21. when an offense is committed by more than one
concise language
person, all of them shall be included I th complaint or
information . this statement is –
a. correct
b. not necessary, under the rules
c. incorrect
d. doubtful
22. the rule provides that th complaint or information
must state the name and surname of the accused or any
appellation or nickname by which he has been or is
known. What if his name cannot be ascertained? The
rule says –
a. leave the name blank to be supplied later on
b. the name “juan de la cruz” should be used
c. he must be described under a fictitious name
with a statement that his true name is unknown
d. the name “john doe” should be entered
23. the rule provides that the complaint or information
shall state the designation of the offense given by the
statute , aver the acts or omission constituting the
offense, and specify its qualifying aggravating and
aggravating circumstances. If there is no designation of
the offense, then –
a. reference shall be made to the section or
subsection of the statute punishing it
b. reference shall be based on the provisions of
the revised penal code .
c. reference shall be made oh the basis of
special laws
d. reference shall be made in accordance with
the civil code
24. the acts or omission complained of as constituting
the offense and the qualifying and aggravating
circumstances must be stated in ordinary and
a. shall translated to tagalog or Ilocano dialect
b.
c. not necessarily in the language used in the
statue
d. as long as the person know what offense is
being charged
25. the complaint or information is sufficient if it can be
understood from its allegation that the offense was
committed or some of its essential ingredients occurred
at some place within –
a. the locality
b. the reach coverage area
c. the jurisdiction of the court
d. the identification of the person
26. it is not necessary to state in the complaint or
information the precise date the offense was
committed except –
a. when it is a material ingredient of the offense
b. when date offense may be alleged to have
been committed on a date as near as possible to the
actual date of its commission
c. both A and B are correct
d. when date is clearly known
27. where are offense is committed in a train, aircraft,
or other public or public or private vehicle in the course
of its trip, the criminal action shall be instituted –
a. at the nearest RTC where such train, aircraft,
or other vehicle passed during its trip
b. at the nearest MTC where such train,
aircraft, or other vehicle passed during its trip
c. under the prerogative of the prosecutor
d. in the court of any municipality or territory
where such train, aircraft, or other vehicle passed
during its trip, including the place of its departure and
arrival
28. a complaint or information is sufficient in substance 32. which among the following is not authorized to
if it doesn’t contain any of the defects which is a ground conduct preliminary investigation?
for a motion to quash. A motion to quash, once granted
a. national and regional state prosecutors
is equivalent to dismissal, nut not acquittal . this
statement is – b. provincial or city prosecutors
a. correct c. judge of lower courts
b. incorrect d. city assistant prosecutors
c. sometimes correct 33. within how many days after filling of complaint, the
d. sometimes incorrect investigating officer either dismiss or issue a subpoena
to the respondent
29. if acquittal is based on the merits of the case,
dismissal is based on ____ a. 10 days, according to the procedures

b. 15 days, according to rules

a. crime committed

b. technicality c. 20 days, according to judge

d. at any time, according to the prosecutor

c. judge’s prerogative

d. lack of evidence. 34. within how many days from receipt of the subpoena
with the complaint and supporting affidavit and that of
30.it is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether his witnesses and other supporting documents relied
there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded upon for his defense?
belief that a crime has been committed and the
respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be a. 10 days, according to the procedures
held for trial. b. 15 days, according to rules
a. prejudicial question c. 20 days, according to judge
b. double jeopardy d. at any time, according to the prosecutor
c. preliminary investigation 35. within how many days after the investigation, the
investigating officer should determine whether or not
d. probe
there is sufficient ground to hold the respondent for
31. a preliminary, investigation is required to be trial?
conducted before the filing of a complaint or
information for an offense where the penalty a. 10 days, according to the procedures
prescribed by law is – b. 15 days, according to rules
a. capital punishment c. 20 days, according to judge
b. life imprisonment d. at any time, according to the prosecutor
c. at least (4) years (2) months and (1) day 36. an arrest is made by an actual restraint of a person
without regard to the fine to be arrested, or by –
d. prison mayor to reclusion Perpetua a. recognizance
 b. deliver him to the nearest police station or confined while his case is pending, or has escaped while
jail without unnecessary delay being transferred from one confinement to another,
there is no need for a warrant of arrest. This statement
c. conduct preliminary investigation is –
d. lock up the person to the detention cell for a. correct
safekeeping
b. incorrect
37. the duty of the officer executing the warrant to
arrest the accused is to – c. sometimes correct

a. detain the arrested person within the time d. sometimes incorrect

prescribed by law

b. deliver him to the nearest police station or

jail without unnecessary delay

c. conduct preliminary investigation

d. lock up the person to the detention cell for

safekeeping

38. are there how many justice of the supreme court of

the Philippines?

a. 13 justices excluding the chief justice

b. 15 justices including the chief justice

c. 16 justices including the chief justice

d. 12 justices excluding the chief justice

39. the head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest

was delivered for executive shall cause the warrant to
be executed within ten (10) days from its receipt.
Within ten (10) days after the expiration of the period,
the officer to whom it was assigned for execution
should –

a. make a follow up investigation on the

progress of the execution of the warrant

b. make a report to the judge who issued the

warrant

c. execute the warrant by himself

d. apply to the court for another warrant

40. when the person to b arrested is a prisoner who

haw escaped from a penal establishment or place
where he is serving final judgment or is temporarily