Nbcot

NBCOT Questionnaire - 1
c) Observation is needed to determine right side dysfunction

NBCOT d) One handed use precedes the use of two hands
1) An OT observes a child with CP during a seizure. What is most important information 5) A woman comes to a hand clinic demonstrating the following concerns: pain,
to document? weakness, and numbness that radiates up into her arm. She complains of tingling during
a) Child’s positioning before the seizure the day and she is unable to grasp small objects. Based on these complaints, the woman
is most likely suffering from:
b) Child’s positioning after the seizure
a) Neuromonas
c) Child’s objective signs and duration of seizure
b) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
d) Child’s facial expression during the seizure
c) Trigger Finger
2) As part of an evaluation during a natural setting observation, what should the OT do
first during a dressing task? d) Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
a) Observe the child toileting 6) Later that day, another woman comes to the hand clinic with the following concerns:
she sprained her wrist, her hand is hypersensitive to touch and appears to have edema
b) Provide an adapted dressing modification tool to help dressing efficiently pan and shiny skin. Based on these complaints, the woman is most likely suffering from:
c) Observe the child don/doff shoes a) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
d) Provide caretakers with solutions to increase zipper independence b) Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
3) An OT may use a visual motor integration test for a child having difficulty with this: c) Tendonitis
a) Writing letters d) Trigger Finger
b) Imitating letters 7) Wearing gloves when treating is needed for which of the following individuals:
c) Understanding letters a) Individuals with open wounds diagnosed with HIV
d) Copying letters b) Individuals with open wounds diagnosed with hepatitis
4) During an evolution, a 6 month old child shows a strong preference for the left hand c) Individuals with third degree burns
when reacting for objects presented. What should the OT assume about hand
dominance developmental for the child? d) Any individuals diagnosed with open wounds
a) Hand dominance does not develop until one year of age
b) Develop is typical
8) Standardized testing is considered valid when: c) Intermediate
a) It is based on a normative population d) Advance
b) Scores are similar for two different administration 12) An OTR needs to provide supervision to an experience COTA in a hospital setting.
Based on AOTA definition, this supervision must occur:
c) It measures the skill it is designed to measure
a) Once a day
d) Scores are similar to similar tests which test the same skill
b) Once a week
9) A child with CP presents with severe motor impairments which impact his ability to
use efficient hand movements and grasping patterns. This student is unable to write and c) Once a month
control movements while typing. What is a possible low tech solution?
d) As determined by the OTR
a) Splint designed for typing
13) Upon completing an UE with an adult diagnosed with RA and limited IR, it is
b) Adapted mouse determined that she is unable to easily touch her:
c) Buildup pencil a) Back of her neck
d) Head pointer for keyboard b) Top of her head
10) In designing a program for an adult with a recent left CVA, which would best c) Opposite shoulder
facilitate independence in ADLs?
d) Lower back
a) Have individual visualize task and provide general comments like “let’s get to
14) Upon completing an UE evaluation with an adult with limited horizontal adduction,
ready blank”
it is observed he is unable to touch:
b) Provide step by step instructions for the task
a) Back of his neck
c) Provide a visual schedule for the task
b) Top of his head
d) Recreate the environment to decrease clutter and use strong contrast in
c) Opposite shoulder
colors to isolate objects
d) Lower back
11) A fieldwork supervisor is completing the final evaluation for a Level 2 student. For
students’ successful completion, the supervisor must determine that the student is
functioning:
a) Below entry level
b) At or above entry level

15) A child is participating parallel play during classroom activities and group therapy b) Use energy conservation strategies
sessions. Recently, the child has demonstrated the ability to share toys and materials.
c) Manipulate clothing fasteners
He has demonstrated occasional interaction with peers. What is the next level of play
for the child? d) Use contrasted colors to label items in the cabinet
a) Associative play 19) While assessing a client, the OT notices the following: PIP joint is flexed and DIP joint
is hyperextended. What best describes the condition?
b) Cooperative play
a) Swan Neck Deformity
c) Solitary play
b) Subluxation Deformity
d) Function play
c) Boutonniere Deformity
16) If the child in the above question is typically developing, what age
d) Mallet Deformity
would parallel play be most appropriate?
20) What is a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement called?
a) 2
a) Smith’s fracture
b) 3
b) Colle’s fracture
c) 4
c) Boxer’s fracture
d) 5
d) Scaphoid fracture
17) A resident in a day center has recently indicated interested in obtaining a job,
however, she is unable to take turns and cannot accept constructive 5 feedbacks. What 21) An injury of the distal median nerve which flattens the thenar eminence is known as:
is the most appropriate job placement based on her presented needs?
a) Ape hand
a) Sorting clothes in a thrift group
b) Lobster hand
b) Placing books back on the shelf in library group
c) Delta Phalanx
c) Operating photocopy machine in a clerical group
d) Radial Club Hand
d) Handing out food in a food service group
22) A deficit where the patient lacks recognition of a familiar object is called:
18) An elderly woman lives alone and presents with decreased hand weaknesses. An
OTR is completing a home evaluation where she is focusing on safety concerns. What a) Somatognosia
should he be most concerned with: b) Agnosia
a) Ability to use locks & latches on doors c) Anosognosia
d) Aphasia 27) An OTR working in a mental health facility recently started working with a new
client. The client presents with primitive, disorganized and disinhibited behavior. What
23) What are the clinical signs of a high radial nerve injury?
is MOST likely diagnosis for the client?
a) Thumb in extension
a) Childhood schizophrenia
b) Thumb in opposition
b) Paranoid schizophrenia
c) Thumb in palmar adduction
c) Catatonic schizophrenia
d) Thumb in palmar adduction
d) Disorganized schizophrenia
24) What shoulder exercises are needed for an individual with SCI?
28) A client in a mental health facility demonstrates the following behaviors: a disregard
a) Work shoulder flexors, adductors and abductors for the rights of others leading to aggression towards people and animals, destruction of
property, deceitfulness, theft, or serious violation of rules:
b) Work shoulder flexors, abductors and extensors
a) Histrionic disorder
c) Work shoulder flexors only
b) Oppositional defiant disorder
d) Work shoulder extensor only
c) Conduct disorder
25) Following a hand function assessment, the OTR determines a client needs a C-bar
splint. What is a C-bar splint used for? d) Schizoid personality disorder
a) Maintain an open web space 29) A child with Rhett’s syndrome is being seen in an outpatient clinic. What would be
the BEST treatment?
b) Stabilize thumb joint
a) Dynamic elbow splint to inhibit hand to mouth patter
c) Stabilize first finger joint
b) Static elbow splint to maintain skin integrity
d) Maintain a closed web space
c) Resting splint to decrease skin break down
26) An OTR is seeing a client who sustained a SCI. She decides the client can use a
universal cuff for eating. At what SCI level can a person use a universal cuff? d) Thumb spica splint to decrease thumb opposition
a) C6 30) A test is reliable if it:
b) C5 a) Measures consistently
c) C4 b) Measures what it is intended to measure
d) T1 c) Measures the same as similar tests

d) Measures despite errors in the testing d) Hip Reconstruction
31) During an OT evaluation, the OTR determines that a client can move a muscle within 35) A child is participating parallel play during classroom activities and group therapy
a complete ROM without gravity. What score would that client obtain on the MMT? sessions. Recently, the child has demonstrated the ability to share toys and materials.
He has demonstrated occasional interaction with peers. What is the next level of play
a) 2-
for the child?
b) 2
a) Associative play
c) 3
b) Cooperative play
d) 2+
c) Solitary play
32) An OTR needs to provide supervision to an experience COTA in a hospital setting.
d) Function play
36) Following a burn, an OTR recommends a compression garment. What are BEST
a) Once a day
recommendations for the compression garment’s use?
b) Once a week
a) 24 hours for 1-2 years until scar is matured
c) Once a month
b) 24 hours for 6 months until scar is matured
c) 12 hours for 1-2 years until scar is matured
33) During a visit to an outpatient visit to a hand clinic, an OTR determines that a client
d) 12 hours for 6 months until scar is matured
needs a silver ring splint. What is MOST possible diagnosis the client presents with?
37) A client sustaining a C6-C7 SCI has recently been given a splint by an OTR. What is
a) Mallet finger
the most likely splint given to the client?
b) Swan neck deformity
a) C Bar Splint
c) Trigger finger
b) Flail Arm Splint
d) Subluxation deformity
c) Silver Ring Splint
34) What injury would require a person to transfer sit to stand with his hip in slight
d) Tenodesis Splint
abduction and extended out in front?
38) A 6 year old child with spastic quad CP presents with bilateral thumbin palm
a) Total Hip Replacement
deformities. What type of splint would best improve this condition?
b) Total Knee Replacement
a) Neoprene based hand-based splint with thumb opposition
c) Total Shoulder Replacement
b) Dynamic hand splint
c) Static hand splint b) Practice skill during a simulated environment
d) C Bar splint c) Practice each segment of the task individually
39) During an OTR assessment, it is determined than an individual functions at level 3 on d) Discuss the best way to dress independently
the Allen Cognitive test. What self-care task is the individual able to complete?
43) A child with developmental delays is observed to complete the following: hop on
a) Live alone one foot, run across the room, walk toe to heel, and pick up an object from the table.
The student was unable to complete a 5-piece puzzle. What is most likely area of
b) Independent Self Care
difficulty?
c) Use of grab bars
a) Fine motor
d) Cause & Effect
b) Visual perceptual
40) During an OT group in an assisted living facility, a client is able to sand wood. What
c) Gross motor
level is the individual functioning based on the Allen Cognitive Test?
d) Visual motor integration
a) 2
44) What hand injury involves a rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the MCP joint
b) 3
of the thumb?
c) 1
a) Smith’s Fractures
d) 4
b) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
41) During a research project, a research question has been identified and developed. A
c) Complex Regional Pain Syndrome
literature review was completed. What would be the best next step for the researcher?
d) Skier’s thumb
a) Redefine the question and research background
b) Determine boundaries of the studies reviewed
a) Work shoulder flexors, adductors and abductors
c) Collect data in an independent study
b) Work shoulder flexors, abductors and extensors
d) Redefine methods to be used by reviewed literature
42) During the subjective discussion of during an OTR assessment, a client reveals that
she would like to put on her grown independently. What is the most effective way, to d) Work shoulder extensors only
develop necessary skills?
46) What type of arthritis affects large weight bearing joints and is not systemic?
a) Practice skill in the natural environmental
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Functional Independence Measure
c) Psoriatic arthritis c) Sensory Integration and Praxis Test
d) Reactive arthritis d) Kohlmon Evaluation of Living Skills
47) A child able to pull down is own pants. If the child is developing on target, what age 51) Within a group, an OTR wants to encourage members to function at their highest
is the child? level. What type of group is he leading?
a) 12 months a) Egocentric/Cooperative Group
b) 18 months b) Developmental Group
c) 6 months c) Instrumental Group
d) 24 months d) Project Group
48) The Sensory Profile is designed to measure: 52) Based on the above answer, that level is the individual functioning?
a) Subjective observations of sensory function a) Low
b) Subjective observations of sensory dysfunction b) High
c) Objective observations of sensory function c) Medium
d) Objective observations of sensory dysfunction d) None
49) A client in a mental health facility demonstrates the following behaviors: a disregard 53) An IADL is:
for the rights of others leading to aggression towards people and animals, destruction of
a) Dressing
property, deceitfulness, theft, or serious violation of rules:
b) Child rearing
a) Histrionic disorder
c) Bathing
b) Oppositional defiant disorder
d) Toileting
c) Conduct disorder
54) During on treatment session, an OTR notices that a client cannot find his black socks
d) Schizoid personality disorder
on his black suit pants. What might the client be having difficult with?
50) An OTR wants to use an individualized outcome measure to develop goals for his
a) Position in space
client in an assisted living facility. What test would best meet her needs?
b) Figure ground discrimination
a) Canadian Occupational Performance Measure
c) Spatial relations c) Add throw rugs
d) Eye hand coordination d) Remove all throw rugs
55) What injury would require a person to transfer sit to stand with his hip in slight 59) What stage is NOT a part of group development?
abduction and extended out in front?
a) Identification
a) Total Hip Replacement
b) Origin
b) Total Knee Replacement
c) Orientation
c) Total Shoulder Replacement
d) Conflict
d) Hip Reconstruction
60) During an OTR assessment, it is determined than an individual functions at level 3 on
56) An OTR is finishing up a SOAP note. What would be a subjective statement? the Allen Cognitive test. What self-care task is the individual able to complete?
a) Patient states, “My leg hurts today.” a) Live alone
b) Patient demonstrates decreased range of motion in right leg b) Independent Self Care
c) Patient presents with decrease skin integrity above knee c) Use of grab bars
d) Patient will walk to toilet with walker with stand by assistance d) Cause & Effect
57) SOAP note is an contains the following headings: 61) What is NOT a stage of program development?
a) Prediction a) Needs assessment
b) Long Term Goals b) Program development
c) Assessment c) Program evaluation
d) Statements d) Program implementation
58) Upon completing a home evaluation, the OTR is making recommendations regarding 62) When will a typically function child demonstrate the ability to play
adaptations for a home upon the return the home owner who now needs a walker to
board games or games with peers?
move about the home. What is a good solution to increase mobility safety for the client
that has limited financial means? a) 4
a) Install linoleum floor b) 5
b) Install deep pile carpeting c) 6
d) 7
63) To increase self-awareness of needs, values, ideas and feelings with a group of 67) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill?
members demonstrating cognitive and social-emotional dysfunction due to trauma, an
a) Motor
OTR decides to run a group. What type of group would best serve his needs?
b) Communication
a) Purposeful
c) Process
b) Focus
d) Physical
c) Task oriented
68) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance pattern?
d) Parallel
a) Habits
64) What type of arthritis affects small joints of the hands and is systemic?
b) Roles
a) Osteoarthritis
c) Cultures
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Routines
c) Psoriatic arthritis
69) In the OTPF, which of the following is an identified client factor?
d) Reactive arthritis
a) Body scheme
65) What hand disorder courses the fascia to become thick and contracted, resulting in
flexion deformities of the involved digits? b) Body development
a) Neuromonas c) Body disability
b) Dupuytren’s Disease d) Body functions
c) Trigger Finger 70) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified context?
d) Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy a) Developmental
66) Which broad area of practice is NOT identified by AOTA: b) Personal
a) Productive Aging c) Spiritual
b) Rehabilitation d) Cultural
c) Children and Youth
d) Wellness Work
71) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance in areas of b) Employment seeking
occupation?
c) Employment acquisition
a) Work
d) Retirement adjustment
b) Physical participation
76) In the OTPF, which of the following is an identified education area of occupation?
c) Play
a) Informal education participation
d) IADL
b) Formal education participation
72) In the OTPF, which should be part of an occupational profile?
c) Informal personal education participation
a) Client-centered evaluation
d) Formal personal education participation
b) Standard assessments
77) In the OTPF, which of the following is an identified play area of occupation?
c) Non-standard assessments
a) Play development
d) Developmental milestones
b) Play group participation
73) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified ADL?
c) Play discrimination
a) Eating
d) Play participation
b) Dressing
78) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified social participation area of
c) Community mobility occupation?
d) Functional mobility a) Co-worker
74) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified IADL? b) Community
a) Care of others c) Family
b) Personal Device Care d) Friend
c) Care of pets 79) In the OTPF, which of the following is an identified leisure area of occupation?
d) Communication device use a) Leisure choices
75) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified work area of occupation? b) Leisure scheduling
a) Employment loss c) Leisure participation

d) Leisure activity participation d) Stand
80) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under 84) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under
motor skills? motor skill subheading strength and effort?
a) Mobility a) Move
b) Sensorimotor b) Grasp
c) Strength c) Transport
d) Coordination d) Grip
81) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under 85) In the OTPF, which of the following is an identified performance skill under motor
motor skill subheading coordination? skill subheading energy?
a) Stabilize a) Paces
b) Manipulate b) Maintains
c) Coordinate c) Generalizes
d) Flow d) Conserve
82) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under 86) In the OTPF, which of the following is an identified performance skill under process
motor skill subheading posture? skill subheading energy?
a) Stabilize a) Attends
b) Positions b) Endures
c) Coordinate c) Conserves
d) Aligns d) Maintains
83) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under 87) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under
motor skill subheading mobility? process skill subheading knowledge?
a) Reach a) Handle
b) Bend b) Uses
c) Walk c) Chooses
d) Navigate c) Speak
88) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under d) Share
process skill subheading temporal organization?
92) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under
a) Continues communication skill subheading relations?
b) Navigates a) Collaborate
c) Chooses b) Conform
d) Organizes c) Communicate
89) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under d) Relate
process skill subheading adaptation?
93) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified a performance patterns
a) Adapt under habits?
b) Adjust a) Useful habits
c) Accommodate b) Purposeful habits
d) Benefit c) Dominating habits
d) Impoverished habits
90) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under
communication skill subheading physically?
94) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified client factor under the body
a) Communicate function category?
b) Contact a) Pain function
c) Gaze b) Sleep
d) Gesture c) Orientation function
91) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill under d) Energy function
communication skill subheading information exchange?
a) Ask
b) Question
95) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified as a type of therapeutic d) Evaluation group, Thematic group, Topical group, Task-oriented group,
intervention? Project group, Instrumental group
a) Therapeutic intervention 99) What is “supportive” type of mental health service delivery?
b) Therapeutic use of self a) Professional directed
c) Therapeutic use of activity b) Professional lead
d) Education process c) Professional excluded
96) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified as a type of outcome? d) Professional developed
a) Occupational profile 100) A client demonstrates multiple cognitive deficits including memory loss and
impaired consciousness. What is MOST possible problem?
b) Occupational performance
a) Delirium
c) Health and wellness
b) Dementia
d) Prevention
c) Hysteria
97) Using a developmental group, what hierarchal components would be included?
d) Head trauma
a) Parallel, then Cooperative
101) A student presents with decrease writing skills; however, she is required to return
b) Cooperative, the Project
large amount of written work for task completion. What is the best adaptation for the
c) Project, then Parallel student?
d) Parallel, then Project a) Learn to type
98) According to Mosey, what are the major types of activity groups? b) Develop fine motor skills
a) Evaluation group, Thematic group, Topical group, Task-oriented group, c) Develop writing skills
Developmental group, Instrumental group
d) Decrease work completed
b) Evaluation group, Project group, Topical group, Task-oriented group,
102) An OTR is leading a therapeutic group in the beginning stages of group
Developmental group, Instrumental group
development. What is the primary function?
c) Evaluation group, Thematic group, Cooperative group, Topical group, Task-
a) Set climate, create structure, offer support
oriented group, Instrumental group
b) Members set climate, provide structure, offer support
c) Members set climate & structure, support offered by OTR 107) What is Axis IV in the DSM-IV?
d) OTR sets climate & structure & members offer support a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems
103) What is Axis I in the DSM-IV? b) General Medical Conditions
a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems c) MR & Personality Disorders
b) Clinical Disorders d) GAF Score
c) MR & Personality Problems 108) The Rood Technique underlying premise is:
d) GAF Score a) Facilitory
104) What is Axis V in the DSM-IV? b) Facilitory/Inhibitory
a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems c) Inhibitory
b) General Medical Conditions d) Weight bearing
c) MR & Personality Disorders 109) Reality orientation is the:
d) GAF Score a) Awareness of time only
105) What is Axis II in the DSM-IV? b) Awareness of date only
a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems c) Awareness of time and date
b) General Medical Conditions d) Awareness of reality
c) MR & Personality Disorder 110) When working with an acute phase mental health what is OTR’s
d) GAF Score primary goal?
106) What is Axis III in the DSM-IV? a) Stabilization
a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems b) Enabling
b) General Medical Conditions c) Organization
c) MR & Personality Disorders d) Develop new goals
d) GAF Score
111) A client recently sustained a burn injury. He presents with moist, weepy and 115) What is the splint for radial nerve palsy?
blistered skin. Pain is very high and edema is present. What type of burn might this be?
a) Dynamic dorsal splint for wrist extension
a) First degree
b) Static splint for wrist flexion
b) Full thickness
c) Static splint for wrist extension
c) Superficial partial-thickness
d) Dynamic splint for wrist extension
d) Deep partial thickness
116) A client presents with Heberden’s node. Where is the problem located?
112) A client with an SCI is admitted to the hospital. What should the OTR do during the
a) DIP
acute phase of his injury?
b) PIP
a) Increase upright tolerance
c) Scaphoid
b) PROM of all joints
17
c) AROM of all joints
d) Trapezium
d) Bladder training
117) An OTR is working on hand function with a child with RA. What device will best
113) What are the clinical signs of a low (distal) radial nerve injury?
help prevent hand fatigue?
a) Incomplete extension of fingers and thumb MCP-PIP and DIP can be extended
a) Reacher
b) MCP extension, and thumb extension
b) Dycem
c) Loss of active pronation
c) Pencil Gripper
d) Loss of thumb flexion
d) Weighted pencil
114) During on treatment session, an OTR notices that a client cannot find his black
118) While observing a child, the OTR notices that the child responds to a loud noise by
socks on his back suit pants. What might the client be having difficult with?
abducting and extending his arm. What reflex is being displayed?
a) Position in space
a) Moro
b) Figure ground discrimination
b) Rooting
c) Spatial relations
c) Neck Righting
d) Eye hand coordination
d) ATNR
119) Which component is not in a SOAP note? b) Confused but Appropriate
a) Progress c) Purposeful and Appropriate
b) Plan d) Confused and Inappropriate
c) Objective 124) What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level III?
d) Subjective a) Localized Response
120) A client presents with atrophic skin. What test should be avoided? b) Confused but Appropriate
a) ROM c) Purposeful and Appropriate
b) MMT d) Confused and Inappropriate
c) Sensory 125) What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level VI?
d) Isometric exercise a) Localized Response
121) A positive Finkelsteins test, a Thumb Spica splint (IP jt. Free), gentle AROM, and b) Confused but Appropriate
unrestricted activity oil collate with what hand disorder?
c) Purposeful and Appropriate
a) Golfer’s Elbow
d) Confused and Inappropriate
b) De Quervains
126) What is Ranchos Los Amigos Level Cognitive Scale Level V?
c) Tinel’s
a) Localized
d) CTD
b) Response Confused
122) What technique would be best when treating anesthesia?
c) Purposeful and Appropriate
a) Rehabilitation
d) Confused and Inappropriate
b) Sensory
127) At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to recognize family and
c) Compensatory friends?
d) Developmental a) 5
123) What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level VIII? b) 3
a) Automatic Appropriate c) 4
d) 6 132) A client puts forth 75% or more of the effort necessary to do a task, and requires
no more help than touching. What FIM level is this client currently presenting?
128) At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to engage in simple, routine
activities such as self-feeding and dressing? a) 3
a) 1 b) 4
b) 2 c) 2
c) 3 d) 5
d) 4 133) A client is able perform the task safety, within a reasonable amount of time, and
without assistive devices, aids, or changes. What FIM level is the client currently
129) What functionality does a person with C1-C3 SCI have?
presenting?
a) Full function of head and neck
a) 3
b) Breathe with low stamina
b) 7
c) Dependent with all ADLs
c) 6
d) Independent wheelchair to toilet transfer
d) 5
130) A client presents with an arc flexic bladder, bowel, and lower limbs. What is the
134) The client puts forth less than 25% of the effort necessary to do a task. What FIM
most likely cause?
level is client currently presenting
a) Central cord syndrome
a) 1
b) Conus medullaris syndrome
b) 2
c) Brown-Sequard syndrome
c) 3
d) Cauda equine syndrome
d) 4
131) What is the standard height of a wheelchair seat?
135) A client demonstrates lack of coordination while performing voluntary movements.
a) 18 inches She appears clumsy, inaccurate, and instable. What is most likely dysfunction?
b) 21 inches a) Apraxia
c) 24 inches b) Dystonia
d) 30 inches c) Ataxia
d) Dymetria 140) While assessing a client, the OT notices the following: PIP joint is flexed and DIP
joint is hyperextended. What best describes the condition?
136) A client presents with sharp, radiating pain following an accidental cutting of a
nerve. What is the most likely problem? a) Swan Neck Deformity
a) Neuromona b) Subluxation Deformity
b) CTS c) Boutonniere Deformity
c) CTD d) Mallet Deformity
d) CRPS 141) An eighth grade student with MD is able to use his manual chair to move from class
to class. However, he is fatigued upon arrival. What is a possible solution for the
137) What is prosopagnosia?
student?
a) Face blindness
a) Change to ultralight manual chair
b) Inability to recognize sounds
b) Change to power chair
c) Inability to recognize common objects
c) Keep the current chair to increase strength
d) Inability to imitate movements
d) Keep the current chair to maintain endurance
138) What is the minimum doorway width for a wheelchair?
142) An OTR is swamped with evaluations. The OTR asks the COTA for assistance in
a) 24 inches completing the evaluations. What can the COTA help with?
b) 30 inches a) Collecting chart review information
c) 48 inches b) Analyzing assessment results
d) 32 inches c) Interpreting assessment results
139) A child presents with difficulties when constructing and playing with blocks. What d) Writing short term goals
area of play may this child have difficulty with?
143) A student in 6th grade with CP is currently using an augmentative communicative
a) Constructional device. However, she is becoming increasingly frustrated with the device as it is time
consuming to produce sentences. What is a good solution for her?
b) Sensorimotor
a) Build up the advice
c) Game
b) Word prediction software
d) Parallel
c) Voice activation tool
d) Make keys larger c) Remove shirt from unaffected arm, remove shirt from affected arm, pull
overhead
144) During a craft group, a member consistently confuses blue glue with blue paint.
What is a possible solution? d) Gather shirt from back to neck, remove shirt from unaffected arm, remove
shirt from affected arm, pull gathered shirt over head
a) Avoid blue point
148) A client presents with flaccid paralysis and loss of sensorimotor function. What may
b) Discuss with the member the difference between blue glue with blue paint
be the problem?
c) Remove the step needing the blue glue and paint
a) Brown-Sequard syndrome
d) Replace the blue with white glue
b) Cauda equine syndrome
c) Anterior Cord syndrome
d) Spinal Shock
b) Work shoulder flexors, abductors, and extensors
149) When teaching a new skill, what should be utilized?
a) Intermittent reinforcement
d) Work shoulder extensors only
b) Negative reinforcement
146) An OTR with an expertise in school based practice is assessing a COTA’s service
c) Continuous reinforcement
competency. When does the OTR know the COTA has reached competency?
d) Punishment
a) When COTA gets the same results as the OTR consistently
150) Which grasp is most functional for writing?
b) When the COTA takes 3 hours of credits in pediatric practice
a) Dynamic tripod
c) When the COTA passes the advanced practice test in pediatrics
b) Static tripod
d) When the COTA provides services for more than 5 years
c) Pronated grasp
147) An OTR is providing instructions on removing a shirt for a client with left
hemiplegia. What are the appropriate steps? d) Quadropod
a) Gather shirt up from back of neck, pull gathered shirt overhead, remove shirt 151) What functionality does a person with C6 SCI have?
from affected arm, remove shirt from unaffected arm
a) Wrist extension
b) Remove shirt from affected arm, remove shirt from unaffected arm, pull
b) Elbow extension
overhead
c) Wrist flexion
d) Finger extension 156) What is NOT a subtests of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
152) What level of independence does a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome present? a) Eye Closing
a) Moderate b) Eye Opening
b) Depends on extent of paralysis c) Best Motor Response
c) Minimum d) Best Verbal Response
d) Maximum 157) What score on the Glasgow Coma Scale would suggest a coma?
153) An OTR needs to provide supervision to an experience COTA in a hospital setting. a) 3-8
b) 9-12
a) Once a day
c) 11-12
b) Once a week
d) 13-15
c) Once a month
158) What are the behavioral characteristics of damage to the limbic system?
a) Social behavior
154) You have a patient who is unable to step off of a curb or watch for cars. What
b) Mental behavior
Ranchos level are they at?
c) Physical behavior
a) 3
d) Emotional behavior
b) 5
159) What is the most functional form of cerebral palsy?
c) 4
a) Ataxia
d) 2
b) Spastic
155) What are NOT the brain behavioral characteristics of temporal lobe damage?
c) Athetoid
a) Disorganization
d) Flaccid
b) Sound discrimination
160) An infant is observed “cursing” while holding onto furniture. What age is this
c) Voice recognition
typical?
d) Auditory storage
a) 6-8 months
b) 12-15 months b) Pinch meter
c) 9-12 months c) Sensory test
d) 15-18 months d) Volumeter
161) An individual is able to pick up a poker chip off of the table. What prehension 165) Which individual would benefit from a write driven flexor hinge splint during
pattern does this demonstrate? prehension tasks?
a) Palmar a) C1 injury
b) Tip b) C3 injury
c) Lateral c) T1 injury
d) Three jaw check d) C6 injury
162) An individual is able to hold and turn a key. What prehension pattern does this 166) What shoulder exercises are needed for an individual with SCI?
demonstrate?
a) Palmar
b) Work shoulder flexors, abductors, and extensors
b) Tip
c) Lateral
d) Work shoulder extensors only
d) Three jaw check
167) What is a rotator cuff tear?
163) An individual is able to open a door. What prehension pattern does this
a) Tear to the supraspinatus tendon
demonstrate?
b) Acute, painful condition affecting the supraspinatus and sometimes
a) Palmar
infraspinatus tendons Psoriatic arthritis
b) Tip
c) Pain with external rotation and mid-range abduction
c) Lateral
d) Caused by forceful and repeated flexion of the wrist and fingers
d) Three jaw check
168) What is NOT the general consideration of splinting?
164) During an OT evaluation, what would an OTR use to measure the strength of the
three jaw chuck? a) Comfort
a) Dynamometer b) Function
c) Compliance
d) Shape 173) What is NOT a purpose of a progressive splint?
169) What type of splint soft tissue contractures? a) Correct contractures
a) Supportive b) Prevent progressive deforming
b) Corrective c) Increase ROM
c) Protective d) Provide low-load prolong stress
d) Dynamic 174) What is NOT the purpose of serial static splints?
170) What type of splint prevents adaptive shortening of soft tissues? a) Increase ROM
a) Supportive b) Correct contractures
b) Corrective c) Maintained improvement obtained
c) Protective d) Holds tissue in end range until it adapts to the end range
d) Dynamic 175) In treating frozen shoulder, which intervention is NOT appropriate?
171) What type of splint immobilizes a joint or limb following trauma are fracture and a) Pain management
some post-surgical conditions?
b) Splinting
a) Supportive
c) PROM
b) Corrective
d) Strengthening activities
c) Protective
176) What injury would require a person to transfer sit to stand with his hip in slight
d) Dynamic abduction and extended out in front?
172) What is NOT a purpose of a dynamic splint? a) Total Hip Replacement
a) Prevent progressive deforming b) Total Knee Replacement
b) Increase ROM c) Total Shoulder Replacement
c) Correct contractures d) Hip Reconstruction
d) Minimize formations of adhesions

181) What inpatient services will be billed as OT services for a client where services are
covered under Medicare?
177) What is a clinical signs of a high-level ulnar nerve lesion?
a) OT plan provided by OT
a) Hyperextension of the MRP, ring and small finger
b) OT plan provided by Recreation Therapist
b) Clawing of the MCP, ring and small finger
c) OT plan provided by Music Therapist
c) Flexion of the PIP and DIP pf the small finger
d) OT plan provided by Art Therapist
d) Wrist flexion normal
182) A child with athetoid CP presents with jaw and tongue thrust when a -food-filled
178) What are the clinical signs of a low-level ulnar nerve lesion?
spoon is placed in her mouth. What would the OT do to alleviate this problem?
a) Wrist flexion normal
a) Neck extension
b) Wrist flexion abnormal
b) Neck flexion
c) Hyperextension of the MCP, ring and small finger
c) Hip extension
d) Absent hypothenar and interossei
d) Hip flexion
179) What is a sign of a pulmonary embolism?
183) When will a typically function child demonstrate the ability to play board games or
a) Tenderness games with peers?
b) Pain a) 4
c) Low grade fever b) 5
d) Sudden shortness of breath c) 6
180) What section of a discharge summary is most appropriate for the OTR to complete d) 7
if working together with a COTA?
184) A client demonstrates the following sudden shortness of breath, hyperventilation,
a) Discharge recommendations and cardiac arrhythmias. What may be occurring?
b) Current independence levels a) Nothing
c) Disposition of client at discharge b) Heart attack
d) Current ability status c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Hypotension
185) During a transfer, a client begins to slip from the grasp of the OTR. What is the best
course of action?
189) What intervention should an OT do during the chronic phase of
a) Return the patient back to the bed
therapeutic management in a nerve injury?
b) Ease the patient to the floor and cushion the fall
a) Sensory reeducation
c) Complete the transfer
b) Rehabilitation
d) Call for assistance
c) Compensatory
186) What is ankylosis?
d) Motor retraining
a) Fixation of fusion of a joint
190) In the OTPF, which of the following is an identified client factor?
b) Abnormal deposition of osseous material in the hip, knee, elbow, and
a) Body scheme
shoulder
b) Body development
c) Light headedness
c) Body disability
d) Edema
d) Body functions
187) What immobilizing splint is used for tendinitis/tenosynovitis?
191) What is not a characteristic of first degree bums?
a) 15-30 Wrist extension
a) Destruction of epidermis
b) 20-30 Wrist extension
b) Caused by sunburn
c) 15-30 Wrist flexion
c) No blisters
d) 20-30 Wrist flexion
d) No edema
188) What immobilizing splint is used for radial nerve palsy?
192) During a wheelchair assessment the OTR is measuring from the buttocks to the
a) 15-30 Wrist extension
elbow while seated and adds 1 inch. What part of the wheelchair is the OTR measuring?
b) 20-30 Wrist extension
a) Seat depth
c) 15-30 Wrist extension
b) Armrest
d) 20-30 Wrist extension
c) Footrest
d) Back height
d) Maximum slope of 2 feet of ramp per every inch of rise in height
193) A client presents with cardiac issues which requires cardiac precaution. Which is 197) Close OT supervision is defined as:
NOT a common cardiac precaution?
a) Once a day
a) Move quickly through tasks
b) Every two weeks
b) No lifting weights
c) Once a month
c) Don’t lean below the level of the heart
d) As needed
d) Don’t raise arm at the same time
198) General OT supervision is defined as:
194) What splint is used for a carpal tunnel release surgery?
a) Once a day
a) Static wrist flexion
b) Every two weeks
b) Static wrist extension
c) Once a month
c) Volar splint with the wrist in a neutral
d) As needed
d) Volar splint with the wrist in flexion
199) Minimal OT supervision is defined as:
195) An OTR is treating a client during a chronic phase of mental health. What is the
a) Once a day
OTRs main goal?
b) Every two weeks
a) Functional activities
c) Once a month
b) Compensatory techniques
d) As needed
c) Enabling activities
200) Routine OT supervision is defined as:
d) Rehabilitation techniques
a) Once a day
196) A contractor is installing ramps into a new construction. The contractor seeks out
an OTR for consultation services regarding designs needed for the ramp. How should the b) Every two weeks
ram be graded?
c) Once a month
a) Maximum slope of 18 inches of ramp per every inch of rise in height
d) As needed
b) Maximum slop of 6 inches of ramp per every inch of rise in height
201) What is a fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement called?
c) Maximum slope of 1 foot of ramp per every inch of rise in height
a) Tennis Elbow
b) Smith’s Fracture 205) During an OT group, the OTR notices the following behaviors from a client:
impulsive, mood instability, inappropriate affect, suicidal ideations, self-mutilation, and
c) Golf Elbow
fear of abandonment. What is the client most likely diagnosed with?
d) CRTS
a) Borderline Personality
202) An OTR is using a technique that uses normal movements as its premise. What
b) Schizotypal
technique is the OTR using?
c) Antisocial
a) Bobath
d) Histrionic
b) PNF
206) During an OT group, the OTR notices the following behaviors from a client:
28
grandiosity, attention seeking, lack of empathy, and egomaniac with inferiority complex.
c) Brunnicks What is the client most likely diagnosed with?
d) Developmental a) Narcissistic
203) In the OTPF, which of the following is not an identified performance skill b) Schizotypal
subheading posture?
c) Antisocial
a) Stabilize
d) Histrionic
b) Positions
207) During the OT group, the OTR notices the following behaviors from a19 year old
c) Coordinate client: engages in illegal activity, unemployed, aggressive, impulsive, irresponsible, and
lack of remorse?
d) Aligns
a) Narcissistic
204) During an OT group, the OTR notices the following behaviors from a client: center
of attention, extreme emotionality, approval seeking, low frustration tolerance, and b) Schizotypal
unable to delay gratification. What is the client most likely diagnosed with?
c) Antisocial
a) Borderline Personality
d) Histrionic
b) Schizotypal
208) During an OT group, the OTR notices the following behaviors from a client:
c) Antisocial characteristics are limited emotional range; absence or indifference to social activity
withdrawn self-absorbed?
d) Histrionic
a) Schizotypal
b) Schizophrenia
c) Paranoid d) Basic non-independence status
d) Schizoid 213) Which is NOT a type of mental health service delivery?
209) During an OT group, a client demonstrates behaviors that appear to be a) Traditional

misinterpretations of external stimuli. What might the client be experiencing?
b) Partnership
a) Visual Difficulties
c) Individual
b) Hallucinations
d) Supportive
c) Delusions
214) What is NOT a purpose/focus of a topical group?
d) Auditory input
a) Discuss activities outside of group
210) During an OT group, a client demonstrates behaviors that appear to be sensing
b) Members must have interaction skills equal to a parallel group skill level
(see, hear, etc.) a non-existent external stimulus. What might the client be
experiencing? c) Members must be egocentric-cooperative group skill level
a) Visual difficulties d) Therapists share leadership and acts as role model
b) Hallucinations 215) Which NOT a component of motor development?
c) Delusions a) Grasping pattern
d) Auditory input b) Laterality
211) In which setting does an OTR focus on discharge planning? c) Dexterity
a) Acute Care Hospital d) Fine motor coordination
b) Community Mental Health Center 216) During an observation, a child is observed playing with cause and effort toys. What
type of play is this child demonstrating?
c) Half way house
a) Exploratory
d) Mental health club house
b) Symbolic
212) An OTR uses the KELS when evaluating a client. What is the test evaluating?
c) Creative
a) Basic eating skills
d) Parallel
b) Basic living skills
c) Basic independence status

217) During an observation, a child is observed playing in cooperative peer groups. What d) Head trauma
type of play is this child demonstrating?
222) A student presents with decrease writing skills; however, she is required to return
a) Exploratory large amount of written work for task completion. What is the best adaptation for the
student?
b) Symbolic
a) Learn to type
c) Creative
b) Develop fine motor skills
d) Parallel
c) Develop writing skills
218) According to AOTA, what is the SEC responsible for?
d) Decrease work completed
a) Developing practice interventions
223) A 6 months old infant demonstrates head lag when brought into sit. Head control
b) Creating practice interventions
is:
c) Creating new practices areas
a) Significantly delayed
d) License administration
b) Typical
e) Monitoring of the code of ethics
c) Moderately delayed
219) Is 63 year old adult, no on social security, not diagnosed with permanent kidney
d) Minimally delayed
failure and no Black Lung Disease eligible for Medicare?
224) A client on blood thinking medication needs an adaptation for shaving. What would
a) No
best meet his needs?
b) Yes
a) No razor
220) Is a 60 year diagnosed with Black Lung Disease eligible for Medicare?
b) Electric razor
a) No
31
b) Yes
c) Straight razor
221) A client demonstrates multiple cognitive deficits including memory loss and
d) Disposable razor
impaired consciousness. What is MOST possible problem?
225) During an OT evaluation with a client who recently had a CVA what type would
a) Delirium
NOT be appropriate?
b) Dementia
a) Ataxia
c) Hysteria
b) Apraxia c) Program implementation
c) Expressive aphasia d) Program evaluation
d) Receptive aphasia 230) Which step of program development is a systematic review and analysis of care
provided to determine if care is at an acceptable level of quality?
226) What is NOT in the 4 basic steps of program development?
a) Needs Assessment
a) Needs Assessment
b) Program planning
b) Program planning
c) Program implementation
c) Program development
d) Program evaluation
d) Program intervention
231) What is not a characteristic of histrionic personality disorder?
227) Which step of program development defines the focus for a program based on
needs assessment results? a) Dramatic
a) Needs Assessment b) Inability to maintain deep long-lasting relationships
b) Program planning c) Hostile
c) Program implementation d) Extroverted behavior
d) Program evaluation 232) What is NOT a characteristic of schizoid personality disorder?
228) Which step of program development initiates program according to time table and a) Social withdrawal
steps set forth in the program?
32
a) Needs assessment
b) Bland constrict affect
b) Program planning
c) Hostile
c) Program implementation
d) Seen as lonely
d) Program evaluation
233) What is NOT a characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder?
229) Which step of program development describes community factors and
a) Hostile
populations?
b) Dramatic
a) Needs Assessment
c) Negative
b) Program planning
d) Behaviors that result in functional impairment a) a dynamic/static splint to position MPs in flexion
234) What are the clinical signs of a law (distal) radial nerve injury? b) a figure of eight splint or dynamic MCP flexion splint
a) Incomplete extension of fingers and thumb MCP-PIP and DIP can be extended c) a hand-based thumb splint
b) MCP extension, and thumb extension d) Duran dorsal protection splint
c) Loss of active pronation 239) What type of split would be crafted for someone with CMC arthritis?
d) Loss of thumb flexion a) A dynamic/static splint to position MPs in flexion
235) What type of splint support the user’s wrist in 10 degrees to 20 degrees of b) A figure of eight splint or dynamic MCP flexion splint
extension to prevent contracture, but allows digits to function?
c) A hand-based thumb splint
a) Opponents splint
d) Duran dorsal protection splint
b) Cock up splint
240) What type of split would be crafted for a combined median/ulnar nerve injury?
c) Static splint
a) A dynamic/static splint to position MPs in flexion
d) Dynamic splint
b) A figure of eight splint or dynamic MCP flexion splint
236) What type of splint supports the thumb in a position of abduction and opposition?
a) Opponents splint
b) Cock up splint
241) What type of split would be crafted for someone with a flexor tendon injury?
c) Static splint
d) Dynamic splint
237) What type of split would be crafted for an ulnar nerve injury?
242) What disorder has the cerebellum and medulla oblongata slip through foramen
c) A hand-based thumb splint magnum of skull?
d) Duran dorsal protection splint a) Spina bifida
238) What type of split would be crafted for someone with the skiers thumb injury? b) De Quervains
c) Arnold-Chiari Syndrome c) Observation is needed to determine right side dysfunction
d) Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy d) One handed use precedes the use of two hands
243) What is a progressive disorder in which weakness occurs in all voluntary muscles? 247) When evaluating a child with decreased motor control for use of switch operated
AT device, what underlying skill would most important to work on?
a) Spina bifida
a) In hand manipulation
b) De Quervains
b) Reliable, controlled movement
c) Arnold-Chiari Syndrome
c) Fine motor control
d) Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
d) Fine motor accuracy
244) The OT is educating a client with CTD on work related factors. What is a primary
risk factor? 248) What would be included in an initial chart note?
a) Joint mobilization a) Current treatment status
b) Weight bearing b) Referral source & reason
c) High force c) Analysis of patient deficits
d) Inflammation d) Outcome projection
245) A student diagnosed with MD currently presents with decreased trunk control. 249) A child is developing her scissor skills. Currently she can use adapted scissors to cut
What FOR should the OTR use when treating the student? across a piece of paper. What should the child cut next?
a) Sensory integration a) Square
b) Developmental b) Circle
c) NDT c) Thickened curved line
d) Biomechanical d) Thickened straight line
246) During an evaluation, a 6 month old child shows a strong preference for the left 250) A patient with decreased strength and activity toleration swims 3times a week for
hand when reaching for objects presented. What should the OT assume about hand 10 minutes. Recently, the patient is able to swim for 20 minutes:
dominance development for the child?
a) Increase 20 minutes to five times a week
a) Hand dominance does not develop until one year of age
b) Maintain current 20 minutes three times a week
b) Develop is typical
c) Increase swim time to 25 minutes
d) Increase swim time to 30 minutes
251) What UE disorder would stress load be an appropriate intervention for? 255) A student struggles with incoordination due to problems in the nervous system.
What disorder might this student have?
a) Tennis Elbow
a) Dyspraxia
b) CTD
b) Dysgraphia
c) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
c) Ataxia
d) CRPS
d) Apraxia
252) What disorder are also known as repetitive strain injuries (RSI), overuse, syndrome,
and/or musculoskeletal disorders? 256) The Volkman’s contracture is a fracture at the distal end of the humerus that
impairs with in the forearm.
a) Smith’s Fracture
a) Movement
b) CTD
b) Nerve supply
c) Blood supply
d) CRPS
d) Sensory input
253) A student cannot print and white. What disorder might this student have?
257) An OTS recently observed client abuse. To whom should the OTS report?
a) Dyspraxia
a) Immediate Supervisor
b) Dysgraphia
b) COTA
c) Ataxia
c) Head Nurse
d) Apraxia
d) Family
254) A student struggles with planning new motor tasks. What disorder might this
student have? 258) At what age should a typically function child be toilet trained?
a) Dyspraxia a) 2-3
b) Dysgraphia b) 3-4
c) Ataxia c) 4-5
d) Apraxia d) 5-6
259) An OTR is working with a client who presents with disoriented reaction with d) Down Syndrome
restlessness and confusion that may be associated with fear and hallucinations. What
263) What type of split would be crafted for someone with flaccidity?
might the client be suffering from?
a) Resting splint
a) Delusions
b) Cone splint
b) Schizophrenia
c) Buttonhole splint
c) Affect
d) Dynamic splint
d) Delirium
264) While splinted, what is NOT the functional position of the hand?
260) What is NOT a subtype of schizophrenia? Paranoid type – Disorganized type –
Catatonic type – Undifferentiated type – Residual type a) Thumb in palmar adduction
a) Disdifferentiated type b) Wrist 20-30 degrees extension
b) Disorganized type c) MCP 45 degrees flexion
c) Catatonic type d) IP 20-30 degrees flexion
d) Paranoid type 265) While splinted, what is NOT conductive of deformity?
261) An OTR is leading a group for adults with eating disorders. What intervention is a) Wrist flexion
NOT appropriate?
b) Wrist 20-30 degree extension
a) Reality Based Body Image
c) MCP Hyperextension
b) Nutrition Education
d) IP Flexed
c) Appropriate Dieting
266) A client is prescribed blocking splint. What is it used for?
d) Self-Expression
a) Isolate hand movements
262) What syndrome is characterized with repetitive hand movements including licking
biting and slapping? b) Isolate wrist extensors
a) Marfan Syndrome c) Isolate wrist flexors
b) Rhett’s Syndrome d) Isolate tendon

271) A client diagnosed with epilepsy may display which of the following psychiatric
symptoms:
267) An OTR positions a client for cold packs. What is the ideal position?
a) Psychosis
a) Flexed
b) Delusions
b) Elevated
c) Hallucinations
c) Extended
d) Withdrawal
d) Flat
272) What does the Comprehensive Occupational Therapy Evaluation (COTE) NOT
268) What is NOT a characteristic of individuals with oppositional defiant disorder?
measure?
a) Focused
a) Evaluations basic behaviors
b) Impulse control
b) Evaluates general behaviors
c) Attention span
c) Evaluates interpersonal behaviors
d) Short term memory
d) Evaluates task behaviors
269) In a mature group, what is the role of the OTR?
273) What hand disorder is common with the repetition and use of tools that are placed
a) Act as a member too far apart?
b) Provide support a) Trigger finger
c) Provide direction b) Mallet finger
d) Create goals for the members c) Tennis Elbow
270) What is NOT included in the Performance Areas of Occupation (OTPF)? d) Golf Elbow
a) ADLs 274) What is NOT present in a parallel group?
b) Work a) Directive leader
c) Play b) Therapist as an advisor
d) Motor c) Individuals at low level
d) Working on trust
275) An individual is functioning at Level 4 on the Allen’s Cognitive Level. What is the 279) What hand disorder is connected with the overuse of wrist extensors?
individual capable of?
a) DeQuervains
a) Operating a normal capacity
b) Mallet finger
b) New learning
c) Tennis Elbow
c) Copy simple plan to follow directions
d) Golf Elbow
d) Complete three step direction
280) An inability to extend digits to release objects, difficulty manipulating objects and
276) A high school student with mental retardation is preparing for entering the job wrist drop would all be characteristics of what type of peripheral nerve injury?
market. What should the OTR focus on?
a) Radical nerve palsy
a) Leisure activities
b) Radial nerve laceration
b) Work preparation tasks
c) Tennis Elbow
c) Gross motor tasks
d) Golf Elbow
d) Fine motor tasks
281) A client has this injury and should avoid UE exercise and activity. What might the
277) What hand disorder is caused by stenosing tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis injury be?
longus and the extensor pollicis brevis?
a) Radial nerve palsy
a) De Quervains
b) Radial nerve laceration
b) Mallet finger
c) Tennis Elbow
c) Tennis Elbow
d) Rotator Cuff
d) Golf Elbow
282) What is NOT a precaution for total knee replacements?
278) What hand disorder is connected with the overuse of wrist extensors?
a) No internal rotation
a) De Quervains
b) No external rotation
b) Mallet finger
c) No forced extension
c) Tennis Elbow
d) No forced flexion
d) Golf Elbow
283) What is NOT a hip precaution for posterolateral hip arthroplasty? 287) An ulnar nerve laceration will result in what?
a) No hip internal rotation a) Lock of movement in hand
b) No forced hip flexion b) Extension of digits
c) No hip adduction c) Frozen digits
d) No weight bearing d) Claw hand
284) An OTR working with a high level SCI client with no functional movements needs to 288) To produce the Tinel’s sign, what should the OTR do?
activate a wheelchair. What is the best suggestion?
a) Top over the ulnar nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist
a) Sip & puff
b) Top over the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist
b) Joystick
c) Allow wrists to fall freely into maximum flexion and maintain the position for
c) Mouthstick 60 seconds or more
d) Manual d) Allow wrists to fall freely into maximum extension and maintain the position
for 60 seconds or more
285) When teaching a patient with hemiparesis on how to button a shirt. What is the
best method? 289) When eliciting the Phalen’s maneuver, what should the OTR do?
a) Put shirt on, line up buttons and button up from bottom a) Top over the ulnar nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist
b) Button up all buttons and pull shirt over head b) Top over the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist
c) Put shirt on, line up buttons and use button hook to bottom buttons c) Allow wrists to fall freely into maximum flexion and maintain the position for
60 seconds or more
d) Put shirt on, line up buttons and button from top to bottom
d) Allow wrists to fall freely into maximum extension and maintain the position
286) A client in an outpatient clinic presents with the following: numbness and tingling
for 60 seconds or more
along the ulnar aspect of the forearm and hand and positive Tinel’s sign. What injury
might this be? 290) What syndrome produces a position Tinel’s and Phalen’s sign?
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome a) Radial Nerve Palsy
b) Cubital tunnel syndrome b) Cumulative Trauma Disorder
c) Guyon’s canal c) Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome
d) Radial Nerve Palsy d) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

291) An individual sitting in a wheelchair should have the seat belt positioned where? 295) When installing grab bars for the toilet for toilet transfers. What height should the
grab bars be?
a) Superior to the anterior superior iliac spine
a) 22-24 inches
b) Inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine
b) 33-36 inches
c) Superior to the iliac crest
c) 24-46 inches
d) Anterior to the iliac crest
d) 40-46 inches
292) What is known as Saturday Night Palsy?
296) A client with MS presents with decreased sensation in the legs and bottom. What
a) Median Nerve Injury
should the OTR include when educating the patient on limited LE sensations?
b) Ulnar Nerve Injury
a) Visual inspection of legs and bottom for pressure sores
c) Radial Nerve Injury
b) Provide splinting to prevent injury
d) Vagus Nerve Injury
c) Training on appropriate nail trimming
293) A client presents with the following during treatment: edema, increased venous
d) Provide padding to lower extremity
pattern, pain and tenderness, low-grade, idiopathic fever. What might the client have?
297) What is projection?
a) DVT
a) Making excuses for one’s behaviors
b) PE
b) Blaming others for one’s actions
c) CVA
c) Rationalizing behaviors
d) TBI
d) Taking on the identity of another
294) An OTR is working on sensory desensitization. What would work the best?
298) According to the American Disability Act, which is NOT included?
a) Pressure, massage, rub, tape
a) Private accommodations for individuals with disabilities
b) Massage, rub, tape
b) Reasonable accommodations for employment’
c) Present textures, rub, tape and provide prolonged contact
c) Accessible design
d) Provide prolonged contact, rub, compensatory methods
d) Telecommunications for hearing impaired
299) The PNF technique focuses on the following:
a) Functional patterns to promote proprioception awareness
b) Improve CNS function through movements
c) Sensory reeducation
d) Compensatory strategies
300) What is not a style of group leadership?
a) Directive
b) Facilitative
c) Compensatory
d) Advisory

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NBCOT Questionnaire - 1

c) Observation is needed to determine right side dysfunction

a) Hand dominance does not develop until one year of age

8) Standardized testing is considered valid when: c) Intermediate

a) It is based on a normative population d) Advance

c) Buildup pencil a) Back of her neck

d) Head pointer for keyboard b) Top of her head

a) Below entry level

b) At or above entry level

a) C6 30) A test is reliable if it:

c) C4 b) Measures what it is intended to measure

d) T1 c) Measures the same as similar tests

d) Measures despite errors in the testing d) Hip Reconstruction

c) Static hand splint b) Practice skill during a simulated environment

d) C Bar splint c) Practice each segment of the task individually

b) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Functional Independence Measure

c) Psoriatic arthritis c) Sensory Integration and Praxis Test

d) Reactive arthritis d) Kohlmon Evaluation of Living Skills

a) 12 months a) Egocentric/Cooperative Group

b) 18 months b) Developmental Group

c) 6 months c) Instrumental Group

d) 24 months d) Project Group

a) Subjective observations of sensory function a) Low

b) Subjective observations of sensory dysfunction b) High

c) Objective observations of sensory function c) Medium

d) Objective observations of sensory dysfunction d) None

c) Spatial relations c) Add throw rugs

d) Eye hand coordination d) Remove all throw rugs

a) Patient states, “My leg hurts today.” a) Live alone

a) Prediction a) Needs assessment

b) Long Term Goals b) Program development

c) Assessment c) Program evaluation

d) Statements d) Program implementation

d) Functional mobility a) Co-worker

a) Care of others c) Family

b) Personal Device Care d) Friend

d) Communication device use a) Leisure choices

a) Employment loss c) Leisure participation

d) Leisure activity participation d) Stand

b) Adjust a) Useful habits

c) Accommodate b) Purposeful habits

d) Benefit c) Dominating habits

b) Contact a) Pain function

d) Gesture c) Orientation function

b) Therapeutic use of self a) Professional directed

c) Therapeutic use of activity b) Professional lead

d) Education process c) Professional excluded

d) Parallel, then Project a) Learn to type

103) What is Axis I in the DSM-IV? b) General Medical Conditions

a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems c) MR & Personality Disorders

b) Clinical Disorders d) GAF Score

d) GAF Score a) Facilitory

104) What is Axis V in the DSM-IV? b) Facilitory/Inhibitory

a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems c) Inhibitory

b) General Medical Conditions d) Weight bearing

c) MR & Personality Disorders 109) Reality orientation is the:

d) GAF Score a) Awareness of time only

105) What is Axis II in the DSM-IV? b) Awareness of date only

a) Psychosocial & Environmental Problems c) Awareness of time and date

b) General Medical Conditions d) Awareness of reality

d) GAF Score primary goal?

106) What is Axis III in the DSM-IV? a) Stabilization