Classroom Contact Programme: Pre-Medical: Nurture Course: Phase - All Phase

ENGLISH (3002CMD300122076) Test Pattern
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2022 - 2023) 02-04-2023
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - ALL PHASE

yk ÃkwMíkefk{kt 32 Ãkus Au. This Booklet contains 32 pages.
ßÞkt MkwÄe ík{Lku fnuðk{kt Lk ykðu íÞkt MkwÄe yk xuMx çkwf÷ux ¾ku÷ku Lknª.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
yk xuMx çkwf÷uxLkk ÃkkA÷k fðh ÃkhLke Mkq[LkkykuLku fk¤SÃkqðof ðkt[ku.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS : {níðÃkqýo Mkq[Lkkyku :

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 1. ykLMkh Mkex Ãkh, MkkEz-1 yLku MkkEz-2 ÃkhLke rðøkíkku Võík ðkË¤e/fk¤e
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet çkku÷ ÃkkuELx ÃkuLk îkhk fk¤SÃkqðof ¼hku.
contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each 2. …heûkk™ku ‚{Þ 3 f÷kf 20 r{rLkx Au Œu{s …heûkk{kt 200 «§ku Au. Ëhuf
correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
«§{kt 4 „wý Au. «íÞuf ‚k[kt W¥kh {kxu …heûkkÚkeo ™u 4 „wý yk…ðk{kt
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The
maximum marks are 720. ykðþu. «íÞuf ¾kuxkt W…h {kxu fw÷ „wý{ktÚke 1 „wý ƒkË fhðk{kt ykðþu
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section yrÄf¥k{ „wý 720 Au.
A will consist of 35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and 3. yk …heûkk{kt «íÞuf rð»kÞ(¼kirŒf rð¿kk™, h‚kÞý rð¿kk™, ð™M…rŒ rð¿kk™
Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt y™u «kýe rð¿kk™) {kt 2 rð¼k„ Au. rð¼k„–A {kt 35 «§ku Au. (ƒÄk
any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate
attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
s «§ku VhrsÞkŒ Au.) ŒÚkk rð¼k„–B {kt 15 «§ku Au. …heûkkÚkeo yk
considered for marking. 15 «§ku{ktÚke fkuE…ý 10
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best 4. òu fkuE «&™{kt yuf fhíkkt ðÄkhu rðfÕÃk Mkk[kt nkuÞ íkku MkkiÚke Mkk[kt rðfÕÃkLku
correct option will be considered as answer. s sðkçk {kLkðk{kt ykðþu.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this
5. yk Ãk]c Ãkh rðøkíkku/sðkçkku r[ÂLník fhðk {kxu Võík ðkË¤e/fk¤e çkku÷
page/marking responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in ÃkkuELx ÃkuLk Lkku WÃkÞkuøk fhku.
the Test Booklet only. 6. hV fk{ Võík xuMx ÃkwÂMíkfk{kt yk nuíkw {kxu Ãkqhe Ãkkzðk{kt ykðu÷e søÞk Ãkh
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over fhðkLkwt Au.
the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/
7. xuMx Ãkqýo ÚkÞk ÃkAe, W{uËðkh yu Y{/nku÷ Akuzíkk Ãknu÷k EÂLðsu÷uxhLku
Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them. ykLMkh þex MkkUÃkðe ykð~Þf Au. W{uËðkhkuLku íku{Lke MkkÚku xuMx çkwf÷ux ÷E
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do òÞ þfu Au.
not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form 8. W{uËðkhkuyu ¾kíkhe fhðe òuEyu fu ykLMkh þex ðk¤ðk{kt ykðu÷ LkÚke. ykLMkh
No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
þex Ãkh fkuE Ãký òíkLkwt rLkþkLk fhu÷tw nkuðtw òuEyu Lknª. ík{khku hku÷ Lktçkh xuMx
Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer
çkwf÷ux/ykLMkh þex{kt [ku¬Mk søÞk rMkðkÞ çkesu õÞktÞ Lk ÷¾ku.
Sheet. 9. ykLþh þex Ãkh MkwÄkhýk {kxu MkVuË «ðkneLkku WÃkÞkuøk {kLÞ LkÚke.
IN CASE OF ANY AMBIGUITY IN TRANSLATION OF ANY QUESTION, ENGLISH VERSION SHALL BE TREATED AS FINAL.
W{uËðkhLkwt Lkk{ (furÃkx÷{kt)
Vku{o Lktçkh : yktfzk{kt
: þçËku{kt
ÃkheûkkLkwt fuLÿ (furÃkx÷{kt) :
W{uËðkhLke Mkne : EÂLðsu÷uxhLke Mkne :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical
ALLEN
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : FULL SYLLABUS
SECTION - A 4. Obtain the differential coefficient of the following
x2
Attempt All 35 questions :
x +1
3
1. Assertion (A) :- Sound would travel faster on a (1) 2x − x4 (2) 2x + x4

2 2
hot summer day than on a cold winter day. (x3 + 1) (x3 + 1)
Reason (R) :- Velocity of sound is directly (3) 2x + x4 (4) 2x
proportional to the square of absolute (x3 − 1) 2
(x3 − 1)2
temperature of medium. 5. A particle is released from rest at origin. It
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not moves under influence of potential energy
the correct explanation of (A) U = x 2 – 3x. Kinetic energy at x = 2 is :
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (1) 2 J (2) 1 J (3) 1.5 J (4) 0 J
6. A 50 kg man with 20 kg load on his head climbs
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct up 20 steps of 0.25 m height each. The work
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the done by the man on the block during climbing is
correct explanation of (A) (1) 5 J (2) 350 J (3) 1000 J (4) 3540 J
2. A car goes A to B along the given path with 7. Two bodies having masses 10 kg and 5 kg are
constant acceleration "a" as shown in figure. moving in concentric circular orbits of radii 4
m and 8 m respectively such that their time
periods are the same. Then the ratio of their
Student-1 infers that if initial velocity is centripetal accelerations is :-
positive then acceleration is negative and (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 1
2 8
displacement is positive.
Student-2 infers that if initial velocity is 8. A body at rest breaks up into 3 parts. If 2 parts
having equal masses fly off perpendicularly
negative then acceleration is positive and each with a velocity of 12 m/s, then the
displacement is positive. velocity of the third part which has 3 times the
(1) Student-1 is correct mass of each former part is :
(2) Student-2 is correct (1) 4 2 m/s at an angle of 45° from each small
√
body
(3) Both students are correct
(2) 24 2 m/s at an angle of 135° from each
√
(4) Both students are wrong small body

3. If loge 20 = x; loge 80 = y; then loge 4 =? (3) 6 2 m/s at 135° from each small body
√
(1) y
(2) y + x (3) y – x (4) y × x (4) 4√2 m/s at 135° from each small body
x
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - 1 + 2 + 3 3002CMD300122076

English / 02042023 Space for Rough Work Page 1/31
ALLEN
9. A wooden plank of mass 20 kg is resting on a 12. In order that the resultant path on
smooth horizontal floor. A man of mass 60 kg superimposing two mutually perpendicular
starts moving from one end of the plank to the SHMs be a circle, the condition is that :-
other end. The length of the plank is 10m. Find (1) The amplitude of both SHM should be equal
the displacement of the plank over the floor and they should have a phase difference of π/2.
when the man reaches the other end of the plank.
(2) The amplitude should be in the ratio 1 : 2
and the phase difference should be zero.
(3) The amplitude should be in the ratio 1 : 2
and the phase difference should be π/2.
(1) –7.5 m (2) –8.5 m (4) The amplitude should be equal and the
(3) –9.5 m (4) –6.5 m phase difference should be zero.
10. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, 13. A ball weighing 10 gm hits a hard surface
initial position and sense of revolution are vertically with a speed of 5m/s and rebounds
indicated in the fig. with the same speed. The ball remains in contact
with the surface for 0.01 sec. The average force
exerted by the surface on the ball is :
(1) 100 N (2) 10 N (3) 1 N (4) 150 N
14. Three blocks are connected as shown in fig. on a
horizontal frictionless table. If m1 = 1 kg, m2 =
y-projection of the radius vector of rotating 8kg and m3 = 27 kg. IF T3 = 36N then T2 will be :
particle P is :
(1) y(t) = –3cos(2πt), where y in m
(2) y(t) = 4 sin(
πt
), where y in m
(1) 18 N (2) 9 N
2
(3) 3.375 N (4) 1.75 N
(3) 3π t
y(t) = 3 cos( ), where y in m
2 15. The equation of a progressive wave is
(4) πt x
y(t) = 3 cos( ), where y in m y = sin 200π t −
[ ( , where x is in meter
)]
2 330
11. The ratio of frequencies of two pendulums is 2 and t is in second. The frequency and velocity
: 3, then their lengths are in the ratio of wave are :-
(1) 2 (2) 3 4 9 (1) 100 Hz, 5 m/s (2) 300 Hz, 100 m/s
√ √
(3) (4)
3 2 9 4
(3) 100 Hz, 330 m/s (4) 30Hz, 5 m/s
Page 2/31 Space for Rough Work English / 02042023
ALLEN
16. A wave pulse in thin string is incident on a 20. Two persons of equal height are carrying a long
thick string as shown in the figure. If joint is at
uniform wooden beam of length ℓ . They are at
P, then the form of reflected and transmitted
pulses is : distance ℓ /4 and ℓ /6 from nearest end of the
rod. The ratio of normal reaction at their heads
(1) is NA :
NB
(2)
(3)
(1) 2 : 3
(4) (2) 3 : 2
(3) 4 : 3
17. In a certain system, the units of length, mass
and time are chosen to be 1 cm, 1000 g and 10 (4) 3 : 4
s. The unit of kinetic energy will be 21. The uniform rod AB of mass m is released
(1) 0.1 erg (2) 1 erg from rest when β = 60°. Assuming that the
(3) 10 erg (4) None of these friction force between end A and the surface is
large enough to prevent sliding, then for the
18. If α = F 2 sin βt, find dimensions of α/β :
V instant just after release :-
[Here V= velocity, F = force and t = time]
(1) ML–1T–1 (2) M–1LT
(3) ML–1T (4) M–1L–1T–1
19. The moment of inertia of a ring of mass M and
radius R about axis CD in the plane of ring will be: (1) Angular acceleration at β = 60° is 3g
4L
(2) Angular acceleration at β = 60° is 4L

3g
(1) MR2 (2) 9MR2 (3) Angular acceleration at β = 60° is L

2 3g
13
(3) MR2 (4) 2MR2 (4) None of the above
2

ALLEN
22. For a particle velocity-time graph is given. Find 25. If earth were a hollow sphere of mass M and
the average acceleration in first 8s. radius R. Then on going down from the surface
(1) The gravity would vary as g ′ = g d
( 1− )
R
(2) The gravity would decrease linearly with
increasing depth
(3) The gravity will be maximum at center.
(4) None of these
26. In the given figure there is a hollow sphere then
(1) 5/2 m/s2 on which points, gravitational potential due to
(2) –5/2 m/s2 the sphere will be same :-
(3) 15/4 m/s2
(4) –15/4 m/s2
23. A ball is projected upwards from the top of (1) O, A, B, C
tower with a velocity 50 ms–1 making an angle (2) O, A, B
30° with the horizontal. The height of tower is
70 m. After how many seconds from the instant (3) O, B
of throwing will the ball reach the ground (g = (4) No where
10 m/sec2) 27. A satellite is in a geostationary orbit around the
(1) 2 s (2) 5 s earth at a distance 'r' from the center of earth. If
(3) 7 s (4) 9 s the angular velocity of earth about its axis
doubles, then satellite can now be in
24. A man walks in rain at 72 cm/s due east and
geostationary orbit around earth if its distance
observes the rain falling vertically. When he
from the center of earth is :-
stops, rain appears to strikes his back at 37°
(1) r
from the vertical. Find velocity of raindrops 2
relative to the ground. r
(2)
(1) 100 cm/s 2√ 2
(3) r
(2) 26 m/s (4)
1/3
(3) 120 cm/s (4) r

1/3
(2)
(4) 54 cm/s
ALLEN
28. Energy required to establish a satellite in orbit 32. There is a small hole in a hollow sphere. The
of radius 3R from an orbit of radius 2R will water enters in it when it is taken to a depth of
be (m, mass of satellite, g acceleration due to 40 cm under water. The surface tension of
gravity) :- water is 0.07 N/m. The diameter of hole is :-
(1) mgR (2) mgR (1) 7mm (2) 0.07 mm
6 24
(3) mgR (4) mgR (3) 0.0007 mm (4) 0.7 m
12 3 33. A 1 metre rod of silver at 0°C is heated to
29. A Metal block is experiencing an atmospheric 100°C. It's length is increased by 0.19 cm.
pressure of 105 N/m2. When the same block is Coefficient of cubical expansion of the silver
placed in a vaccum chamber, the fractional rod is :-
change in its volume : (the bulk modulus of (1) 5.7 × 10–5 /°C
metal is 1.25 × 1011 N/m2)
–7
(2) 0.63 × 10–5 /°C
(1) 4 × 10
–7
(3) 1.9 × 10–5 /°C
(2) 2 × 10
(4) 16.1 × 10–5 /°C
(3) 8 × 10–7
34. The ratio of the densities of the two bodies is 3
(4) 1 × 10–7 : 4 and the ratio of specific heats is 4 : 3. Find
30. A spring of spring constant 5 ×103 N/m is the ratio of their total thermal capacities for
stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched unit volume ?
position. The work required to stretch it further (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 7
by another 5 cm is:-
35. Figure shows the isothermal curve of fixed
(1) 6.25 N-m mass of an ideal gas at three temperatures TA,
(2) 12.50 N-m TB and TC then :-
(3) 18.75 N-m
(4) 25.00 N-m
31. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a
string is immersed in a liquid of relative density
0.72. If relative density of silver is 10, then (1) TA > TB > TC
tension in the string will be:[ take g = 10 m/s2 ] (2) TA < TB < TC
(1) 37.12 N (2) 42 N (3) TA = TB = TC
(3) 73 N (4) 21 N (4) TB < TA < TC
ALLEN
SECTION - B 38. The slope-intercept form of a straight line is
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate y = mx + c, then for given lines :-
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
36. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R). Column-I Column-II
Assertion (A) : In a measurement, two reading (i) for line 'a' (a) m>0;c>0
obtained are 20.004 and 20.0004. The second (ii) for line 'b' (b) m>0;c<0
measurement is more precise. (iii) for line 'c' (c) m<0;c>0
Reason (R) : Measurement having more decimal
places is more precise. (iv) for line 'd' (d) m<0;c<0
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (1) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-d
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(2) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-d
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). (3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not (4) (i)-c, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
the correct explanation of (A).
39. A satellite is moving round the earth in a circular
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
orbit. The following statements are given.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Match the column for following :- (i) It is moving with a constant velocity
37.
Column-A Column-B (ii) It suffers no acceleration
i. Bernoulli’s theorem A v = √2gh (iii) Its angular momentum w.r.t. the earth
ii. Law of continuity B P+ 1 ρv2 + ρgh = constant remains conserved
2
(iv) Its distance from centre of earth must be
iii. Torricelli’s theorem C π P r4
Q=
8ηℓ equal to 2 times of earth's radius
√
iv. Poiseuilli’s theorem D Av = constant The correct option is

(1) i → B, ii → D, iii → A, iv → C (1) i and ii are true
(2) i → B, ii → A, iii → D, iv → C (2) i, iii and iv are true
(3) i → C, ii → D, iii → A, iv → B (3) only iii is true
(4) i → A, ii → B, iii → C, iv → D (4) i and iv are true
ALLEN
40. A block of mass 50 kg is projected horizontally 42. A particle is moving on x–axis has potential
on a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of energy U = (2 – 20x + 5 x2) joules along x-axis.
friction between the block and the floor is 0.1. The particle is released at x = – 3. The
The block strikes a light spring of stiffness k = maximum value of 'x' will be [x is in meters
100 N/m with a velocity 2m/s. The maximum and U is in joules]:-
compression of the spring is : (1) 5 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 7 m
(4) 8 m
43. In the given figure if both the blocks are
(1) 1 m
accelerating together with acceleration 4 m/s2,
(2) 2 m then find the value of F.
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m
41. A small sphere, which is tied to an end of a (1) 56 N
massless thread is given vertically downward
velocity of magnitude ν0 = 5m/s and it swings (2) 70 N
in vertical plane about the other suspended end (3) 94 N
of the massless string. If maximum tension (4) None
string can with stand is equal to twice of the
44. An open pipe produces a fundamental
weight of sphere, then angle θ with vertical at frequency f in air. When dipped in water, so
which string will break is
that 25 of its length is under water, fundamental
frequency of remaining air column is :
(1) 12
5
f
(1) 2
cos−1 6
3 (2) f
1 5
(2) cos−1
4 (3) 5
12
f
(3) 60o
(4) 5
o f
(4) 30 6

ALLEN
45. A metal rod of length ℓ = 100 cm is clamped 48. A passenger is travelling in an open car moving
exactly at the middle. If density and Young’s with speed 30 m/s throws a ball in forward
modulus of elasticity of rod material are ρ = direction. Initial velocity of ball relative to car
9000 kg m–3 and Y = 144 GPa respectively, is 20 m/s at 60° with horizontal. Then angle of
calculate minimum frequency of natural projection of ball from horizontal as seen by an
longitudinal oscillations of the rod.
observer on ground will be :-
(1) 2 × 103 Hz
(1) 3
tan–1
√
(2) 2 × 106 Hz (
2
)
(3) 2 × 109 Hz (2) 3

tan–1
√
( )
4
(4) None of these
(3) tan–1 √ 3
46. The period of a body under S.H.M. is
represented by T ∝ PaDbSc, where P is (4) tan–1 4 √ 3
pressure, D is density and S is surface tension, 49. Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids of
then the values of a, b and c are:
densities ρ and 2ρ are filled in a vessel as
(1) –3/2, 1/2, 1 shown in figure. Two small holes are punched
(2) –1, –2, 3 at depth h/2 and 3h/2 from surface of lighter
(3) 1/2, –3/2, –1/2 liquid. If V1 and V2 are the velocities of efflux
at these two holes, then V1/V2 is :-
(4) 1, 2, 1/3
47. The rope shown in figure is wound around a
cylinder of mass 4 kg and moment of inertia
0.02 kgm2 about the cylinder axis. If the
cylinder rolls without slipping, then the linear
(1) 1 (2) 1
acceleration of its centre of mass is 2
2√ 2
(3) 1 (4) 1
4 √ 2
50. A tap supplies water at 10°C and another tap at
(1) 6.7 m/s2 100°C. How much hot water must be taken so
that we get 20 kg water at 35°C ?
(2) 10.2 m/s2
(1) 7.2 kg (2) 10 kg
2
(3) 3.3 m/s
(3) 5.6 kg (4) 14.4 kg
(4) None of the above
ALLEN
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 55. Which of the following E-isomer :
Attempt All 35 questions
51. The strongest base among the following is :
(1)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(2)
52. For which carboxylic acid, the pKa value is the
lowest:
(1) CH3 – CH2– COOH
(2) CH ≡ C – COOH (3)
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2COOH
(4) CH2 = CH – COOH
53. The most stable conformation of ethylene
glycol is. (4)
(1) Anti
(2) Gauche 56. Correct IUPAC name of following compound
(3) Partially eclipsed
is
(4) Fully eclipsed
54. Which of the following shows the correct
decreasing order of stability ? (1) N–formylamino ethane
(1) (2) N–ethylformyl amine
(2)
(3) N–ethyl methanamide
(3)
(4) (4) Ethyl–amino methanal

ALLEN
57. IUPAC name of following compound 60. Wurtz reaction not prefer for synthesis of ?
(1)
is
(2)
(1) 2–ethyl–3, 3–dimethyl–1–cyclohexene
(2) 6–ethyl–5, 5–dimethyl–1–cyclohexene (3)
(3) 2–ethyl–1, 1–dimethyl–2–cyclohexene
(4) 1–ethyl–6,6–dimethyl–1–cyclohexene
(4)
58. The cause of water pollution is due to :-
(1) Micro-organisms (2) Organic wastes 61. Configuration of A & B is respectively
(3) Pesticide (4) All of these
59. Hg 2+ /H3 O+
P h − C ≡ C − CH3 −−−−−−−→ A
(1)
(1) Z, Z (2) E, Z
(3) Z, E (4) E, E
(2)
62. Most reactive compound towards ESR is :
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3) (4)
(4)

ALLEN
63. For any H like species, the ratio of velocities of 68. A gaseous mixture contains O2 and N2 in the
electron in I, II and III orbit will be :- ratio of 1 : 4 by weight. The ratio of their
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 6 : 3 : 2 number of molecules is :
(3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 : 6 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8
64. For the reaction : (3) 7 : 32 (4) 3 : 16

2A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 3C(g) + 4D(g) 69. Match List – I (compounds) with List – II
Two moles each of A and B were taken into a 1 (Oxidation state of nitrogen) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the
L flask. The following must always be true
lists –
when the system attained equilibrium
List - I List - II
(1) [A] = [B] (A) NaN3 (a) +5
(2) [A] < [B] (B) N2H4 (b) +2
(3) [A] = [C] (C) NO (c) –1/3
(4) [A] + [B] < [C] + [D] (D) N2O5 (d) –2
65. In the following reversible reaction
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) Codes :
more suitable condition for the higher A B C D
production of SO3 is :- (1) c d b a
(1) High pressure (2) Low pressure (2) d c b a
(3) Removal of SO2 (4) Removal of O2 (3) c d a b
66. Which salt will give maximum pH in (4) d c a b
aqueous solution : 70. In the following reaction what will be the ratio
(1) BaCl2 (2) NaCl of coefficient of MnO4– and Fe+2 after
(3) CH3COONa (4) NH4Cl balancing respectively
MnO4– + Fe+2 → Mn+2 + Fe+3
67. AgCl will be maximum soluble in
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5
(1) 0.1 M NaCl solution
71. For the reaction,
(2) 0.1 M Ag2CO3 solution
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(ℓ) at
(3) 0.1 M KBr solution constant temperature, ΔH – ΔE is :
(4) 0.1 M BaCl2 solution (1) + 3RT (2) –RT (3) + RT (4) –3RT
ALLEN
72. Assertion :- There is no change in internal 76. Assertion (A) : Ionisation energy and electron
energy of an ideal gas at constant temperature. affinity of nitrogen is greater than oxygen
Reason :- Internal energy of an ideal gas is a (magnitude only).
function of temperature only.
Reason (R) : Due to half-filled stability of 2p3
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the configuration in nitrogen removal or addition
Reason is a correct explanation of the of electron is difficult
Assertion.
(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
correct explanation of (A)
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (2) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
73. If the bond energies of H–H, Br–Br and H–Br (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively, 77. Which of the following is the correct order of
ΔHº for the reaction acidic strength -
H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g) is (1) HOCl > HOI > HOBr
(1) –261 kJ (2) +103 kJ (2) HOCl > HOBr > HOI
(3) +261 kJ (4) –103 kJ (3) HOI > HOBr > HOCl
74. Na(s) → Na(g), the heat of reaction is called as (4) HOCl > HOBr < HOI
(1) Heat of vaporisation 78. Assertion (A) :- Both LiCl and MgCl2 are
(2) Heat of atomisation soluble in ethanol.
(3) Heat of sublimation Reason (R) :- Both LiCl & MgCl2 are most
covalent in their groups.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
75. Correct order of 1st ionization potential are : (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(I) O < N < F the correct explanation of (A)
(II) Ne < Ne+ (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(III) Ge < Si < C (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(1) I, II (2) II, III (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) I, II & III (4) III only correct explanation of (A)
ALLEN
79. Match List-I with List-II. 82. Which of the following carbonates of alkali
List - I List - II metal not stable towards heat?
(1) Na2CO3 (2) K2CO3
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(3) Li2CO3 (4) Rb2CO3
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar 83. Consider the following statements :-
(c.) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral (a) Graphite has layered structure
(b) Graphite is used as dry lubricant
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal (c) Carbon black is obtained by burning
hydrocarbons in limited supply of air
(d) Diamond is thermodynamically most stable
Choose the correct answer from the options allotrope of carbon.
given below : The correct statements are :-
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
84. Which of the following give methane gas on
80. PF2Cl3 is non polar because : hydrolysis :-
(1) P–Cl bond is non-polar (1) Al4C3
(2) Its dipole moment is zero (2) Mg2C3
(3) P–Cl bond is polar (3) CaC2
(4) P & Cl have equal electronegativity (4) None
81. Which of the following will be least volatile? 85. Correct order of oxidation state stability is.
(1) H2Te (1) Tl+ > Tl+3
(2) H2Se (2) Sn+4 > Sn+2
(3) H2S (3) Pb+2 > Pb+4
(4) H2O (4) All are correct
ALLEN
SECTION - B 89. Assertion :- In friedel craft's reaction of 1-
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate chloropropane with benzene gives isopropyl
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of benzene as product.
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts Reason :- The primary carbocation rearranges
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted to form secondary carbocation.
questions will be considered for marking. (1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason
86. Which amongs the following are not correctly is a correct explanation of the assertion
matched :- (2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is
(1) NOT a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
are ring chain isomers. (4) Both assertion & reason are false
(2) 90. Match list I with list II and then select the
correct answer from the codes given below the
are positional isomers. lists :-
(3) List-I List-II
(A) Na/Dry Ether (p) Decarboxylation
are chain isomers.
(4) (B) Zn-Hg/HCl (q) Clemmensen
(C) O3/Zn/H2O (r) Wurtz reaction
are functional isomers. (D) NaOH/CaO (s) Ozonolysis
87. Which of the compound cannot gives (1) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s
Lassaigne's. test for nitrogen ?
(2) A-r, B-q, C-s, D-p
(1) NH2–NH2 (2) NH2 – OH
(3) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(3) CH3 – NH2 (4) Both (1) and (2)
Statement-I : Benzaldehyde forms two oximes (4) A-s, B-q, C-r, D-p
88.
on reacting with NH2OH. 91. At low pressures, van der Waal's equation is
Statement-II : The two oximes arise due to
written as P + a 2 V = RT . Then the
( )
geometrical isomerism around C = N bond. V
compressibility factor is equal to :-
(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(1) a (2) RT V
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect ( 1−
RT V
) ( 1−
a
)
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct (3) a (4) RT V

( 1+ ) ( 1+ )
RT V a
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect
ALLEN
–10 Permanent Hardness of water is due to presence
92. Ka for HCN is 5 × 10 . For maintaining a 96.
constant pH of 9, the volume of 5 M KCN of :-
solution required to be added to 10 mL of 2 M (1) CaSO4 (2) CaBr2
HCN solution is :
(3) MgHCO3 (4) (CH3COO)2Ca
(1) 4 mL (2) 8 mL (3) 2 mL (4) 10 mL
97. How many bonds does B2 have ? (As per MOT)
93. How many moles of CO2 will be produced
from 4g carbon and 4g oxygen in the following (1) 1σ only (2) 1π only
reaction ? (3) 1σ, 1π (4) 2π only
C + O2 —→ CO2 98. The correct order of bond angle is :
(2) 1
(1) 4 mol mol
12
(3) 1 (4) 2
8
mol 5
mol
94. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed (1) x > y > z (2) x = y = z
to half of its initial volume and simultaneously
heated to twice of its initial temperature, the (3) x < y < z (4) none
change in entropy of gas (ΔS) is :- 99. For the following statements use 'T' if true, for
(1) Cp,m ln 2 (2) Cv,m ln 2 false use 'F' :-
(a) R2SiCl2 will form linear polymer
(3) R ln 2 (4) (Cv,m – R) ln 2 (b) Hardest-diamond and softest-lamp black
95. Assertion :- In H-atom, the energy of 3d–level among carbon allotropes.
is smaller than 4s–level. (c) AlF3 can't form dimer due to back bonding
Reason :- Subshell with lower value of (n + ℓ ) present in it
has energy smaller than the subshell with larger (d) 3C-2e– bond exists in B2H6
value of (n + ℓ). (1) T T T T (2) T T F T
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (3) F T F T (4) T F T F
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. 100. When B2H6 reacts with 2 moles of NH3 the
major product formed is :-
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (1) 2BH3 · NH3
Assertion. (2) [BH2(NH3)2]+[BH4]–
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) BH3 · B(NH3)2H3
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (4) [BH(NH3)(NH4)]+[BH4]–
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-I
SECTION - A 104. Choose the correct sequence of stages of Prophase I :
Attempt All 35 questions (1) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene →
101. Statement-1 : Eukaryotic cells have membrane Diplotene → Diakinesis
bound cell organelles. (2) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene →
Diplotene → Diakinesis
Statement-2 : Prokaryotic cells lack membrane
bound organelles. (3) Leptotene → Zygotene
→ Pachytene → Diakinesis → Diplotene
Option :
(4) Leptotene → Pachytene
(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct → Zygotene → Diakinesis → Diplotene
105. Assertion (A) : The endomembrane system
(2) Only statement (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect includes endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex,
(3) Only statement (2) is correct and (1) is incorrect lysosome, vacuole.
Reason (R) : The functions of mitochondria,
(4) Both statement (1) and (2) are incorrect chloroplast and peroxisomes are not coordinated.
102. The membrane of endoplasmic reticulum is (1) A and R both are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A
continuous with the :
(2) A and R both are correct but R is not the
(1) Mitochondria correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(2) Chloroplast
(4) Both A and R are incorrect
(3) Inner membrane of nucleus 106. Match column I with column II and identify the
correct option :
(4) Outer membrane of nucleus Column I Column II
103. Which structure is important for (a) Smallest cell (i) 7 μm in diameter
osmoregulation and excretion in Amoeba ? (b) Nerve cell (ii) Ostrich egg
(c) Largest cell (iii) Longest cell
(1) Mitochondria
(d) Human RBC (iv) 0.3 μm in length
(2) Contractile vacuole
Options :
(3) Lysosome
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) Plastid (3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
ALLEN
107. Match the column A with column B and choose 111. How many statements are/is correct ?
the correct option : (A) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the
Column A Column B cell and is present in all living organisms.
(i) Leptotene (a) Synaptonemal complex (B) Fermentation takes place under anaerobic
(ii) Zygotene (b) Bivalent separate conditions in only unicellular eukaryotes.
(iii) Pachytene (c) Recombination (C) Yeasts poison themselves to death when the
(iv) Diplotene (d) Fully condensed concentration of alcohol reaches about 30
(v) Diakinesis (e) Thin chromosome percent.
(D) Aerobic respiration is the process that leads
Options : to a complete oxidation of organic substances
(1) i-e, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b, v-d in presence of oxygen.
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e (1) One (2) Two
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-e, v-a (3) Three (4) Four
(4) i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b, v-c
112. Enzyme which catalyse removal of groups
108. Which type of joint is shown by the flat skull bones. from substrates by mechanisms other than
(1) Fibrous joint (2) Synovial joint hydrolysis leaving double bonds ?
(3) Cartilaginous joint (4) All of above (1) Ligases (2) Lyases
109. Rib has two articulation surface on its dorsal (3) Transferase (4) Hydrolases
end so ribs are called as :- 113. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Monocondylic (2) Bicephalic (1) Co-enzymes are organic compounds but
(3) Dicondylic (4) Monocephalic their association with apoenzyme is only
transient.
110. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Each plant part takes care of its own gas- (2) Each enzyme shows its highest activity at
exchange needs and there is very large transport a particular temperature called the
of gases from one plant part to another. optimum temperature.
(2) Sucrose is converted into glucose and (3) When the inhibitor closely resembles the
fructose by the enzyme invertase. substrate in its molecular structure and
(3) In respiratory pathway both anabolism and inhibits the activity of the enzyme it is
catabolism are involved known as non-competitive inhibitor.
(4) In Kreb's cycle, during the conversion of (4) Prosthetic groups are organic compound and
succinyl-CoA to succinic acid a molecule are distinguished from other cofactors in that
of GTP is synthesised. they are tightly bound to the apoenzyme.
ALLEN
114. In earthworm a prominent dark band of 118. Which of the following connective tissue often
glandular tissue called clitellum is present in ? serve as a support framework for epithelium ?
(1) 12 – 14 segment (1) Areolar Tissue
(2) 10 – 12 segment (2) Adipose Tissue
(3) 14 – 16 segment (3) Dense regular connective Tissue
(4) 16 – 18 segment (4) Dense irregular connective Tissue
115. Frog absorbs water through :- 119. Match Column-I with Column-II on basis of
excretory organs.
(1) Skin
Column-I Column-II
(2) Webs
(3) Mouth
Malpighian
(4) Cloaca (a) (i)
tubules
116. Animal tissues are broadly classified into four
types as :-
(1) Squamous, columnar, cuboidal and ciliated (b) (ii) Coxal Gland
(2) Simple, compound, special and glandular
(3) Epithelial, connective, neural and skeletal
(4) Neural, connective, epithelial and muscular (c) (iii) Proboscis Gland
117. Read the following statement and find out the

correct statement :-
(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in
function like forming a diffusion (d) (iv) Nephridia
boundary.
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium
help to provide linking and supporting.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) The functions of ciliated epithelium is
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
absorption & secretion.
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) The function of microvilli is to move
particles or mucus. (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
ALLEN
120. Which one of the following class is correctly 124. Select the option which correctly identifies
matched with its general characteristics ? cells given in column-A with number of cells in
(1) Aves-Fore limbs have scales and are blood given in column-B.
modified for swimming or clasping tree Column-B
branches. Column-A
(Per mm3 of blood)
(2) Reptilia - Body is covered by moist &
(a) RBCs (i) 1.5 to 3.5 Lakh
cornified skin.
(3) Chondrichthyes - Gills are separate & (b) Platelets (ii) 6000 – 8000
covered with operculum. (c) WBCs (iii) 5–5.5 Million
(4) Osteichthyes - Air bladder is present
which regulates buoyancy. (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
121. From the list given below total number of (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
organisms which shows external fertilisation and (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
indirect development.
Balanoglossus, Frog, Columba, Equus, Ctenoplana, (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
Earthworm, Ascaris, Echinus, Scoliodon, Sycon. 125. Identify the wrong statement :-
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3 (1) All vertebrates possess a muscular
122. The teeth in class Chondrichthyes are modified chambered heart.
_____ scales. (2) Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood do
(1) Placoid (2) Cycloid not get mixed in the heart of fishes.
(3) Ctenoid (4) Ganoid (3) In amphibia and Reptiles, left atrium
receives deoxygenated blood and right
123. How many statements are not incorrect
atrium receives oxygenated blood which
regarding class Cyclostomata.
get mixed in the ventricle.
(a) All living members of this class are
endoparasites on some fishes. (4) All reptiles do not have 3 chambered
(b) They have elongated body bearing 6-15 heart.
pairs of gill slits for respiration. 126. Considering the duration of cardiac cycle 1
(c) Their body is devoid of scales & paired fins. second, find out the correct value of stroke
(d) They are fresh water species but migrate for
volume, if each ventricles of heart pumping
spawning to marine water.
6000 ml of blood per minute.
(e) Circulation is of closed type
(f) Cranium & vertebral column are bony. (1) 150 ml (2) 200 ml
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 70 ml (4) 100 ml
ALLEN
127. (a) Mother being Rh positive and father being 130. Mark the incorrect statement for Calvin cycle.
Rh negative can lead to erythroblastosis foetalis (1) Primary CO2 acceptor molecule is a five
in any of their babies. carbon ketose sugar
(b) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing
specialised lymphocytes. (2) Conversion of first stable product to triose
(c) The tunica media is thin in veins than phosphate requires only NADPH.
arteries. (3) To continue the cycle uninterrupted the
Identify the option which possess correct RUBP must be regenerated.
statements. (4) Carboxylation is the most crucial step of
(1) (a) & (b) (2) only (b) this cycle.
(3) (b) & (c) (4) (a), (b) & (c) 131. Bundle sheath cells are similar to mesophyll
cells in :-
128. One of the plant hormone which gets removed
(a) having large number of chloroplast
along with apical bud of tea plant is :-
(b) having grana
(1) an adenine derivative (c) being involved in CO2 fixation
(2) The hormone also isolated from corn-kernels (d) being impervious to gaseous exchange.
(e) Their primary CO2 fixation product.
(3) an gaseous hormone
(1) Only c & e
(4) The hormone first isolated from human urine.
(2) Only a, b, & e
129. Consider the following four statements (A-D)
(3) Only c
and select option which include the correct one
only (4) Only a & d
(A) Auxins also induce parthenocarpy in tomato 132. In root, the protoxylem lies towards ___a___
(B) Cytokinesis helps to produce new leaves. and metaxylem lies towards the ___b___ :-
(C) Ethylene promotes male flowers in a b
cucumbers. (1) Periphery Centre
(D) ABA plays an important role in seed (2) Centre Periphery
development, maturation and dormancy. (3) Centre Centre
(1) A and B only (4) Periphery Periphery
(2) A, B and D only 133. Cuticle is absent in :-
(3) B, C and D only (1) Leaf (2) Fruit
(4) A, B, C and D (3) Root (4) Stem
ALLEN
134. The peripheral region of the secondary xylem is 137. Read the following statements and choose the
lighter in colour, is known as :- correct statements :
(i) Cilia and flagella are hair like structures
(1) Sap wood and equal in length.
(2) High density wood (ii) Cilia is present in both prokaryotic and
eukaryotic organisms.
(3) Late wood (iii) In flagella the central tubules are
(4) Heart wood connected by the bridge called radial spoke.
135. Identify the incorrect statement :- (iv) Cilium and flagellum have similarity in
structure.
(1) Intercalary meristem occurs in grasses (v) Centriole form spindle apparatus in plant
(2) Apical and intercalary meristems are cell during cell division.
Options :
primary meristem.
(1) Only (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) Lateral meristem is cylindrical meristem
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) Intra-fasicular cambium is example of
secondary meristem. 138. Which one is correct about S phase (synthetic
phase) ?
SECTION - B (I) It occurs between G1 and G2.
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (II) It marks the period during which DNA
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of amount replication takes place.
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (III) At the end of this phase DNA amount is
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted doubled but the number of chromosomes
questions will be considered for marking. remains same.
136. A number of protein synthesized by ribosomes (IV) As the DNA amount is doubled in this
on __(i)__ are modified in the cisternae of the phase number of chromosomes is also doubled.
(V) Centrioles replicate in this phase,
Golgi apparatus before they are released from (VI) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C.
its __(ii)__ : (VII) It is pre G2 and post G1 phase
here (i) and (ii) respectively are Option :-
(1) (i)-SER, (ii)-trans face (1) (I), (II), (IV), (V), (VI), (VII) are correct
(2) (i)-RER, (ii)-cis face (2) (I), (II), (III), (V), (VI), (VII) are correct
(3) (i)-RER; (ii)-trans face (3) Only (IV) is correct
(4) (i)-SER, (ii)-cis face (4) All are correct
ALLEN
139. Which of the muscles are primarily involved in 143. How many of the following statement are related
locomotory action and changes of body to bone ?
pastures. (A) It is specialised connective tissue having hard
and pliable ground substance rich in Ca+2 salts
(1) Smooth muscle (2) Cardiac muscle (B) It is the main tissue that provide structural
(3) Skeletal muscle (4) Visceral muscle frame to the body.
(C) It support and protects softer tissues and
140. Match the following column and choose correct organs.
answer :- (D) The bone cells, osteocyte are present in the
Column-II spaces called lacunae
(E) They also interact with smooth muscles
Column-I (End
attached to them to bring about movements.
Product)
(1) Two (2) Three
Ethanol +
(i) Glycolysis (A) (3) Four (4) Five
CO2
144. The symmetry of phylum cnidaria is similar to
Alcohol that of :-
(ii) (B) CO2 + H2O
fermentation
(1) Larva of a phylum, whose members posses
(iii) Aerobic respiration (C) Lactic acid canal system.
Lactic acid (2) Larva & adults of a phylum whose
(iv) (D) Pyruvic acid member possess water vascular system.
fermentation
(3) Adults of a phylum whose members
(1) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A possess spiny body wall
(2) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C (4) All statements are correct.
(3) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C 145. Which of the following are correct match -
(4) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C (a) Asterias – Water canal system
141. How many pair of spiracles found in cockroach ? (b) Periplaneta – Jointed legs
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4 (c) Nereis – Metamers
142. In all connective tissue except ___A___ the (d) Pleurobrachia – Ciliary combplates
cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called (e) Obelia – Metagenesis
collagen or elastin. (f) Sycon – Corals
(1) Bone (2) Blood (1) a, b, c, d (2) b, d, e, f
(3) Areolar Tissue (4) Cartilage (3) a, c, d, f (4) b, c, d, e
ALLEN
146. Begining of ventricular systole takes place with
respect to ECG at ? 149. Bark includes :-
(1) Before Q (i) Phellem
(2) After Q (ii) Phellogen
(3) at begining of T wave
(iii) Phelloderm
(4) at end of T wave
(iv) Secondary Phloem
147. Statement-I :- Flowering in certain plants
depends not only on a combination of light and
dark exposures but also their relative durations. (1) (i) and (ii) only
Statement-II :- The site of perception of light
dark duration are the leaves. (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct. (3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect. 150. Choose the correct and incorrect statements :-
148. Study the following graph and select the label
which is not correctly explained. (a) All the tissues on the inner side of the
endodermis forms stele.
(b) Pith is large and well developed in dicot root
(c) Conjuctive tissue present in both stem and root
(d) In monocot stem, water containing cavities are
present within the vascular bundles
(e) Bulliform cells occurs in grasses.
(1) A- Rate of photosynthesis increases with (1) a, b, e-correct and c, d-incorrect
increase in light intensity.
(2) D-Light intensity 10 percent of the full sunlight. (2) a, b, d, e-correct and c-incorrect
(3) E-Maximum rate of photosynthesis. (3) a, d, e-correct, and b, c-incorrect

(4) C-Linear relation between light intensity
and photosynthesis rate (4) a, e-correct, and b, c, d-incorrect
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-II
SECTION-A 155. Read the following statements :-
Attempt All 35 questions (a) The inner ear also contains a complex
151. Which of the following biomolecule present in system located above the cochlea called
highest percentage in cellular mass ? vestibular apparatus.
(1) Lipid (b) The bony labyrinth is a series of channels.
outside these channels lies the membranous
(2) Protein
labyrinth which is surrounded by a fluid called
(3) Carbohydrate perilymph.
(4) Nucleic acids (c) The base of semi circular canal is swollen
152. Identify the incorrect pair and is called macula, which contains a
(1) Lectins - Concanavalin-A projecting ridge called crista ampullaris.
(d) The vestibular apparatus is composed of
(2) Insulin - Hormone
two circular canals and the otolith.
(3) Starch - Homo polysaccharide Choose the incorrect answer from the options
(4) Maltose - Invert Sugar given below.
153. Identify the incorrect pair ? (1) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) Chitin - exoskeleton of arthropods (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Inulin - polymer of fructose (3) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Palmitic acid - unsaturated fatty acid of 16 C (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Amino acids - Substituted methanes 156. In visceral nervous system impulses travel from :-
154. The middle ear cavity connects with the (1) Central nervous system to viscera only
pharynx through.
(2) Visceral to central nervous system only
(1) Semi circular canal (3) Between two organs without involvement
(2) External auditory canal of brain
(3) Eustachian tube (4) Central nervous system to viscera and
(4) Cochlea viscera to central nervous system
ALLEN
157. When neuron in resting, the axonal membrane 160. Match Column-I with Column-II correctly :-
Column-I Column-II
is comparatively more permeable to ___A___
Thyroid
ions and nearly impermeable to ____B___ ions. (A) Protein hormone (i)
hormones
Similarly, the membrane is impermeable to (B) Steroid hormone (ii) Cortisol
negatively charged ___C___ present in (C) Idothyronines (iii) Epinephrine
___D___. Amino acid
(D) (iv) Glucagon
derivatives
A B C D

(1) K+ Na+ Lipids Axoplasm A B C D
(1) iii ii i iv
(2) K+ Na+ Proteins Extra Cellular fluid
(2) ii iii i iv
+ +
(3) K Na Lipids Extra Cellular fluid (3) iv ii i iii
(4) K+ Na+ Proteins Axoplasm (4) iv iii i ii
158. The electrical potential difference across the 161. The volume of air which remain, in the lungs
resting plasma membrane is called as :- after normal expiration is :-
(1) Vital capacity
(1) Resting potential
(2) Inspiratory capacity
(2) Action potential (3) Residual volume
(3) Excited potential (4) Functional residual capacity.
(4) Inhibitory potential 162. Which of the following statement is not true ?
159. Diabetes insipidus occur due to an impairment (1) The role of oxygen in the regulation of
respiration is quite insignificant.
affecting synthesis or release of :-
(2) 20-25% CO2 is carried in the form of
(1) Melatonin carbamino Hb
(2) Anti-diuretic - hormone (ADH) (3) Asthma is caused due to inflammation of
bronchi and bronchioles.
(3) Insulin
(4) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood carry
(4) Growth Hormone 10 ml O2 to the tissue.
ALLEN
163. The partial pressure of O2 in pulmonary vein is :- 168. Osmoreceptors present in the body, when
(1) 159 mm of Hg (2) 40 mm of Hg activated by excessive loss of fluid from body,
stimulates -
(3) 45 mm of Hg (4) 95 mm of Hg
(1) Hypothalamus (2) JGA
164. In duodenum, burnner's glands are present in
which layer ? (3) Adrenal cortex (4) ANF mechanism
(1) Outermost layer - Serosa 169. Choose the incorrect one from the given statements -
(2) Middle layer - Muscularis (1) Angiotensin-II activates the adrenal cortex
to release aldosterone.
(3) Inner layer - Mucosa
(2) During the micturition, smooth muscles of
(4) Sub-mucosa layer
urinary bladder contracted and relaxation
165. Starch −Salivary Amylase
−−−−−−−−−→ Maltose of urethral sphincter occurs.
For the above reaction, choose the site and (3) The ascending limb of loop of henle is
suitable pH respectively.
permeable to electrolytes and water.
(1) Stomach, pH - 1.8
(4) Human urine is light yellow coloured
(2) Duodenum, pH - 7.8 watery fluid having acidic pH (pH 6.0) and
(3) Oral cavity, pH - 6.8 characteristic odour.
(4) Pancreas, pH - 7.5 170. Some plants of arid regions modify their stems in to
fleshy cylindrical structures and carry out
166. Factor, which is essential for absorption of
vitamin B12 is secreted by - photosynthesis. These modifications are present in ?
(1) Sub-mucosal glands of duodenum (1) Opuntia
(2) Brunner's glands of duodenum (2) Euphorbia
(3) Gastric glands of stomach (3) Australian acacia
(4) Unicellular gland-goblet cells (4) Both 1 and 2
167. Which segment of nephron is involved in 171. The mesocarp of mango and coconut is
formation of Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA) ? respectively ?
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (1) Fibrous and Fleshy
(2) Dixtal convoluted tubule (2) Fleshy and Stony
(3) Loop of henle (3) Stony and Fibrous
(4) Bowman's capsule (4) Fleshy and Fibrous
ALLEN
172. Read the following statement. 175. Which of the following taxonomic category are
(i) Inflorescence is solitary axillary common for Triticum and Mangifera ?
(ii) Seeds are endospermic (1) Division, Kingdom
(iii)Gynoecium is tricarpellary with axile
placentation. (2) Division, Class
(iv) Plants are mostly herbs, shrubs and rarely (3) Order, Class
small tree.
(4) Family, Orders
How many statements from above are true for
solanaceae-family ? 176. Find the incorrectly matched option :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) (1) Desmids-chrysophytes
(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (2) Gonyaulax-Dinoflagelletes
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv) (3) Pellicle-Euglenoids
(4) (i) & (iv) only (4) Photosynthetic protist - Slime mould
173. How many characters in the list given below 177. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having.
resemble with flower of Lupin plant ? (1) 70 S ribosomes
Vexillary aestivation, racemose inflorescence, (2) Nucleoid
presence of nitrogen fixing structure,
diadelphous stamens, reticulate venation, (3) A different cell wall
monocarpellary gynoecium, Actinomorphic (4) Prokaryotic organisation
symmetry, Anther dithecous.
178. Choose incorrect option about features of living
(1) Eight organisms :
(2) Six (1) Growth is seen only upto a certains age in
(3) Five animals
(4) Seven (2) Sum total of all chemical reactions
occuring in our body is metabolism.
174. Which of the following option is wrong
regarding Mycoplasma - (3) All non-living objects are capable in
(1) They lack cell membrane growth and reproduction So it cannot
taken a defining feature of livings.
(2) They can survive without O2
(4) In single celled organisms, we are not
(3) They are smallest known living organism clear about, the usage of terms like growth
(4) They are pathogenic in plants and animals and reproduction.
ALLEN
179. Which of the following cells are divided for 183. Observe the given diagram carefully and select
Nodule formation. the correct option for A and B :
(1) Outer cortex
(2) Inner cortex
(3) Pericycle
(4) Both (2) and (3)
180. Select the incorrect match pair :-
(1) Tensile strength = an ability to resist a
(1) A-Strobilus, B-Rhizoids
pulling force
(2) A-Rhizoids, B-Strobilus
(2) Capillarity = The ability to rise in thin
tubes (3) A-Strobilus, B-Rhizome
(3) Guttation = Require root pressure (4) A-Rhizome, B-Strobilus
(4) Exudation = Require Transpiration pull 184. Assertion : In gymnosperm the male and
181. Sink and Source in food transport may be female gametophytes do not have an
reversed depending upon :- independent free living existence.
Reason : In gymnosperm, spores are
(1) Plant's need germinated in soil.
(2) Water content of plant (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) Respiratory activity of plant the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Nature of soil (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
182. What is the ploidy of plant given in diagram ? (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
185. (i) Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous plant.
(ii) Gametophyte of pteridophyte is called prothallus.
(iii) In Cycas, stems are unbranched.
(iv) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
How many statement/s is/are correct ?
(1) n (2) 2n (3) 3n (4) 4n (1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four
ALLEN
SECTION-B 189. PTH (Parathyroid Hormone) is a ___A___ hormone.
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate Which stimulates ___B___ of Bones. PTH also
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of stimulates ___C___ of Ca2+ by the renal tubule
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts and ___D___ Ca2+ absorption from the digested food.
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted A B C D
questions will be considered for marking. (1) Hypocalcemic Mineralisation Reabsorption Increases
186. Arachidonic acid have how many double bond ? (2) Hypocalcemic Demineralisation Reabsorption Increases
(1) One (3) Hypercalcemic Demineralisation Reabsorption Increases
(2) Three (4) Hypercalcemic Demineralisation Resorption Increases
(3) Four 190. In acromegaly especially severe disfigurement

(4) Two of the _______ occur.
(1) Face (2) Chest
187. Identify the incorrect pair :
(3) Hand (4) Leg
(1) Auditory meatus - wax secreting gland
191. Which of the following is not responsible for
(2) Rod-Purplish red protein Inspiration.
(3) Macula Lutea - Yellowish pigmented spot (1) Contraction of diaphragm
(4) Vitreous humor - thin watery fluid (2) Contraction of EICM
188. Assertion (A) :- Hypothalamus lies at the base (3) Contraction of IICM
of the thalamus. (4) Intrapulmanary pressure is less than
Reason (R) :- Hypothalamus contains atmospheric pressure
neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones 192. Choose the correct one -
called hypothalmic hormones. (1) Chief cells → Pepsinogen → Digestion
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct of fat
(2) Parietal cells → Rennin → Digestion of
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
starch
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Oxyntic cells → Lipase → Digestion of
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct protein
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the (4) Peptic cells → Pepsinogen → Digestion
correct explanation of (A) of protein
ALLEN
193. Statement-I : A fall in glomerular blood flow 196. Which of the following is not concerned with
can activate the JG cells to release rennin. protista kingdom ?
Statement-II : Rennin converts angiotensinogen (1) Eukaryotic Organisation.
present in blood to angiotensin-I and further to (2) Unicellular Organism
angiotensin-II.
(3) Asexual and Sexual reproduction
(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(4) Boundaries of this kingdom is well defined
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is 197. Choose correct option for A, B and C ?
correct. Solanum + A = Solanaceae
Panthera + B = C
(3) Both statements are incorrect. A B C
(4) Both statements are correct. (1) Petunia Canis Canidae
194. Which of the following statement is not correct (2) Datura Felis Felidae
about given diagram ? (3) Mangifera Canis Canidae
(4) Oryza Felis Felidae
198. On which basis nutrients are divided into macro
and micronutrients ?
(1) Qualitative requirements
(1) Anterior petal is smallest (2) Environmental
(2) Present in flower of bean (3) Soil reservoir
(3) Posterior petal is innermost (4) Quantitative requirements
(4) Wings are lateral petals 199. If some solute is dissolved in pure water then -
(1) Concentration of water increases
195. Statement-I : Placentation is free-central in
primrose and Dianthus. (2) The solution has fewer free water
Statement-II : In free-central placentation, the (3) increase solute potential
placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture (4) increase water potential
of ovary. 200. Mosses are attached to soil through ___(A)___
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct and ___(B)___ rhizoids.
(1) A-Branched, B-unicellular
(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(2) A-Unicellular, B-branched
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct (3) A-Multicellular, B-branched
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect (4) A-Multicellular, B-unbranched
Space for Rough Work

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ENGLISH (3002CMD300122076) Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)

PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - ALL PHASE

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS : {níðÃkqýo Mkq[Lkkyku :

W{uËðkhLkwt Lkk{ (furÃkx÷{kt)

Vku{o Lktçkh : yktfzk{kt

ÃkheûkkLkwt fuLÿ (furÃkx÷{kt) :

W{uËðkhLke Mkne : EÂLðsu÷uxhLke Mkne :

1. Assertion (A) :- Sound would travel faster on a (1) 2x − x4 (2) 2x + x4

(4) Both students are wrong small body

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - 1 + 2 + 3 3002CMD300122076

(2) Angular acceleration at β = 60° is 4L

(1) MR2 (2) 9MR2 (3) Angular acceleration at β = 60° is L

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - 1 + 2 + 3 3002CMD300122076

(3) 120 cm/s (4) r

iv. Poiseuilli’s theorem D Av = constant The correct option is

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - 1 + 2 + 3 3002CMD300122076

(3) 2 × 109 Hz (2) 3

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - 1 + 2 + 3 3002CMD300122076

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - 1 + 2 + 3 3002CMD300122076

(3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 : 6 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8

64. For the reaction : (3) 7 : 32 (4) 3 : 16

(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct (3) a (4) RT V

117. Read the following statement and find out the

(3) E-Maximum rate of photosynthesis. (3) a, d, e-correct, and b, c-incorrect

(2) Three (4) Hypercalcemic Demineralisation Resorption Increases

(3) Four 190. In acromegaly especially severe disfigurement

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE - 1 + 2 + 3 3002CMD300122076

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