Exercise 1
A mother is hospitalized for the
1. Which of the following should the
nurse do first when labor is
progressing more rapidly than
normal in a difficult labor?
a. Investigate the possibility of
abruptio placenta
b. Evaluate fetal heart rate
pattern
c. Stop oxytocin infusion
being given
d. Give a tocolytic medication to
calm the uterus
Rationale:
2. Fetal fibronectin is detected in a
34-week pregnant mother. The
nurse analyzes which of the
following:
a. Protein from the embryoblast
taken via vaginal mucus
indicates that uterine
contractions may occur at
any time now
b. If birth occurs, the preterm
cord may need to be
clamped immediately since
an immature infant may have
difficulty excreting bilirubin
c. Dexamethasone, an
antiinflammatory drug,
may be given at 6 mg IM
Q12 to control
inflammation which will
then prevent uterine
contractions
d. This is a point of no return,
therefore birth is imminent
possibly through vaginal
delivery with episiotomy or
cesarean section
3.
treatment of severe pre-eclampsia.
The nurse understands that which of
the following represents an unusual
finding when assessing this woman?
a. Facial edema
b. Proteinuria of 3+
c. Convulsions
d. Blood pressure of 160/100
4. A client’s labor does not progress.
After ruling out cephalopelvic
disproportion (CPD), the doctor
orders IV administration of 80ml
normal saline with Pitocin 40 units to
run for 3 hours. The oxytocic comes
in a 10 unit/ml ampule. The nurse
will regulate the soluset a what rate?
a. 10ggts/min
b. 7gtts/min
c. 40gtts/min
d. 28 gtts/min
5. A woman is pregnant for the first
time and visits the clinic to report
that she is bleeding. To obtain
important information, the nurse
should next ask:
a. How long have you been
pregnant?
b. Are you having a uterine
cramping?
c. At what week did you last
feel the baby move?
d. When was your pregnancy
test done?
Rationale: bleeding is never normal in
pregnancy. So if there is one, determine
AOG to identify the trimester and learn the
diagnosis. This way, appropriate
intervention may begin to immediately stop
the bleeding
6. After several pre-natal check-ups,
the nurse anticipates the risk of a
labor and delivery complication.
Since uteroplacental circulation
might be compromised, a non-stress
test is performed to this mother to
check which condition?
a. Intrauterine growth
retardation
b. Oligohydraminos
c. Meconium aspiration
d. Fetal well-being
7. The nurse positions a mother with a
prolapsed umbilical cord in a
knee-chest position and the mother
asks the reason with great anxiety.
The nurse should respond by
saying:
a. This position will permit the
protruded cord to go back
inside vagina
b. This position wi;; prevent
variable decelerations
c. This position will allow you to
not put pressure on your
baby
d. This position will help
relieve compression of the
umbilical cord
8. After prenatal class on healthy
behaviors during pregnancy, the
nurse evaluates that learning has
occurred when a client states:
a. In the first trimester, alcohol
is extremely dangerous
b. Problems of the baby happen
with heavy drinking of alcohol
c. Alcohol must be taken with
caution in pregnancy, but
little is good for my heart
d. Drinking alcohol can cause
mental retardation for the
baby
9. A 5-month pregnant woman comes
to the clinic and verbalizes that she
is suffering from morning sickness
early in her pregnancy which has
continued until now. She is
hospitalized and parenteral fluid
therapy is started. The nurse
assesses and records that the
woman is feeling sick, looks
exhausted, and vomited twice within
the last hour. The first priority
nursing intervention would be
a. Assist with mouth care
b. Give soft foods per orem
gradually
c. Position on the left side
d. Increase rate of iv fluid
10. In which of the following situations is
halting labor most appropriate?
a. Preterm labor at 28 weeks
with mild spotting
b. Preterm labor at 32 weeks
with maternal seizure
disorder
c. Preterm labor at 34 weeks
with variable deceleration
d. Preterm labor at 26 weeks
with premature rupture of
membrane
QUIZ 1
1. A bleeding pregnant woman who
has hypovolemic shock will manifest
the following. Except
a. Warm extremities
b. Confusion
c. Decreased urinary output
d. Increased pulse
2. Mother C, at 32 weeks of gestation, 6. Mother A is 40 weeks pregnant. She
has developed mild preeclampsia. is admitted to labor and delivery unit
Upon assessment, proteinuria level with possible placenta previa. On
would be approximately be: admission, the nurse would expect
a. 2 to 3 to find:
b. 3 to 4 a. Painless vaginal bleeding
c. 0 b. Rigid and board-like
d. 1 to 2 abdomen
c. Severe lower abdominal pain
3. The nurse understands that d. Early and progressive
incompetent cervix may result from effacement and dilatation of
all, except? cervix
a. Congenital development
b. Trauma to the cervix 7. A mother who had a miscarrigae
c. Teenage pregnancy requires assistance to deliver all the
d. Endocrine factors products of conception. This type of
abortion is:
4. When does threatened abortion a. Missed
happen? b. Complete
a. Painless vaginal bleeding c. Recurrent
during the third trimester d. Incomplete
b. Painless vaginal bleeding
during the first trimester 8. Mother Y is hospitalized with ectopic
c. Painful vaginal bleeding tubal pregnancy. What are the
during the first trimester possible symptoms manifested by
d. Painful vaginal bleeding the client?
during the third trimester a. Abdominal pain radiating all
over the abdomen and to the
5. A woman in her 7th month of back
pregnancy has a low hemoglobin of b. Low hemoglobin, low
10.5 grams. The nurse teaches the hematocrit, and low WBC
woman about proper nutrition during count
pregnancy. Which statement made c. Rigid, tender abdomen
by the client indicates to the nurse with an abdominal pelvic
that teaching was effective? mass
a. I eat 6 small meals daily d. Very high HCG titers
b. I eat liver once a week
c. I take green leafy vegetables
when I want
d. I take orange twice daily

9. The nurse is caring for a young
diabetic woman who is in her first
trimester of pregnancy. As the
pregnancy continues, the nurse
should anticipate which of the
following changes that would affect
her medication needs?
a. Increase in frequency of oral
hypoglycemic administration
b. Decrease in the need for
insulin
c. Increase in the need for
insulin
d. Decrease in frequency of oral
hypoglycemic administration
10. A mother in her first trimester of
pregnancy presents with symptoms
of UTI. Which causative agent is
most likely present?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Rubella
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Escerichia coli
11. Your pregnant client has the
following symptoms: size of uterus
disproportionate to length of
pregnancy, high levels of HCG with
excessive nausea and vomiting, and
dark red to brownish vaginal
bleeding after 12th week. What
could be the possible diagnosis?
a. Abruptio placenta
b. Hyperemesis
c. Gestational trophoblastic
disease
d. Placenta previa
12. A woman is admitted with severe
pre-eclampsia. What type of room
should the nurse select for this
woman?
a. The room next to the
elevator, near the operating
room
b. The most quiet room on
the floor
c. The labor suite
d. The farthest room from the
nursing station
13. A teenage patient, 30 weeks
pregnant, is admitted with PIH. Data
include BP 160/100, generalized
edema, weight gain of 10 pounds in
the last 2 weeks, and +3 proteinuria.
She is also complaining of headache
and nausea. In planning for this
client, the nurse would set which
priority goal?
a. Reduce headache and
nausea within 24 hours
b. Not experience seizure
prior to delivery
c. Demonstrate a decrease BP
within 24 hours
d. Maintain strict diet prior to
delivery
14. A 28 year old woman has
gestational diabetes mellitus. She is
8 weeks pregnant. Hyperglycemia
during the first trimester will have
what effect on the fetus?
a. Hyperinsulinemia
b. Fetal organ deformities
c. Abnormal positioning
d. Excessive fetal size
15. A pregnant woman at 22 weeks
comes to the clinic with bleeding.
The nurse will anticipate which of the
following findings with continuous
bleeding?
a. Fetal distress accompanies 2
units of maternal blood loss
b. Fetal tachycardia
compensates for secreases
maternal fluid
c. Decreased cardiac output
may begin with 10% of
blood loss
 d. Blood pressure increases in
the first hours of severe
blood loss
16. A mother’s amniotic fluid is
measured to be at least 2500 ml.
The nurse explains that this
condition might be caused by?
a. Problems of the amnion
b. Congenital opening between
esophagus and trachea of
fetus
c. Trauma to the abdomen
d. Insufficient sleep and rest by
the pregnant mother
17. A pregnant mother requires amnio
transfusion to prevent further
complications. The nurse knows that
this intervention is to manage a
high-risk pregnancy condition best
described as?
a. Amniotic fluid more than 500
ml
b. Amniotic fluid less than
500 ml
c. Amniotic fluid less than 800
ml
d. Amniotic fluid more than 800
m throughout the rest of the system, a
18. Mother B, 30 weeks pregnant, has
been discharged with a diagnosis of
placenta previa. The nurse knows
that client understands her care at
home when the client states:
a. “I have to save money for my
upcoming assisted vaginal
delivery”
b. “As I get closer to my due
date, that’s the time I need to
ensure bed rest”
c. “My husband won’t be too
happy with this” ‘no sex
order’”
d. “I can continue with my office
job. I just have to rest
sometimes if I feel tired”
19. Mother Z is being discharged after
treatment for hydatidiform mole. THe
nurse should include which of the
following in the discharge teaching
plan?
a. Do not become pregnant
for at least a year
b. Have BP checked weekly for
6 months
c. Rhogam must be received
within next pregnancy and
delivery
d. Tell her not to worry about
future pregnancies, she will
never have H-mole again
20. A woman, who just delivered
baginally, is previously diagnosed
with a pregnancy complication and
comes to the clinic presenting with
oozing blood from previous injection
sites. The nurse explains that this
bleeding results in a paradox where
at one point in the circulation there is
increased coagulation but
bleeding detect exists. This defect is
known as:
a. Disseminated intravascular
coagulation
b. Thrombophlebitis
c. Abruptio placenta
d. Placenta accreta
21. A pregnant woman with a blood
pressure of 170/110, proteinuria 3+
and sudden blurring of vision is
admitted to the unit. To achieve the
primary goal of care for this client.
the nurse will anticipate to prepare
which drug?
a. Magnesium sulfate
 22. A glycosylated hemoglobin level with sterile saline =
is ordered for a pregnant diabetic Prolapsed umbilical cord
because it: 22. Matching
a. Terbutaline, ritodrine, and
Answer:Indicates mean glucose level indomethacin are
over a 1 to 3 month period medications of choice =
Premature or preterm birth
23. Which statement by a pregnant b. Very early desire to push =
client with aids needs further health Precipitous labor and
teaching by the nurse? delivery
c. Marked by immediate
Answer: The virus always crosses the
manifestation of variable
placenta
decelerations on the fetal
24. The nurse must plan to prevent heart rate = Prolapsed
which complications associated with umbilical cord
herpes simplex virus acquired during d. Sudden gush of clear fluid
pregnancy? from vagina without uterine
contractions = PROM
Answer: Abortions, malformations fetal e. A condition which may
death warrant immediate clamping
of umbilical cord upon birth to
Matching prevent build up of bilirubin =
a. Manifestations include Premature or preterm birth
sudden onset of respiratory 23. Matching
distress, hypotension, chest a. Escape of uterine fluid into
pain and signs of shock = the maternal circulation,
AFE usually in conjunction with a
b. Causes include cervical pattern of hypertonic and
incompetence, intense uterine contractions =
pre-eclampsia, maternal Amniotic fluid embolism
injury, infection, multiple birts, b. Associated with breech
or placental disorders = presentation, unengaged
Premature or preterm birth presentations, and premature
c. DIsplacement of cord in a labors = Prolapsed
downward direction, near or umbilical cord
ahead of the presenting part c. A general term for any
or into the vagina = difficulty during labor =
Prolapsed umbilical cord Dystocia
d. A general term to describe d. Immediate management is
intrauterine hypoxia in the induction of labor or
baby = Fetal Distress cesarean delivery =
e. Management is to cover cord Postmature or prolonged
with sterile gauze moistened pregnancy
 e. An initial nursing action is to a. False
exert upward pressure 27. Postpartum psychosis poses a great
against presenting to reduce threat to mother and baby
cord pressure = Prolapsed a. True
umbilical cord 28. With mastitis, penicillin-resistant
f. Most common complications antistaphylococcal such as
include infection and dicloxacillin or cephalosporin takes
prolapsed umbilical cord = effect in 3 days
Premature rupture of a. True
Membrane 29. Femoral thrombophlebitis is the
g. Labor less then 3hours that inflammation of the blood vessels
is associated with emergency with the formation of a clot
delivery without aid = specifically found in the lower leg
Precipitous labor a. True
h. An important management is 30. To prevent choriocarcinoma after an
to position mother H-mole, methotrexate may be
knee-chest or severe administered
trendelenburg’s = prolapsed a. True
umbilical cord 31. Chorioamnionitis is the innermost
i. Prevention inclcesudes uterine layer may be due to
cessation of smoking, prolonged rupture of membranes,
stopping substances abuse, cesarian birth, trauma during birth
early and consistent process, maternal anemia, or
pre-natal care, appropriate retained placental fragments
diet and weight gain, a. True
minimizing psychological 32. A very immature fetus is
stressors and preventing recommended to be delivered via
exposure to infections = cesarean section rather than vagianl
premature in order to prevent intraventricular
j. Frequently seen causes are hemorrhage with intense labor
cephalopelvic disproportion, contractions
problems with presentation a. True
and problems with maternal 33. Prostaglandin derivatives given for
soft tissues = Dystocia uterine atony usually causes
24. Uterine inversion is the prolapse of constipation
the uterine fundus a. False
a. True 34. In PIH, a left side-lying position will
25. Warfarin is commonly used to best excrete Na faster to promote
prevent clots within blood vessels of diuresis
a high-risk postpartum woman a. False
a. False 35. Uterine atony is the failure of the
26. Assisted vaginal delivery is the uterus to revert to pre-pregnant state
mode of choice with prolapsed through gradual reduction in size
umbilical cord and placement
 a. False 46. Isoxilan, a peripheral vasodilator,
36. The Shirodkar procedure is can help halt premature labor
performed to prevent premature birth a. True
caused by early uterine contraction 47. Staphylococcus areus is the usual
a. False causative organism of mastitis in a
37. Rate of cervical dilation in postpartum
precipitous labor and delivery is a. True
between 5 to 10 cm/hr 48. A nasogastric tube is an equipment
a. True most necessary to insert an ET tube
38. Most immediate nursing action once in a woman with amniotic fluid
uterine atony is diagnosed is to embolism
administer oxytocics a. False
a. False 49. A negative Coombs test result
39. Peritonitis as a postpartal infection is during pregnancy indicates that Rh
often accompanied by a paralytic antibodies are present in the
ileus which warrants an NGT bloodstream
insertion a. False
a. True 50. In preterm labor, corticosteroid on
40. A lithotomy position increases fetal lung surfactant when given to a
tension on perineum and thereby mother has 12 hours onset and 7
increases risk of perineal lacerations days duration
a. True a. False
41. Hallucinations as a symptoms of 51. A reactive nonstress test result will
postpartum psychosis is indicate that there is already fetal
characterized by false beliefs distress caused by prolonged
a. False pregnancy
42. Precipitous labor and delivery can a. False
commonly cause cervical laceration 52. Oxytocin, to improve dysfunctional
right after birth uterine contractions, is administered
a. True during the first stage of labor
43. Hydration in preterm labor is a a. False
priority intervention to prevent the 53. A full bladder may prevent effective
release of ADH and oxytocin uterine contractions, that is why the
a. True nurse must ensure that a woman
44. To promote factor tissue healing in a has voided within 24 hours
woman with postpartum infection, a postpartum
high protein diet should be provided a. False
a. True 54. Fibronectin, a fetal protein from the
45. Fibrinogen level less than 200mg/dL trophoblast, can be detected via
is considered a definitive diagnosis amniotic fluid and indicates that
of DIC causing postpartum preterm contractions are ready to
hemorrhage occur
a. False a. False
55. Retained placenta is the most a. False
common cause of late postpartum 65. Prior to giving methylergonovine
hemorrhage maleate to stimulate uterine
a. True contractions, the nurse must always
56. A high-risk pregnant mother check the mother’s heart rate.
receiving streptokinase for DIC may a. False
be given protamine sulfate if 66. Cold compress is best for a
excessive bleeding as a drug postpartum woman with a blood clot
adverse effect has occurred. in the lower extremities.
a. False a. False
57. Oxytocin dosage is given as 10 to 40 67. A prostaglandin gel, misoprostol is
units IV infusion with 1L D5LR for administered to a woman with
uterine atony incompetent cervix for cervical
a. True ripening.
58. A third degree laceration is a. False
characterized by a torn rectal 68. Hydration in preterm labor is a
mucosa priority intervention to prevent the
a. False release of ADH and oxytocin.
59. Antipsychotics best manage a. True
postpartum depression 69. There is no sure to hold pregnancy
a. False but progesterone in the form of DES,
60. Laceration, as one major cause of a teratogenic was used before
postpartum hemorrhage, is although it has no conclusive
characterized by firm uterus with evidence.
steady trickle of excessive vaginal a. False
bleeding
a. True
61. Medical attempts to stop labor can Exercise 2
only be made if cervical dilation has 11. Which is the American cancer
not occurred society's recommendation for early
a. False detection of prostate cancer?
62. In postpartum infections, one a. Yearly urinalysis to determine
important assessment finding is a presence of prostatic fluid
temperature of 38 C or more for 2 b. Semi-annual alkaline
consecutive days, but excluding 24 phosphatase level beginning
hours after birth at age 45
a. True c. Yearly PSA and DRE
63. RhoGAM, passive antibodies, may beginning at age 50
be given with Rh incompatibility at d. Biannual rectal exam
12 weeks and within 48 hours beginning at age 40
postpartum
a. False 12. The nurse is preparing a teaching
64. If untreated, mastitis may result to plan for a client who is scheduled to
breast cancer. undergo mammography for the first
 time. What instruction by the nurse
is accurate?
a. “DO not use deodorant on
breasts or underarms
before the test”
b. “You will not experice any
discomfort because this is
just an x-ray”
c. “The entire test should take
about 1 to 2 hours only/”
d. The test should be carried
out even if you are pregnant.
13. A postmenopausal client says that
she is experiencing difficulty with
vaginal dryness during intercourse
and wonders what might be causing
this. Which is the nurse’s best
response?
a. Drinking at least 3 liters of
water each day will make all
your tissues less dry
b. Try using a water-soluble
lubricant during intercourse
c. Estrogen deficiency
causes the vaginal tissues
to become drier and
thinner
d. The less frequently you have
intercourse, the drier the
vaginal tissues become
14. The wife of a patient who has
undergone a TURP and has
continuous bladder irrigation asks
the nurse about the purpose of the
continuous bladder irrigation. Which
response by the nurse is
appropriate?
a. Normal production of urine is
maintained with the
irrigations until healing
occurs
b. The irrigation is needed to
keep the catheter from
being occluded by blood
clots
c. Antibiotics are being
administered into the bladder
with Irrigation solution
d. The bladder irrigation is
needed to stop the
postoperative bleeding in the
bladder
15. The nurse writes nursing problem of
urinary retention for a patient
diagnosed with stage IV cancer of
prostate. Which intervention is first?
a. Catheterize the client to
determine amount of residual
b. Determine the client’s
normal voiding pattern
c. encourage the client to
assume a normal position for
urinating
d. Teach the client to use the
valsalval maneuver to empty
the bladder.
QUIZ 2
1. Several studies reveal that couples
who engage in coitus everyday have
more difficulty conceiving than those
who space it every other day
because too frequently coitus can
lower a man’s sperm count.
a. True
2. In vitro fertilization combined with
surrogate mothering is an alternative
to childbirth with the most extensive
legal process involved
a. False
3. Radical mastectomy is the removal
of entire breast tissues and all
surrounding muscles.
a. True
4. Submucosal myoma is a uterine a. True
fibroid found within the pelvic 15. The elderly male and
ligaments. african-american men are at most
a. False risk of developing prostate cancer
5. Trans urethral resection of the a. True
prostate is a urological operation for 16. Tamsulosin inhibits prostate
benign prostatic hyperplasia that is enlargement in benign prostatic
performed by visualizing the bladder hyperplasia
through the urethra. a. False
a. False 17. The american cancer society
6. Penicillin is the medication choice of recommends pap smear to all
herpes simplex sexually transmitted women ages 21 years or a year after
disease being sexually active, whichever
a. False comes first.
7. Chemotherapy is an adjuvant a. False
treatment in breast cancer which 18. Primary infertility is the inability to
uses very strong ultraviolet rays to impregnate a woman after a year of
kill cancer cells. unprotected sexual intercourse.
a. False a. True
8. Uterine cancer is best screened 19. Ca-125 is a glycoprotein biomarker
through pap smear especially after for ovarian cancer
menopause. a. True
a. False 20. Uterine cancer is best screened
9. Polycystic Ovary syndrome is due to through pap smear especially after
elevated androgens in females. menopause.
a. True a. Flase
10. Untreated chlamydia can lead to 21. Menorrhagia is heavy menstrual flow
pelvic inflammatory disease. between periods
a. True a. False
11. A high prostate specific antigen in 22. Concept: Recurrence of herpes
males suggests as healthy prostate simplex virus type II infection
a. False a. Menstruation
12. Precancerous lesions in cervical b. Stress
cancer are mostly treated with c. The concept is associated
cryosurgery or diathermy. to both A and B
a. True 23. Concept: Causes of Infertility
13. Herpes simplex 1 is a sexually a. Varicocele
transsmitted disease that causes b. Impotence
painful vesicles on the internal and c. The concept is associated
external genitalia. to both A and B
a. False 24. Concept: Hormone therapy to
14. Semen analysis assesses the spurs stimulate ovulation
composition, volume, motility, and a. Conjugated estrogen
agglutination. b. Clomiphene citrate
 c. The concept is associated c. Concept is associated with
with B only A only
25. Concept: symptoms of chlamydia 32. Concept: Penicillin
a. Chancre a. Chlamydia
b. Lymphadenopathy b. Gonorrhea
c. The concept is not c. Concept is associated with
associated to neither A nor A only
B 33. Concept: Secondary Symptoms of
26. Concept: irregular or absent syphilis
ovulation a. Alopecia
a. FSH b. Rash
b. LH c. Concept is associated to
c. The concept is associated both A and B
with B only 34. Concept: Benign breast lesion
27. Concept: Definitive diagnosis of a. Fibrocystic breast disease
breast cancer b. Myoma
a. Nipple discharge c. Concept is associated with
b. Dimpled breast skin A only
c. The concept is associated 35. Concept: Breast self-examination
to neither A nor B a. Same day every week
28. Concept: engaging in coltus at least b. On the 7th day after last day
4 times a week of menstrual flow
a. 50% of couples will conceive c. Concept is associated to
within 6 months neither A nor B
b. 100% of couples will
conceive within 12 months (Di ko sure sagot diyan ah,
c. The concept is associated ang alam ko kasi B only,
with A only. kasi after lagi nung mens
29. Concept: pain-related menstrual flow yun eh sa pag
disorders kakatanda ko.)
a. Mittelschmerz
b. Dysmenorrhea 36. Concept: Definitive Diagnosis of
c. The concept is associated breast cancer
to both A and B a. Nipple Discharge
30. COncept: HEavy purulent vaginal b. Dimple breast skin
discharge. c. Concept is associated to
a. Chlamydia neither A nor B
b. Gonorrhea 37. Concept: Causes of neonatal sepsis
c. The concept is associated a. Gonorrhea
both A and B b. Chlamydia
31. Concept: Alternatives for infertility c. The concept is associated
with natural fertilization process with A only
a. Artificial Insemination 38. Matching type
b. In vitro fertilization

Maybe caused by Fibrocystic breast
helicobacter pylori disease
during sexual
foreplay
Leading cause of Breast cancer
cancer deaths in
women
Surgical treatment Benign prostatic
is through TURP hyperplasia
A malignant male Prostate cancer
neoplasm detected
through PSA
Linked to HPV Cervical cancer
Infection
Exercise 3
1. Which of the following is not correct when
initiating and maintaining respiration in a
high risk newborn?
a . to maintain effective
ventilation, cover the chest to prevent
hypothermia. And assess for reactions.
-in a high risk newborn, monitoring for
presence of chest retractions is a
consideration so it is necessary to undress
and expose chest while in the ICU
2. The nurse is caring for a newborn with an
umbilical artery catheter (UAC) after double
volume exchange transfusion (DVET). The
catheter is also used as a site of blood
extraction to assess arterial blood gas
results every 8 hours. Which of the following
is expected to be infused through the
umbilical artery catheter (UAC) of the child
to keep the catheter patent?
a. heparin
Movement of blood in an arterial site is
away from the neonate’s heart, and while it
is intact as a site of blood extraction, a
heparin drip may need to be attached to
prevent blood coagulation in site.
3. Ultrasound results revealed that a fetus is
small for his expected age of gestation. The
nurse knows that which of the following
maternal factors might have contributed to
such a fetal condition?
a. Mother has inadequate nutrition
All choices may contribute directly or
indirectly towards increase fetal size
but the most contributing factor if
intrauterine growth is nutritional
status of the mother
4. A 1-day-old neonate, 32 weeks gestation,
is in an overhead warmer. The nurse assess
the morning axillary temperature as 35.6.
Which of the following could explain this
assessment finding?
a. The supply of brown adipose
tissue is incomplete.
-Normal is 36.5-37.4 C
-Axillary route is a safe and
commonly used route, though not
the most accurate.
-Neonates have less subcutaneous
fat
5. A neonate has an atelectatic alveoli filled
with fluid. His ventilatory function should be
improved by increasing PaO2 level. Which
of the following machines to counteract
small airway collapse and keep alveoli open
must be prepared by the nurse?
a. PEEP
A positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)
set-up makes sure that alveoli remain
inflated even after exhale to prevent
atelectasis.
6. Oxygen via nasal cannula is administered
to baby E to make sure that the lungs are
expanded. As a nurse, which of the
following will alert you because the
equipment is not working well?
a. Humidifier has intermittent
bubbling
In a O2 set-up, a humidifier, used to moisten
dry oxygen before it reaches the airway,
should have continuous bubbling.
7. Your neonatal client hays multiple
peripheral IV lines. Which assessment
finding will least help you in checking for the
signs of inflammation?
a. Pain
All are signs of inflammation but neonate
cannot tell he/she is in pain
8. All are correct about ABO incompatibility,
except?
a. Bottle-fed babies show more
jaundice than breastfed due to
pregnanediol.
Breastmilk contains pregnanediol, making
breastfed infants more prone to jaundice
9. which of the following interventions is
helpful for a neonate experiencing drug
withdrawal?
a. Place the isolette in a quiet area in
the nursery.
Lessen environmental stimuli so that the
nervous system will quiet down and prevent
seizure attacks.
10. All of the following circumstances is
often associated with transient tachypnea of
the newborn, except?
a. Mothers who received strong
anesthetics during labor
Due to anesthetic effects, respiratory
depression is more common among
neonates of these women.
11. An infant with croup was brought by his
mother to the emergency room. On
assessment, the nurse would expect which
finding? Symptoms of mild respiratory tract
infection; febrile and skin is cool, mildly
elevated temperature if with fever;
inspiratory stridor, hoarseness,
barking cough, anxiety, retractions during
the night.
D. barking cough and inspiratory
stridor
12. The nurse knows that which one is seen
in tetralogy of fallot? Pulmonary stenosis,
dextroposition of the aorta, hypertrophy of
right ventricle, ventricular septal defect.
A. ventricular septal defect
13. The nurse teaches the mother of a child
who was prescribed iron tablet due to iron
deficiency
anemia. Which statement by the mother
indicates correct understanding?
A. "I will give the medication 1 hour
before or 2 hours after meal."
Empty stomach
14. The nurse explains the purpose of
insulin to a 13-year-old child who is newly
diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The
health teaching should include that insulin
causes the blood glucose to:
B. decrease. Hypoglycemic.
15. After repair of tracheoesophageal
fistula, the nurse would watch the infant
carefully for which of the following signs that
would indicate a leak at sites of
anastomosis? A leak may
warrant opening from esophagus to trachea,
so food or drink may enter respiratory tract
and cause distress.
D. respiratory

Quiz 3
1. Which assessment finding is seen in
transient Tachypnea of a newborn?
a. Hypoxia
b. Grunting
c. Wheezes
d. Hypocapnia
2. After an initial resuscitation attempt
to a neonate, hypoglycemia and
dehydration may result. In such a
case. Which IV fluid must the nurse
anticipate to be administered to an
NPO neonate for the after 24 hours?
a. D5W
b. D10IMB
c. D5LR
d. D5NM
3. All are nurse’s responsibilities during
neonatal extubation, except?
a. Arrange an intubation set
b. Assess good ventilatory
status after weaning
c. Prepare salbutamol
nebulization
d. Prepare ordered oxygen
therapy
4. Necrotizing enterocolitis has a lower
incidences among breastfed
newborns because:
a. response to pregnanediol in
cow's milk starts the necrotic
process
b. undigested formula milk
interferes with digestion and
leads to paralytic ileus
c. intestinal organisms grow
more profusely with cow's
milk
d. formula milk causes ischemia
of intestinal blood vessels
resulting to bowel hypoxia
5. Meconium aspiration syndrome may
cause severe respiratory distress in
any of the following ways, except?
a. Inflammation of bronchioles
because it is a foreign
substance.
b. Blockage of small
bronchioles by mechanical
plugging.
c. Decrease in surfactant
production through lung
trauma.
d. Decrease in carbon dioxide
and pulmonary shunting,
6. A preterm with patent ductus
arteriosus was admitted. Which
position will the nurse put the
neonate to help in the closure of this
l communication between the
pulmonary artery and aorta?
a. Semi-fowler
b. Left side-lying
c. Trendelenburg
d. Right side-lying
7. Because of surfactant deficiency and
lung immaturity in respiratory
distress syndrome, all of the
following pathophysiologic
mechanisms occur except:
a. respiratory alkalosis
b. pulmonary vasoconstriction
c. ventilation to perfusion
inequality
d. release of lactic acid
8. In ABO incompatibility, hemolysis
commonly occurs when:
a. mommy is O and baby is AB
 b. mommy is O and baby is B
c. mommy is AB and baby is O
d. mommy is O and baby is A
9. Which pediatric priority for a high
risk newborn confined in neonatal
ICU will best establish the mother
and neonate bonding?
a. A mother feeding her baby
through OGT with the help of
the nurse
b. A mother washing her hands
before entering the area
c. A mother observing rise and
fall of ventilator as equal to
rise and fall of baby's chest
d. A mother touching her
baby's hands and telling
her baby that mommy
loves her
10. During pregnancy, a single dose of
RhoGAM can be safely given
between how many weeks AOG?
a. 20 to 24 weeks
b. 28 to 32 weeks
c. 32 to 36 weeks
d. 26 to 28 weeks
11. What newborn resuscitation drug
best for distributive shock will
increase systemic blood perfusion
by increasing blood pressure
through beta-agonist action?
a. dopamine
b. epinephrine
c. norepinephrine
d. dobutamine
12. What health teachings can you
provide to the mother of a preterm
neonate who developed physiologic
jaundice?
a. expose baby to early
morning sun
b. start blood transfusion for the
baby
c. water intake of the baby
d. suspend breastfeeding for a
week
13. Which of the following therapies may
cause retinopathy among preterm
neonates?
a. long term oxygen therapy
b. prolonged suctioning
c. phototherapy
d. administration of narcotics
14. Your client admitted at NICU is
dehydrated and appears restless,
has poor skin turgor,sunken
fontanel, and dry mucus membrane.
Based on your assessment, what
type of dehydration is this?
a. mild dehydration
b. moderate dehydration
c. severe dehydration
d. very severe dehydration
15. When a fetus' blood is agglutinated
by its mother's Rh antibodies, the
severe anemia that results is called:
a. Rh incompatibility
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. Erythroblastosis fetalis
16. A neonatal client is on oxygen hood
60%. While monitoring, the nurse
noted nasal flaring and respiratory
rate is 70 breaths per minute. The
nurse knows that these
manifestations indicate which of the
following?
a. These indicate cardiac
insufficiency
b. These are normal findings in
a neonate
 c. These are early signs of
respiratory distress
d. These signify grade O
respiratory distress
17. What method of temperature
regulation is best for small for
gestational age babies who have
very compromised immune system?
a. incubator
b. kangaroo care
c. heat lamp
d. radiant warmer
18. The nurse is caring for a child with
neurovascular impairment. The
pediatric Glasgow coma scale is E3
V3 M4. How will the nurse interpret
this?
a. eyes respond to words,
cries, withdraws to pain
b. eye responds to pain, coos
and babbles, spontaneous
movement of extremities
c. has spontaneous eye
movement, no verbal
response, extremities flex to
pain
d. no eye movement, moans,
extremities extend to pain
19. A neonatal client on mechanical
ventilator is on SIMV mode. How
does this mode work?
a. Delivers tidal volume at a
preset rate, ignoring the
patient's breathing
b. Delivers preset tidal
volume at a preset rate,
patient can breathe
spontaneously between
ventilator breaths from an
oxygen reservoir attached
to the machine
c. Delivers tidal volume at
preset rate when the patient
initiates inspiration
d. Delivers inspiration that is
prolonged and expiration that
is shortened to promote
alveolar recruitment, which
improves oxygenation at
lower levels of PEEP
20. All are correct about extracorporeal
membrane oxygenation as
management of respiratory distress
syndrome, except?
a. allows both heart and lungs
to rest
b. blood removed from venous
catheter to right atrium
c. oxygenated blood is
returned back to vena cava
through femoral artery
d. an outside machine which
pumps and oxygenates blood
21. Which one is not an expected finding
in a large for gestational age of
newborn?
a. extensive bruising
b. tachycardia
c. hyperbilirubinemia
d. overmature reflexes
22. The nurse attempts to initiate
respiration in a high-risk neonate.
The first nursing action is:
a. ventilate
b. establish the airway
c. expand the lungs
d. start drugs
23. Whose role is it to establish
parent-infant bonding upon birth of
newborn?
a. doctor
b. health care team
c. mother
d. nurse
24. Which newborn resuscitation drug
reduces bronchial secretions?
a. Calcium chloride
b. Atropine
c. Surfactant
d. Lidocaine
25. All are important considerations
when caring for a newborn from a
drug-dependent mother, except?
a. keep newborn in an
environment free from
excessive stimuli
b. begin exclusive
breastfeeding to prevent
hypoglycemia
c. if with vomiting/diarrhea, IV
therapy may be indicated
d. administer chlorpromazine or
diazepam to counteract
withdrawal symptoms
26. In respiratory distress syndrome, a
ventilation with I:E ratio of 1:2 is
recommended to maintain effective
airway pressure to a no-compliant
lung
a. True
b. False
27. The same suction tube may be used
for all mouth, nose, and
endotracheal secretion because
normal flora for all these areas are
the same
a. True
b. False
28. When premature labor cannot be
arrested, betamethasone may be
administered to the mother to
enhance fetal surfactant
a. True
b. False
29. A small for gestational age
newborns’ birth weight is below the
10th percentile on an intrauterine
growth curve for that age.
a. True
b. False
30. If newborn breathing is ineffective,
blood flows through a patent ductus
arteriosus from left to right shunt,
create an ineffective pump action
a. True
b. False
31. A postmature neonate is one who
stayed in utero past 42 weeks
a. true
b. false
32. A preterm who developed
kernicterus has damaged brain cells
by invasion of direct bilirubin in the
blood due to excessive breakdown
of RBCs.
a. true
b. false
 33. Because preterm neonates lack
surfactant, their lungs are a. HR
noncompliant making it difficult to b. PIP
push blood from the aorta into the c. FiO2
lungs d. RR

a. true 39. CONCEPT: Findings in Sudden

b. false Infant Death Syndrome

34. Indirect Coomb’s test detects a. laryngospasm

antibodies on fetal erythrocytes in b. petechiae in lungs
cord blood or at birth c. atelectasis
d. bood-flecked sputum
a. true
b. false 40. CONCEPT: Hyperglycemia in utero

35. When suctioning a newborn, always a. decreases fetal insulin

begin with nose before mouth
a. true
b. false
Odd item out. Based on the given
concept, choose the option that does not
belong to the group.
36. CONCEPT: Assessment of a
Newborn with Deep Breathing
a. Hyperapnea
b. Biot’s respiration
c. Kussmaul Breathing
d. Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
37. CONCEPT: Parts of a Bag Valve
mask to Expand Newborn Lungs
secretion
b. blocks formation of lecithin
c. interferes with cortisol
d. causes accumulation of extra
fat deposits
Child B, 1 month old is for blood transfusion.
The doctor ordered PRCB AB+ 40cc. the
nurse assigned to the client aspirated the
blood from the bag through BT set to a 50cc
syringe. It was administered to the right
metacarpal vein at 8 in the morning and
regulated at 40cc/hr via syringe pump. After
2hours, furosemide 10mg IV was given. In
this scenario. Which intervention should the
nurse question?
- The rate should have been slower than 40cc.hr
Which newborn resuscitation drug reduces bronchial
secretions/
Surfactant Lidocaine

a. Reservoir bag Calcium chloride Atropine

b. Nasal Cannula
c. Self-inflating bag You are caring for a child with an audible expiratory
grunt, with no other symptoms noted. How will you
d. Peep valve
evaluate the respiratory distress?
Grade 2 Grade 0
38. CONCEPT: Newborn’s Ventilator
Settings Grade 3 Grade 1
 increased pulse and vomiting bright
red blood
Baby Atkins was given a drug to birth to reverse the
effects of a narcotic given to his mother in labor. What
17. The nurse is caring for a 2 year old who
drug is commonly used for this?
has cystic fibrosis. His mother asks why the
Morphine Sulfate Penicillin
child developed this condition. The nurse
Naloxone Sodium chloride
explains that cystic fibrosis: CF is an
autosomal recessive disorder caused by
A pre term with patent ductus arteriosus was admitted.
abnormality of long arm of chromosome 7
Which position will the nurse put the neonate to help in
the closure of this communication between the and characterized by a generalized
pulmonary artery and aorta? dysfunction of the exocrine,
Trendelenburg Semi-fowler mucus-producing glands.
Right side lying Left side lying
B.is an autosomal recessive
Because of surfactant deficiency and lung immaturity in
genetic defect
respiratory distress syndrome, all of the following
pathophysiologic mechanisms occur except? 18. Amy, 4 years old, is admitted for
Respiratory alkalosis Pulmonary treatment of acute asthma attack. She was
vasoconstriction
given aminophylline. When evaluating for
Release of lactic acid Ventilation to perfusion positive effects of this drug, the most
inequality
significant finding is a/an: Aminophylline is a
bronchodilator for bronchospasm in asthma,
All are correct about extracorporeal membrane
it relieves wheezing in all lung fields as
oxygenation as management of respiratory distress
syndrome except? difficulty exhaling develops.
An outside machine which Oxygenated blood is
pumps and oxygenates returned back to vena C, Decreased in wheezing
blood cava through femoral
artery
19. A 4-year old with tetralogy of fallot is
Blood removed from Allows both heart and seen in a squatting position near his bed.
venous catheter to right lungs to rest
atrium
The nurse should: A squatting or a
knee-chest position traps blood in the LE to
keep heart from being overwhelmed. This
EXERCISE 4
makes a person with TOF more comfortable
B. Take no action if he looks
16. Jimmy had tonsillectomy performed
comfortable, but continue to
earlier in the day. He is now 4 hours
observe him.
post-operation.
Which of the following is an abnormal
20. John is 4 years old and has been
finding and a cause for concern?
diagnosed as having iron deficiency
anemia. A liquid iron preparation had been
C. increased swallowing Frequent
prescribed. When administering John’s
swallowing may be a sign of
medication, the nurse should:
hemorrhage as complication
post-tonsillectomy, to include
 C. allow him to sip medication
through a straw. To mask taste and
prevent staining on teeth
21. Jonathan, 2 weeks old, has patent
ductus arteriosus. Prior to administering
digoxin, the nurse should:
C. give medication is pulse is 135
beats per minute
22. Tony, 10 years old, has hemophilia A
and is admitted to the hospital for
hemarthrosis of the right knee, he is in a
great deal of pain. Which of the following
interventions would aggravate the
condition?
B. Administering aspirin for pain
relief. Aspirin, being a blood-thinner
may cause further bleeding
23. Both of Sammy's parents carry the
sickle cell trait. Sammy, 8 months old,
contracted chickenpox from his brother and
now is very weak, febrile, anorexic, and
cries with pain when his wrists and elbows
are moved. He is admitted to the hospital
with a diagnosis of sickle cell crisis.
Sammy's mother asks the nurse why her
child has not been symptomatic until now.
The best response by the nurse is: Usually
no symptoms in 6 months as fetal Hgb
(2 A, 2 G) transforms into adult Hgb (2 A, 2
B) around these months, and in SCA, the
beta chain is affected.
a. High fetal hemoglobin protected
Sammy against sickling.
24. Ben, 2 months old, had a cleft lip
repaired successfully. His mother asks
when will Ben be ready for a cleft palate
repair. The most appropriate response of
the nurse is: Cleft lip repair may be done at
3 months old. Cleft palate repair may be
done at 10 to 12 months. Surgery is
important before speech development
occurs.
a. Prior to development of speech
25. The diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is
made primarily from the history and physical
symptoms.
Which one does not support this claim?
a. Dehydration and acidosis occurs
from the fluid and electrolyte
losses. Dehydration and alkalosis
26. Berna, age 8, has celiac disease. She
had an emergency appendectomy. She is
progressing well and is having her first real
meal. Which food should the nurse remove
from her tray? Avoid gluten in grains such
as wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Found is
breads, cakes, cereals, pasta, commercial
dairy products, alcoholic beverages, and
others.
b. Crackers
27. The parents of a baby boy who was
born with hypospadias want to know about
surgical repair. The nurse tells them that
they will be able to evaluate the success of
hypospadias surgery by: Due to defect in
location of urethral opening, streaming of
urine is affected so meatotomy is
recommended.
D. Observing straight stream
voiding
28. The nurse is preparing for discharge of
a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which
diest instructions should the nurse make?
c. Avoid butter and cheese. Avoid
fats
29. A 5-year-old girl recovered from a given to my baby until
streptococcal infection 2 Weeks ago. She surgery can be
now presents with loss of appetite, performed.”
dark-colored urine, and orbital edema. What
is the nurse’s assessment? 2. Which hemophilia is caused by
factor IX deficiency, a protein which
B. glomerulonephritis. From an helps blood form clots to stop bleeding?
antigen-antibody reaction after infection with a. Hemophilia C
a group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, with b. Hemophilia A
recent bacterial infection c. Von Willebrand's Disease
d. Christmas Disease
30. Jane is 7 years old and newly
diagnosed with diabetes mellitues. She had 3. Which nursing intervention is best to
an injection of regular and NPH insulin at provide adequate ventilation to a child
7:30 in the morning. After 8 hours, she diagnosed with pneumonia?
complaines that she does not feel well. She a. Perform chest
is pale, perspiring, adn trembling. The nurse physiotherapy.
should: S/Sx shows hypoglycemia, peak b. Encourage good oral
hours of regualr (2 to 4 H) and NPH (6 to 12 hygiene.
H) c. Administer humidified
oxygen.
C. offer her a carbohydrate snack. d. Allow enough sleep,
relaxation techniques,
simple analgesics.
QUIZ 4
4. A child with acute nasopharyngitis is
1. All statements below are made by
given phenylephrine nose drops. The
parents of children with choanal
nurse knows that this is indicated to:
atresia. Which one needs further
a. constrict nasal mucus
teaching by the nurse?
membrane
a. "Inserting an oral airway
b. assist to suction nasal
is the definitive
mucus
treatment for my
c. liquefy nasal secretions
daughter's condition."
d. control fever
b. "My son struggles to
breathe in through his 5. Melissa, 17 years old, has sickle cell
nose as he is a anemia since she was a toddler. Her
nose-breather." brother has sickle cell trait. The client
c. "My child becomes with sickle cell trait:
cyanotic at feedings a. has the most lethal form
because she cannot suck of the disease
and breathe through her b. has the chance to
mouth simultaneously” transmit the disease to all
d. "Intravenous fluids as of his children
source of glucose will be
 c. has some normal and
some abnormal
hemoglobin cells
d. has a chronic form of
sickle cell anemia
6. A child diagnosed with congenital
heart defect has innocent murmurs.
Which one describes this heart finding?
a. Intensity is loud
b. Quality is harsh and
blowing
c. Timing is heard only in
systolic
d. Duration is long
7. The mother of a child with sickle cell
anemia tells the nurse that, when she
was reading about sickle cell anemia,
she learned that sickled blood cells do
not have as long a life expectancy as
normal red cells. The life expectancy of
sickled red cells is approximately:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 5 days
d. 15 days
8. The Reyes family has 1 child with
hemophilia. Both parents does not have
the disease. The mother wants to have
another child and she asks the nurse
what her chances are of having another
child with hemophilia. The nurse's best
response is:
a. "There is 100% chance
of having another child
with hemophilia."
b. "All of your daughters
will be carriers of the
disease."
c. "If you will have a son,
there is 50% chance he
will have hemophilia."
d. "If you have another son,
he will not have the
disease."
9. Cristopher, 2 months, is suspected
of having coarctation of the aorta. The
cardinal sign of this defect is:
a. upper extremity
hypertension
b. clubbing of digits and
circumoral cyanosis
c. systolic ejection murmur
d. pedal edema and portal
congestion
10. All are believed to be true when
assessing a child with Kawasaki
disease, except?
a. In 10 days after onset,
platelet decreases and
thrombus forms.
b. In the first week, fever of
39 to 40 C does not
respond to antipyretics.
c. Stage Ill or within the
40th day, client is well.
d. Convalescent phase is
the recovering period.
11. In asthma, the following test results
are expected, except?
a. Low oxygen saturation
b. Increased PCO2 level
c. Decreased ability to
exhale in a peak flow
meter
d. Elevated eosinophils
12. A 3-year old child is admitted with
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
and a chickenpox infection. His platelet
count is 15,000 mm 3/dL. His lesions
are enlarging. Which of the following
nursing actions best provides for the
child's safety?
 a. keep on complete bed
rest
b. allow only soft stuff toys
to play with
c. set times for rest periods
d. supervise outdoor play
13. The nurse in an outpatient clinic
assesses the child with iron deficiency
anemia. How could the nurse best
evaluate if parents are administering
iron to the child as prescribed?
a. Parents state that the
child has black stools.
b. Parents state they give
the medication with
meals.
c. Parents state they are
giving the iron as
prescribed.
d. Parents state that the
child experiences nausea
with iron preparation.
14. Bryan, 12 months old, is hospitalized
for severe croup and will be placed in an
oxygen tent. He refuses to stay inside
the tent and this causes him to become
upset. The most appropriate action for
the nurse is:
a. tell him it will please his
mother if he stays in the
tent
b. take him out of the tent
and notify the physician
c. restrain him inside the
tent and notify the
physician
d. take him out of the tent
and let him sit in the
playroom
15. An infant is receiving digoxin and
diuretic therapy. The nurse knows that
which of the following choices indicate
absence of toxicity?
a. heart rate 164, no
dysrhythmia
b. heart rate 128, no
dysrhythmia
c. heart rate 82, regular
rhythm
d. heart rate 104, regular
rhythm
16. Inguinal hernia is when
intestines pass through scrotum
or groin - TRUE
17. Kwashiorkor is a protein
deficiency when children change
from breast milk to a diet
consisting mainly of
carbohydrates - TRUE
18. In Hirschsprung’s disease,
normal enteric nerves are absent
- TRUE
19. Poor feeding, vomiting, lethargy,
and high pitched cry are
commonly seen in
hydrocephalus - TRUE
20. Ataxic cerebral palsy is
characterized by increased tone
and rigidity of extremities -
FALSE
21. In non-communicating
hydrocephalus, the flow of CSF
from ventricles to subarachnoid
space is obstructed - TRUE
22. A child whose level of
consciousness changes from
stuporous to lethargic manifests
signs of increasing intracranial
pressure - TRUE
23. In tracheoesophageal fistula,
aspiration pneumonia can occur
from reflux of gastric secretions -
TRUE
 24. A child with meningocele may 34. When an infant has pyloric
manifest motor and sensory loss stenosis, the muscles in the
- FALSE pylorus have become enlarged -
25. Stage III of Reye’s Syndrome TRUE
causes personality and behavior 35. After appendectomy, a
changes, disorientation, nasogastric tube is attached,
confusion, and hyperreflexia - usually with a low suction
FALSE capacity - FALSE
26. A VP shunt removes excess 36. Assessment of Cystitis
CSF from the brain drained by A. urinary frequency
an external bag - FALSE B. low-grade fever
27. A child with myelomeningocele a. B only
may be referred to orthopedic 37. Management of Hypospadias in
surgeries for correction of birth Newborns
defects - FALSE A. urethra extended to a normal
28. Treatment of Guillain-Barre position
syndrome is supportive until the B. chordee may be release
process runs its course, a. Both
paralysis peaks at 3 to 4 days 38. Peritoneal Dialysis
and is followed by gradual A. uses an outside synthetic
recovery – FALSE membrane
29. A positive kernig’s sign is B. involves the separation and
contraction and pain in hamstring removal of solutes from body fluid
muscles when attempting to flex a. B only
leg when hip is extended - 39. Analgesic for Urinary Tract
FALSE Infection
30. The surgical treatment for A. Tyenol
aganglionic megacolon is B. Advil
Ramstedt’s procedure - FALSE a. A only
40. Nephrotic Syndrome
31. Cerebral palsy is a neuromuscular A. hematuria
disorder resulting from damaged or B. hypolipidemia
altered structure of the part of the brain a. B only
responsible for controlling motor and 41. Cystoscopy
sensory function. - FALSE A. detects presence of bacteria
B. evaluates structure of bladder and
32. Hydrocephalus may be caused by ureter
overproduction of choroid plexus, a. B only
obstruction of flow from point of origin to 42. Acute Glomerulonephritis
point of absorption, or excessive A. A self-limiting immune complex
absorption of subarachnoid space. - disease resulting from an
FALSE antigen-antibody reaction
33. Opisthotonos is characterized by B. Secondary to a beta-hemolytic
head and heels bent backward streptococcal infection
and body arched forward - TRUE
 a. A only j. Oliguria, increased urine specific
43. Vesicoureteral Reflux gravity, hyponatremia –
A. bladder SYNDROME OF
B. ureter INAPPROPRIATE
a. Both ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE
44. Assessment Findings in k. Short stature, thin extremities
Hydronephrosis CONGENITAL
A. repeated UTIs HYPOTHYROIDISM
B. fluctuating mass in region of l. Coarse facial features -
kidney m. Large adrenals, genitalia size
a. A only increases –
45. Enlargement of Kidney Pelvic CONGENITAL
Ureter Obstruction ADRENAL
A. decreased intrarenal pressure HYPERPLASIA
B. atrophy of kidney n. Mousy urine odor, eczema, blue
a. B only eyes –
46. Match PHENLYKETONURIA
a. Hypotonia, hypothermia - o. No menstruation in females, no
GALACTOSEMIA spermatogenesis in
b. Underweight for height - males CONGENITAL
GIGANTISM ADRENAL
c. Sweet-smelling urine, loss of HYPERPLASIA
Moro reflex, opisthotonos
– MAPLE SYRUP URINE FINALS EXAMINATION QUESTION
DISEASE (key words)
d. Hepatomegaly, kidney
damage. Cataracts - 1. Transurethral Resection
GALACTOSEMIA a. Outcome for BPH patient
e. Buffalo hump – CUSHING 2. SGA baby
SYNDROME a. Nasal flaring
f. Increases intracranial 3. Keeps Alveoli inflate
pressure - a. PIP
g. Urine output decreases after 4. First 24hrs
administration of a. D10W
vasopressin – 5. Distributed GI tract
DIABETES INSIPIDUS a. Parenteral Tube
h. Weight loss, ketoacidosis, 6. Initiating and maintaining
flushed skin - MAPLE respirations
SYRUP URINE a. Cover chest and assess
DISEASE retractions
i. Short legs, enlarged tongue 7. Expiratory grunting
– CONGENITAL a. Grade 3 to 4
HYPOTHYROIDISM 8. Small airway collapse and keep
alveoli open
 a. Peep
9. SIMV mode, FiO2 90%, PIP 18
a. Damage occurs in the
tissues
10. ·Oxygen hood in
transient tachypnea
a. Good oxygen
saturation
11. 5 days w/ respiratory distress
syndrome
a. 170bpm
12. E3 V3 M4
a. Eyes responds to words,
cries, withdraws the pain
13. NPO for bowel INfection
a. Abdominal Girth every
8hrs
14. DVET and UAC
a. Heparin
15. Bilirubin Levels
a. Kernicterus
16. Surfactant means:
a. Keeps the lungs expand
17. 36w AOG mother
a. RR50, PR 146bpm, no
nasal flaring
18. Mother and neonate bonding
a. Touching hands and telling
she loves her
19. Drug withdrawal symptoms
a. Isolette in a quiet area
20. 26w AOG w/ respiratory distress
syndrome at 66hrs
a. Intercostal retractions
21. Not for resuscitation
a. Perfusion from left to right
22. Apgar score of 5 and 7
a. Clear airway and maintain
respirations at 2mins
23. Not to do:
a. Dont use same suction for
mouth and nose
24. 80ml w/ ABO incompatibility
a. 20ml/hr
25. Phototherapy effect:
a. Dark stools and bright
green urine
26. Administering IVF
a. Heart failure
27. Asthma effect;
a. Edema,spasm, and
accumulation
28. Chest percussion
a. Increase bronchospasm
29. Aspiration of coin
a. Humid environment
30. Cystic fibrosis w/ pregnancy
included hypertension
a. Liver
31. Cystic fibrosis, not;
a. Antihistamine
32. A toy to play
a. Stacking toy w colored
rings
33. 2 year old has been chocked
a. Abdominal thrusts
34. Has pharyngitis
a. Highdresser bedroom w/
vaporizer
35. Tonsillectomy
a. Fruit popsicles
36. 4 years old has dysphagia,
drooling
a. Epiglottis
37. 2years old w/ congenital heart
failure
a. Large holed nipples
38. Congenital heart failure childc w/
cardiac surgery
a. Correct Intravenous fluids
39. congenital heart defect
a. Truncus arteriosus
40. Tetralogy of fallot
a. Dextroposition of aorta
41. Contraction of aorta, not;
a. Lower extremity
hypertension
42. Ventricular septal defect
a. Pedal pulses
43. Left congenital heart failure
a. Withhold medication of
low blood pressure
44. Highest priority if has congenital
heart failure
a. Increase cardiac output
45. Digoxin toxicity
a. Anorexia and lethargy
46. Not necessary to prepare of has
a right heart failure
a. Thermometer
47. Incorrect in rheumatic fever
a. Relation w/ osteoarthritis
48. Rheumatic fever w/ carditis
a. Subcutaneous nodule
49. Game to play w/ rheumatic fever
a. 30 pieces puzzle
50. Pulmonary stenosis
a. Measure cuff width in
infant’s arm
b. Ramstedt’s procedure (w/
surgery procedure)
c. Clear liquid (w/ oral
feedings)
51. Murmur heard;
a. Loud grumbles
52. Iron deficiency anemia
a. Pallor, hemoglobin below
normal
53. Medication for iron deficiency
anemia
a. 1hr before or 2hrs after
meal
54. Hemarthrosis of left knee
a. Immobilize the joint
55. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
purpura and upper respiratory
tract infection platelet count:
a. 50,000
56. Sickle cell anemia
a. Abnormal hemoglobin
reduce oxygen
57. Cause of heart attack
a. Plugging of blood vessels
58. Vaso-occlusive crisis can be
prevented
a. Keep being cold
59. Cleft lip repair
a. Finish feeding w/ water (if
mild CLR)
b. Modifying feeding
methods (nursing care)
60. Cleft palate repair
a. Cup/ wide bowl spoon for
feedings (Post-OP)
b. Putting fingers into the
mouth (If has an arm
restraints)
61. Esophagus ending in blind pouch
a. Intermittent cyanosis from
choking
62. Esophageal atresia
a. Polyhydramnios
63. Hiatal hernia medication
a. Histamine blockers
64. Gastroesophageal reflux
a. Feeding a child through
dropper (nursing care)
b. Giving formula thickened
w/ ceral and head
elevated (nursing
diagnosis)
65. Gastrochisis and omphalocele,
difference;
a. Herniated organs in
gastrochisis are not
covered w/ sac
66. Has a celiac disease and also
undergo w/ appendectomy
a. Cleansing enema
67. Chronic celiac disease,
teachings;
a. Lifelong dietary
restrictions
68. Hirshsprung disease, not;
a. Bloody stools
69. Hypospadias
a. Altered location of urethral
meatus (physical problem)
b. Foreskin uses in
hypospadias repair
(circumcision)
70. Nephrotic syndrome
a. Edema (skin integrity)
b. Proteinuria
71. Glomerulonephtitis, not;
a. inflammation of kidney
medulla
72. Diabetes Mellitus
a. Hypoglycemia
(complication)
b. Ketoacidosis (if
uncontrolled)
c. Weight loss (w/ maturity
onset)
73. Type 1 DM w/ paleness,
diaphoretic, & shaky
a. 4ounce of orange juice
and slice of bread
74. Juvenile diabetes
a. Insulin, diet, exercise
75. Congenital hypothyroidism, not;
a. Hyperactivity
76. Pituitary dwarfism
a. Delayed closure of
epiphysis
77. Pituitary gigantism
a. Disproportion weight and
muscle growth (not
included in the meaning of
PG)
b. Undergo surgery (w/
craniopharyngioma)
78. Galactosemia
a. Autosomal recessive of
inheritance
79. Myelomeningocele
a. Abdomen (w/
hydrocephalus and
position of shunt)
b. Cover lesion w/ sterile,
saline (prevention)
80. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt for
hydrocephalus, positive sign is;
a. low pulse rate
81. Epilepsy and sign of dilantin
a. Absence of seizures
82. Viral meningitis
a. Fever, irritability, nuchal
rigidity
83. Discharge teaching of meningitis
a. Notify physician
84. Cerebral palsy, not;
a. sensory problem
85. Lack of folic acid
a. Neural tube defect
86. Prevent Reye’s syndrome
a. Acetaminophen
87. Plasmapheresis in guillain barre
syndrome
a. Shorten course of illness
MIDTERM EXAM (keywords)
-A mother is 14years old and 2 months
pregnant with a history of heart disease
Age and condition is at risk
-Ineffective tissue perfusion
120 to 160 bpm
-Nursing care of heart disease if has;
Complaints of fatigue and respiratory
difficulty
Chronic Hypertensive Vascular Disease
Oral contraceptives
-During prenatal class, warning signs are;
Abdominal pain
-Needs of ultrasound
Common examination for growing and
complication H-mole
Nausea and vomiting
-Bleeding of first time pregnant
Duration of pregnancy (how long) Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
-Conditions that affect fetus Cigarette Grieving because of loss of pregnancy
Smoker
Placenta previa w/ 75%
-Determine Rh for risk of developing; Limit the activities
Anemia
Post-term pregnancy
-Rh isoimmunization Decrease blood perfusion
Baby is Rh + w/ antibodies -Coomb’s Tes
Mother is Rh - & Father is Rh + Mother is 14years and 4month pregnant to
avoid developing anemia;
-Type 1 diabetes during first trimester Balance meals
Ingest little food and nocturnal Strategy for adolescent pregnancy
hyperglycemia Health eating and exercise

-After delivery, diabetic woman doesn’t Early symptoms of pregnancy induced

need; hypertension needs to;
No insulin Knee chest exercises

-Mother diagnosed of high risk condition, Blood pressure of pregnancy

nurse tells; induced hypertension
If the mother is crying, It’s all right to cry 30/15

-Prenatal client complication Pre-eclampsia

Complications of having twins Non-compliance

-Intrauterine Infection Magnesium sulphate for severe

188bpm pre-eclampsia
Knee jerk reflex
Potential for 3rd miscarriage
Exposure in rubella -Home management of mild pre-
eclampsia
Miscarriage episode High in protein and fiber, and restrict
Incomplete abortion sodium

Rh – woman having miscarriage Glycosylated hemoglobin level

Rh immune globulin Glucose level over a 1 to 3 month period

Ectopic pregnancy Painless condition w/c cervix dilates

History of IUD Incompetent cervix
Ruptured tubal pregnancy Administering syntocinon
6 th week Check blood pressure

After treatment of H-mole 9cm dilatation & 100% efface w/ decrease

No pregnancy atleast a year of fetal heart rate
Change position

Void every 2hrs

Drug dependent mother Full bladder prevents descending
Infant born with drug dependent w/
withdrawal symptoms Numbness, tingling w/ strong intensity
Slow breathing
Goal of placenta previa
Not to develop fetal distress Decrease of 148 to 122bpm
Early deceleration
No cervical examination of placenta previa
Profound haemorrhage -4 th stage of labor
Check for vital signs
Having abdominal pain,
cessation, and tender abdomen Strong urge to push
Separation of placenta Precipitous Delivery

Preventive measures of abruption placenta Amniotic Fluid Embolism

Smoker and cocaine Chest pain and dyspnea (signs)
Maternal age (Risk factor)
Abruptio placenta triggers DIC
Petechiae, oozing, and hematuria Ineffective uterine force
Duration, strength, and tone
Smoker mother
cessation of smoking Low segment incision
Lesser chances of reopening
Intervention of Hyperemesis Gravidarum
Fluid and electrolyte Oxytocin in caesarean mother
Check for blood pressure
45seconds in 2 to 3 minutes w/ 100bpm
Notify physician Postpartum complication w/in 24hrs
20 saturated pads
Mother is 38w AOG w/ pre- eclampsia and
administers Pitocin -Signs of shock
Rest Rapid respiration

Oxytocin stimulation 4 th degree perineal laceration

182bpm Fluid intake and high fiber
 Signs and symptoms of 42year old Priority of 5hrs mother after delivery
pregnant woman Should void
Hemorrhage New mother bleeds excessively
Check for atony/laceration
If having a CS birth, notify
physician if; Late postpartum hemorrhage
Decrease in lochia Retained placental fragments

CS w/ hemorrhage Chill and fundus is relaxed w/ oxytocin

Restlessness Uterus is firm

-Variable deceleration, position; Uterus is soft w/ heavy lochia

Left side lying flow
Massage uterus
Fetal heart rate is erratic but return to
baseline Vaginal delivery w/ hemorrhage
Early deceleration Temperature of 38°C w/in 30hrs

Meconium stained fluid Temperature of 38.3°C, BP of 110/70, PR

Occiput and sinciput of 90bpm, UO of 1000ml
Infection
Betamethasone
Exert no effect Innermost uterine layer
Endometritis
Dexamethasone Healing process of postpartum mother,
Promote maturity except;
No perilight therapy w/in 24hrs
Discontinuing oxytocin, if;
Contraction is 60s Position to promote drainage
Fowler
Pulsating cord protrudes from vagina Mastitis
Wet saline
Wash nipples w/ water Cracked nipples
Ice pack in episiotomy
Numbing to increase comfort Flu-like symptoms
RhoGAM Contact physician for antibiotics
Suppresses Rh + RBCs
Positive homan’s sign
Breastfeeding in drug dependent mother Cool to touch
Should be discouraged
Blood clot in lower extremities
Hyperglycemic Apply moist heat
Glucose content is high
Posts a threat to postpartum mother
Psychosis

Breast disease
Surgical removal of cyst

Breast self-examination
10th day of menstruation

Radical mastectomy
Breast tissues w/ surrounding tissues
(All)

History of cancer
Pap smear

Not a meaning of infertility

Inability conceive of....

In vitro fertilization
Fetal growth and development

Herpes Simplex 2
Transmission to fetus, neonatal
opthalmus

Penicillin for;
Gonorrhea, syphilis

Transurethral Resection
Outcome for BPH patients