It passes over a bridge of length 40m. To an
observer at rest with respect to the bridge at one instant, the trailer seems to overlap the
bridge i.e. the ends of the trailer seem to coincide with the ends of bridge. Find the speed of
the trailer. Ans: 1.8x108m/s (1991)
ii. Find the relativistic speed at which the kinetic energy of a particle of rest mass m o becomes
double its rest mass energy. Given mo=1.67x10-27kg. Also calculate:
a) Rest mass energy

b) Kinetic energy
c) Total energy Ans: 0.94C, 939.37Mev, 1878.575Mev,2818.125Mev (1996)
iii. Find the speed at which the mass of a particle will be doubled. Ans: 2.56x10 8m/s (2002)Pre
Med
iv. Given moc2=0.511MeV. Find the total energy E and the kinetic energy K of an electron moving
with a speed v = 0.85c. Ans: 0.979MeV, 0.459MeV (2002)Pre Eng
v. If a neutron is converted entirely into energy, how much energy is produced? Express your
answer in joule and electron-volt. Ans: 9.39x108eV (2003)Pre Med
vi. Estimate the relativistic mass and the wavelength associated with an electron moving at 0.9c.
Ans: 2.087x10-30kg, 1.176x10-12m (2006)
vii. Calculate the relativistic speed at which the mass of a particle becomes double its rest mass.
Ans: 2.59x108m/s (2008)
viii. What will be the relative velocity and momentum of a particle whose rest mass is m o and
2√3
kinetic energy equal to twice of its rest mass energy. Ans: c, 2√2moc (2011)
3
ix. Given moc2=0.511MeV. Find the total energy “E” and the kinetic energy K of an electron moving
with speed v=0.85c. mo=9.1x10-31kg, c=3x108m/s (2012)
x. What will be the velocity and momentum of a particle whose rest mass is mo and kinetic energy
is equal to twice of its rest mass energy. (2014) Ans: 0.94C, 2√2moC
xi. What will be the relativistic velocity of a particle whose kinetic energy is twice of its rest mass
energy? (2015) Ans: 0.94C
xii. What will be the velocity and momentum of a particle whose rest mass is mo and kinetic energy
is equal to twice of its rest mass energy? (2019) Ans: 0.94C, 2√2moC
Photoelectric effect:
i. Find the cut off wavelength for a given metal whose work function is 4.14eV. (1987) Ans:
3002.7Ao
ii. The work function of certain metal is 3.03eV. When this metal is illuminated by the infrared
light of 1.2x1015Hz. Find the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons.
(1989) Ans: 1.94eV
iii. The work function of a photo emissive surface is 4.0eV. What will be the velocity of fastest
photoelectrons emitted from it by an incident light of frequency 3.0x1015Hz. (1992) Ans:
1.722x106m/s
iv. The work function of metal is 2eV. The light of wavelength 3000A o is made to fall on it. Find the
kinetic energy of the fastest emitted photoelectrons. (1994) Ans: 2.144eV
v. The range of visible light is 4000Ao to 7000Ao. Will photoelectrons be emitted by a copper
surface of work function 4.4eV, when illuminated by visible light? Give the mathematical proof
of your answer. (1998)
vi. o
When the light of the wavelength 4000A falls on a metal surface, stopping potential is 0.6
volts. Find the value of the work function of the metal. (2001) Ans: 2.5eV
vii. Sodium surface is shined with light of wave length 3x10-7m. If the work function of Na = 2.46eV,
find the K.E of the photoelectrons. (2003)Pre Med Ans: 1.68eV

viii. Sodium surface is shined with light of wave length 3x10-7m. if the work function of Na = 2.46eV,
find the K.E of the photoelectrons. (2003)Pre Eng Ans: 1.68eV
ix. What minimum energy is required in a x-ray tube in order to produce x-rays with a wavelength
of 0.1x10-10m. (2004) Ans: 123985eV
x. Compare the energy of photon of wavelength 2x10-6m with the energy of x-ray photon of
wavelength 2x10-10m. (2004) Ans: 10 4
xi. Sodium surface is shined with light of wave length 3x10-7m. If the work function of Na = 2.46eV,
find the K.E of the photoelectrons and also cut off wavelength. (2009) Ans: 1.68eV,
5061A o
xii. Sodium surface is shined with light of wave length 3x10-7m. if the work function of Na = 2.46eV,
find the K.E of the photoelectrons. (2012) Ans: 1.68eV, 5061Ao.
xiii. Sodium surface is shone with light of 3x10-7m. Find the kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons and the cutoff wavelength of sodium. Work function of sodium is 2.46eV.
(2016) Ans: 1.68eV, 5061Ao
Compton effect:
i. In Compton scattering process the fractional change in wavelength of x-rays photon is 1% at an
angle 120o, find the wavelength of x-rays used in this experiment.
(2007) Ans: 3.63x10-10m
ii. X-rays of wavelength 3.64x10-10m are used in Compton scattering process. Find the fractional change in
wavelength for a scattering angle of 120o. (Given: h=6.63x10-34Js, mn = 9.1x10-31kg, c =3x108m/s)
(2017) Ans: 0.01
Pair production & annihilation of matter:

i. Pair annihilation occurred due to a head on collision of an electron and positron having the
same kinetic energy, produce pair of photons each having energy of 2.5MeV. What were their
kinetic energies before collision? Given 𝑚𝑜 c2=0.511MeV.
(2013) Ans: 1.989MeV
ii. A photon wavelength 0.004Ao in the vicinity of a heavy nucleus produces an electron-positron pair. Find
the kinetic energy of each particle of the pair in MeV, if the kinetic energy of positron is twice that of
electron. (moc2=8.19x10-14joules, h=6.63x10-34js and c=3x108m/s) (2018) Ans: 0.694Mev,
1.388Mev
Matter waves and Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle:

i. An electron exists within a region of 10-10m, find its momentum uncertainty and approximate
kinetic energy. (2006) Ans: 1.055x10-24NS, 6.108x10-19J
ℎ (∆𝑝)2
Hint: [∆𝑝 × ∆𝑥 = 2𝜋 , ∆𝐾𝐸 = ]
2𝑚
ii. If the electron beam in a television picture tube is accelerated by 10,000V what will be the de-
Broglie’s wavelength? (h = 6.63x10-34Js, m = 9.11x10-31kg) (2010)
Ans: 1.28x10-11m
iii. If the electron beam in a television picture tube is accelerated by 10,000V what will be the de-
Broglie’s wavelength? (h = 6.63x10-34Js, m = 9.11x10-31kg) (2011)
Ans: 1.28x10-11m

iv. In a TV picture tube, an electron is accelerated by a potential difference of 12000V. Determine
the de Broglie’s wavelength given that h = 6.63x10-34Js, e = 1.6x10-19Coul, me=9.11x10-31kg
(2014) Ans: 1.12x10-11m
Chapter # 18
i. A blood corpuscle has diameter about 9x10-6m. In which excited orbit should a hydrogen atom
so that it is just about as big as the blood corpuscle. (1990) Ans 291
ii. The energy of the lowest level of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. Calculate the energy of the emitted
photons in transition from n = 4 to n = 2. (1993) Ans: 2.55eV
iii. Find the wavelength of light which is capable of ionizing a hydrogen atom. (1995) Ans: 911.5A o
iv. The energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. Calculate the angular
momentum of the electron according to Bohr’s Theory. (1997) 2.1x10 -34Js
v. What is the wavelength of the radiation that is emitted when hydrogen atom undergoes a
transition from the state n2 = 3 to n1 = 2. (2000) Ans: 6.5x10-7m
vi. What is the longest wavelength of light capable of ionizing a hydrogen atom? What energy in
electron volt is needed to ionize it? (2002)Pre Med Ans: 13.6eV
vii. A photon of 12.1eV absorbed by a hydrogen atom originally in the ground state raises the atom
to an excited state. What is the quantum number of this state? (E1 = -13.6eV)
(2002)Pre Eng Ans: 3
viii. An electron in the hydrogen atom makes a transition from the n = 2 energy state to the ground
state (corresponding to n = 1) find the wavelength in the ultraviolet region.
(2003)Pre Eng Ans: 1.21x10-7m
ix. In a hydrogen atom an electron experiences transition from a state whose binding energy is -
0.54eV to the state whose excitation energy is 10.2eV. Find
a) The quantum numbers of the two states
b) The wavelength of the photon emitted (2005) Ans: 5, 2, 4.342x10-7m
x. Calculate the Binding Energy of a hydrogen atom. (2007) Ans: -13.6eV
xi. Calculate the longest and shortest wavelengths of emitted photons in hydrogen spectrum in
Balmer series where RH = 1.097x107m-1. (2008) Ans: 656.33nm,
364.6nm
xii. Find the shortest wavelength of photon emitted in the Balmer series and determine its energy
in eV. (RH=1.097x107m-1) (2010) Ans: 3646Ao, 3.41eV
xiii. Calculate the energy of the longest wavelength radiation emitted in the Paschen series in
hydrogen atom spectra. (RH=1.097x107m-1, h = 6.63x10-
34Js, c = 3x108m/s). (2011) Ans: 1875.6nm
xiv. Find the value of shortest and the longest wavelength of emitted photon in hydrogen spectra in
Balmer series. (where Rydberg constant = 1.097x107m-1) (2012) Ans: 3.646x10-7m, 6.536x10-7m
xv. A hydrogen atom in the ground state gets excited by absorbing a photon of 12.15eV. Find the
quantum number of this state. (2013) Ans: 3
xvi. Determine the shortest wavelength of photons emitted in the layman series (RH
7
=1.097x10 m ) -1 (2014)

xvii. Find the shortest wavelength of photon emitted in the Balmer series and determine its energy
in ev. (RH =1.097x107m-1) (2015)
xviii. Find the shortest and longest wavelength of emitted photons in Hydrogen spectra in Pfund
series. (2016)
xix. How much energy is needed to ionize a hydrogen atom originally in ground state?
(h=6.63x10-34Js, c =3x108m/s, RH=1.097x107/m ) (2017)
xx. A photon of what minimum energy is required to excite a hydrogen atom from n=1 to n=3?
(RH=1.097x107m-1). (2018)
xxi. What is the wavelength of 3rd spectral line of Paschen series in hydrogen atom?
(RH=1.097x107m-1) (2019)
Chapter # 19
i. Find the binding energy of 52Te126 in MeV if the mass of a proton = 1.0078U, mass of a neutron
= 1.0086U, mass of a Te atoms = 125.9033U (1994) Ans: 1061MeV
ii. Find the binding energy of 52Te126 in MeV if the mass of a proton = 1.0078U, mass of a neutron
= 1.0086U, mass of a Te atoms = 125.9033U (2001) Ans: 1061MeV
iii. 210
The half-period of 104Po is 140 days. By what percent does its activity decrease per week?
(2006) Ans: 3.465% per week
iv. If the number of atoms per gram of 88Ra236 is 2.666x1021 and it decays with a half life of 1622
years, find the decay constant and the activity of the sample. (2009) Ans: 1.35x10 -11sec-1,
3.61x1011 disintegration/sec
v. A deuteron 3.3431x10-27kg is formed when a proton 1.6724x10-27kg and a neutron 1.6748x10-27
kg are combined, calculate the mass defect and binding energy (in Mev). (2010) Ans: 4.1x10-
30kg, 2.3Mev
vi. Find the binding energy and packing fraction in MeV of 52Te126, given that mp = 1.0078U, mn =
1.0086 and mTe = 125.9033U. (2012) Ans: 1.1387amu, 1060.99MeV
vii. The number of atoms per gram of 88Ra is 2.666x1021 and it decays with a half life of 1622
236
years, find the activity and decay constant of the sample. (2013) Ans: 1.35x10-11sec-1,
3.60x1010 disintegration/sec
viii. Find the Binding energy and packing fraction (B.E per nucleon) of 52Te126.
Given that mp= 1.0078U mn=1.0086U mTe= 125.9033U 1U=931.5Mev (2015)
ix. The number of atoms per gram of 88Ra236 is 2.666x1021 and it decays with a half life of 1622
years, find the activity and decay constant of the sample. (2016) Ans: 1.35x10 -
11sec-1, 3.60x1010 disintegration/sec
x. Find the binding energy and packing fraction in MeV of 52Te126, given that mp = 1.0078U, mn =
1.0086 and mTe = 125.9033U. 1u=931.5MeV (2016) Ans: 1.1387amu, 1060.99MeV
xi. The half life of 104Po210 is 140 days. By what percent will its activity decrease per hour? (2017) Ans:
0.02%

xii. A deuteron of mass 3.343ax10-27kg is formed when a proton of mass 1.6724x10-27kg and a neutron of
mass 1.6748x10-27kg combine. Calculate the mass defect and binding energy in Mev. (2017) Ans:
4.1x10-30kg, 2.3Mev
xiii. Find the Q-value of the reaction 94Pu239 →2He4 + 92U235+Q
a) The isotopic mass of Plutonium = 239.0522U b) The isotopic mass of Uranium = 235.0439U
c) The isotopic mass of alpha particle = 4.0026U1U=931.5MeV (2018) Ans: 5.3Mev
ix. If the number of atoms per gram of 88Ra236 is 2.666x1021 and it decays with a half life of 1622
years, find the activity and decay constant of the sample. (2019) Ans: 1.35x10-11sec-1, 3.60x1010
disintegration/sec

Chapter #11 (Heat)
EX # 11.1
Exercise based on the Heat, Temperature and Thermal Expansion:
MCQs
1. The average translational Kinetic energy of the molecules of a body determines:
a) Heat b) Temperature c) Internal energy d) None of these
2. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of the molecules of a body determines:
a) Heat b) Temperature c) Internal energy d) None of these
3. The S.I unit of heat is:
a) Joule b) Calorie c) Centigrade d) Fahrenheit
4. In Celsius scale 1oC in magnitude equal to:
a) 32oF b) 16oF c) 1.8oF d) None of these
5. The formula for interconversion of centigrade and Fahrenheit scale is:
32 𝐹−32 𝐶 32 𝐶
a) 𝐶− b) = c) 𝐹 − = d) None of these
9 9 5 9 9
6. The coefficient of linear expansion is equal to:
𝐿 ∆𝐿 𝐿∆𝑇
a) 𝛼= b) 𝛼 = c) 𝛼 = d) None of these
∆𝐿∆𝑇 𝐿∆𝑇 ∆𝐿
7. The coefficient of volume expansion is equal to:
𝑉 𝑉∆𝑇 ∆𝑉
a) 𝛽= b) 𝛽 = c) 𝛽 = d) None of these
∆𝑉∆𝑇 ∆𝑉 𝑉∆𝑇
8. The unit of coefficient of linear expansion or volume expansion is:
a) K b) K-1 c) CK-1 d) None of these
9. Linear expansion occurs in:
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Both d) None of these
10. The relation between coefficient of linear expansion and volume expansion is given by:
1
a) 𝛼 = 3𝛽 b) 𝛼 = 𝛽 c) 𝛽 = 2𝛼 d) None of these
3
11. The energy transfer from one point to another due to temperature difference is called:
a) Light b) Heat c) Sound d) None of these
12. _____________is related to the internal energy of body.
a) Heat b) Temperature c) Both A and B d) None of these
13. The S.I unit of temperature is:
a) Degree Celsius b) Degree Fahrenheit c) Kelvin d) None of these
14. Tk = Tc +:
a) 273 b) 237 c) 372 d) 732
15. Temperature is measured by:
a) Calorimeter b) Barometer c) Thermometer d) None of these
16. In ______________ heat transfer from atom to atom.
a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) None of these
17. The transfer of heat by_________________ requires the movement of molecules from one place to
another.
18. The mode of heat transfer in which no material medium is required, is called:
19. The heat from sun reaches the earth by :
20. _________________ of a substance is a measure of its ability to conduct heat energy.
a) Thermal conductivity b) Thermal resistivity c) Both A and B d) None of these
21. The fractional change in length per unit change in temperature is called___________.

a) Coefficient of linear expansion b) Coefficient of cubic expansion c) Both A and B d) None of
these
22. Coefficient of cubic thermal expansion is _____ times the coefficient of linear thermal expansion.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Ten
23. _________ are used in thermostat.
a) Bimetallic strips b) Thermometer c) Fire alarm d) None of these
24. The device which controls temperature in a certain space is called ______________.
a) Thermometer b) Thermostat c) Fire alarm d) None of these
25. 1 calori=________.
a) 4.1 J b) 4.2 J c) 4.3 J d) None of these
26. 1 B.T.U=__________.
a) 1055 J b) 252 J c) 4200 J d) None of these
27. 1 B.T.U=__________.
a) 225cal b) 525cal c) 252cal d) None of these
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
B C A C B B C B A B B B C A
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. a.
C A B C C A A B A B B A C
Ex# 11.2
Exercise based on Gas Laws and General Gas Equation:
MCQs
1. Volume is inversely proportional to pressure of a given mass of a gas provided that its temperature is
kept constant is called____________.
a) Charles’s Law b) Boyle’s Law c) General Gas Law d) None of these
2. Volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportion to absolute temperature of gas provided
pressure is kept constant is called_____________.
a) Charles’s Law b) Boyle’s Law c) General Gas Law d) None of these
3. The value of universal gas constant R is_____________.
a) 8.314 JK-1mole b) 8.314 Jmole-1K-1 c) 83.14 Jmole-1K-1 d) None of these
4. The temperature at which all gases becomes liquid is ________.
a) 273K b) -273K c) Absolute zero(0 k) d) None of these
5. In the formula PV=nRT “n” denotes____________.
a) Number of molecules b) Number of moles c) Avogadro Number d) None of these
6. -273oC is called_______________.
a) Absolute zero b) Absolute temperature c) Bothe A and B d) None of these
7. At -273oC the volume of a gas is ___________.
a) 273m3b) Maximum c) zero d) None of these
8. According to general gas equation PV=______________.
a) Constant b) RT c) nRTd) None of these
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
B A B C B A C C
Ex# 11.3
Exercise based on Kinetic Molecular theory of Gases:
MCQs

1. The average translational kinetic energy of the molecules of gasses at absolute temperature T
is_____________.
2 3 1
a) 𝑘𝑇 b) 𝑘𝑇 c) 𝑘𝑇 d) None of these
3 2 2
2. Root mean square velocity of a gas molecules in a container can be calculated as__________.
3𝑚 3𝑘𝑇 𝑘𝑇
a) 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √ b) 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √ c) 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √ d) None of these
𝑘𝑇 𝑚 𝑚
3. The universal gas constant per molecule is called____________.

a) Stefen’s constant b) Boltzmann’s constant c) Gravitational constant d) None of these
4. The value of Boltzmann’s constant is__________.
a) 1.6x10-23 Jk-1 b) 3.85x10-23Jk-1 c) 1.38x10-23Jk-1 d) None of these
5. If a molecule with momentum mvx strikes a wall and rebound then the change in Momentum will
be___________.
a) 2mvx b) -2mvx c) mvx d) None of these
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
B B B C B
Ex # 11.4
Exercise based on Specific heat and First law of thermodynamics:
MCQs
1. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a body by unit degree is
called_____________.
a) Specific heat capacity b) Heat capacity c) Molar heat capacity d) None of these
2. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by unit degree is
called____________.
a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) Molar heat capacity d) None of these
3. The unit(s) of heat capacity is___________.
a) Jk-1b) JoC-1c) Both d) None of these
4. The unit(s) of specific heat capacity is___________.
a) JKg-1K-1b) JKg-1oC-1 c) Both d) None of these
5. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of substance by unit
Kelvin______________.
a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) Molar specific heat d) None of these
6. The unit of molar specific heat is___________.
a) Jmole-1K-1 b) Jmole-1oC-1 c) Both d) None of these
7. For gases___________.
a) Cp>Cvb) Cp<Cvc) Cp=Cvd) None of these
8. The difference between Cp and Cv is equal to______________.
a) Universal gas constant b) Boltzmann constant c) Stefen’s constant d) None of these
9. Specific heat of polyatomic gases___________.
a) Less than monoatomic gases b) Higher than monoatomic gases c) Equal than monoatomic
gases d) None of these
10. To determine molar specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) a required system has___________.
a) A cylinder with movable piston b) A cylinder with fixed piston c) Both d) None of these
11. To determine molar specific heat at constant volume (Cv) a required system has___________.
a) A cylinder with movable piston b) A cylinder with fixed piston c) Both d) None of these
12. First law f thermodynamics is merely a statement of law of conversion of__________.
a) Angular momentum b) Energy c) Linear momentum d) None of these
13. The system in which transformation of neither matter nor energy take place is called_________.
b) Open system b) Closed system c) Isolated system d) None of these
14. Mathematical expression for first law of thermodynamics_______________.

a) ∆𝑈 = ∆𝑄 + ∆𝑊 b) ∆𝑈 = ∆𝑄 − ∆𝑊 c) ∆𝑊 = ∆𝑄 + ∆𝑈 d) None of these
15. When work is done by the system. It is taken as_______________.
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) None of these
16. When work is done on the system it is taken as_____________.
17. In an isothermal process the internal energy of the system____________.
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) None of these
18. The maximum work done can be measured in the process called____________.
a) Isobaric b) Adiabatic c) Isothermal d) None of these
19. First law of thermodynamics when applied to an adiabatic process becomes___________.
a) ∆𝑊 = ∆𝑈 b) ∆𝑊 = ∆𝑄c) ∆𝑊 = −∆𝑈d) None of these
20. For an isobaric process__________.
a) ∆𝑊 = 0b) ∆𝑊 = ∆𝑈c) ∆𝑊 = 𝑃∆𝑉d) None of these
21. For an isochoric process____________.
a) ∆𝑊 = 0 b) ∆𝑈 = 0 c) ∆𝑄 = 0 d) None of these
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
B A C C C C A A B A B B C B
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

A B C C C C A
Ex # 11.5
Exercise based on Second Law of Thermodynamics:
MCQs
1. It is impossible to cause heat to flow from a cold body to hot body without expenditure of work
is______________.
a) Clausius’ statement b) Kelvin statement c) Both d) None of these
2. the statement which shows that two bodies at different temperatures are essential for working of a
heat engines___________.
a) Clausius’ statement b) Kelvin statement c) Both d) None of these
3. The law of thermodynamics which discusses the condition under which heat energy is converted into
an equivalent amount of work is____________.
a) 1st law b) 2nd law c) 3rd law d) None of these
4. Carnot cycle is_____________.
a) Reversible b) Irreversible c) Both d) None of these
5. The efficiency of Carnot engine depends upon__________.
a) Temperature of source only b) Temperature of source and sink c) Both d) None of these
6. The ratio of output work per cycle to input energy per cycle is called____________.
a) Entropy b) Internal energy c) Efficiency d) None of these
7. If the temperature difference between the hot body and cold body is greater the heat engine is
_____________.
a) Less efficient b) More efficient c) Not efficient d) None of these
8. If the temperature of the sink is decreased efficiency of Carnot engine___________.
a) Remains constant b) Increase c) Decrease d) None of these
9. The efficiency of practical Heat engine____________.
a) Can be 100% b) Cannot be 100% c) Is always zero d) None of these
10. The efficiency of Carnot engine is______________.
𝑄1 𝑇
a) (1 − ) × 100 b) (1 − 1) × 100 c) Both d) None of these
𝑄2 𝑇2
11. Entropy measures the_____________.

a)
Disorder of the system b) Orderliness of the system c) Energy of the system d) None of
these
12. When disorder of the system increases, its entropy______________.
a) Increases b) Decrease c) Remains same d) None of these
13. The change in disorder of the system is equal to___________.
∆𝑇 ∆𝑄 ∆𝑄
a) ∆𝑆 = b) ∆𝑆 = c) ∆𝑆 = d) None of these
𝑄 𝑇 ∆𝑇
14. Entropy change for reversible process remains constant in_____________.
a) Isothermal process b) Isobaric process c) Adiabatic process d) None of these
15. Total entropy change during any reversible cycle is_____________.
a) Zero b) Infinite c) Both d) None of these
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
A B B A B C B B B D A A B C A
MCQs From Past Papers: (complete chapter)

(2001)
i. The pressure exerted by the gas molecules on the walls of a vessel increases if the:
a) Temperature of the gas decreases b)Velocity of the molecule of the gas decrease c)
Collision of the molecules of the gas with its walls increases d) None of the above
happens
ii. The net change in entropy of a system in a natural process is:
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinite
iii. Which of the following statements is true:
a) Heat can be converted completely into work
b) Work can be converted completely into heat
c) Both work and heat are inter-convertible
d) Neither heat nor work is inter-convertible
iv. The K.E of the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero temperature will be:
a) Infinite b) Zero c) Very high d) Below zero
v. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of the system:
a) Remains the same b) Increases c) Decreases d) None of them
happen
vi. Real gas molecules do not strictly obey gas laws at:
a) High pressure and low temperature
b) Low pressure and high temperature
c) High pressure and high temperature
d) None of the above
(2002)Pre Eng
vii. Chose the correct statement:
a) The product of P and T is constant if the volume is constant
b) The ratio of P and V is constant if the temperature is constant
c) The product of P and V is constant if the temperature is constant
d) The product of V and T is constant if the pressure kept constant
viii. The S.I unit of heat:
a) Joule b) Calorie c) Centigrade d) Fahrenheit
ix. Zero on the Celsius is equal to:
a) 273K b) 32K c) 100K d) 212K
x. The internal energy of the system depends on:
a) Pressure b) Volume c) Temperature d) Entropy
xi. The entropy of the universe:
a) Always remains constant b) Always decreases c) Either remains constant or increases
d) Always increases

xii. The process during which no external work is performed is:
a) Isothermal b) Isochoric c) Isobaric d) Adiabatic
(2002)Pre Med
xiii. The temperature on Fahrenheit scale corresponding the absolute zero is:
a) 32oF b) -180oF c) -460oF d) 212oF
xiv. The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76cm high at 0oC is called :
a) 1 liter b) 1cm3 c) 1 atmosphere d) 1 N/m2
xv. The universal gas constant per molecule in 1 mol is called:
a) Plank’s constant b) Stefan’s constant c) Avogadro’s constant d) Boltzmann’s
constant
xvi. The quantity of heat required for per degree rise in temperature of a body is called:
a) Heat of vaporization b) Heat of fusion c) Specific heat capacity d) Heat capacity
xvii. The P-V diagram shown in the figure is for:
a) An isothermal change b) An adiabatic change c) An isochoric change d) None of these
P
xviii. In isobaric process the work done is equal to: V
a) Cv/n∆T b) Cp/n∆T c) R∆T/n d) nR∆T
(2003)Pre Eng
xix. According to Charles’s Law:
a) PV = constant b) V/T = constant c) VT = constant d) P/V = constant
xx. The temperature at which centigrade scale is equal to Fahrenheit scale:
a) 0o b) -32o c) -40o d) -273o
xxi. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance through 1oC is known
as:
a) Specific heat b) Latent heat c) Calories d) Joule
xxii. The maximum efficiency of a heat engine is obtained by:
a) Increasing the temperature of hot and cold body simultaneously, keeping other factors
constant
b) Decreasing the temperature of the sink and increasing the temperature, of the source,
keeping other factors constant
c) Decreasing the temperature simultaneously
d) None of these
xxiii. The change of entropy is given by:
a) ∆S=∆Q/T b) ∆S =T/∆Q c) ∆S =∆Q/∆T d) ∆S=∆U/T
(2003)Pre Med
xxiv. 273 Kelvin corresponds to:
a) 273oC b) -32oC c) 0oC d) 273oC
xxv. One cubic meter is equal:.
a) 106cm3 b) 102cm3 c) 103cm3 d) 10-3cm3
xxvi. If the pressure of a gas is doubled, keeping the temperature constant, the volume of the gas is:
a) Reduced to 0ne-forth b) Double c) Reduced to one-half of the original volume d)
Increased four times
xxvii. According to Charle’s Law:
a) VT= constant when the pressure is constant
b) V/T=constant when the pressure is constant
c) PV=constant when the temperature is constant
d) None of these
xxviii. If the volume of the system remains constant during the process, it is called:
a) Isochoric b) Isothermal c) Isobaric d) Adiabatic
xxix. Boltzmann constant is equal to:
a) RNA b) R/NA c) NA/R d) √𝑅/NA
(2004)

xxx. During the Adiabatic change, the pressure and the volume formula of gas is given by:
a) PV = constant b) 𝑃𝛾 V= constant c) (𝑃𝑉)𝛾 =constant d) 𝑃𝑉 𝛾 =constant
xxxi. Centigrade and Fahrenheit scale can never be equal at any temperature. (True, False)
xxxii. The coefficient of linear expansion is_________ times the coefficient of volume expansion.(fill in the
blank)
xxxiii. The unit of specific heat is:
a) JKg-1oC-1 b) JKgK-1 c) JKgoC d) JKg-1oC
xxxiv. If heat is removed from the system, the change in entropy is positive. (True, False)
xxxv. In an isobaric process the work done is:
(2005)
xxxvi. RMS velocity of a gas molecule at absolute zero temperature is:
a) 9x106m/sec b) 3x103m/sec c) 273m/sec d) Zero
xxxvii. The value of Boltzmann constant is:
a) 3.85x10-23JK-1 b) 2.185x10-12JK-1 c) 1.62x10-22JK-1 d) 1.38x10-23JK-1
xxxviii. The heat required to produce a unit change in the temperature of a unit mass of substance is called:
a) Heat capacity b) Molar heat c) Specific heat d) Latent heat
xxxix. The difference of molar specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume per mole is called:
a) Molar heat b) Heat constant c) Boltzmann constant d) Gas constant
xl. A domestic pressure cooker is based on:
a) Adiabatic process b) Isothermal process c) Isobaric process d) Isochoric process
o
xli. The absolute temperature corresponding to 212 F is:
a) 485K b) 373K c) 161K d) 100K
(2006)
o
xlii. In Celsius scale 1 C in magnitude is equal to:
a) 32oF b) 16oC c) 0oC d) 1.8oF
xliii. The maximum work done can be measured in the process called:
a) Isobaric b) Isochoric c) Isothermal d) Adiabatic
xliv. The change in disorder of the system is equal to:
∆𝑇 ∆𝑄 ∆𝑄
a) ∆𝑆 = b) ∆𝑆 = c) ∆𝑆 = d) ∆𝑆 = ∆𝑄. 𝑇
𝑄 𝑇 ∆𝑇
xlv. One cubic metre volume is equal to:
a) 102cm3 b) 103cm3 c) 106cm3 d) 10-3cm3
xlvi. In C.G.S system one calorie of heat is equal to:
a) 11.184J b) 2.184J c) 3.164J d) 4.184J
xlvii. The efficiency of Carnot engine is given by:
𝑇1 𝑇1 𝑇2
a) 1− b) −1 c) −1 d) None of them
𝑇2 𝑇2 𝑇1
(2007)
xlviii. Fahrenheit and Celsius scales of temperature coincide at:
a) 0o b) 273o c) -273o d) -40o
xlix. The volume of a given gas at constant pressure become zero at:
a) 273K b) 273oC c) -273K d) -273oC
l. According to the kinetic theory of gases the absolute temperature of a perfect gas is:
a) Inversely proportional to the K.E of the molecules
b) Independent of the kinetic energy of the molecules
c) Equal to the kinetic energy of the molecules
d) Directly proportional to the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules
li. The area of a Carnot cycle represents:
a) Useful work b) Energy loss due to leakage c) Heat rejected d) Heat
absorbed
lii. Two ends “A” and “B” of a rod are at temperatures -10oC and -30oC. the heat will flow from:

a) -30oC to -10oC b) Will not flow at all c) -10oC to -30oC d) None of the
above
liii. 273 K is equal to:
a) 0oF b) -32oC c) -273oF d) 32oF
(2008)
liv. The kinetic energy per mole of gas is:
a) 3/2 kT b) 2/3 kT c) 3/2 RT d) nRT
lv. If the volume of a given mass of a gas is double without changing its temperature, the pressure of the
gas is______________.
a) Reduced to ½ of the initial value
b) The same as the initial value
c) Reduced to ¼ of the initial value
d) Double of the initial value
lvi. A bimetallic thermostat works on the principle of:
a) Linear expansion b) Bulk expansion c) Differential linear expansion d) All the these
lvii. The area bounded by an isothermal and an adiabatic curve in a PV diagram for a heat engine
represents:
a) Heat intake b) Heat rejected c) Work done d) Total kinetic energy
lviii. Entropy has been called the degree of disorder because:
a) The entropy of the universe remains constant
b) The entropy of the universe always increase
c) The entropy of the universe always decrease
d) None of these
lix. A thermodynamic process in which the change in volume of the system is zero tells that:
a) The work done by the system is maximum
b) The work done on and by the system is zero
c) The work done on the system is maximum
(2009)
lx. Heat energy cannot be measured in:
a) Joule b) B.T.U c) Kelvin d) Calorie
lxi. Boyle’s law holds good for an ideal gas in a process called:
lxii. According to the second law of thermodynamics 100 percent conversion of heat energy into work is:
a) Possible b) Not possible c) Possible when conditions are ideal
d) Possible when conditions are not ideal
lxiii. If no heat flows into or out of a system, the process is called:
lxiv. The molar heat capacities of polyatomic gases as compared to mono atomic gases are:
a) Greater b) Smaller c) Equal d) Infinite
lxv. Thermostat is a device used to keep the:
a) Temperature constant b) Entropy constant c) Heat constant d) Pressure
constant
(2010)
lxvi. Two steam engines A and B have their sources at 600oC and 400oC and their sinks at 300oC and 200oC
respectively:
a) They are equal efficient b) A is more efficient than B c) B is more efficient than
A d) If their sinks are interchanged, their efficiencies will not change
lxvii. On Fahrenheit scale the temperature of 50oC will be:
a) 40oF b) 10oF c) 122oF d) 105oF
(2011)

lxviii. Kinetic energy per mole of an ideal gas is:
a) 3/2 kT b) 2/3 kT c) 3/2 RT d) 2/3 RT
lxix. In an Adiabatic expansion the internal energy of the gas:
a) Remains the same b) Decreases c) Increases d) Becomes zero
(2012)
lxx. The maximum work done is possible in this process:
a) Isobaric b) Isothermal c) Isochoric d) Adiabatic
lxxi. Absolute zero correspond to this temperature on Fahrenheit scale:
a) 32 F b) -180 F c) -460 F d) 212 F
lxxii. One kilowatt hour energy is equal to:
a) 3.6x105 J b) 36x105J c) 746 watt d) 6.3x105J
(2013)
lxxiii. The sum of all the energies of the molecules in a substance is called:
a) Heat energy b) Temperature c) Kinetic energy d) Internal energy
lxxiv. The kinetic energy per mole of a gas is:
a) 3/2 kT b) nRT c) 2/3 kT d) 3/2RT
(2014)
lxxv. In this process no heat enters or leaves the system:
a) Isochoric b) Isobaric c) Adiabatic d) Isothermal
lxxvi. Heat energy cannot be measured in:
a) Joule b) B.T.U c) Kelvin d) Calorie
lxxvii. The average internal energy of an ideal gas is called:
a) Pressure b) Volume c) Temperature d) Heat
(2015)
lxxviii. Kinetic energy per mole of an iden gas is:
a) 3/2KT b) 2/3KT c) 3/2RT d)2/3RT
lxxix. If the temperature of a cold body is decreased the efficiency of Carnot engine will:
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain constant d) None of these
(2016)
lxxx. A temperature of 50oC is equal to:
a) 105oF b) 60oF c) 122oF d) 120oF
lxxxi. In an isothermal expansion, the entropy of the system:
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Becomes zero d) Remains constant
(2017)
lxxxii. The area enclosed by P-V diagram of a Carnot cycle represents:
a) Useful work b) energy loss due to leakage c) heat absorbed d) heat rejected
lxxxiii. The ratio of molar specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and molar specific heat at
constant volume is:
a) Equal to one b) less than one c) greater than one d) equal to zero
(2018)
lxxxiv. Heat energy cannot be measured in:
a) Joule b) kelvin c) calorie d) British thermal
energy
lxxxv. The kinetic energy per mole of an ideal gas molecules is:
3 2 3
a) 2
𝑅𝑇 b) 3 𝑘𝑇 c) 𝑛𝑅𝑇 d) 2 𝑘𝑇

(2019)
lxxxvi. The average translational kinetic energy per mole of molecules of a gas is:
a) 3/2 kT b) 2/3 kT c) 3/2 RT d) 2/3 RT
lxxxvii. A container is filled with a simple of an ideal gas at a pressure of 1.5atm. The gas is
compressed isothermally to one-fourth of its original volume. Its new pressure will be:
a) 2 atm b) 4 atm c) 6 atm d) 9 atm
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi. xii. xiii. xiv.
C C C B A A C A A C C B C C
xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii. xxiv. xxv. xxvi. xxvii. xxviii.
D D C D B C A B A C A C B A
xxix. xxx. xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii.xxxviii. xxxix. xl. xli. xlii.
FALS
B D 1/3 A FALSE P∆V OR
nR∆T
D D C D D B D
E
xliii. xliv. xlv. xlvi. xlvii. xlviii. xlix. l. li. lii. liii. liv. lv. lvi.
C B C D D D D D A C D C A C
lvii. lviii. lix. lx. lxi. lxii. lxiii. lxiv. lxv. lxvi. lxvii. lxviii. lxix. lxx.
C A B C C B D A A B C C B B
lxxxiii. lxxxiv
lxxi. lxxii. lxxiii. lxxiv. lxxv. lxxvi. lxxvii. lxxviii. lxxix. lxxx. lxxxi. lxxxii.
C B D D C C C D A C A A C B
lxxxv lxxxvi lxxxvii
A C C
Chapter # 12 (Electrostatics)
Ex # 12.1
Exercise based on Electric charge, Electrostatic Force, Electric field,
Electric flux and Gauss’ Law:
MCQs
i. The law is used to determine electrostatic force between two point charges is called_____________.
a) Faraday’s law b) Gauss’ law c) Coulomb’s law d) None of these
ii. Mathematical expression for coulomb law is______________.
𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑞1 𝑞2 𝑚1 𝑚2
a) 𝐹=𝐾 b) 𝐹 = 𝐾 c) 𝐹 = 𝐺 d) None of these
𝑟2 𝑟2 𝑟2
iii. Coulomb law most closely resembles with_______________.
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Newton’s second law of motion c) Newton’s law of
Gravitation d) None of these
iv. The value of K is___________.
a) 8.85x10-12C2Nm-2 b) 9x109Nm2C-2 c) 9x109Nm2C2 d) None of these
v. ∈𝑜 is called_________.

a) Permittivity of free space b) Relative permittivity c) Dielectric constant d) None of
these
vi. ∈𝑟 is called _________.
a) Permittivity of free space b) Relative permittivity c) Dielectric constant d) Both b
and c
vii. The unit of charge in S.I unit system___________.
a) Ampere b) Volt c) Coulomb d) None of these
viii. If the distance between two charge bodies is halved the force between them becomes___________.
a) One forth b) Double c) Four times d) None of these
ix. The space around a charged body in which its influence can be felt is called an______________.
a) Atmosphere b) Electric field c) Gravitational field d) None of these
x. Electric intensity of a charged body is equal to_____________.
a) Work done by unit charge b) Force experienced by a unit charge c) force between the
two charged bodies d) None of these
xi. The S.I unit of Electric intensity is __________.
a) NC-2b) NC-1 c) N2C-2 d) None of these
xii. The direction of the electric field intensity is_____________.
a) Away from all negative charge b) Toward all negative charges c) The same as the direction
of an electric force d) None of these
xiii. The electric intensity at a point at a distance “r” from the source charge is__________.
𝑞2 𝑞1 𝑞2 𝑞
a) 𝐾 b) 𝐾 c) 𝐾 d) None of these
𝑟2 𝑟2 𝑟2
xiv. The nature of test charge is__________.
a) Negative b) Neutral c) Positive d) None of these
xv. The path along which a unit positive charge moves in an electric field is ___________.
a) Magnetic field line b) Electric field c) An electric field line d) None of these
xvi. The lines of force can be never___________.
a) Interchange b) Intersect c) Exchange d) None of these
xvii. The electric field lines terminate on a ______________.
a) Negative charge b) Positive charge c) Both d) None of these
xviii. The electric field lines originate from a_____________.
a) Negative charge b) Positive charge c) Both d) None of these
xix. The measure of the number of field lines passing through a certain element of area in an electric field
is called_____________.
a) Electric intensity b) Electric flux c) Electric force d) None of these
xx. Electric flux is =___________.
a) ∆∅ = 𝐸⃗ . ∆𝐴 b) ∆∅ = 𝐶 . ∆𝐴 c) ∆∅ = 𝐵 ⃗ . ∆𝐴 d) None of these
xxi. The electric flux through any closed surface depends upon_____________.
a) Shape of the surface b) Medium only c) Charge only d) None of these
xxii. Flux passing through an area will be maximum when the angle between 𝐸⃗ and ∆𝐴 is____________.
a) 90o b) 180o c) 0o d) None of these
xxiii. Flux passing through an area will be minimum when the angle between 𝐸⃗ and ∆𝐴 is____________.
xxiv. The flux through any closed surface is 1/∈𝑜 times the total charge enclosed in it. Is known
as________________.
a) Ampere’s law b) Gauss’ law c) Ohm’s law d) None of these
xxv. The S.I unit of electric flux is______________.
a) N2m2C-1 b) Nm2C-1 c) Nm2C2 d) None of these
xxvi. Gauss’ law is applicable only on___________.
a) Spherical surface b) Cylindrical surface c) any closed surface d) None of these
xxvii. Gauss’ law can be used to evaluate____________.
a) Electric intensity b) Electric flux c) Both d) None of these

xxviii. If the charge +q is placed at the center of sphere then flux through the surface of sphere
is______________.
∈𝑜 𝑞
a) 𝑞 ∈𝑜 b) c) d) None of these
𝑞 ∈𝑜
xxix. Electric intensity of a charged sphere on its surface is______________.
2σ σ σ
a) b) c) d) None of these
ϵo 2ϵo ϵo
xxx. The value of electric field intensity inside the charged sphere if charge is uniformly distributed over
the surface is____________.
𝐹
a) 𝐸= b) 𝐸 = 0 c) infinite d) None of these
𝑞
xxxi. Charge per unit area is called___________.
a) Charge density b) Flux density c) Electric intensity d) None of these
xxxii. The S.I unit of charge density is_____________.
a) NC-1 b) Cm-2 c) C-1m-2 d) None of these
xxxiii. Electric intensity due to infinite sheet of charge is equal to____________.
σ σ σ
2ϵo ϵo 3ϵo
xxxiv. Electric intensity between two oppositely charged parallel plates is_______________.
σ σ σ
2ϵo ϵo 3ϵo
xxxv. The value of resultant electric intensity at a point between two parallel plates with similar and equal
charges is____________.
a) Zero b) infinite c) Both d) None of these
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi. xii. xiii. xiv. xv.
C B C B A D C C B B B C C C C
xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii. xxiv. xxv. xxvi. xxvii. xxviii. xxix. xxx.
B A B B A C C A B B C A C C B
xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv.

A B A B A
Ex # 12.2
Exercise based on Potential Difference and Capacitors:
MCQS
i. The work done on a unit charge moving against electric field intensity is called___________.
a) Electric field b) Electric potential c) Electric current d) None of these
ii. Electric potential due to point charge q at a distance r is_____________.
𝑞 1 𝑞 1 𝑞
a) 𝐾 b) . c) . d) None of these
𝑟2 4𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑟 4𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑟 2
iii. The S.I unit of Electric potential is__________.
a) Ampere b) Ohm c) Volt d) None of these
iv. Electric potential is a ____________.
a) Vector b) Scalar c) Neither scalar nor vector d) Both
v. The relation between electric field intensity “E” and electric potential is_____________.
𝑑𝑉
a) 𝐸= b) 𝐸 = ∆𝑉𝑟 c) 𝐸 = 𝑟/𝑉 d) None of these
𝑑𝑟
vi. Work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to a point against the electric field intensity
is_____________.
a) Absolute potential b) Electric current c) Electric potential d) None of these
vii. Absolute potential at any point p at a distance r is_________________.
1 𝑞 1 𝑞
a) . b) . c) Both d) None of these
4𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑟 2 4𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑟

viii. The earth’s potential is considered as______________.
ix. The charge on capacitor is expressed as____________.
𝑄 𝐶
a) 𝑄 = 𝐶𝑉 b) 𝐶 = c) 𝑉 = d) None of these
𝑉 𝑄
x. Capacitance of a capacitor is directly proportional to___________.
a) Area of plates b) Separation between the plates c) Thickness of plates d) None of
these
xi. Capacitance of a capacitor is inversely proportional to___________.
a) Force between the plates b) Separation between plates c) Thickness of plates d) None of
these
xii. S.I unit of capacitance is____________.
a) Volt b) Ohm c) Farad d) None of these
xiii. One farad is equal to______________.
a) 1coulomb/1volt b) 1joule/1volt c) 1volt/1coulomb d) None of these
xiv. The presence of a dielectric between the plates of a capacitor results in _____________.
a) Decrease in capacitance b) Increase in capacitance c) Remains same d) None of these
xv. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air or vacuum as medium between the plates
is______________.
𝜖𝑜 𝜖𝑟 𝜖𝑜 𝑑
a) 𝐴 b) 𝐴 c) d) None of these
𝑑 𝑑 𝜖𝑜
xvi. Capacitance of capacitors with dielectric as medium between the plates is___________.
𝜖𝑜 𝜖𝑟 𝜖𝑜 𝑑
a) 𝐴 b) 𝐴 c) d) None of these
𝑑 𝑑 𝐴𝜖𝑜
xvii. We can increase the capacitance of parallel plate capacitor by____________.
a) Increasing the area of the plates b) Decreasing the distance between the plates c) Using
dielectric of higher permittivity d) All of them
xviii. The capacitance of two capacitors increases when they are connected in__________.
a) Series b) Parallel c) Both d) None of these
xix. The capacitance of two capacitors decreases when they are connected in__________.
a) Series b) Parallel c) Both d) None of these
xx. When the capacitance C1,C2,C3 are connected in parallel equivalent capacitance is equal
to____________.
1 1 1 1
a) = + + b) 𝐶𝑒𝑞 = 𝐶1 × 𝐶2 × 𝐶3 c) 𝐶𝑒𝑞 = 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 + 𝐶3 d) None of these
𝐶𝑒𝑞 𝐶1 𝐶2 𝐶3
xxi. When the capacitance are connected in series equivalent capacitance is equal to____________.
1 1 1 1
𝑎) = + + b) 𝐶𝑒𝑞 = 𝐶1 × 𝐶2 × 𝐶3 c) 𝐶𝑒𝑞 = 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 + 𝐶3 d) None of these
𝐶𝑒𝑞 𝐶1 𝐶2 𝐶3
xxii. Two capacitors of 4µF are joined in series the combined capacitance is_________.
a) ½ µF b) 2µF c) 8µF d) None of these
xxiii. If two capacitors of 5µF and 7µF are joined in parallel the combined capacitance is____________.
a) 12µF b) 0.12µF c) 2.9µF d) None of these
B B C B A A B C A A B C A B B
xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii.

A D B A C A B A
MCQs From Past Papers: (Complete Chapter)

(2001)
i. When three capacitors are joined in series, the total capacitance,
a) Less than the value of the minimum capacitance
b) Equal to the sum of the capacitance
c) Greater than the maximum capacitance

ii. The unit of electric intensity is:
a) N C/m b) V m c) NC d) V/m
(2002)Pre Eng
iii. Electron volt is a unit of:
a) Energy b) Force c) Potential difference d) Current
(2002)Pre Med
iv. The force per unit charge is known as:
a) Electric flux b) Electric field c) Electric potential d) Electric current
v. If 4µF and 2µF capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitor is:
a) 0.76µF b) 6µF c) 2µF d) 1.33µF
(2003)Pre Med
vi. If two capacitors of 5µF and 7µF are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance will be:
a) 0.12µF b) 12µF c) 0.34µF d) 2.9µF
vii. If a dielectric slab is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, kept at a constant
potentials, the charge on the capacitor.
a) Decrease b) Increase c) Remains unchanged d) Becomes zero
viii. One electron volt is equal to:

a) 1.6x10-11J b) 1.6x10-19J c) 1.6x10-19V d) 3.1x10-13V
(2003)Pre Eng
ix. The presence of dielectric between the plates of a capacitor results in :
a) Increase in the capacitance b) Decrease in the capacitance c) No change in the capacitance
d) None of these
x. The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is called:
a) Electric intensity b) Permittivity c) Potential difference d) Absolute potential
(2004)
xi. The magnitude of electric intensity between two oppositely charge plates is:
2𝜎 𝜎 𝜎 𝜎
a) b) c) d)
𝜖𝑜 2𝜖𝑜 3𝜖𝑜 𝜖𝑜
xii. In case of a parallel combination of capacitors, the net capacity is greater than the greatest individual
(True, False)
xiii. The presence of a dielectric between the plates of a capacitor results in:
xiv. A parallel plate capacitor is given a charge Q, if the separation between the plates is doubled, its capacity
will be doubled. (True. False)
xv. One joule per coulomb is called:
a) Farad b) Gauss c) Ampere d) Volt
xvi. ____________can be expressed in terms of electron volt.
(2005)
xvii. The change in potential energy of a unit charge between two points in an electric field is called:
a) Intensity b) Permittivity c) Potential difference d) Flux
xviii. A dielectric of 𝜖𝑟 = 2 is inserted between the plates of a 20µF capacitor. its capacitance will become:
a) 10µF b) 18µF c) 22µF d) 40µF
(2006)
xix. If 4µF and 2µF capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance is:
a) 1.33µF b) 0.75µF c) 6µF d) 2µF
∆𝑉
xx. The quantity is called:
∆𝑆
a) Electric potential b) Electric field intensity c) Potential gradient d) both b and c
xxi. The concept of the electric lines of force was introduced by a famous scientist:
a) Newton b) Einstein c) Coulomb d) Farad
(2007)
xxii. Which of the following cannot be the unit of electric intensity?

a) N/C b) V/m c) J/C.m d) J/C
xxiii. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
a) Potential Diff. b) EMF c) Electric flux d) Electric intensity
(2008)
xxiv. The introduction of dielectric between the oppositely charged plates causes the intensity to:
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remains constant d) Increase & decrease
xxv. Two positive point charges repel each other with force of 4x10-4N when placed at a distance of 1 meter. If
the distance between them increased by 2m, the force of repulsion will be:
a) 1x10-4N b) 8x10-4N c) 2x10-4N d) 4x10-4N
xxvi. Electric flux through the surface of a sphere which contains a charge at its centre depends on the:
a) Amount of charge outside the sphere c) Surface area of the sphere
b) Amount of charge inside the sphere d) Radius of the sphere
(2009)
xxvii. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field, it becomes:
a) Negatively charge only b) Positively charge only c) Polarized d) Conductive
xxviii. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor does not depend on the:
a) Area of the plates b) Nature of the plates c) Distance between the plates d) Medium
between the plates
xxix. The change in potential energy per unit charge between the two points in an electric field is called:
a) Intensity b) Flux c) Potential Diff. d) Permittivity
(2010)
xxx. Decreasing the separation of two positive charge by one half will cause electrostatic force of repulsion to
change by:
a) 4 times b) 2 times c) ½ time d) ¼ time
xxxi. Which of the following cannot be the scalar quantity?
a) Electric potential b) EMF c) Electric flux d) Electric intensity
(2011)
xxxii. If an electrostatic force between two electrons at a distance, is F Newton, the electrostatic force between
two protons at the same distance is:
a) Zero b) F/2 c) F d) 2F
(2012)
xxxiii. The electric intensity between two uniformly oppositely charged parallel plates is:
2𝜎 𝜎 𝜎 𝜎
a) b) c) d)
𝜖𝑜 2𝜖𝑜 3𝜖𝑜 𝜖𝑜
xxxiv. Joule per coulomb is called:
a) Farad b) Ampere c) Volt d) Henry
(2013)
xxxv. The number of electrons in one coulomb charge is:
a) 6x1020 b) 1.6x1018 c) 6.25x1018 d) 9.1x1019
(2014)
xxxvi. Two capacitors of 3µF and 6µF are connected in series. their equivalent capacitance is:
a) 9µF b) 2µF c) ½ µF d) 3µF
xxxvii. This is not a scalar quantity:
a) Electric flux b) Electric intensity c) E.M.F d) Electric
potential
xxxviii. Joule per coulomb is:
a) Farad b) Henry c) Ampere d) Volt
(2015)
xxxix. 1 Mev, is equal to:
a) 1.6x10-19J b) 1.6x10-13J c) 1.6x1018J d) 1.6x1019J
xl. Decrease the separation between two identical charges by one-half causes the repulsive force to become:
a) One-fourth b) Half c) Double d) Fourfold

(2016)
xli. The number of electrons in one coulomb is:
a) 6.1x1024 b) 6.1x1018 c) 6.25x108 d) 1.6x10-19
xlii. The separation between the plates and the area of plates of a parallel plates capacitors are doubled, then
the capacity will:
a) Become fourfold b) becomes on fourth c) becomes double d) Remain the
same
(2017)
xliii. On equipotential surface, work done in moving a charged particle is:
a) Positive b) negative c) zero d) infinity
xliv. If a dielectric, having ∈𝑟 =2, is inserted between the plates of a 20𝜇f capacitor, its capacitance
will:
a) Remain the same b) be doubled c) be halved d) become zero
(2018)
xlv. This is not the scalar quantity:
a) Electric flux b) Electric intensity c) Electromotive force d) Electric
potential
(2019)
xlvi. The scalar product of electric intensity (𝐸⃗ ) and vector area (𝐴) is called:
a) Electric flux b) electric force c) electric potential d) electric flux density
xlvii. A particle of mass “m” and charge “q” is to be held motionless between two parallel and
horizontal charged plates:
𝑚𝑔 𝑞 𝑚𝑔 𝑞𝑉𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
a) b) c) d)
𝑞𝑉 𝑚𝑔 𝑞 𝑚
Increase the
A D A B D B B B A C D TRUE capacitance
FALSE D
ENERGY C D A D C D D B A B C B C A
xliii. xliv. xlv

xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii.xxxviii. xxxix. xl. xli. xlii.
D C D C C B B D B D C D C B B
xlvi. xlvii
A C
Chapter # 13 (Electricity)
Ex # 13.1
Exercise (Complete Chapter):
MCQs:
i. The rate of flow of charges is called ______________.
a) Voltage b) Resistance c) Current d) None of these
ii. The relation between charges “Q” and current “I” is given by_____________.

𝐼
a) 𝑄= b) 𝑄 = 𝐼𝑡 c) 𝑄 = 𝐼 2 𝑡 d) None of these
𝑡
iii. The SI unit of Electric current is___________.
a) Ohms b) Volt c) Ampere d) None of these
iv. Conventional direction of current is______________.
a) The direction in which the electron drift
b) The direction of flow of positive charges
c) The direction opposite to the flow of positive charges
d) None of these
v. The velocity of the electron which causes the current is_____________.
a) Terminal velocity b) Drift velocity c) Average velocity d) None of these
vi. The potential difference V across a conductor is directly proportional to the current (I) flowing
through it provided the physical state does not change is called_____________.
a) Ampere’s law b) Ohm’s Law c) Faraday’s law d) None of these
vii. Ohms law is only valid for_____________.
a) Metallic conductor b) Non metallic conductors c) Electrolytes d) None of
these
viii. The current through a metallic conductor is due to motion of _________________.
a) Proton b) Electron c) Neutron d) None of these
ix. Mathematical form of Ohm’s law:
𝐼 𝑅
a) 𝑉 = 𝑅𝐼 b) 𝑉 = c) 𝑉 = d) None of these
𝑅 𝐼
x. The Graphical representation of Ohm’s Law:
a) Parabola b) Hyperbola c) Straight line d) None of these
xi. Resistance of a conductor produces due to________________.
a) Collision of free electrons of a conductor with the atoms
b) Collision of Atoms of a conductor
c) Both d) None of these
xii. The SI unit of resistance is______________.
a) Ampere b) Volt c) Ohms d) None of these
xiii. The resistance of a conductor increases with increase in its_____________.
a) Diameter b) Length c) Area of cross section d) None of these
xiv. The resistance of a conductor decrease with increase in its_____________.
a) Diameter b) Length c) Area of cross section d) Both A and C
xv. If one volt is required to causes a current of one ampere to flow in a conductor its resistance
is____________.
a) One Ohm b) One Volt c) One Ampere d) None of these
xvi. Reciprocal of resistance is called________________.
a) Inductance b) Capacitance c) Resistivity d) None of these
xvii. The S.I unit of conductance is_______________.
a) Ohms (Ω) b) Per Ohm (Ω-1) c) Per sq. Ohm (Ω-2) d) None of these
xviii. If the resistance of the conductor is increased then current will______________.
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain the same d) None of these
xix. The resistance offered by the unit length of the wire of unit area of cross section is
called_______________.
a) Temperature coefficient of resistance b) Specific resistance c) Conductance d) None of
these
xx. The S.I unit of resistivity is _____________.
a) Ω/m b) m/Ω c) Ωm d) None of these
xxi. Specific resistance of wire depends upon _______________.
a) Length b) Cross section area c) Both d) Temperature
xxii. The inverse of resistivity (1/𝜌) is called_______________.
a) Inductivity b) Conductivity c) Resistance d) None of these

xxiii. The S.I unit of conductivity is ________________.
a) (Ωm)-1 b) (Ω/m)-1 c) (Ωm)-2 d) None of these
xxiv. The change in resistance per unit resistance per degree rise of temperature is called___________.
a) Temperature coefficient of resistance b) Resistivity c) Conductivity d) None of these
xxv. Expression for temperature coefficient is given by_______________.
𝑅𝑡 −𝑅𝑜 𝑅𝑜 𝑅𝑡 ∆𝑇
a) 𝛼= b) 𝛼 = c) 𝛼 = d) None of these
𝑅𝑜 ∆𝑇 𝑅𝑡 −𝑅∆𝑇 𝑅−𝑅𝑡
xxvi. The unit of temperature coefficient of resistance is_____________.
a) Ω/K b) oC-1 or K-1 c) oF-1or K-1 d) None of these
xxvii. When resistor are connected in series their equivalent resistance is given by the:
a) Sum of the individual resistances
b) Product of the individual resistances
c) Sum of half of the individual resistances
d) None of these
xxviii. The current across each resistance in series combination is____________.
a) Different b) Same c) Zero d) None of these
xxix. The potential difference across each resistance in series combination is_____________.
xxx. Three resistance each of 10Ω are connected in series across 30 volts battery the current flowing
through them will be_____________.
a) 1A b) 15A c) 30A d) 50A
xxxi. If the resistance of 2 ohm and 4 ohm are connected in series the equivalent resistance will
be_______________.
a) 4 Ω b) 6 Ω c) 8 Ω d) None of these
xxxii. When resistance are connected in parallel their equivalent resistance is given by the:
a) Sum of the individual resistances
b) Sum of the reciprocal of the individual resistances
c) Sum of half of the individual resistance
d) None of these
xxxiii. The current across each resistance in parallel combination is____________.
xxxiv. The potential difference across each resistance in parallel combination is:
xxxv. Two resistance of 6 Ohm each are connected in parallel with third resistance of 3 Ohm in series the
equivalent resistance will be______________.
a) 3 Ω b) 4 Ω c) 6 Ω d) 10ohm
xxxvi. There are three equal resistors. How many difference combination of these resistances are possible.
a) Three b) Four c) Six d) Ten
xxxvii. If the resistance of 2Ω and 4Ω are connected in parallel the equivalent resistance will
be_______________.
a) 6Ω b) 4Ω c) 1.33Ω d) None of these
xxxviii. The rate of doing work is called ___________.
a) Energy b) Power c) Voltage d) None of these
xxxix. The energy dissipated as heat in the conductor is equal to the______________.
a) Loss of K.E by the charges
b) Loss of P.E by the charges
xl. P.D, “V” is applied the two ends of a conductor and charge Q flow through it the energy dissipated as
heat is__________.
a) Q/V b) V/Q c) QxV d) None of these

xli. Power dissipated as heat in a conductor of resistance “R” due to electric current “I” is given
by______________.
𝑉2
a) 𝑃 = 𝐼2 𝑅 b) 𝑃 = c) Both d) None of these
𝑅
xlii. A resistor carries current “I”. the power dissipated is “P” the power dissipated if the same resistor
carries the current 3I is ____________.
a) P b) 3P c) 9P d) None of these
xliii. The emf is defined as________________.
∆𝑉 ∆𝑤
a) b) ∆𝑞𝐸 c) d) None of these
∆𝑞 ∆𝑞
xliv. The S.I unit of emf is______________.
a) Ohm b) Coulomb c) Volt d) None of these
xlv. The P.D between the terminals of a source of electrical energy when no current is drawn from it is
called______________.
a) Power b) Terminal Voltage c) Electromotive force d) None of these
xlvi. The terminal potential difference “V” of a cell is_____________.
𝐸
a) 𝑉 = 𝐸 + 𝐼𝑟 b) 𝑉 = c) 𝑉 = 𝐸 − 𝐼𝑅 d) None of these
𝑟
C B C B B B A B A C A C B D A
D B B B C D B A A A B A B A A
xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii. xxxviii. xxxix. xl. xli. xlii. xliii. xliv. xlv.
B B A B C B C B B C C C C C C
xlvi.
A
MCQs from past papers: (Complete Chapter)

(2000)
i. Resistors of 2ohms, 3ohms, and 4ohms are connected is series. if the current flowing through one of
them is one ampere, what is the current through other resistors____________. (fill in the blank)
ii. When “V” volts battery is connected across the bulb and if current “I” is passed through it then its
power will be:
a) VI b) V/I c) V2I d) VI2
iii. Resistivity is reciprocal of conductivity. (True or False)
(2001)
iv. All electrical appliances are connected in parallel to each other between the main line and the
neutral wire to get:
a) Same current b) Same potential difference c) Different current and same potential
difference d) None of above
(2002)Pre Med
v. Kilowatt hour is a unit of:
a) Power b) Conductivity c) Electrical energy d) Resistivity
vi. With the increase of temperature the resistance of conductor:
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remains constant
(2003) Pre Medical
vii. Total potential difference across the combination of three cells becomes maximum when:
a) All the three cells are connected in series.
b) All the three cells are connected is parallel.
c) Two cells are connected in series and the third cell in series with the combination.
d) Two cells are connected in series and third cell in series with the combination.

(2003) Pre Eng
viii. Ohm’s law is obeyed in:
a) Electron tube b) Semiconductor c) metallic conductor d) All of above
(2004)
ix. The resistance of 3ohms, 5ohms and 6ohms are connected in parallel. If 0.3V be the potential
difference between the ends of 3ohms resistors, the potential difference across other resistors is:
a) 0.5V b) 0.7V c) 1.2V d) 0.3V
2 -3 -2
x. The dimension of resistance is ML T A . (True or False)
(2005)
xi. The maximum resistance in A.C circuit is offered by:
a) Capacitor b) Solenoid c) Electromagnet d) Electric bulb
xii. The commercial unit of electrical energy is:
a) Joule b) Kilowatt c) Kilowatt hour d) Mega watt
(2006)
xiii. The rate of transfer of charge through a circuit is called:
a) Resistance b) Current c) Potential difference d) All of the above
xiv. The power dissipated in a resistance is given by:
a) P =VR b) P =V2/R c) P =IR2 d) None of these
(2007)
xv. When a resistor carries a current “I” the power dissipated by it is “P”. if the same resistor carries the
current of “3I” the power dissipation will be:
a) P b) P/3 c) 3P d) None of these
xvi. One-Kilo-Watt-Hour is equal to:
a) 3.6x105J b) 360x106J c) 3.6x104J d) 36x105J
xvii. If the wire of a uniform area of cross section is cut into two equal parts, the resistivity of each part will
be:
a) Halved b) Doubled c) Remain the same d) NOTA
(2008)
xviii. The resistance of 2ohms, 5ohms, 7ohms and 9ohms are connected in parallel. If the potential
difference across the 5ohm resistance is 5V, the potential difference across 9 ohm resistance will be:
a) 9V b) 5V c) 2.5V d) 1.5V
xix. In a house circuit all the electrical appliances are connected in parallel with the phase and the neutral
to get:
a) Same current, and different potential difference
b) Different current but same potential difference
c) Different current and different potential differences
d) Same current and same potential differences
(2009)
xx. The E.M.F of the three cells, each 0f 2 volts, in parallel will be:
a) 6V b) 2V c) 8V d) Zero V
xxi. In the relation I=KV, K stands for:
a) Conductivity b) Resistivity c) Specific resistance d) Conductance
(2010)
xxii. The commercial unit of electrical energy is:
a) Ohm b) Watt c) Kilowatt-hour d) Ampere
xxiii. The electrical energy dissipated as heat in a resistor is given by:
a) I2R b) I2Rt c) V2R d) V2Rt
(2011)
xxiv. Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 are connected in series in circuit. If R1 is greater than R2 the heating
would be:
a) More in R1 b) Same in R1 and R2 c) More in R2 d) All of these

xxv. A copper wire having resistivity 𝜌 is stretched in such a way that its diameter reduces to half of that of
the original wire the new resistivity will be:
a) Halved b) Double c) The same d) Four fold
(2012)
xxvi. Resistors of 2ohms, 3ohms, 4ohms and 5ohms are connected in series. if the current flowing through
2ohms resistors is 1A, the current through the other resistors will be:
a) 4A b) 1A c) 14A d) 0.1A
(2013)
xxvii. Resistors of 3ohm, 5ohm and 7ohm are connected in parallel. If the potential difference across 5ohm
resistor is 6volt, the potential difference across the other resistor is:
a) 4 volt b) 6 volt c) 8 volt d) 10 volt
xxviii. A wire of uniform cross-sectional area is cut into three equal segments, then the resistivity of each
segment will be:
a) ½ 𝜌 b) 1/3 𝜌 c) Same as the whole wire d) 3 𝜌
(2014)
xxix. Resistance of a wire does not depend on the:
a) Temperature b) Length c) Area d) Electric current
(2015)
xxx. Resistance of 5ohm and 10ohm are connected in parallel. If the P.D across 5ohm resistor is 6volts, the
P.D across 10ohm resistor will be:
a) 3 volts b) 6 volts c) 9 volts d) 12 volts
xxxi. A battery of e.m.f.(E) has an internal resistance(r). If a current (I) is drawn from it, then its terminal
potential drop (V) is given by:
a) V=E-Ir b) V=E+Ir c) V=IR d) V=Er
(2016)
xxxii. The electrical energy dissipated as heat in a resistor is:
a) V2R b) V2Rt c) I2Rt d) I2R
(2017)
xxxiii. The emf of the combination of three cells, each of 2volts, connected in parallel will be:
a) 6V b) 3/2 V c) 2V d) 8V
(2018)
xxxiv. When it desire to increase the current without affecting its voltage, the batteries must be
connected in:
a) Series b) parallel c) complex circuit d) some in series and some in parallel

xxxv. A metallic wire of length L, resistance R and resistivity 𝜌 is cut into two equal parts. The
resistivity of each part would be:
𝜌 𝜌
a) 𝜌 b) 2𝜌 c) 2 d) 4
(2019)
xxxvi. Resistances of 10Ω, 30 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. If the current in 10 Ω

resistance is 0.1A then current through 40 Ω resistance will be:
a) 0.4A b) 0.3A c) 0.1A d) 0.08A
xxxvii. The resistance of a current carrying wire does not depend on:
a) Temperature b) Length c) Area d) electric current

1A A TRUE C C A A C D TRUE D C B B D
D C B B B D C B A C B B C D B
xxxiii xxxiv xxxv xxxvi xxxvii

xxxi. xxxii.
A C C B A C D
Chapter # 14
(Magnetism and Electromagnetism)
Ex # 14.1
Exercise based on Force on a moving charge, Force on a
current carrying conductor, Torque on a current carrying coil
in a uniform magnetic field, Magnetic Flux & Flux Density:
MCQs:
i. Which is not magnetic substance:
a) Cobalt b) Nickel c) Copper d) None of these
ii. A substance which behaves like a magnet in the presence of a strong magnetic field is
called_____________.
a) Magnetic substance b) Ferromagnetic c) Magnet d) None of these
iii. The best and quickest method of making magnets is the _____________.
a) Electrical method b) Single touch method c) Both d) None of these
iv. The most efficient method of demagnetizing a magnet is to use ______________.
a) Heat b) Alternating current c) Direct current d) None of these
v. Opposite poles of magnets______________ each other.
a) Attract b) Repel c) Both d) None of these
vi. The direction of magnetic lines was given by_____________.
a) Newton b) Christian Orested c) Maxwell d) None of these
vii. A magnet which can be energized by an electric current is called_________________.
a) Bar magnet b) Electrical magnet c) Electromagnet d) None of these
viii. Heavy pieces of iron are lifted by______________.
a) Hydraulic lift b) Electromagnet c) Solenoid d) None of these
ix. ______________ is a device which converts electric energy into sound energy.
a) Electromagnet b) Electric bell c) Telephone receiver d) None of these
x. A/An____________ force is experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
a) Mechanical b) Electrical c) Magnetic d) None of these
xi. The branch of physics which deals with the study of magnetic field associated with moving charges or
current is called___________.
a) Current electricity b) Magnetism c) Electromagnetism d) None of these
xii. Magnetic field of induction is a_____________.
a) Scalar quantity b) Vector quantity c) Both d) None of these
xiii. The lines of force of induced magnetic field in the region surrounding a current carrying straight wire
are______________.
a) Hyperbolic b) Parabolic c) Circular d) None of these

xiv. “According to right hand rule when a current carrying conductor is griped with the right hand, a
thumb indicates the direction of current”.
a) Middle finger will indicate the direction of magnetic field
b) A thumb will indicate the direction of magnetic field
c) Curl of fingers will indicate the direction of magnetic field
d) None of these
xv. The direction of the magnetic lines of force can be found by_______________.
a) Left hand rule b) Right hand rule c) Ampere’s rule d) None of these
xvi. Force on a moving charge (q) in a uniform magnetic field is given by_______________.
a) 𝐹 = 𝑞(𝑣 × 𝐵 ⃗) b) |𝐹 | = 𝑞𝑉𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 c) Both d) None of these
xvii. Force on a moving charge in a magnetic field is_______________.
a) Parallel to both 𝑉⃗ and 𝐵⃗ b) Perpendicular to both 𝑉 ⃗ and 𝐵
⃗ c) Both d) None of
these
xviii. When a charge particle (q) moving with velocity V in a magnetic field perpendicular to B, force
exerted on it is_______________.
a) Maximum b) Zero c) Infinity d) None of these
xix. When a charge particle (q) moving with velocity V in a uniform magnetic field parallel to B, force
exerted on it is________________.
a) Maximum b) Zero c) Infinity d) None of these
xx. The force exerted on a wire of length one meter carrying one ampere current place at right angle to
the field is called______________.
a) Inductance b) Magnetic induction c) Electromagnetic induction d) None of
these
xxi. The SI unit of magnetic induction is_____________.
a) Weber b) Weber/Meter c) Tesla d) None of these
xxii. The force experienced by a charge particle is maximum when charge particle is projected at an
angle___________.
a) 60o b) 90o c) 180od) None of these
xxiii. The force experienced by a charge particle is zero when charge particle is projected at an
angle___________.
xxiv. Force on conductor carrying current in a uniform magnetic field is given by__________.
a) 𝐹 = 𝐼(𝐿⃗ × 𝐵 ⃗) b) 𝐹 = 𝐵𝐼𝐿𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 c) Both d) None of these
xxv. Force on current carrying conductor in B is________________.
a) Parallel to both L and B b) Perpendicular to both L and B c) Both d) None of
these
xxvi. When the current carrying conductor is kept perpendicular within the uniform magnetic field force
exerted on is________________.
a) Maximum b) Zero c) Infinite d) None of these
xxvii. When the current carrying conductor is kept parallel within the uniform magnetic field force exerted
on is________________.
a) Maximum b) Zero c) Infinite d) None of these
xxviii. Force on current carrying conductor maximum when it is kept at angle______________.
xxix. Force on current carrying conductor Zero when it is kept at angle______________.
xxx. Force exerted on current carrying conductor of unit length is_________________.
a) 𝐹 = 𝐵𝐼𝐿𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 b) 𝐹 = 𝐵𝐼𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 c) 𝐹 = 𝐵𝐴𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 d) None of these
xxxi. Torque on a current carrying coil in magnetic field is______________.
a) 𝜏 = 𝐵𝐼𝑁𝐴𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 b) 𝜏 = 𝐵𝐼𝑁𝐴𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 c) 𝜏 = 𝐵𝐼𝑁𝐴 d) None of these
xxxii. The number of magnetic lines of force crossing surface area normally is called____________.

a) Magnetic intensity b) Magnetic flux c) Magnetic force d) None of these
xxxiii. Magnetic flux is a_____________.
a) Vector quantity b) Scalar quantity c) Both d) None of these
xxxiv. Magnetic flux is defined as______________.
⃗
𝐵
a) ⃗ × ∆𝐴
∆𝜑𝑚 = 𝐵 ⃗ . ∆𝐴
b) ∆𝜑𝑚 = 𝐵 c) ∆𝜑𝑚 = d) None of these
∆𝐴
xxxv. The magnetic flux will be maximum when the angle between B and ∆A is___________.
xxxvi. The magnetic flux will be zero when the angle between B and ∆A is___________.
b) 0o b) 90o c) 180o d) None of these
xxxvii. The magnetic flux per unit area and area at right angle to the magnetic field is
called_______________.
a) Magnetic flux b) Magnetic flux density c) Magnetic intensity d) None of
these
xxxviii. The Si unit of magnetic flux is_____________.
a) Tesla b) Weber c) Henry d) None of these
xxxix. The SI unit of magnetic flux density is____________.
a) Tesla b) Henry c) Weber/metre 2 d) Both A&C
xl. 1 Weber is equals to_____________.
a) 1N-1mA-1 b) 1NmA-1 c) 1N2m2A-1 d) None of these
xli. 1 Tesla is equals to_____________.
a) 1 Wm-2 b) 1W-1m-1 c) 1W2m2 d) None of these
C B A B A C C B C C C B C C B
C B A B B C B A C B A B A A B
xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii.xxxviii. xxxix. xl. xli.
B B B B A B B B D B A
Ex # 14.2
Exercise based on J.J Thomson’s Experiment:
MCQs
i. Magnetic force exerts by the magnetic field on a moving charge particle behaves as_____________.
a) Centripetal force b) Electric force c) Both d) None of these
ii. When charge particle is projected perpendicular to uniform magnetic field its path is_____________.
a) Elliptical b) Circular c) Straight line d) None of these
iii. Which one of the following particles moving in the magnetic field can’t be deflected?
a) Neutron b) Electron c) Proton d) None of these
iv. The magnetic force acts on a charge particle only when it is in______________.
a) Motion b) Rest c) Equilibrium d) None of these
v. When an electron enters in a magnetic field with a velocity V its magnitude of velocity will be
_____________.
a) Changed b) Unchanged c) Zero d) None of these
vi. The magnitude a velocity of a particle will not changed because the magnetic force is_____________.
a) Perpendicular to velocity b) Parallel to velocity c) Opposite to velocity d) None
of these
vii. The magnitude of F remains constant because:
a) “q,V and B are constant” b) V and B are constant c) Only B is constant d) None of
these

viii. The e/m of an electron moving in a circular path in a magnetic field is equal to_____________.
𝑉 𝑉 𝑉
𝐵𝑟 𝐵2 𝑟 2 𝐵𝑟 2
ix. When electron is accelerated through a potential difference V o energy gained by the electron is given
by______________.
a) Vo2e b) ½ Voe c) Voe d) None of these
x. The kinetic energy of electron is equal to_____________.
1
a) ½ mV2= Voe b) ½ mV2 = 2Voe c) = mV2d) None of these
2𝑉𝑜𝑒
xi. The velocity of electron determined by P.D method is given by______________.
2𝑉𝑜𝑒 2𝑚 𝑉𝑜𝑒
a) 𝑉=√ b) 𝑉 = √ c) 𝑉 = √ d) None of these
𝑚 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 𝑚
xii. In particle velocity selector method a beam of electron is passes through____________.

a) Magnetic field b) Electric and magnetic field c) Electric field d) None
of these
xiii. In particle velocity selector method electron moves un deflected along a straight line
because________________.
a) The electric force equal to magnetic force
b) Electric force is greater than magnetic force
c) Magnetic force is greater than electric force
d) None of these
xiv. Velocity of electron determined by particle velocity selector method is______________.
𝐵 𝐸 𝐸
a) 𝑉= b) 𝑉= c) 𝑉 = d) None of these
𝐸 𝐵 𝐷
xv. The radius of the circular path can be determined by the_______________.
a) Shift “a” of light spot from its original path
b) The distance “b” from the point of deflection of the beam in magnetic field
xvi. The radius of the circular path in magnetic field is_____________.
𝑏2 𝑚𝑉
a) 𝑟= b) 𝑟 = c) Both d) None of these
2𝑎 𝐵𝑞
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi. xii. xiii. xiv. xv. xvi.
A B A A B A A A C A A B A B C C
Ex # 14.3
Exercise based on Ampere’s Law:
MCQs
𝜇𝑜 𝐼
i. The equation𝐵 = is known as_____________.
2𝜋𝑟
a) Gauss’s law b) Biot-Savrat’s law c) Ampere’s law d) None of these
ii. Ampere’s law is applicable for steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path
called_____________.
a) Amperian loop b) Ampere’s loop c) Ampere’s path d) None of these
iii. Ampere’s law is used to calculate_______________.
a) Magnetic flux b) electric field intensity c) Magnetic flux density d) None
of these
iv. The relation between the tangential component of magnetic field of induction at points on closed
curve and the net current through the area bounded by the curve is given by______________.
a) Ampere’s theorem b) Gauss’s Theorem c) Biot-Savrat’s Theorem d) None of
these
v. A long wire wound around a cylinder frame of non magnetic material is a:
a) Toroid b) Solenoid c) Rectangular coil d) None of these
vi. When current passes through a solenoid it behaves like a______________.

a) Loop b) Bar magnet c) Conductor d) None of these
vii. The magnetic flux density due to current carrying solenoid is calculated by using:
a) Ampere’s law b) Gauss’s law c) Faraday’s law d) None of these
viii. Magnetic flux density “B” of a solenoid having “n” no of turns per unit length and current “I” through
each turn is given by_____________.
𝜇𝑜 𝐼
a) 𝐵 = 𝜇𝑜 𝑛 2 𝐼 b) 𝐵 = 𝜇𝑜 𝑛𝐼 c) 𝐵 = d) None of these
2𝜋𝑟
ix. The magnetic field inside a solenoid due to current is__________________.
a) Strong and uniform b) Weak c) Non-uniform d) None of these
x. The magnetic field outside the solenoid due to current is__________________.
a) Strong b) Uniform c) Zero d) None of these
xi. A coil of insulated copper wire wound on circular frame is called_____________.
a) Solenoid b) Toroid c) Circular solenoid d) None of these
xii. Magnetic flux density “B” of a toroid is equal to________________.
𝜇𝑜 𝑁𝐼 𝜇𝑜 𝐼
a) 𝐵 = 𝜇𝑜 𝑛𝐼 b) 𝐵 = c) 𝐵 = d) None of these
2𝜋𝑟 4𝜋𝑟
xiii. If the Amperian loop is within the core of toroid then________________.
𝜇𝑜 𝑁𝐼 𝜇𝑜 𝑁𝐼
a) 𝐵= b) 𝐵 = 0 c) 𝐵 = d) None of these
2𝜋𝑟 4𝜋𝑟
xiv. If Amperian loop is outside the core of toroid then_______________.
𝜇𝑜 𝑁𝐼 𝜇𝑜 𝑁𝐼
a) 𝐵= b) 𝐵 = c) 𝐵 = 0d) None of these
2𝜋𝑟 4𝜋𝑟
xv. The value of B is non-uniform within the toroidal coil, because;
a) Magnetic field “B” varies as the inverse or radius ( B∝1/r)
b) Magnetic field “B” is directly proportional to radius
c) Magnetic field does not depend on radius
d) None of these
C A C A B B A B A C B B A C A
Ex # 14.4
Exercise based on Faraday’s law, Mutual induction, Self induction &
Motional EMF:
MCQs
i. Electric current can be produced by changing magnetic field. This phenomenon is
called_________________.
a) Electromagnetic induction b) Magnetic induction c) Induction d) None
of these
ii. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered by________________.
a) Oersted b) Faraday c) Ampere’s d) Both A & B
iii. Induced e.m.f is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux through a loop of wire is
called______________.
a) Faraday’s law b) Lenz’s law c) Gauss’s law d) None of these
iv. Mathematical expression for faradays law is given by_______________.
∆𝜑 ∆𝜑
a) 𝜉= b) 𝜉 = −𝑁 c) 𝜉 = −𝑁∆𝜑d) None of these
∆𝑡 ∆𝑡
v. The direction of an induced current is such as to oppose the causes which produced is known
as______________.
a) Faraday’s law b) Lenz’s law c) Gauss’s law d) None of these
vi. When e.m.f induced across the conductor the current generated is called:
a) Alternating current b) Induce EMF c) Induced current d) None of these
vii. The process in which a change of current in one coil causes an induced e.m.f in another coil nearby it
is called____________.

a) Self induction b) Mutual induction c) Mutual EMF d) None of these
viii. If the current in the primary coil is changed by varying the resistance of the rheostat the magnetic flux
will____________.
a) Remain same b) Change c) Zero d) None of these
ix. Induced e.m.f in the secondary coil is directly proportional to________________.
a) Rate of change of current in the secondary coil
b) Rate of change of current in the primary coil
c) Rate of change of e.m.f in the primary coil
d) None of these
x. The ratio of induced e.m.f in secondary to the rate of change of current in the primary is
called_______________.
a) Self inductance b) Mutual inductance c) Induced current d) None of these
xi. Mathematical expression for mutual inductance is given by________________.
𝜉𝑠 ∆𝐼𝑝 ∆𝜑𝑠
a) 𝑀=− ∆𝐼𝑝 b) 𝑀 = − ( ) 𝜉𝑠 c) 𝑀 = d) None of these
( ) ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡
∆𝑡
xii. The SI unit of mutual inductance is_______________.

a) Weber b) Henry c) Tesla d) None of these
xiii. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils in which a rate of change of current one ampere per second
in the primary coil causes an induced e.m.f of one volt in the secondary coil is equal to____________.
a) One Henry b) One Ampere c) One Volt d) None of these
xiv. The phenomenon of producing e.m.f in the coil due to change of current in the coil itself is
called_______________.
a) Self induction b) Mutual induction c) Self flux change d) None of these
xv. The SI unit of self inductance is________________.
a) Weber b) Tesla c) Henry d) None of these
xvi. The ratio of self induced e.m.f to the rate of change of current in coil itself called:
a) Self inductance b) Mutual inductance c) Induction current d) None of these
xvii. Mathematical expression for self induction is_____________.
𝜉 𝜉 ∆𝐼
a) 𝐿=− ∆𝐼 b) − c) − ( ) 𝜉d) None of these
( ) ∆𝐼 ∆𝑡
∆𝑡
xviii. Self inductance of the coil depends upon______________.
a) Number of turns of the coil b) Cross-sectional area of the coil c) Both d) None of
these
xix. An e.m.f setup across a conductor when it moves across magnetic field is called:
a) Potential difference b) Motional EMF c) EMF d) None of these
xx. The motional e.m.f developed in the conductor of length “L” when it moves in a magnetic field with a
velocity “V” in the magnetic field strength “B”:
a) 𝜉 = 𝑉𝐵𝐿𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 b) 𝜉 = 𝑉𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 c) 𝜉 = 𝑉𝐵𝐿𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃d) None of these
xxi. The motional e.m.f developed in the conductor when it moves in a magnetic field perpendicular to
“B” is given by___________.
a) 𝜉 = 𝑉𝐵 b) 𝜉 = 𝑉𝐵𝐿 c) 𝜉 = 𝑉𝐿d) None of these
xxii. The motional e.m.f develops in the conductor because:
a) Due to magnetic force on each electron it transfers from one end to the other end of the
conductor
b) Due to motion of electric field
c) Due to motion of magnetic field
d) None of these
A B A B B C B B B B A B A A C
xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii.

A A C B A B A
Ex # 14.5
Exercise based on A.C Generator & Transformer:
MCQs
i. A device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy or vice versa is called:
a) Electric device b) Mechanical device c) Electromechanical device d) None of
these
ii. A device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is______________.
a) Electric motor b) A.C generator c) D.C generator d) None of these
iii. Generator converts mechanical energy into______________.
a) Heat energy b) Electrical energy c) K.E d) None of these
iv. When a coil is rotated in a magnetic field an emf of alternating nature is induced in it. This the
principle of_____________.
a) A.C generator b) D.C generator c) Electric motor d) None of these
v. In A.C generator a coil of insulated wire wound on a soft iron cylinder is called:
a) Brush b) Slip ring c) Armature d) None of these
vi. When the plane of rotating coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field, then the e.m.f induced in it
is______________.
a) Zero b) Maximum c) Negative d) None of these
vii. When the velocity of longer side is perpendicular to magnetic field then the induce e.m.f
is________________.
a) Zero b) Maximum c) Negative d) None of these
viii. A device which is used for changing A.C voltages is called____________.
a) Capacitor b) Inductor c) Transformer d) None of these
ix. A transformer is based on the principle of_______________.
a) Self induction b) Magnetic induction c) Mutual induction d) None of these
x. Transformer are used in circuits containing____________.
a) A.C alone b) D.C alone c) Both d) None of these
xi. A transformer consist of an iron core with_____________.
a) Primary coil b) Secondary coil c) Both d) None of these
xii. The best material for the core of transformer is_______________.
a) Stainless steel b) Hard steel c) Soft iron d) None of these
xiii. Soft iron core is used in a transformer to______________.
a) Decrease the magnetic flux b) Increase the magnetic flux c) Both d) None of
these
xiv. The transformer equation is given by_____________.
𝑉𝑝 𝑁𝑠 𝑉𝑠 𝑁𝑠 𝑉𝑠
a) = b) = c) = 𝑁𝑝 𝑁𝑠 d) None of these
𝑉𝑠 𝑁𝑝 𝑉𝑝 𝑁𝑝 𝑉𝑝
xv. If the number of turns in the secondary coil is greater than the primary coil (𝑁𝑠 > 𝑁𝑝 ) the transformer
is called_____________.
a) Step-up b) Step-down c) Both d) None of these
xvi. If the number of turns in the secondary coil is less than the primary coil (𝑁𝑠 < 𝑁𝑝 ) the transformer is
called_____________.
b) Step-up b) Step-down c) Both d) None of these
xvii. The efficiency of a transformer is given by_______________.
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡
a) 𝜂= × 100% b) 𝜂 = × 100%
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑦
c) 𝜂 = × 100% d) None of these
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑦
xviii. The current in primary “𝐼𝑝 ” and the current in the secondary “𝐼𝑠 ” are_____________.

a) Inversely proportional to respective voltage
b) Directly proportional to voltages
c) They are proportional to voltages
d) None of these
xix. The relation between the current and voltage of the primary and the secondary is given
by______________.
𝑉𝑠 𝐼𝑠 𝑉𝑠 𝐼𝑝 𝑉𝑝 𝐼𝑝
a) = b) = c) = d) None of these
𝑉𝑝 𝐼𝑝 𝑉𝑝 𝐼𝑠 𝑉𝑠 𝐼𝑠
C A B A C A B C C A C C A B A
xvi. xvii. xviii. xix.

B B A B

(1999)
i. Which of the two charged particles of the same mass will be deflected most in a magnetic field?
a) Fast moving b) slow moving
(2001)
ii. The maximum magnetic force will act in a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field when it is
placed:
a) At 60o to field b) Parallel to the field c) Perpendicular to the field d) At an
o
angle of 45 to the field
iii. The current produced by moving the loop of a wire across the magnetic field is called.
a) Electric current b) A.C current c) D.C current d) Induced current
iv. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor when it is placed in a magnetic field is.
a) 𝐹 = 𝐼(𝑉 ⃗ ×𝐵 ⃗) b) 𝐹 = 𝐼(𝐿⃗ × 𝐵⃗ ) c) 𝐹 = 𝐵 ⃗ (𝐼 × 𝐿⃗) d) None
v. The phenomenon of producing e.m.f in the coil due to the change of current in the coil itself is called.
a) Mutual induction b) Self induction c) Magnetic flux d) None of the above
(2002)Pre Med
vi. A steady current passing through a conductor produces:
a) An electric field only
b) A magnetic field only
c) Both electric and magnetic fields
d) Neither electric nor magnetic field
vii. If a straight conductor of length “L” carrying a current “I” is placed parallel to a magnetic field “B” the
force experienced by the conductor is.
a) 𝐵𝐼𝐿 b) 𝐵𝐼𝐿𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 c) Zero d) Infinite
viii. When a charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly, its path is:
a) Spiral b) Circular c) Parabolic d) Straight line
(2002)Pre Eng
ix. Transformer works on:
a) Ohms law b) Self induction c) Mutual induction d) Gauss’s law
x. The deflection torque on a current carrying coil placed in a magnetic field is maximum when the angle
between magnetic field and the plane of the coil is:
a) 0o b) 90o c) 60o d) 45o
(2003)Pre Eng
xi. The force acting on a charged particle projected into a magnetic field of induction B in maximum
when the angle between B and the velocity of the particle is:
a) 0o b) 90o c) 60o d) 45o
xii. A transformer is used to change:

a) Capacitance b) Frequency c) Voltage d) Power
(2003)Pre Med
xiii. One Tesla is equal to:
a) 1 Weber/metre2 b) 2 weber2/metre2 c) Weber/metre d)
Newton/ampere
xiv. An electric current through a conductor produces around it:
a) An electric field b) A magnetic field c) An electric and a magnetic field d) First a
magnetic field and then an electric field
xv. When the north pole of a bar magnet approaches the face of a closed coil the face becomes:
a) South pole b) First north pole and then south pole c) North pole d) No effect
is observed
xvi. In step-down transformer:
a) Ns>Np b) Ns<Np c) Ns = Np
(2004)
xvii. The unit of magnetic flux is Weber. (True or False)
xviii. Ampere’s law can be used to find electric intensity. (True or False)
xix. Henry is the unit of mutual inductance. (True or False)
(2005)
xx. The direction of induction current is given by:
a) Ampere’s law b) Faraday’s law c) Lenz’s law d) Snell’s law
xxi. The path of a neutron moving normal to a magnetic field is a/an:
a) Straight line b) Circular c) Oval d) Sinusoidal
xxii. SI unit of induction is:
a) Tesla b) Henry c) Watt d) Weber
xxiii. The force per unit length of a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is given by:
a) 𝐼𝐵𝐿𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 b) 𝐼𝐵𝐿𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 c) 𝐼𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 d) 𝐼𝐵𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
(2006)
xxiv. Which is not magnetic material?
a) Iron b) Nickel c) Cobalt d) Silver
xxv. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
a) Tesla b) Weber c) Gauss d) Ohm
xxvi. The path of a neutron moving normal to a magnetic field is:
a) A straight path b) A circular path c) An oval path d) A sinusoidal path
(2007)
xxvii. A device which converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy is called:
a) Transformer b) Capacitor c) Galvanometer d) Electric motor
(2008)
xxviii. In a conventional transformer:
a) The current moves from primary to the secondary winding without any change
b) E.M.F is induced in the secondary by the changing magnetic flux
c) The heat is transferred from primary to secondary
xxix. A charged particle moving in the magnetic field B experiences a resultant force:
a) Proportional to the kinetic energy
b) In the direction of the field
c) In the direction perpendicular to its motion and field
d) None of these
(2009)
xxx. Which one is not a unit of magnetic flux density?
a) NA-1 b) Wb/m2 c) Tesla d) VA-1S
xxxi. When an A.C generator is converted into a D.C generator, slip rings are replaced by:
a) A dynamo b) A split ring c) A field coil d) An inductor

xxxii. The practical application of the phenomenon of mutual inductance is:
a) A.C generator b) Transformer c) Rectifier d) Dynamo
(2010)
xxxiii. The e.m.f induced in a coil is independent of:
a) Change of flux b) Number of turns c) Time d) Resistance
xxxiv. Transformers are used in circuits containing:
a) D.C alone b) A.C alone c) Both A.C and D.C d) Non-inductive winding
(2011)
xxxv. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce the loss of energy caused by:
a) NA∅ b) heating c) Eddy current d) All of these
xxxvi. Two free parallel wires carrying current in the opposite direction:
a) Do not affect each other b) Attract each other c) Repel each other d) None of
these
xxxvii. If the number of turns in a coil is doubled, its self inductance will be:
a) Doubled b) Halved c) The same d) Four fold
(2012)
xxxviii. The practical application of phenomenon of mutual inductance is:
a) A.C generator b) Transformer c) rectifier d) Dynamo
xxxix. An electric current on passing through a conductor, produces around it:
a) An electric field b) A magnetic field c) Both electric and magnetic field d) First a
magnetic then an electric field
(2013)
xl. The practical application of phenomenon of mutual inductance is:
b) A.C generator b) Transformer c) rectifier d) Dynamo
xli. The direction of induced current is given by:
a) Ohm’s law b) Lenz’s law c) Coulomb’s law d) Ampere’s law
xlii. When an AC generator is converted into DC generator the slip ring is replaced by:
a) An inductor b) A field coil c) A split ring d) A dynamo
(2014)
xliii. When an AC generator is converted into DC generator the slip ring is replaced by:
a) A dynamo b) A split ring c) A field coil d) A inductor
xliv. The path of a neutron, moving perpendicular through a magnetic field is:
a) Straight line b) Circular c) Oval d) Sinusoidal
(2015)
xlv. If the number of turns in a coil is doubled, its self-inductance will became:
a) halved b) Doubled c) Threefold d) Fourfold
xlvi. when an electron moves in a magnetic field (B) with a velocity (V), the magnetic force acting on it is
perpendicular to:
a) V and not on B b) B but not on V c) Neither V nor B d) Both V and B
(2016)
xlvii. The device converts electrical energy into mechanical energy:

a) Generator b) transformer c) electric motor d) transistor
xlviii. The force experience by a current carrying conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field:
a) 𝐹 = 𝐼(𝐿⃗ × 𝐵⃗ ) b) 𝐹 = 𝐿(𝑉 ⃗ ×𝐵⃗ ) c) 𝐹 = 𝐼(𝑉 ⃗ ×𝐵 ⃗ ) d) 𝐹 = 𝐼(𝐸⃗ × 𝐵⃗)
(2017)
xlix. If the conventional electric current is flowing from top to bottom in a wire then the direction
of the magnetic lines of induction will be:
a) Anticlock wise b) parallel to the wire c) antiparallel d) clockwise

l. If the speed of a conductor, moving in a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly is increased, the
induced emf:
a) Increases b) decreases c) remains constant d) becomes zero
(2018)
li. The practical application of the phenomenon of mutual induction is:
a) AC generator b) Transformer c) Rectifier d) Dynamo
lii. Tesla (T) is equal to:
a) Newton x coulomb b) newton x ampere c) newton/ampere x meter

d) newton x meter/ampere
(2019)
liii. Non-inductive coil in a resistance box is used to minimize:
a) Eddy current b) Beat loss c) Mutual induction d) Self induction
liv. The path of neutron, moving perpendicularly through a uniform magnetic field is:
a) A straight line b) circular c) oval d) sinusoidal
A C D B B B C B C A B C A B A
xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii. xxiv. xxv. xxvi. xxvii. xxviii. xxix.
B TRUE FALSE TRUE C A A C D B A D B C
xxx. xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii. xxxviii. xxxix. xl. xli. xlii. xliii. xliv.
A B B D B D C A B B B B C B A
xlv. xlvi. xlvii. xlviii. xlix l li lii liii. liv.

B D C A D A B C D A
Chapter # 15
(Electrical measuring instruments)
Ex # 15.1
MCQs based on Galvanometer:
i. Galvanometer is a/an ____________ instrument.
a) Electronic b) Mechanical c) Electromechanical d) None of
these
ii. Galvanometer is sub-divided into____________ types.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) None of
these
iii. In moving magnet galvanometer _______________ are rotated on a dial.

a) Coil b) Magnetic pole c) Both d) None of
these
iv. Galvanometer is an instrument used to measure_____________.
a) Resistance b) EMF c) Small current d) None of
these
v. When current flow through the coil of a galvanometer it experiences___________.
a) Force due to electric field b) Electric force c) Couple d) None of
these
vi. Usually internal resistance of galvanometer is_____________.
a) High b) Very low c) Zero d) None of these
vii. A soft-iron cylinder is placed inside the coil of a galvanometer to make the magnetic
field:
a) Stronger and radial b) Only stronger c) Only radial d) None of these
viii. The current passing through the coil of a galvanometer is____________.
a) Inversely proportional to the angle of deflection
b) Directly proportional to the angle of deflection
c) Does not depend on angle of deflection
d) None of these
ix. The magnitude of deflection of coil decreases with time is called_____________.
a) Damping b) Sensitivity c) Resistance d) None of
these
𝑐
x. The galvanometer can be made sensitive if the value of the factor 𝐵𝐴𝑁
is____________.
a) Large b) Small c) Constant d) None of
these
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x.
C A B C C A A B A B
MCQs based on Ammeter:

i. Ammeter is used to measure____________.
a) Small current b) Large current c) Voltage d) None of
these
ii. Shunt resistance “Rs” is equal to____________.
𝐼𝑔 𝐼𝑔 𝑅𝑔 𝐼𝑔 𝑅𝑔
a) b) c) d) None of
𝐼−𝐼𝑔 𝐼−𝐼𝑔 𝐼𝑔 −𝐼
these
iii. Galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by
connecting___________________.
a) High resistance in series b) Low resistance in parallel
c) Low resistance is series d) None of these
iv. The low value of resistor which is connected parallel to convert the galvanometer
into an ammeter called________________.

a) Conductance b) Inductance c) Shunt d) None of
these
v. A resistance of galvanometer is 6Ω, maximum current of 2A is measured by it. The
required resistance to convert into an ammeter reading up to 6A will
be____________.
a) 4Ω b) 3Ω c) 6Ω d) None of
these
vi. An ammeter is always connected:
a) In series with the circuit through which current is to measured
b) In parallel with the circuit through which current is to measured
c) In series with the circuit across which potential difference is to be measured
d) None of these
vii. A galvanometer has resistance 50 ohms and deflects full scale when a current of
10mA flows on it. What shunt resistance is required to convert it into an ammeter of
range 10A.
a) 5Ω b) 0.05Ω c) 0.005Ω d) None of
these
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii.
B B B C B A B
MCQs based on Voltmeter:

i. A voltmeter is used to measure______________.
a) Current b) Potential difference c) Resistance d) None of
these
ii. For the conversion of galvanometer into voltmeter we connect
a__________________.
a) Low resistance in series with galvanometer
b) High resistance in parallel with galvanometer
c) High resistance in series with galvanometer
d) None of these
iii. A resistance used in galvanometer to make it voltmeter is called______________.
a) Low resistance b) Multiplier c) both of these d) None of
these
iv. A voltmeter is always connected in______________.
a) Series with circuit b) Parallel to circuit c) Both of these d) None of
these
v. Which of the following must be high resistance instrument?
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Galvanometer d) None of
these
vi. Mathematical expression for high resistance which is connected in series with
galvanometer is given by_____________.
𝑅𝑔 𝑉 𝐼
𝑔
a) 𝑅𝑥 = −𝑉 b) 𝑅𝑥 = (𝐼 ) − 𝑅𝑔 c) 𝑅𝑥 = (𝑉 ) − 𝑅𝑔 d) None of these
𝐼𝑔 𝑔 𝑔

i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi.
B C B B B B
MCQs based on Wheatstone bridge:

i. Wheatstone bridge used to determine unknown_____________.
a) Capacitance b) Voltage c) Current d) None of
these
ii. In using Wheatstone bridge the quantity which is to be balanced is______________.
a) Voltage b) Resistance c) Current d) None of
these
iii. The condition under which no current will flow through the galvanometer is
called________________.
a) A balance condition b) Null point c) Both of these d) None of
these
iv. Wheatstone bridge is balanced when_____________.
a) Current through galvanometer is maximum
b) P.D across galvanometer is maximum
c) P.D across the ends of galvanometer is zero
d) None of these
v. Wheatstone bridge is balanced for which:
a) Current through the galvanometer may be zero
b) Current through the galvanometer must be zero
c) Resistance of galvanometer must be zero
d) None of these
vi. Under balanced condition the expression for Wheatstone bridge is given by:
𝑅1 𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅 𝑅2 𝑅
a) = 𝑅2 b) = 𝑅3 c) = 𝑅4 d) None of these
𝑅3 4 𝑅2 4 𝑅1 1

D A C C B B
MCQs based on Metre bridge:

i. A metre bridge is used to determine unknown__________________.
a) Resistance b) Current c) Voltage d) None of these
ii. A metre bridge is the instrument based on the principle of________________.
a) Potentiometer b) Wheatstone bridge c) P.O. Box d) None of these
iii. Metre bridge is also called____________.
a) Slide wire b) Wheatstone bridge c) Resistance bridge d) None of these
iv. The length of the wire of the metre bridge:
a) May be one metre b) Must be one metre c) Must be less than one metre
d) None of these

v. If the unknown resistance “X” is connected in one gap and the known resistance “R”
is connected in the other gap of the metre bridge then for balanced condition
unknown resistance is given by________________.
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
a) 𝑋 = 𝑅 (𝐿𝑥 ) b) 𝑋 = 𝑅 ( 𝐿𝑅 ) c) 𝑋 = 𝐿𝑥 ( 𝑅𝑅 ) d) None of these
𝑅 𝑥
i. ii. iii. iv. v.

A B A A A
MCQs based on Potentiometer:

i. Potentiometer is used to find out_____________.
a) Unknown resistance b) Unknown potential between points of a circuit
c) both unknown resistance and potential d) None of these
ii. The instrument used to compare the EMFs of two cells is called_______________.
a) Ohm meter b) Potentiometer c) Voltmeter d) None of
these
iii. The length of the wire of potentiometer:
a) Must be one metre b) May be one metre c) May be 10 metre
d) None of these
iv. A potentiometer is a kind of _______________.
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Ohm meter d) None of
these
v. Under balanced condition the expression for potentiometer is given
by_______________.
𝐸𝑥 𝐼 𝐸𝑠 𝐼𝑥 𝐸𝑥 𝐼𝑥
a) = 𝐼𝑠 b) = c) = d) None of these
𝐸𝑠 𝑥 𝐸𝑥 𝐼𝑠 𝐸𝑠 𝐼𝑠
vi. The larger the length of wire of potentiometer, the ____________ is the accuracy of
measurement.
a) Greater b) Smaller c) Does not depend on length d) None of
these
B B C B C A
Miscellaneous MCQs:
i. Post office Box is used to find unknown_______________.
a) Current b) P.D c) Resistance d) None of these
ii. P.O. Box is based on the principle of_______________.
a) Galvanometer b) Wheatstone bridge c) Mutual induction d) None of
these
iii. Which was first introduced for finding the resistance of telegraph:
a) Wheatstone bridge b) Metre bridge c) P.O. Box d) None of
these

iv. Which one is the useful device for quick measurement of resistance:
a) Ohmmeter b) Wheatstone bridge c) P.O. Box d) None of
these
v. A single device used to measure current, voltage and resistance is
called_____________.
a) Multi meter b) AVO-meter c) Both a and b d) None of
these
i. ii. iii. iv. v.

C B C A C

(1999)
i. To increase the accuracy of potentiometer_____________.
a) A uniform wire of large length should be used
b) A uniform wire of a small length should be used
c) Non uniform wire should be used
(2001)
ii. A galvanometer can be used to measure the current by connecting:
a) Low resistance in series b) High resistance is series c) Low resistance in
parallel
(2002)Pre Eng
iii. AVO meter is used to measure:
a) Current b) Voltage c) Resistance d) All of them
iv. A metre bridge is used to measure:
a) Voltage b) Inductance c) Capacitance d) Resistance
v. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting:
a) Low resistance is series b) High resistance is series c) Low resistance in
parallel d) High resistance in parallel
(2003)Pre Med
vi. Potentiometer is a device for measuring:
a) Potential difference between the two points of a circuit
b) Voltage between the two points of a circuit
c) EMF of the current source
d) All the above
(2003)Pre Eng
vii. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting a:
a) Low resistance in series b) High resistance in series c) low resistance in
parallel d) High resistance in parallel
viii. To increase the accuracy of a potentiometer_____________.
a) A uniform wire of large length should be used
b) A uniform wire of a small length should be used
c) Non uniform wire should be used

ix. The principle of post office box is based on:
a) Telegraph b) Terminal potential difference c) Multi meter d) Wheatstone
bridge
(2006)
x. In Wheatstone bridge circuit we balance:
a) Resistance b) Current c) Voltage d) All of these
xi. The unit of least count on a galvanometer scale represents:
a) Division b) Ohm c) Volt d) Henry
𝐶
xii. 𝐼 = (𝐵𝑁𝐴)𝜃 hence to increase the sensitivity of a galvanometer, we must decrease
the value of:
a) 𝜃 b) N c) B d) C
(2007)
xiii. A moving coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by connecting to it:
a) Low resistance in series b) High resistance in series c) High resistance in
parallel d) Low resistance in parallel
(2008)
xiv. The sensitivity of galvanometer can be increased by increasing:
a) Magnetic field b) Area of coil c) Number of turns d) All of them
(2009)
xv. The working principle of a post office box is:
a) Wheatstone bridge b) Potentiometer c) Telegraph line d) None of these
(2010)
xvi. A single device containing ammeter, voltmeter and ohmmeter is called:
a) VTVM b) CRO c) Potentiometer d) Multi meter
(2011)
xvii. If the length of the wire of potentiometer is increased the accuracy in the
determination of null point:
a) Increases b) Remains the same c) Decreases d) Become zero
(2012)
xviii. AVO meter is used to measure:
a) Electric current b) Voltage c) Resistance d) All of them
(2013)
xix. Meter bridge is used to measure:
a) Electric current b) Voltage c) Resistance d) Capacitance
(2014)
xx. This is a high resistance instrument:
a) Voltmeter b) Ammeter c) Galvanometer d) Motor
(2015)
xxi. An instrument which can measure and compare potentials without drawing any
current from the circuit is known as a/an:
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Potentiometer d) AVO-meter
xxii. A device consisting of ammeter, voltmeter and ohmmeter is called:
a) Potentiometer b) multimeter d) CRO d) VTVM

(2017)
xxiii. In a moving coil galvanometer, pole pieces of U-shaped magnet are made concave:
a) To make the field radial b) to weaken the field c) to increase the sensitivity of
galvanometer d) to decrease the sensitivity of galvanometer
𝑅1 𝑅
xxiv. When the condition 𝑅2
= 𝑅3 is satisfied in a wheatstone bridge, the current in the
4
galvanometer becomes:
a) Zero b) maximum c) half
d) double
(2018)
xxv. In electric circuit, Rheostat can be largely used as the:
a) Source of current b) source of potential c) potential divider d) power supply
(2019)
xxvi. Concave magnetic poles, with a fixed soft-iron cylinder in a moving coil galvanometer,
make the magnetic field:
a) Weak b) radial c) zero d) infinite
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi.
A C D D C D C A D C A
xii. xiii. xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii.
D D D A D A D C A C B
xxiii xxiv xxv. xxvi.
A A C B
Chapter # 16 (Electronics)
Ex # 16.1
MCQs (Complete Chapter):
i. In _____________ we study about electron emitting devices.
a) Electricity b) Electronics c) Electrostatics d) None of these
ii. Germanium and silicon belong to group _____________.
a) IIIA b) IV A c) VA d) None of these
iii. If Ge or Si is doped with pentavalent element, then___________ substance is
formed.
a) N-type b) P-type c) Both a & b d) None of these
iv. If Ge o Si is doped with a _______________ element, then p-type substance is
formed.
a) Trivalent b) Tetavalent c) Pentavalent d) None of these
v. P-type impurity is also called __________ impurity.
a) Acceptor b) Donner c) Pentavalent d) None of these
vi. ____________ impurity is also called donner impurity.
a) P-type b) N-type c) Both d) None of these

vii. P-type substance can accept____________.
a) Protons b) Holes c) Electrons d) None of these
viii. P-type substance have free____________.
a) Protons b) Holes c) Electrons d) None of these
ix. _____________ is an electronic device consists of a p-n junction.
a) Diode b) Triode c) Transistor d) None of these
x. Transistor consist of_____________ p-n junctions.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None of these
xi. Diode is used as a/an________________.
a) Amplifier b) Modifier c) Rectifier d) None of these
xii. _____________ p-n junction has the lowest electrical resistance.
a) Normal b) Forward biased c) Reversed biased d) None of these
xiii. _____________ p-n junction is the most insulated.
a) Normal b) Forward biased c) Reversed biased d) None of these
xiv. For full-wave rectification we use ____________ diodes in circuit.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) None of these
xv. For ____________ wave rectification we use only one diode.
a) Half b) Full c) Double d) None of these
xvi. ______________ converts A.C into D.C.
a) Transistor b) Amplifier c) Rectifier d) None of these
xvii. _______________ can be used as an amplifier.
a) Diode b) Transistor c) Both d) None of these
xviii. ______________ changes a small voltage input into a large voltage output.
a) Amplifier b) Rectifier c) Modifier d) None of these
xix. Every modern airport is equipped with a/an_______________.
a) Amplifier b) Rectifier c) Radar system d) None of these
xx. We can watch a cricket match live from England in Pakistan due to ______________.
a) Radar system b) Telecommunication c) Communication satellite
xxi. The substance that have intermediate value of resistivity (10-1Ωm) are
called_____________.
a) Conductor b) Insulator c) Semiconductor d) None of these
xxii. A pure semiconductor is called______________.
a) Intrinsic semiconductors b) Extrinsic semiconductors c) Both of these
d) None of these
xxiii. In case of semiconductors:
a) There is a wide forbidden gap between conduction band and valance band
b) Conduction band and the valance band overlap each other
c) There is narrow forbidden gap between conduction band and valance band
d) None of these
xxiv. The process of addition of impurities to a pure semi conductor is
called_____________.
a) Doping b) Welding c) Mixing d) None of
these

xxv. The doped semiconductor materials are called_______________.
a) Intrinsic semiconductors b) Extrinsic semiconductors c) Both of
these d) None of these
xxvi. When tri-valent substances are added to germanium or silicon the semiconductor
formed is called________________.
a) P-type b) N-type c) PN-type d) None of these
xxvii. When pentavalent substance are added to germanium or silicon the
semiconductor formed is called________________.
a) P-type b) N-type c) PN-type d) None of these
xxviii. Accepter impurities are impurities of__________________.
a) Group IV b) Group V c) Group III d) None of these
xxix. Donor impurities are impurities of__________________.
a) Group IV b) Group V c) Group III d) None of these
xxx. In P-type semiconductors majority charge carriers are______________.
a) Electrons b) Holes c) Protons d) None of these
xxxi. In N-type semiconductors majority charge carriers are______________.
a) Electrons b) Holes c) Protons d) None of these
xxxii. A hole of a semiconductor is treated as_______________.
a) Positive charge b) Negative charge c) Neutral d) None of these
xxxiii. In semiconductor material, current flows due to ________________.
a) Positive charge b) Negative charge c) Both of these d) None of these
xxxiv. The junction which is formed by melting P-type and N-type semiconductor by a
special manufacturing process (Thermo compression) is called_______________.
a) P-n junction b) Junction diode c) Both of these d) None of these
xxxv. Depletion region consist of________________.
a) Holes only b) Electrons only c) Neither holes nor electrons d) Both
electrons and holes
xxxvi. When p-type is connected to positive terminal and N-type is connected to negative
terminal of battery is called______________.
a) Forward biasing b) Reverse biasing c) Biasing only d) None of these
xxxvii. When p-type is connected to negative terminal and N-type is connected to positive
terminal of battery is called______________.
a) Forward biasing b) Reverse biasing c) Biasing only d) None of these
xxxviii. When p-n junction is connected forward biased its junction resistance
becomes____________.
a) Low b) High c) Both of these d) None of these
xxxix. When p-n junction is reverse biased its junction resistance becomes____________.
a) Low b) Zero c) High d) None of these
xl. A semiconductor diode conducts when it is_______________.
a) Forward biased b) Reverse biased c) Both of them d) None of these
xli. During the positive half-cycle of half wave rectification the diode:
a) Does not conduct b) Conducts c) Either of these d) None of
these

xlii. Output of rectifier is_______________.
a) Alternating current b) Direct current c) Pulsating direct current
d) None of these
xliii. The words transistor means_____________.
a) Transconductance b) transforming conductor c) Transfer
resistor d) None of these
xliv. In a transistor if the central region is p-type then this type of transistor is known
as___________________.
a) p-n-p transistor b) n-p-n transistor c) Either of these d) None of these
xlv. In a transistor if the central region is n-type then this type of transistor is known
as___________________.
a) p-n-p transistor b) n-p-n transistor c) Either of these d) None of these
xlvi. The transistor consists of______________.
a) Two layers of doped semiconductors
b) Three layers of doped semiconductors
c) Four layers of doped semiconductors
d) None of these
xlvii. In sequence the three layers of a transistor are called______________.
a) Base, emitter, collector b) Emitter, base, collector c) Collector, base,
emitter d) None of these
xlviii. For normal operations of a transistor:
a) Emitter-base junction forward biased and collector-base junction reverse
biased
b) Emitter-base junction reverse biased and collector-base junction forward
biased
c) Both of these
d) None of these
xlix. In N-P-N transistor arrowhead is directed_____________.
a) Outward b) Inward c) Has no direction d) None of
these
l. In P-N-P transistor arrowhead is directed_____________.
a) Outward b) Inward c) Has no direction d) None of
these
li. In a P-N-P transistor emitter current is equal to______________.
a) 𝐼𝐵 + 𝐼𝑐 b) 𝐼𝐵 − 𝐼𝑐 c) 𝐼𝐶 − 𝐼𝐵 d) None of
these

B B A A A B C B A B
xi. xii. xiii. xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx.
C B C B A C B A C C
xxi. xxii. xxiii. xxiv. xxv. xxvi. xxvii. xxviii. xxix. xxx.

C A C A B A B C B B
xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii. xxxviii. xxxix. xl.
A A C C D A B A C A
xli. xlii. xliii. xliv. xlv. xlvi. xlvii. xlviii. xlix. l.

C B C B A B B A A B
li.

(2001)
i. P-type semiconductor is obtained by adding impurity material of group__________.
a) Five element b) Three element c) Four element d) Six element
(2002)Pre Med
ii. Semi conductor diode can be used as_____________.
a) Amplifier b) Rectifier c) Potentiometer d) Voltmeter
(2003)
iii. The speed of electromagnetic waves is given by:
1 1
a) b) c) √𝜇𝑜 𝜖𝑜 d) 𝜇𝑜 𝜖𝑜
√𝜇𝑜 𝜖𝑜 𝜇𝑜 𝜖𝑜
iv. In p-type semiconductor majority charge carriers are:
a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Holes
v. Electrical conductors contain:
a) Only free electrons b) Only bond electrons c) Both free and bound electrons
d) Neither free nor bound electrons
vi. The elements of group IV like Ge and Si can be converted intp p-type semiconductor by:
a) Adding impurities of group V-A elements
b) Adding impurities of group III-A elements
c) Adding impurities of group V-A and III-A elements
d) None of these
vii. The semiconductor diode is used as:
a) An amplifier b) An oscillator c) A rectifier d) None of these
(2005)
viii. A semiconductor diode is used as:
a) Amplifier b) Rectifier c) Modulator d) Oscillator
(2006)
ix. A pn-junction can be used as:
a) Rectifier b) Amplifier c) Transformer d) Ohm-meter
(2007)
x. The speed of electromagnetic waves is given by:
1 1
xi. A semiconductor diode is used as:
a) Amplifier b) An Oscillator c) A Rectifier d) None
(2008)

xii. The potential difference applied across pn-junction which results in the reduction in the
barrier potential is:
a) Reverse biased b) Forward biased c) Charging inductor d) Inductor
xiii. In a semiconductor:
a) Electrons move in the conduction band while the holes moves in the forbidden
band.
b) Holes moves in the conduction band while the electrons move in the forbidden
band.
c) Electrons move in the conduction band while the holes move in the valence band.
d) Holes move in the conduction band while the electrons move in the valence band.
(2009)
xiv. The device which is used to convert AC into DC is called:
a) Amplifier b) LED d) Commutator c) Rectifier
xv. A diode which gives of visible light when energized, is called:
a) LCD b) Photo-diode c) LED d) Photo voltaic cell
(2011)
xvi. Emitter base junction is forward biased in:
a) PNP transistor b) NPN transistor c) Both PNP and NPN transistor d) Rectifier
xvii. Pn-junction diode works as an insulator if connected:
a) To AC source b) In forward bias c) In reverse bias d) All of them
xviii. A photoelectric cell transforms light energy into:
a) Heat energy b) Electric energy c) Magnetic energy d) Sound energy
(2012)
xix. With the increase of temperature the resistance of a semiconductor:
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remains same d) Becomes zero
(2013)
xx. The speed of electromagnetic waves is given by:
1 1
xxi. A diode which gives of visible light when energized, is:
a) Photo diode b) LED c) Photo voltaic cell d) LCD
(2014)
xxii. Hole in a semiconductor is actually the:
a) Electron b) Positron c) Helium nucleus d) Vacancy in the valence band
(2015)
xxiii. Donor impurities are:
a) Ge and Si b) In and Ga c) Sb and As d) Li and Ga
xxiv. Those are donor impurities:
a) Li and Ga b) Ge and Si c) Sb and As d) In and Ga
(2017)
xxv. In a semiconductor, the energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is:
a) Narrow b) wide c) not present d) infinity
(2018)
xxvi. Emitter base junction is forward biased in:

a) PNP transistor b) NPN transistor c) Both PNP and NPN transistors d) Neither PNP
nor NPN transistor

(2019)
xxvii. The application of electric potential across the diode is called:
a) Doping b) biasing c) impurity addition d) potential barrier
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi. xii.
B B A D C B C B A A C B
xiii. xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii. xxiv.
C C C C C B B A B D C C
xxv xxvi xxvii.
A C B
Chapter # 17 (Advent of Modern physics)

Ex # 17.1
Exercise based on Special theory of relativity:
MCQs
i. A frame of reference moving with constant velocity is called___________.
a) None initial frame of reference b) Inertial frame of reference c) Constant
frame of reference d) None of these
ii. Apparent motion observed in different frames of reference by an
observer__________.
a) Are same b) Are different c) Both d) None of these
iii. The co-ordinate transformation of one frame of reference into another frame of
reference, moving with uniform velocity is called__________.
a) Newton’s transformation b) Galilean transformation c) Neither of these
d) None of these
iv. For two frames of reference moving relative to each other the relation V = V + V’ for
velocity is called_______________.
a) Newton’s transformation for velocities b) Galilean transformation for
velocities c) Both of these d) None of these
v. An accelerating frame of reference is called___________.
a) Inertial frame of reference b) Non inertial frame c) Both of these d) None
of these
vi. An inertial frame is that frame in which_____________.
a) a>0 b) a=0 c) a<0 d) None of these
vii. In inertial frame of reference_____________.
a) Newton’s laws of motion are valid b) Newton’s laws of motion are not
valid c) Both of them are true d) None of these
viii. The famous special theory of relativity is proposed by______________.
a) Maxwell b) Coulomb c) Einstein d) None of these
ix. The special theory of relativity is based on______________.
a) One postulate b) Two postulates c) Three postulates d) None of these

x. The assumption that all frames of references moving with uniform velocity relative
to each other are equivalent for the statement of description of physical law is called
the___________.
a) Principle of Newton’s law b) Principle of motion c) Principle of relativity d)
None of these
xi. According to the special theory of relativity mass of an object of rest mass m o moving
at speed v is given by________________.
𝑚𝑜 𝑚𝑜 𝑣2
a) 𝑚 = 𝑣
b) 𝑚 = 2
c) 𝑚 = 𝑚𝑜 √1 − 𝑐 2 d) None of these
√1−𝑐 √1−𝑣2
𝑐
xii. According to the special theory of relativity the expression for time dilation is given
by________________.
𝑣2 𝑡𝑜 𝑡𝑜
a) 𝑡 = 𝑡𝑜 √1 − 𝑐 2 b) 𝑡 = 2
c) 𝑡 = 𝑣
d) None of these
√1−𝑣2 √1−𝑐
𝑐
xiii. According to the special theory of relativity the length of a rod Lo in moving frame
appear to an observer in another frame is______________.
𝐿𝑜 𝑣2 𝐿𝑜
a) 𝐿 = 2
b) 𝐿 = 𝐿𝑜 √1 − 𝑐 2 c) 𝐿 = 𝑣
d) None of these
√1−𝑣2 √1−𝑐
𝑐
xiv. In different inertial frames of reference the velocity of an object observed by

observers in their respective frames will be___________.
a) Same b)Different c) Opposite d) None of these
xv. The special theory of relativity is related to the________________.
a) Non inertial frame b) Inertial frame of reference c) Both of these d) None
of these
xvi. The general theory of relativity treats problems involving_____________.
a) Inertial frame of reference b) Accelerated frames of reference c) Both of
xvii. The speed of light is same for all observers_____________.
a) In same frames of reference b) In different frames of reference c) Both of
xviii. The description of physics laws for all inertial frames are__________.
a) Equivalent b) Not equivalent c) Neither of these d) None of these
xix. Einstein’s mass energy relation is given by_______________.
𝑚
a) 𝐸 = 𝑚2 𝑐 2 b) 𝐸 = 2
c) 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐 2 d) None of these
√1−𝑣2
𝑐
xx. If the rest mass of particle is mo and relativistic mass is m then its K.E will
be_________________.
1
a) 𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 − 𝑚𝑐 2 b) 𝑚𝑐 2 − 𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 c) 2 𝑚𝑜 𝑣 2 d) None of these
xxi. According to special theory of relativity a moving clock:
a) Ticks faster b) Ticks slower c) Neither runs faster nor slower d) None of
these
xxii. If a body of rest mass mo moving with the speed of light (c) then its mass
becomes______________.

a) Zero b) Double of its rest mass c) Infinite d) None of these
xxiii. According to the special theory of relativity space and time have___________.
a) Absolute meaning b) Relative meaning c) Selective meaning d) None of
these
B B B B B B A C C C B B
xiii. xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii.
B B B B C A C B A C B
Ex # 17.2
Exercise based on black body radiation:
MCQs
i. The radiant energy emitted per second per unit area in a unit wavelength range is
called____________.
a) Radiant energy power b) Monochromatic Emissive power (𝐸𝜆 )
c) Radiation power of black body d) None of these
ii. Radiations emitted by black body depend on___________.
a) Temperature only b) Material of the body c) Both of these d) None of
these
iii. When a black body is heated the radiations from the hole of the cavity is
called____________.
a) Black body radiation b) Cavity radiation c) Both of these d) None of these
iv. A perfect black body is__________.
a) Hollow metallic cavity whose exterior walls are blacked
b) Hollow metallic cavity with narrow opening whose interior walls are blacked
c) Neither of these d) None of these
v. The value of Stephen constant for a black body radiation is given by___________.
a) 5.6x10-8Wm-2k-4 b) 5.6x10-6Wm-2k-4 c) 2.9x10-3mk d) None of these
vi. According o Stephen’s law about black body___________.
1
a) 𝐸 ∝ 𝑇 4 b) 𝐸 ∝ 𝑇 2 c) 𝐸 ∝ 𝑇 4 d) None of these
vii. According to Wien’s displacement law of black body radiation wavelength of
maximum intensity and temperature are related by___________.
1
a) 𝜆𝑚 ∝ 𝑇 b) 𝜆𝑚 ∝ 𝑇 c) 𝜆𝑚 ∝ 𝑇 2 d) None of these
viii. Wien’s formula is excellent for radiations of______________.
a) Shorter wavelength b) Longer wavelength c) Neither of these d) None of
these
ix. According to Rayleigh-Jeans law of black body energy associated with a particular
wavelength is related to wavelength by___________.
1 1
a) 𝐸𝜆 ∝ 𝜆 b) 𝐸𝜆 ∝ 𝜆4 c) 𝐸𝜆 ∝ 𝜆2 d) None of these
x. According to Max Plank, the energy of each quanta is given by:

ℎ
a) 𝐸 = 𝜈 b) 𝐸 = ℎ𝜈 c) 𝐸 = √ℎ𝜈 d) None of these
xi. Rayleigh jean formula is valid for_____________.
a) Shorter wavelength b) Longer wavelength c) Neither of these d) None of
these
xii. Planks formula for the energy distribution in black body radiation best fits for___
a) Short wavelength b) Long wavelength c) Both of these d) None of these

B A A B A C B A B B B C
Ex # 17.3
Exercise based on photoelectric effect:
MCQs
i. The minimum frequency of the incident radiations below which no electrons are
emitted from the metal surface is known as____________.
a) Minimum frequency b) work function c) Threshold frequency d) None of
these
ii. The emission of electrons when certain metal surface is exposed to electromagnetic
radiations called___________.
a) Compton effect b) Photoelectric effect c) Pair-production d) None of
these
iii. The minimum energy of photon required to dislodge an electron from metal without
giving it any K.E is known as_____________.
a) Work function b) Maximum frequency c) Threshold frequency d) None of
these
iv. Photoelectric effect is discovered by_____________.
a) Einstein b) Maxwell c) Hertz d) None of these
v. The negative potential at which the ejection of photoelectrons just stops is
called____.
a) Maximum potential b) Stopping potential c) Potential d) None of these
vi. In photoelectric emission the number of photo electrons emitted per second
depends on_____________.
a) Wavelength of incident light b) Frequency of incident light
c) Intensity of incident light d) None of these
vii. The strength of the photoelectric current depends on_____________.
a) Frequency of incident radiation b) Intensity of incident radiation c) Angle
of incidence d) None of these
viii. The Einstein’s photoelectric equation is____________.
1
a) ℎ𝜈 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 − 𝜙𝑜 b) ℎ𝜈 = 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 + 𝜙𝑜 c) ℎ𝜈 = 𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 + 𝜙𝑜 d) None of
these

ix. The photoelectric emission takes place if_______________.
b) ℎ𝜈 < 𝜙𝑜 b) ℎ𝜈𝑜 < 𝜙𝑜 c) ℎ𝜈 > 𝜙𝑜 d) None of these
x. Einstein explained photoelectric effect on the basis of following assumption:
c) Light has particle nature b) Light consist of photons or quanta c) Light has
wave nature d) None of these
xi. The Einstein’s photoelectric effect equation in terms of threshold frequency is
written as____________.
ℎ𝜈−ℎ𝜈𝑜
a) 𝐾. 𝐸𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎ𝜈 + ℎ𝜈𝑜 b) 𝐾. 𝐸𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎ𝜈 − ℎ𝜈𝑜 c) 𝐾. 𝐸𝑚𝑎𝑥 = d)
2
None of these
xii. The maximum energy of photoelectron is given by______________.
1 1
a) 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 = 2 𝑚𝑣 b) 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 = 𝑚𝑔ℎ c) 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 𝑚𝑎𝑥 d) None of these

C B A C B C B B C B B C
Ex # 17.4
Exercise based on Compton effect:
MCQs
i. Compton derived the expression for the change in wavelength Δ𝜆 for scattering
angle 𝜃 is given by_____________.
ℎ ℎ ℎ
a) Δ𝜆 = 𝑚 𝑐 (1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃) b) Δ𝜆 = 𝑚 𝑐 (1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃) c) Δ𝜆 = 𝑐 (1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃) d)
𝑜 𝑜
None of these
ii. When electromagnetic radiation falls on a stationary electron the frequency of the
scattered radiation decreases this effect called______________.
a) Photoelectric effect b) Compton effect c) Radiation d) None of these
iii. The change in wavelength of the scattered photon in Compton effect is
called________.
a) Wavelength shift b) Frequency shift c) Compton shift d) None of these
iv. The wavelength of incident radiation in Compton effect____________.
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remain same d) None of these
v. Compton scattering confirms_____________.
a) Quantum theory b) Wave particle duality c) Both of these d) None of these
vi. In Compton effect the law of conservation of energy and
momentum_____________.
a) Are valid b) Only one is valid c) Both of them are not valid d) None of
these
B B C B C A
Ex # 17.5
Exercise based on pair production & annihilation of matter:

MCQs
i. The conversion of photon into an electron and position pair when it passes very
closer to heavy stable nucleus is called__________.
a) Annihilation of matter b) Compton effect c) Pair production d) None of
these
ii. In order to produce pair production, a photon must have energy____________.
a) 0.511Mev b) 0.256Mev c) 1.02Mev d) None of these
iii. The pair production equation can written as_______________.
a) ℎ𝜈 = 2𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 + 𝐾. 𝐸(𝑒 − ) b) ℎ𝜈 = 2𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 + 𝐾. 𝐸(𝑒 + ) c) ℎ𝜈 = 2𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 +
𝐾. 𝐸(𝑒 − ) + 𝐾. 𝐸(𝑒 + ) d) None of these
iv. In order to create an electron position pair minimum energy of photon should
be_____.
1
a) 𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 b) 2𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 c) 2 𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 d) None of these
v. The inter conversion of mass energy according to relation 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐 2 is proved by the
phenomenon of_____________.
a) Pair production b) Compton effect c) Plank’s Quantum theory d) None of
these
vi. When a particle (Electron) and its anti particle (position) moving in opposite
direction come close to each other their mass is converted into photons this
phenomenon is known as____________.
a) Pair production b) Annihilation of matter c) Photoelectric effect d) None
of these
vii. When an electron and position combined two photons produced are of
energy______ .
viii. Energy conservation equation of annihilation of matter is represented
by____________.
a) (𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 )𝑒 − + (𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 )𝑒 + + 𝐾𝐸𝑒 − + 𝐾𝐸𝑒 + = 2ℎ𝜈
b) (𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 )𝑒 − + (𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 )𝑒 + = ℎ𝜈
c) (𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 )𝑒 − + (𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 )𝑒 + = 2ℎ
d) None of these
ix. In annihilation of matter two photons produced___________.
a) Move along same direction b) Move along opposite direction c) Do not
move d) None of these
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix.
C C C B A B B A B
Ex # 17.6
Exercise based on matter waves and Heisenberg’s uncertainty
principle:
MCQs

i. It is impossible to determine both the position and momentum of particle
simultaneously with accuracy this principle is known as___________________.
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Law of conservation of momentum
c) Uncertainty principle d) None of these
ii. Mathematical expression for uncertainty principle is given by_____________.
ℏ
a) Δ𝑥Δ𝑝 ≈ 2 b) Δ𝑥Δ𝑝 ≈ 2ℏ c) Δ𝑥Δ𝑝 ≈ ℏ d) None of these
iii. Uncertainty principle was proposed by____________.
a) Einstein b) Compton c) Heisenberg d) None of these
iv. The form of uncertainty principle which related energy of a particle and the time at
which it had the energy is given by______________.
a) Δ𝐸h ≈ Δt b) ΔEΔh ≈ 2Δt c) ΔEΔt ≈ ℏ d) None of these
v. The dimensional representation of plank’s constant is same as that
of_____________.
a) Momentum b) Torque c) Angular momentum d) None of these
i. ii. iii. iv. v.

C C C C C

(2001)
i. The relativistic changes in mass, length and time in daily life are not observed
because:
a) The masses o objects are very large
b) The size of objects is very large
c) The velocity of objects is very small in comparison to the velocity of light
ii. As the temperature of a black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to the
maximum intensity:
a) Shift towards longer wavelength b) Shifts towards shorter wavelength
c) Greater frequency and greater wavelength d) None of the above
iii. In Compton effect, the scattered photon has:
a) Greater frequency and smaller wavelength
b) Smaller frequency and greater wavelength
c) Greater frequency and greater wavelength
(2002)Pre Med
iv. The maximum Kinetic energy of photoelectron emitted from a metal depends upon:
a) The frequency of incident light only b) The wavelength of incident light only
c) Work function of the metal only d) None of them
(2002)Pre Eng
v. Max Planck is well known because of his:
a) Energy quantization b) Energy conservation c) Wave particle duality d)
Momentum conservation
vi. A frame of reference is called inertial if it is:
a) Rotator b) Accelerated c) Moving with uniform velocity d) Vibratory

vii. According to Uncertainty principle:
a) (∆𝑥)(∆𝑡) = ℎ b) (∆𝑥)(∆𝑝) = ℏ c) (∆𝐸)(∆𝑝) = ℎ d) (∆𝑥)(∆𝐸) = ℎ
viii. The Einstein photo electric equation is:
1
a) 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 = ℎ𝜈 + 2 𝑚𝑣 2 b) ℎ𝜈 = 𝑚𝑐 2 + 𝑉𝑜 c) 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 = ℎ𝜈 − ℎ𝜈𝑜 d) 𝑉𝑜 𝑒 =
1 1
[ℎ (𝜆 − 𝜆 )]
𝑜
ix. The absorption of an incident radiation by a perfect black body is:
a) 0% b) 100% c) 90% d) 50%
x. Pair production is only possible when incident photon has the wavelength of the
order of:
a) 10-4m b) 10-6m c) 10-10m d) 10-14m
(2003)Pre Med
xi. The reverse of pair production is known as:
a) Fusion b) Annihilation of electrons and positrons c) Fission
d) Annihilation of electrons and protons
(2003) Pre Eng

xii. The formula for the momentum of photon is:
a) ℎ𝑐/𝜆 b) ℎ/𝜆 c) 𝜆/ℎ d) 𝑐/𝜆
xiii. If the frequency of light causing photoelectron emission is doubled, the kinetic
energy of photoelectron will be:
a) increase by a factor 1/√2 b) Double c) Increase by a factor less than 2
d) Increase by a factor greater than 2
xiv. Wein’s law is given as:
a) 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑇 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 b) Ω𝑇 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 c) 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 √𝑇 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 d)
4
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑇 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
(2004)
xv. The number of photoelectrons emitted from a metal depends upon:
a) The frequency of incident light b) The wavelength of the incident light c)
The colour of the incident light d) The intensity of the incident light
xvi. In pair production we need photons of at least 1.02Mev energy. {True/False}
xvii. The energy of each quantum as proposed by Plank is given by E=h𝜈.
xviii. The disintegration of photon into electron and positron near a heavy nuleus is
known as:
a) Annihilation b) 𝛽 decay c) 𝛼 decay d) Pair production
xix. The ration of the mass of proton to the mass of electron is 1836.
(2005)
xx. One atomic mass unit is equal to:
a) 1.6x10-19J b) 9.1x10-27kg c) 931x106eV d) 9x109eV
xxi. The frequency of the incident radiation corresponding to the work function is called:
a) Fundamental frequency b) working frequency c) Critical
frequency d) Threshold frequency
xxii. The radiation from black body depends upon the:
a) Material of the body b) Size of the body c) Shape of the body
d) Temperature of the body
xxiii. As a result of elastic collision between a photon and an electron the:
a) Frequency of the photon is increased
b) Wavelength of the photon is increased

c) Energy of the photon is increased
d) X-rays are produced
(2006)
xxiv. The formula for the momentum of photon is:
a) ℎ/𝜆 b) ℎ𝜆 c) 𝜆/ℎ d) 𝑐/𝜆
xxv. the emissive power of a black body radiation is proportional to:
a) T b) T2 c)T4 d)T -4
(2007)
xxvi. A frame of reference is called inertial if it is:
a) Rotator b) Accelerated c) Vibratory d) Moving with uniform velocity
xxvii. In Compton effect, the scattered photon has:
a) Greater frequency and smaller wavelength
b) Greater frequency and greater wavelength
c) Smaller frequency and grater wavelength
xxviii. The wavelength of the material particle of mass “m” moving with a velocity “v” is
given by:
ℎ𝜈 𝑚 𝑣 ℎ
a) 𝜆 = 𝑚 b) 𝜆 = ℎ𝜈 c) 𝜆 = ℎ𝑚 d) 𝜆 = 𝑚𝑣
xxix. The absorption of the incident radiation by a perfect black body is:
a) 0% b) 50% c) 90% d) 100%
xxx. A Compton shift depends only on photon’s:
a) Scattering angle b) Wavelength c) Frequency d) none
(2008)
xxxi. Galilean transformations are applicable to a frame of reference which is:
a) Stationary b) Moving c) Inertial d) Non inertial
xxxii. A perfect black body:

a) Is a perfect absorber of radiation b) Has a unit absorptive power
c) Is the most efficient radiator d) All of them
xxxiii. The experimental evidence of Einstein’s mass energy equation is:
a) Photoelectric and Compton effect b) Elastic collision
c) Pair production and annihilation of matter d) Radioactive emission
xxxiv. The expression 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑇=constant, represents:
a) Stefan’s law b) Wein’s displacement law c) Rayleigh jean’s
formula d) Plank’s law
(2009)
xxxv. The emissive power of a black body radiation is proportional to:
a) T b) T2 c) T4 d) T -4
xxxvi. The photoelectric emission takes place if:
a) ℎ𝜈 < 𝜙𝑜 b) ℎ𝜈 > 𝜙𝑜 c) ℎ𝜈𝑜 < 𝜙𝑜 d) 𝜈𝑜 < 𝜙𝑜
xxxvii. According to Uncertainty principle:
a) (∆𝐸)/(∆𝑡) = ℎ b) (∆𝐸) = (∆𝑡)/ℎ c) (∆𝐸)(ℎ) = ∆𝑡
d) (∆𝐸)(∆𝑡) = ℏ
(2010)
xxxviii. The phenomenon of pair production takes place if the energy of photon is greater
than:
xxxix. The emissive power of a black body is proportional to:
a) T b) T5 c) T -4 d) T4

(2011)
xl. As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to the
maximum intensity shifts towards:
a) Shorter wavelength b) Longer wavelength c) Similar wavelength
d) Lower frequency
xli. A photoelectric cell transform light energy into:
a) Heat energy b) Electric energy c) Magnetic energy d) Sound energy
xlii. De-Broglie’s wavelength associated with the particle is given by:
𝑚 ℎ ℎ 𝑚ℎ
a) 𝜆 = ℎ𝜈 b) 𝜆 = 𝑚𝜈2 c) 𝜆 = 𝑚𝜈 d) 𝜆 = 𝜈
xliii. The minimum energy required for pair production is:
a) 1.02Mev b) 102Mev c) 10.2Mev d) 1.02 volt
xliv. In order to increase the kinetic energy of an ejected photo-electron, there should be
an increase in:
a) Frequency of radiation b) Wavelength of radiation c) Intensity of
radiation d) Both wavelength and intensity
(2012)
xlv. According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity, the mass of a particle moving with
the speed of light will become:
a) Zero b) Double c) Infinite d) Ten time
xlvi. The mathematical expression 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑇=constant, is called:
b) Stefan’s law b) Wein’s displacement law c) Rayleigh jean’s formula
d) Plank’s law
xlvii. According to Uncertainty principle:
a) (∆𝑥)(∆𝑡) = ℏ b) (∆𝑥)(∆𝑝) = ℏ c) (∆𝑥)(∆𝐸) = ℏ d) (∆𝐸)(∆𝑝) = ℏ
(2013)
xlviii. The rest mass of photon is:
a) 1 b) Zero c) Infinity d) -1
xlix. As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to the
maximum intensity shifts towards:
a) Similar wavelength b) Shorter wavelength c) Longer wavelength d)
None of these
(2014)
l. The energy radiated per second per unit area from the surface of a black body is
directly proportional to its absolute temperature raised to power:
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
li. de-Broglie wave length is:
𝑚𝜈 ℎ ℎ 𝑚ℎ
a) 𝜆 = b) 𝜆 = 2 c) 𝜆 = d) 𝜆 =
ℎ 𝑚𝜈 𝑚𝜈 𝜈
(2015)
lii. In Compton’s scattering experiment, the scattered photon has a:
a) Frequency less than that of incident photon b) Frequency greater than that
of incident photon c) Same frequency as that of incident photon d)
Wavelength shorter than that of incident photon
liii. 1 Mev is equal to:
a) 1.6x10-19J b) 1.6x10-13J c) 1.6x1018J d) 1.6x1019J
liv. The rest mass of a photon is:
a) -1 b) zero c) 1 d) Infinite
(2016)

lv. Stefan Boltzmann’s Law is:
a) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 b) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 4 c) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 2 d) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 −4
lvi. The rest mass of photon is:

a) 1 b) -1 c) Zero d) Infinite
(2017)
lvii. In the phenomenon of photoelectric effect, if the frequency of incident radiation is increased,
the required stopping potential:
a) Increases b) decreases c) does not charge d) becomes zero
lviii. A frame of reference is called inertial if it is:
a) Rotatory b) accelerated c) vibratory d) moving with uniform velocity
(2018)
lix. De-Broglie’s wavelength is given as:
𝑚𝑣 ℎ ℎ 𝑚ℎ
a) 𝜆 = ℎ b) 𝜆 = 𝑚𝑣 2 c) 𝜆 = 𝑚𝑣 d) 𝜆 = 𝑣
lx. This particle has no charge, no rest mass and can interact with all charged as well as neutral
particles:
a) Alpha particle b) Neutron c) Photon d) Positron
(2019)
lxi. If mo is the rest mass of an electron, pair production takes place only if the minimum
energy of incident photon is equal to:
2𝑚 2
a) 𝑐 2𝑜 b) 𝑚 𝑐 2 c) 𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2 d) 2 𝑚𝑜 𝑐 2
𝑜
lxii. Stefan-Boltzmann law is:
a) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 b) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 4 c) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 3 d) 𝐸 = 𝜎𝑇 2
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi.

C B B A A C B C B D B
xii. xiii. xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii.
B D A D True D 1836 C D D
xxiii. xxiv. xxv. xxvi. xxvii. xxviii. xxix. xxx. xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii.
B A C D C D D A D D C
xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii. xxxviii. xxxix. xl. xli. xlii. xliii. xliv.
B C B D B D A B C A A
xlv. xlvi. xlvii. xlviii. xlix. l. li. lii. liii. liv. lv.
C B B B B D C A B B B
lvi. lvii. lviii. lix lx lxi lxii
C A D C C D B
Chapter # 18 (Atomic Spectra)

Ex # 18.1
Exercise of Complete Chapter:

MCQs
i. Energy required by an atom to move from ground state to higher state is called____.
a) Ionization energy b) Excitation energy c) Both of these d) None of these
ii. If an electron jumps from lower to higher orbit it will___________.
a) Absorb energy b) Absorb as well as emit energy c) Neither absorb emit
energy d) None of these
iii. Hydrogen atom spectrum consists of lines in____________.
a) Ultraviolet b) Visible c) Infra-red d) All of these
iv. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom only those orbits around the nucleus
allowed along which angular momentum of electron is____________.
ℎ ℎ 2𝜋
a) 𝑟 (2𝜋) b) 𝑛 (2𝜋) c) 𝑛 ( ℎ ) d) None of these
v. The value of Plank’s constant h=________________.
a) 6.6510-34J/k b) 8.65x10-34J.s c) 6.625x10-34j.s d) None of these
vi. When electron goes from higher orbit of energy En to a lower orbit of energy Ep then
the frequency of the emitted radiation is given by___________.
𝐸𝑝
a) 𝜈 = (𝐸𝑛 − 𝐸𝑝 )/ℎ b) ℎ𝜈 = 𝐸 c) 𝜈 = (𝐸𝑝 − 𝐸𝑛 )/ℎ d) None of these
𝑛
vii. The radius of 1st orbit of hydrogen atom is______________.
a) 2.120 oA b) 0.92 oA c) 0.53 oA d) None of these
viii. The radius rn of allowed orbit of hydrogen atom are related to principle quantum
number as_______________.
1
a) 𝑟𝑛 ∝ 𝑛 b) 𝑟𝑛 ∝ 𝑛 c) 𝑟𝑛 ∝ 𝑛2 d) None of these
ix. The numerical value of ground state energy level for hydrogen atom
is____________.
a) -13.6eV b) -10.6eV c) 5.6eV d) None of these
x. The potential energy of electron at a distance r from the positive charge is given
by______.
𝐾𝑒 3 𝐾𝑒 2 𝐾𝑒 2
a) − b) − c) d) None of these
𝑟2 𝑟 𝑟
xi. The kinetic energy of electron at a distance r from the positive charge is given
by_____________.
𝐾𝑒 3 𝐾𝑒 2 𝐾𝑒 2
a) b) 2𝑟 2 c) d) None of these
2𝑟 2𝑟
xii. The Paschen series is obtained when an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from
higher orbit to the orbit where “n” is equal to____________.
xiii. Layman series is obtained when an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher
orbit to the orbit where “n” is equal to____________.
xiv. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit to 2nd orbit the set of
lines emitted is called_____________.
a) Pfund series b) Balmar series c) Layman series d) None of these

xv. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit to 5th orbit the set of
lines emitted is called_____________.
a) Pfund series b) Balmar series c) Layman series d) None of these
xvi. Which of the following series in hydrogen atom lies in the ultra violet region:
a) Balmar series b) Bracket series c) Layman series d) None of these
xvii. Which of the following series in hydrogen atom lies in the visible region:
xviii. Which of the following series in hydrogen atom lies in the IR region:
xix. When higher energy electron strikes a metal surface of (high atomic weight like
tungsten) it gives rise to_____________.
a) 𝛽-rays b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) None of these
1 1 1
xx. The formula 𝜆 = 𝑅𝐻 (12 − 𝑛2 ) where n=2,3,4,5…. ,gives the___________.
a) Balmer series b) Bracket series c) Layman series d) None of these
1 1 1
xxi. The formula 𝜆 = 𝑅𝐻 (42 − 𝑛2 ) where n=5,6,7…. ,gives the___________.
a) Balmer series b) Bracket series c) Layman series d) None of these
xxii. The value of Rydberg’s constant RH is_______________.
a) 1.097x10-7m-1 b) 1.097x107m-1 c) 1.097x107m d) None of these
xxiii. X-Rays are__________.
a) Stream of negatively charged particles b) Stream of positively charged
particles c) Electromagnetic waves d) None of these
xxiv. X-Rays are not deflected by ______________.
a) Electric field b) Magnetic field c) Both of these d) None of these
xxv. The name of the scientists who accidentally invented X-rays is_____________.
a) Faradays b) Newton’s c) Rontgen d) None of these
xxvi. X-rays continuous spectrum is produced by___________.
a) Accelerating protons to high speed b) Heating filament to a high
temperature c) Deaccelerating of high velocity electrons d) None of these
xxvii. The production of X-rays can be termed as inverse of_____________.
a) Compton effect b) Photoelectric effect c) Both d) None of these
xxviii. The wavelength of X-rays is in the range____________.
a) 0.01nm to 0.1nm b) 1 oA to 10 oA c) 0.001nm to 0.01nm d) None of these
xxix. The light amplification stimulated emission of radiations is known as___________.
a) X-rays b) Laser c) Gamma rays d) None of these
xxx. Characteristic of Laser beam is____________.
a) Highly intense b) monochromatic c) Coherent d) All of these
xxxi. Ruby is a crystal of____________.
a) CaCo3 with the impurity of Cl ions b) Al2O3 with impurity of Cr c) NaCl with
impurity of Ca ions d) None of these
xxxii. Laser operation consists of__________.
a) Population inversion b) Stimulated emission c) Optical pumping and
amplification d) All of these

i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi. xii. xiii.
B A D B C A C C A B C B A
xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii. xxiv. xxv. xxvi.
B A C A B B C B B C C C C
xxvii. xxviii. xxix. xxx. xxxi. xxxii.
B B B D B D

(2001)
i. Balmer series is obtained when all the transitions of electrons terminate on:
a) 3rd orbit b) 4th orbit c) 2nd orbit d) 1st orbit
ii. The laser is a device which can produce:
a) An intense beam of light b) A coherent beam of light c) A monochromatic
beam of light d) All of the above
(2002)Pre Med
iii. The fast moving electrons stopped by a heavy metallic target in an evacuated glass
tube, give rise to the production of:
a) 𝛼 particles b) 𝛽 particles c) X-rays d) Protons
(2003)Pre Med
iv. According to Bohr’s postulates, the electron revolving around the nucleus in a fixed
orbit radiates:
a) Energy b) no energy c) 𝛾 rays d) 𝛼 rays
(2003)Pre Eng
v. In a hydrogen atom Balmer series lines are emitted as the electron falls to the orbit
having:
a) n=1 b) n=2 c) n=3 d) n=4
vi. The laser is a device which can produce:
a) An electron beam of light b) A coherent beam of light c) A neutron beam
of light d) All of these
(2006)
vii. The frequencies in spectral lines emitted in layman series are in the__________
region:
a) Visible b) Infrared c) X-rays d) Ultraviolet
(2008)

viii. Hydrogen atom spectrum consists of lines in:
a) Ultraviolet region b) visible region c) Infrared region d) All of them
(2010)
ix. Bracket series of hydrogen atom spectrum lies in:

a) Ultraviolet region b) Visible region c) Infrared region d) All of these
x. The wavelength of x-ray is in the range:
a) 0.01nm to 0.1nm b) 1Ao to 100Ao c) 0.1Ao to 1m d) 0.1nm to 1.0nm
(2012)
xi. LASER produces:

a) An electron beam b) A neutron beam c) A coherent beam of light d) All
of these
(2013)
xii. When an electron jumps from 3rd orbit to the 1st orbit in hydrogen atom the line
spectrum belongs to:
a) Bracket b) Layman c) Balmer d) Paschen
(2014)
xiii. LASER produces:

a) An electron beam b) A neutron beam c) A coherent beam of light d)
None of these
(2015)
xiv. In laser, the life time of an electron in a metastable state is:

a) 10-8sec b) 10-5sec c) 10-3sec d) 108sec
xv. Balmer series is obtained when the transitions of electrons terminate on:
a) 1st orbit b) 2nd orbit c) 3rd orbit d) 4th orbit
(2016)
xvi. Balmer series of Hydrogen atom spectrum line in the:

a) Radioactive region b) infrared region c) visible region d) ultraviolet region
xvii. Laser is produce due to the:
a) Stimulated emission of radiation b) stimulated absorption of radiation
c) spontaneous emission of radiation d) spontaneous absorption of radiation
(2017)
xviii. In Laser, the lifetime of an electron in meta stable state is the order of:
a) 10-8s b) 10-5s c) 10-3s d) 10-1s
xix. The number of energy levels, required for laser production is:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

xx. Lyman found a series of lines in the spectrum of hydrogen atom in this region of:
a) Ultra violet b) Visible c) Infra-red d) Far infra-red
th
xxi. An electron can revolve in the n orbit if, and only if, its angular momentum is equal to:
ℎ 𝑛ℎ
a) ℎ b) 𝑛ℎ c) 𝜋 d) 2𝜋
(2019)
xxii. The ratio of the radius of 3rd Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom to the radius of 1st Bohr
orbit is:
a) 12:1 b) 3:1 c) 6:1 d) 9:1
xxiii. The principle of laser production is:
a) Spontaneous emission b) induced absorption c) spontaneous absorbation
d) stimulated emission
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii.

C D C B B B D D
ix. x. xi. xii. xiii. xiv. xv. xvi.

C D C B C C B C
xvii. xviii. xix xx xxi xxii xxiii
A B B A D D D
Chapter # 19 (Atomic Nucleus)

Ex # 19.1
MCQs
i. The spontaneous emission of radiations from heavy nucleus is called_____________.
a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion c) Radioactivity d) None of these
ii. Alpha particles are____________.
a) Protons b) Positrons c) negatively charge d) Helium nuclei
iii. When a nucleus emits an Alpha particle, its charge number decreases
by____________.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
iv. Beta particles are like___________.
a) Protons b) Electrons c) Positrons d) Both b & c
v. Beta particles carry a charge____________.
a) 2e b) -2e c) –e d) +e
vi. The emission of beta particle from the radioactive substance, results in the
production of another atom of_____________.
a) A higher mass no. and a high atomic no

b) The same mass no. and high atomic no.
c) The same mass no. and lower atomic no.
d) The lower mass no. and lower atomic no.
vii. When a nucleus emits an alpha particle, its atomic mass decreases by_________.
a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 3
viii. Gamma rays carry a charge__________.
a) –e b) +e c) no charge d) -2e
ix. The equation ZXA→Z+1YA+ -eo represents______________.
a) Beta emission b) Alpha emission c) Gamma emission d) None of these
x. The equation ZXA→Z-2YA-4+ 2He4+ represents______________.
xi. The equation ZXA∗→ZXA+ 𝛾 represents______________.
xii. The law of radioactive decay is______________.
𝑁 𝑁𝑜
a) = 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 b) 𝑁𝑜 = Δ𝑁𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 c) = 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 d) None of these
𝑁𝑜 𝑁
xiii. Activity is given by_____________.
Δ𝑁 Δ𝑁
a) b) 𝜆𝑁 c) d) Both b & c
𝑁𝑜 Δ𝑡
xiv. In radioactive decay, the new element which is formed due to the disintegration of
original element is called_________.
a) Element b) Daughter element c) Parent nuclei d) None of these
xv. In a radioactive decay 𝑁 = 𝑁𝑜 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 𝜆 represents___________.
a) Wavelength b) Half life c) Mass of radioactive sample d) Decay constant
xvi. The rate of decay of radioactive element____________.
a) Increases with increase in time
b) Decreases with increase in time
c) Decreases exponentially with time
d) Remains constant with increase in time
xvii. Number of nuclei disintegration per second is called______________.
a) Half life b) Decay Constant c) Activity d) None of these
xviii. Decay rate is high if decay constant is____________.
a) Small b) Large c) Medium d) None of these
xix. The rate of decay in radioactive process is directly proportional to number of_____.
a) Parent nuclei b) Daughter nuclei c) Electrons d) None of these
xx. The time in which half of the atoms of the parent element decay into daughter
element is called___________.
a) Decay constant b) Mass deficit c) Amount of substance d) None of these
xxi. The half life of radioactive substance depends upon____________.
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Amount of substance d) No external
influences
xxii. Which of the following material has a smaller half life __________.
a) Uranium b) Polonium c) Radium d) Radon
xxiii. Half life of a radioactive substance is given by_______________.

a) T1/2=0.396/𝜆 b) T1/2=𝜆𝑁 c) T1/2=0.693𝜆 d) T1/2=0.693/𝜆
xxiv. What determines the half life of a radioactive element:
a) Atomic number b) Mass number c) Temperature d) None of these
xxv. The decrease in the mass of the nucleus when constituent nucleons are combined to
form a nucleus is called____________.
a) Atomic mass b) Molecular mass c) Mass defect d) None of these
xxvi. The energy released when nucleons bound together to form a nucleus is
called____________.
a) Atomic energy b) Kinetic energy c) Potential energy d) Binding energy
xxvii. The binding energy per nucleon is called_________.
a) Packing fraction b) Binding fraction c) Proper fraction d) None of these
xxviii. The binding energy (B.E) is given as______________.
a) B.E=mc2 b) B.E=moc2 c) B.E=∆mc2 d) None of these
xxix. The process of splinting a heavy nucleus into fragments is called___________.
a) Fission reaction b) Fusion reaction c) Nuclear reaction d) None of these
xxx. Nuclear fusion is the source of energy in_____________.
a) Nuclear reactor and sun b) Sun and hydrogen bomb c) Nuclear reactor
and atomic bomb d) None of these
xxxi. Sun releases energy by the process of_______________.
a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion c) Nuclear radiation d) None of these
xxxii. The fusion of deuterium and tritium under high temperature with the release of
tremendous amount of energy is termed as____________.
a) Atom bomb b) Hydrogen bomb c) Neutron bomb d) None of these
xxxiii. Fusion reaction that occurs at very high temperature is also termed
as______________.
a) Chemical reaction b) Thermonuclear reaction c) Nuclear reaction
d) None of these
xxxiv. The process of nuclear fission was explained by__________.
a) Strassmann and Hann b) Bohr and Wheeler c) Rutherford d) None of
these
xxxv. The mass of fissionable material required for self sustaining chain reaction is
called____________.
a) Atomic mass b) Critical mass c) Molecular mass d) None of these
xxxvi. Fission chain reaction is controlled by introducing_____________.
a) Iron rods b) Cadmium rods c) graphite rods d) Platinum rods
xxxvii. The number of neutrons produced per fission reaction are_____________.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Two or Three
xxxviii. The materials used to slow down neutrons are of low atomic numbers and are
known as____________.
a) Reflectors b) Critical masses c) Moderators d) None of these
xxxix. The moderator used in a nuclear reactor is_____________.
a) Aluminum b) Radium c) Calcium d) Cadmium
xl. A chain reaction is continuous due to______________.

a) Large mass defect b) Large energy c) Production of more neutrons in
fission reaction d) None of these
xli. Good moderators have_________________.
a) Low atomic number and large slowing down power
b) High atomic number and low slowing down power
c) Low atomic number and low slowing down power
d) None of these
xlii. In the nuclear reactor____________.
a) Fusion reaction takes place b) Fission reaction takes place c) Both of these
d) None of these
xliii. The rod which is used to absorb neutrons in the nuclear reaction is made
of__________.
a) Calcium b Sulpher c) Uranium d) Cadmium
xliv. The rod which is used to absorb neutrons is called_______________.
a) Moderator b) Reflector c) Control rods d) None of these
xlv. The part of nuclear reactor which consists of fissionable material is
called___________.
a) Core b) Moderator c) Control rods d) Reflectors
xlvi. The substances that are used as coolants____________.
a) Hydrogen gas b) Oxygen gas c) Helium, CO2 d) None of these
xlvii. A breeder reactor does not require______________.
a) Reflector b) Core c) Coolants d) Moderators
C D B D C B C C A B
xi. xii. xiii. xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx.
C A D B D C C B A D
xxi. xxii. xxiii. xxiv. xxv. xxvi. xxvii. xxviii. xxix. xxx.
D C D D C D A C A B
xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv. xxxvi. xxxvii. xxxviii. xxxix. xl.
B B B A B B D C D C
xli. xlii. xliii. xliv. xlv. xlvi. xlvii.
A B D C A D D

(2001)
i. The nuclei having the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called:
a) Isotopes b) Isobars c) Isotones d) Isomers
(2002)Pre Med
ii. Breeder reactor is used to convert:
a) 92U235 into 92U236 b) 92U238 into 94Pu239 c) 92U235
into 92U237 d) 92U235 into 56Ba144 and 36Kr89

iii. The process in which heavier nucleus is formed from the combination of lighter nuclei is
called:
a) Fission b) Fusion c) Radioactivity d) Mass defect
(2003)Pre Med
iv. The process of 𝛽-particle emission from a nucleus involves the change in:
a) Mass number b) Charge number c) Mass and Charge number d) No
change occurs
v. The process of the splitting of a heavy nucleus into smaller fragments is called:
a) Fusion b) Fission c) Pair production d) Annihilation of matter
(2003)Pre Eng
vi. In the nuclear reaction 7N +2He →8O17+____________, the missing particle is:
14 4
a) Proton b) Neutron c) Electron d) 𝛼-particle

(2004)
vii. The ratio of the mass of proton to the mass of electron is_1836_.
(2005)
viii. One atomic mass unit is equal to:
a) 1.6x10-19J b) 9.1x10-27kg c) 931x106eV d) 9x109eV
ix. The energy equivalent to mass reduced in the formation of a nucleus is called:
a) Nuclear energy b) Binding energy c) Fusion energy d) Potential energy
x. The atomic number of an element is increased as a result of:
a) 𝛼-radiation b) 𝛽-radiation c) Pair production d) Photoelectric effect
(2006)
xi. In the nuclear reaction 7N14+2He4→8O17+____________, the missing particle is:
b) Proton b) Neutron c) Electron d) 𝛼-particle
(2007)
−𝜆𝑡
xii. In radioactive decay law, N=No𝑒 , 𝜆 represents:
a) Wavelength b) Half life c) Mass radioactive sample d) Decay constant
(2008)
xiii. The rate of decay of a radioactive substance:
a) Increases with increasing time b) Remains constant with increasing time c)
Decreases exponentially with the increasing time d) None of these
(2009)
xiv. The half life of radium is 1600 years. After 6400 years the sample of the surviving radium
would be its:
a) ¼ b) 1/8 c) 1/16 d) ½
xv. When a nucleus emits a Beta particle, its atomic number:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) None of them
(2010)
xvi. The radioactive decay law is:
𝑁 𝑁𝑜
a) 𝑁𝑜
= 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 b) 𝑁 = 𝑁𝑜 𝑒 𝜆𝑡 c) 𝑁
= 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 d) 𝑁𝑜 = ∆𝑁𝑒 −𝜆𝑡
(2012)
xvii. After alpha-decay, the nucleus has its:
a) Charge number decreased by four b) Charge number increased by four
c) Mass number decreased by four d) Mass number increased by four
(2013)
−𝜆𝑡
xviii. In radioactive decay law N=No𝑒 , 𝜆 represents:

a) Wavelength b) Half life c) Decay constant d) None of these
xix. This was the first experimental verification of Einstein’s Mass-Energy relation:
a) Deuteron-induced reaction b) Proton-induced reaction
c) Gamma-induced reaction d) None of these
(2015)
xx. The product of decay constant (𝜆) and half-life (T1/2) of a radioactive source is:
a) 0.369 b) 0.396 c) 0.693 d) 0.963
(2016)
xxi. When a nucleus emits Beta particle, its atomic number:
a) Increases b) decreases c) remain the same d) sometime increase some decrease
xxii. This is a highly ionizing particle:
a) 𝛼 b) 𝛽 c) 𝛾 d) proton
(2017)
i. High energy deuteron may be absorbed by Li to produce:
a) One alpha particle b) two alpha particles c) one alpha and one beta particles
d) one beta and one gamma particles
ii. As time passes, the rate of decay of a radioactive element:
a) Decreases b) remains constant c) increases d) becomes infinity
(2018)
xvi. This one is used as fuel for conventional nuclear reactor:
a) 92U235 b) 90TH227 c) 91Pu239 d) 88Ra223
xvii. The half-life of radium is 1600 years. After 6400 years, the sample of surviving radium will be
its:
1 1 1
a) 4
𝑡ℎ b) 8 𝑡ℎ c) 16 𝑡ℎ d) half
(2019)
xviii. In the process of positive beta emission, charge number of daughter nucleus:
a) In increased b) is decreased c) remains the same d) is double
xix. 2
The binding energy of deuteron (1H ) is 2.3 MeV, is binding energy per nucleon will be:
a) 1.15 MeV b) 0.2 MeV c) 1 MeV d) 0.51 MeV

A B B B B A 1836 C B B B D
xiii. xiv. xv. xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xiv xv
C C A A C C B C D A B A
xvi xvii xviii xix
C C B A

Ex # 20.1
MCQ’s
i. In Wilson cloud chamber radiations become visible due to reflection of light
from____________.
a) Ions b) Nuclear radiation c) Droplets of fog d) Glass window
ii. The track formed in the Wilson cloud chamber due to Alpha particles
is______________.
a) Thin and broken line b) Thick continuous line c) Thick line track in random
direction d) Whole region exposed to radiation
iii. The track formed in the Wilson cloud chamber due to Beta particles
is______________.
a) Thin and broken line b) Thick continuous line c) Thick line track in random
iv. The track formed in the Wilson cloud chamber due to Gamma rays
is______________.
a) Thin and broken line b) Thick continuous line c) Thin line track in random
v. The track formed in the Wilson cloud chamber due to X-rays is______________.
a) Thin and broken line b) Thick continuous line c) Thin line track in random
vi. Geiger counter is a device to detect_____________.
a) Mass b) momentum c) Charge d) Radiation
vii. G.M counter uses_____________.
a) Alcohol only b) Bromine c) Argon d) Argon and alcohol
viii. The thin wire at the centre of G.M tube act as____________.
a) Cathode b) Anode c) Neutral d) None of these
ix. Normally G.M counter uses potential difference of_____________.
a) 10Volt b) 100Volt c) 1000volt d) 5000volt
x. A device for actually observing the paths of Alpha and Beta particles is a_________.
a) Cyclotron b) Geiger counter c) Mass spectrograph d) Wilson cloud
chamber
C B A C C D D B C B

(2003)
i. In treating a localized cancerous tumour a narrow beam of_______ is used.
a) Alpha-rays from Cobalt-60 b) Beta-rays from Cobalt-60
c) Electron from Cobalt-60 d) Gamma-rays from Cobalt-60

ii. If a small quantity of radioactive iodine 53𝐼 131 is taken in food most of it is deposited
in:
a) Kidneys b) Brain c) Thyroid glands d) All glands
(2004)
iii. The track formed in Wilson cloud chamber due to gamma rays is a thick and
continuous line: a) True b) False
(2006)
iv. In treating a localized cancerous tumour a narrow beam of_______ is used.
b) Alpha rays from Cobalt b) Beta rays from Cobalt
c) Gamma rays from Cobalt d) Laser from Cobalt
(2009)
v. A Geiger Muller counter contains:
a) Argon and alcohol b) Alcohol only c) Ions d) Super cooled water
vapours
(2012)
vi. This narrow beam from Cobalt-60 is used to treating localized cancerous tomour:
a) Alpha rays b) Beta rays c) Gamma rays d) All of these
(2013)
vii. The rate of flow of blood in the body can be traced by using this radio isotope:
a) 20𝐶𝑎45 b) 11𝑁𝑎24 c) 1𝐻 3 d) 6𝐶 12
(2015)
viii. A small quantity of radioactive Iodine 53I151 is taken in food, most of it is deposited in
the:
a) Thyroid gland b) Bones c) Brain d) Stomach
ix. The rate of flow of blood in the body can be traced by using this radioisotope:
a) 20Ca45 b) 5C12 c) 1H3 d) 11Na24
(2016)
x. In treating a localized cancerous tumour a narrow beam of_______ is used.
a) 𝛼-rays from Cobalt-60 b) 𝛽-rays from Cobalt-60
c) 𝛾-rays from Cobalt-60 d) laser-rays from Cobalt-60
xi. This device is used to make the path of ionizing particle visible:
a) Geiger Muller counter b) Wilson cloud chamber c) Van Dee Graff generator
d) Cyclotron
(2017)
xii. If radioactive calcium 20Ca40 is taken by man or animal, this percentage of it deposits in
the bones of young one:
a) 20 b) 60 c) 90 d) 100
(2018)
xiii. The method of finding the age of specimen by C14 is called:
a) Radio therapy b) radiology c) radio carbon dating d) radiography

xiv. The rate of flow of blood in the human body can be traced by using this radioisotope:
a) 20Ca45 b) 6C12 c) 1H3 d) 11Na24

(2019)
xv. The method of finding the age of specimen by radioactive isotope of carbon 6C14 is
called:
a) Artificial gravity b) radio carbon dating c) half life d) radiography

D C B C A C B A D C B C
xiii xiv xv
C D B

XII Numericals and MCQs

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

XII Numericals and MCQs

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Chapter # 11

Heat, Temperature and Thermal Expansion:

(𝛼=19x10-6oC-1). (2006)Ans: 4.5x10-4m3

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

Second Law of Thermodynamics:

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

Potential Difference and Capacitors:

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

V= 10v Ans: 3µF, 30µC, 10µC, 20µC

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

Ans: 20Ω,0.05A (2001)

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

Faraday’s law, Mutual induction, Self induction & Motional EMF:

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

Pair production & annihilation of matter:

Matter waves and Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle:

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

3. The universal gas constant per molecule is called____________.

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

MCQs From Past Papers: (complete chapter)

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

lxxxv lxxxvi lxxxvii

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

xxxi. xxxii. xxxiii. xxxiv. xxxv.

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

xvi. xvii. xviii. xix. xx. xxi. xxii. xxiii.

MCQs From Past Papers: (Complete Chapter)

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

viii. One electron volt is equal to:

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

xliii. xliv. xlv

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

MCQs from past papers: (Complete Chapter)

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

a) Series b) parallel c) complex circuit d) some in series and some in parallel

xxxvi. Resistances of 10Ω, 30 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. If the current in 10 Ω

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

xxxiii xxxiv xxxv xxxvi xxxvii

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

YouTube/solutionfactory360 By Sir Salman Raza

xii. In particle velocity selector method a beam of electron is passes through____________.