Class 10 Social Science Super 20 Sample Papers

TERM - 1 10
CBSE
2021-22
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Strictly Based on CBSE Sample Question Paper
SAMPLE PAPERS
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Note from the Publishers
Social Science Sample Papers-X (Term-1) is based on the CBSE syllabus

and the latest Sample Question Paper issued by CBSE on 2nd September, 2021 for
Term-1 Board Examination.
Each Sample Paper is developed by highly experienced subject experts as per the
level and the pattern followed by the CBSE. These Sample Papers will familiarise
the students with the questioning pattern of each section.
The books contains 6 Sample Papers with answers. The book aims at allowing
the students to get some parameters to evaluate their preparation for better
performance.
Features of Sample Papers

• Designed exclusively to test the knowledge and preparation level of students.
• Latest Term-1 CBSE Sample Question Paper has been given with Marking
Scheme.
• Each Sample Paper covers the weightage of each unit/chapter as per the latest
Term-1 syllabus.
• 2 OMR Sheets for Practice.
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and incorporated in the next edition.
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(iii)
CONTENTS
1. Sample Paper 1 (CBSE Sample issued by CBSE on 2nd September, 2021)..................... G–1
2. Sample Paper 2....................................................................................................... G–13
3. Sample Paper 3....................................................................................................... G–23
4. Sample Paper 4....................................................................................................... G–32
5. Sample Paper 5....................................................................................................... G–41
6. Sample Paper 6....................................................................................................... G–50
l Answers to Sample Papers 2 to 6....................................................................................... G–59
l 2 OMR Sheets
(iv)
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SOCIAL SCIENCE
SOCIAL SCIENCE
WEIGHTAGE
CLASS-X (2021-22)
Term-I
No. Units Marks
I India and the Contemporary World-1 10
II Contemporary India-I 10
III Democratic Politics-I 10
IV Economics 10
Total 40
Internal Assessment 10
Grand Total 50
Sample Paper–1
[Issued by CBSE on 2nd September, 2021]
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 40
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.
SECTION-A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)
1.
Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society in
Berne?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Cavour (d) Otto von Bismark
2.
Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
(a) Unification of Germany (b) Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain
(c) Unification of Italy (d) Unification of Vietnam
3.
Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options:
(a) It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.
(b) Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.
(c) It was a customs union at the initiative of Prussia.
(d) It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.
4.
Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended
with victory and unification of Germany?.
(a) Austria, Poland and France (b) Austria, Denmark and France
(c) Austria, Turkey and France (d) Austria, England and France
5.
Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in early-nineteenth
century Europe.
(a) Romanticism (b) Liberalism (c) Socialism (d) Rationalism
6.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:
(a) Groundnut – Assam (b) Tea – Gujarat
(c) Coffee – Karnataka (d) Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh
7.
The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called _________.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Barren land (b) Forest land (c) Grazing land (d) Fallow land
G–1
8. Which one of the following conferences convened to discuss environmental protection and
socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
(a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (d) World Summit on Sustainable Development
9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure perennial
flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
(a) Plains (b) Plateaus (c) Islands (d) Mountains
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land degradation?
(a) Deforestation (b) Crop rotation (c) Shelter belts (d) Ploughing
11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
(a) Nepal (b) India (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
(a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts (b) Provides ethnic-cultural development
(c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights (d) Restricts supremacy of one party
13. Apart from the Central and the State Governments, Belgium has a third kind of government
as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
(a) Democratic Government (b) Socialist Government
(c) Community Government (d) Liberal Government
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) USA (d) Belgium
15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal
distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
(a) It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
(b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
(c) It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
(d) It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.
16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate
on all those subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary subjects
17. Which of the following states of India enjoys special powers under Article 371-A of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Nagaland (b) Rajasthan (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
18. Which one the following is an example of Primary Sector activity?
(a) Baking (b) Outsourcing (c) Farming (d) Banking
19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and above
age group?
(a) Net Attendance Ratio (b) Enrolment Rate
(c) Literacy Rate (d) Drop out Ratio
20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
(a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
(b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
G–2 n Social Science-X

(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.

(d) The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.
21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Improvement in science, information and technology
(b) Improvement in health, education and income
(c) Improvement in information and communication
(d) Improvement in investment, finance and technology
22. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.”
Which of the following is the essence of this statement?
(a) Economic Development (b) Human Development
(c) Sustainable Development (d) National Development
23. Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?
(a) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor
(b) An engineer getting all employment benefits
(c) A cleaning staff in a private school
(d) A tailor stitching clothes at his home
24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of
minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days
of an employment the government would have to ............................. .
(a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
(b) Provide another scheme for the same
(c) Pay at least 1/3 per cent allowance
(d) Provide health care as compensation
SECTION-B
25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic
Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.
Options:
(a) Marianna (b) Philip Viet (c) Germania (d) La Italia
Sample Paper–1 n G–3

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
I. The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.
II. The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.
III. British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity.
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) Only II (d) Only I
27. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate
reason from the following options.
(a) Contractors did not pay their dues.
(b) Contractors appointed a few on high posts.
(c) Contactors used government policies.
(d) Contractors gave them loans on high interests.
28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
(a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.
(b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
(c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
(d) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
• develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall
• is low in humus content
• found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(a) Forest soil (b) Yellow soil (c) Black soil (d) Laterite soil
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
(a) Renewable resources (b) Non-renewable resources
(c) Actual resources (d) Potential resources
31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes
given below:
I. It is good for democracy.
II. It creates harmony in different groups.
III. It brings transparency in the governance.
IV. It brings socio-political competition among parties.
Options:
(a) I, II & III (b) II, III & IV (c) I, III & IV (d) I, II & IV
32. How does Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?
(a) Judiciary rules over Centre and State.
(b) Centre and Judiciary work collectively.
(c) Courts can change structure of Constitution
(d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution.
33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the
statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the official language of the state.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and religion.

Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.
34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
I. Information Technology 1. Concurrent List
II. Police 2. Union List
III. Education 3. State List
IV. Defence 4. Residuary Subjects
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2 (b) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2
(c) I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2 (d) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3
35. Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government
positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the
exam? Select the appropriate option.
(a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 25
36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following
information.
• Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.
• It is called as a third tier of the Government.
• The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Federal system (b) Unitary Federal system
(c) Decentralised system (d) Unitary system
37. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?
I. More powers with Centre II. Residuary subjects with Centre
III. Equal subjects with Centre and State IV. Currency and Railways with Centre
Options:
(a) I, III & IV (b) I, II & IV (c) II, III & IV (d) II, III & IV
38. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution.
I. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
II. Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to
the structure of the Constitution.
III. It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
IV. The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
Options:
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I & III (d) II & IV

Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development has
happened in a country.
Reason (R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human Development
Index.
Options:
40. Choose the correct option from the following:
List I (Example) List II (Sector)
(a) Courier Tertiary Sector
(b) Fisherman Secondary Sector
(c) Carpenter Primary Sector
(d) Transporter Secondary Sector
41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer
from the given options :
Table For Comparison of Three Countries
Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)
Countries I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries
after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out
of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates
average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to
Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable (b) Has most equitable distribution of income
(c) National income of its citizens is higher (d) Average income of its citizens is lower
42. Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out his
Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
(a) 12.6 (b) 13.5 (c) 14.7 (d) 15.2
43. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary after
working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts
her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the following sectors she
is working?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Service Sector (c) Organised Sector (d) Unorganised Sector

44. According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in
India was
 Primary Sector - 44%
 Secondary Sector - 25%
 Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select the
most suitable option from the following:
(a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
(b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector
(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector
Assertion (A): Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a sustainable
substitute for it.
Reason (R): Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day.
Options:
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His wife
and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Of which type of employment
is this an example?
(a) Disguised employment (b) Seasonal employment
(c) Over employment (d) Cyclical employment
SECTION-C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any
10 questions from this section.)
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm
were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon developed an
interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village to village, talking
to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through the generations. These
were popular both among children and adults.
In 1812, they published their first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers became
active in liberal politics, especially the movement for freedom of the press. In the meantime, they
also published a 33-volume dictionary of the German language.

The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and believed that
the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit. They
considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as part of
the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity.
47. Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their folkloric
character? Choose the correct options from the following:
(a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany.
(b) It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales.
(c) It formed the basis for the science of the language.
(d) People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.
48. The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the best
suitable option depicting the same from the following:
(a) Development of cities and towns (b) Setting up of new political parties
(c) Promotion of ethnic belonging (d) Emergence of socialist ideology
49. Fill in the blank from the given options.
The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They believed
in a spirit of ____________ and considered it essential for the reflection of national identity.
(a) Culturalism (b) Conservatism (c) Extremism (d) Liberalism
50. Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best suitable
option from the following in reference to the context.
(a) Exploitation of natural resources (b) Erosion of native values and ethos
(c) Violence and mass killing of people (d) Spread of new diseases in the country
51. How were the Germans able to connect with their culture? With reference to the above context,
infer the appropriate option.
(a) Through the feeling of formal way of communication
(b) Through the feeling of oneness as European community
(c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals
(d) Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism
Assertion (A): Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic.
Options:
There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables,
oil-seeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown area under cereals and
pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining food production puts a big question
mark over the country’s future food security.

The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and agriculture
has resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has started showing a
declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are
now being held responsible for degrading the soils. Periodic scarcity of water has led to reduction
in area under irrigation. Inefficient water management has led to water logging and salinity.
53. One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have been
pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
(a) Food and fruit crops are expensive in market
(b) Shift to multifarious crops according to demand
(c) Periodic scarcity of water in many regions
(d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution
54. Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options:
I. Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.
II. They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
III. Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
Options:
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) III Only (d) II Only
55. According to the information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown area under
cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
(a) Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses
(b) Earn more income from non-agricultural sector
(c) Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses
(d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops
56. ‘Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being
held responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs noticed earlier
from the following statements.
(a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
(b) These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses.
(c) These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce.
(d) These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.
57. There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at excessive
level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at prominent level
from the following options.
(a) Karnataka and Kerala (b) Haryana and Punjab
(c) Punjab and Gujarat (d) Haryana and Telangana
58. Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food availability.
Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct option in reference to
the context.
(a) To improve the land use pattern (b) To use intensive farming techniques
(c) To improve the fertility of soil (d) To fetch more income and high earnings

SECTION-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°

36°
32°
32°
A
28° 28°
B
24°
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Salal (b) Bhakra-Nangal
(c) Tehri (d) Rana Pratap Sagar
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Assam (b) Punjab
(c) Bihar (d) Gujarat

Marking Scheme of Sample Paper-1

1. (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
2. (b) Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain
3. (c) It was a Custom Union at the initiative of Prussia
4. (b) Austria, Denmark and France
5. (b) Liberalism
6. (c) Coffee – Karnataka
7. (d) Fallow land
8. (c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
9. (d) Mountains
10. (a) Deforestation
11. (c) Sri Lanka
12. (a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts
13. (c) Community Government
14. (c) USA
15. (b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
16. (c) Concurrent list
17. (a) Nagaland
18. (c) Farming
19. (c) Literacy Rate
20. (b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
21. (b) Improvement in health, education and income
22. (c) Sustainable Development
23. (b) An engineer getting all employment benefits.
24. (a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
25. (c) Germania
26. (a) I & II
27. (a) Contractors did not pay their dues
28. (b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
29. (d) Laterite soil
30. (a) Renewable Resources
31. (a) I, II & III
32. (d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution.
33. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
34. (a) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2
35. (c) 22
36. (c) Decentralised system
37. (b) I, II & IV
38. (a) I & II
39. (c) A is true but R is false.
40. (a) Courier Tertiary sector
G–11
41. (b) Has most equitable distribution of income.

42. (a) 12.6
43. (d) Unorganised Sector
44. (a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
45. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
46. (a) Underemployment
47. (a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany.
48. (c) Promotion of ethnic belonging
49. (a) Culturalism
50. (b) Erosion of native values and ethos
51. (c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals
52. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
53. (d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution
54. (a) I & II
55. (d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops
56. (a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
57. (b) Haryana and Punjab
58. (d) To fetch more income and high earnings
59. (b) Bhakra Nangal
60. (a) Assam

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Sample Paper – 2 Maximum Marks: 40
General Instructions: Same as Sample Paper-1
SECTION-A
1.
By whom was/were the various states of Italy ruled?
(a) The North was under Austrian Habsburgs.
(b) The centre was ruled by Pope.
(c) The southern regimes were under the Bourbon Kings of Spain.
(d) All of the above
2.
What was the significance of ‘Broken Chains’?
(a) Readiness to fight (b) Willingness to make peace
(c) Heroism (d) Being freed
3.
Identify the correct statement about the liberal nationalists of Europe from the options given
below.
(a) They emphasized the concept of government by the consent of the people.
(b) They criticized the glorification of science.
(c) They created a sense of collective heritage.
(d) They did not stand for the freedom of markets.
4.
Which of the following nations is known as the cradle of civilization?
(a) France (b) Greek (c) Poland (d) Italy
5.
Identify the power which was not interested to increase its own control over the Balkans.
(a) Russia (b) England (c) Switzerland (d) Germany
6.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the classification of resources from the following
options:
(a) On the basis of origin—Individual community, national and international
(b) On the basis of inexhaustibility—Renewable and non-renewable
(c) On the basis of status and development—Biotic and abiotic
(d) On the basis of ownership—Potential, developed stock and reserves
7.
Jhumming cultivation in Madhya Pradesh is called ____________ .
(a) Bewar (b) Valre (c) Penda (d) Khil
8.
Red soil looks yellow when it occurs in
(a) Hydrated form (b) Original form (c) Oxidated form (d) Degraded form
9.
Which of the following are the two main beverage crops produced in India?
(a) Cocoa and sugarcane (b) Rice and pulses
(c) Tea and coffee (d) Jowar and Bajra
G–13
10. Which of the following North-Eastern states has been fully surveyed for its land use?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur
(c) Tripura (d) Assam
11. Power struggle demanding separate Eelam was launched by which of the following?
(a) Tamilians (b) Sinhalas (c) Buddhists (d) Hindus
12. Identify the state which violenty demanded that the use of English for official purpose should
be continued, from the following options.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal
13. The Indian Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government. Identify the
first-tier of government from the following options.
(a) Community government (b) District government
(c) Central government (d) State government
14. Which of the following is not the benefit of power sharing?
(a) It upholds the spirit of democracy.
(b) Political parties get their expected share.
(c) It ensures political stability in the long-run.
(d) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
15. Why did Tamilians form various political organisations during 1980s. Identify the correct
reason.
(a) Their demand for seperate state was denied.
(b) Their demand for seperate election to provinces populated by the Tamils was denied.
(c) Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly
denied.
16. In federal system, central government cannot order the
(a) Community government (b) Local government
(c) State government (d) None of these
17. Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based
on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies
(b) Legislature, Executive, Judiciary
(c) Among different social groups
(d) Among different pressure groups
18. Which one of the following goals is an aspiration for urban unemployed youth?
(a) More opportunity for higher education (b) A permanent white collar job
(c) Having a self-owned home to live in (d) All of these
19. Which sector helps in the development of the primary and secondary sector?
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) None of these
20. Which of the following is the full form of SED?
(a) Simple Economic Development (b) Sustainable Economic Development
(c) Sound Economic Development (d) Super Economic Development

21. Which of the following options best describes the intermediate goods?
(a) Goods and services that finally reach to the consumers.
(b) Goods and services that intermediately reach to the consumers.
(c) Goods that used in the production of final goods and services.
(d) Goods that used in initially to produced a material.
22. Read the given statements in context of ‘National development’ and choose the correct option.
(a) It is measured by National Income.
(b) It is measured by Average Income and Per Capita Income.
(c) It is measured by Human Development Index.
(d) It is measured by Net Attendance Ratio.
23. Which of the following characteristics is related to the unorganised sector?
(a) It has small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
(b) Jobs here are low paid and often not regular.
(c) A lot of workers depend on the whims of the employer.
24. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is
undertaken by a central government ministry. GDP is calculated by ........................ .
(a) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year and the sum of production in the three sectors.
(b) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year provides the approximate production of the sector for that year.
(c) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the total production of sector for that year, and the sum of production in the three
sectors.
(d) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during last three years
provides the total production of the sector for that year.
SECTION-B
25. Following image was prepared by a French artist in 1848, which shows the people of Europe
and America of all ages. Identify its artist name from among the following options.

(a) Henri Matisse (b) Paul Gauguin (c) Georges Braque (d) Frederic Sorrieu
Sample Paper – 2 n G–15

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about French Revolution?
I. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution.
II. A new French flag, the two colour, was choosen to replace the present royal standard.
III. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National
Assembly.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) Only II (d) Only I
27. Which of the following treaties recognized Greece as an independent nation?
(a) Treaty of Sevres (b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Lausanne (d) Treaty of Constantinople
28. Identify the main motive to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815.
(a) To restore conservative regime in Europe
(b) To start the process of Italian unification
(c) To declare competition of German unification
(d) To declare war against France
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
 also known as regur soil
 has a good capacity to hold moisture
 rich in magnesium
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Arid soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Black soil
30. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on
a large area?
(a) Shifting agricultural (b) Plantation agriculture
(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive agriculture
31. Consider the following statements on Tamils and select the answer using the codes given
below.
I. No Buddhist Sinhala leader was sensitive to Tamil language and culture.
II. Tamils felt that the Constitution and government policies denied them political rights.
III. Government discriminated Tamil against in getting job and other opportunities and ignored
their interests.
IV. Finally, an Act was passed in 1956 to recognise Tamil as the only official language.
Options:
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
32. Which group of countries follow the unitary system?
(a) France, Germany and India (b) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka
(c) The United States, Japan and Spain (d) Belgium, India and Spain
Assertion (A): French-speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful.

Reason (R): Belgian Government favoured French-speaking community.

Options:
(d) A is false but R is true.
Column A Column B
I. Major step towards decentralisation in India 1. 1947
II. The boundaries of Indian states were changed 2. 1992
III. The rise of regional political parties in many states 3. 2019
IV. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill was presented 4. 1990
in the Rajya Sabha
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
35. The idea of power sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political
power. In how many tiers is power shared in India?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Two (d) Six
36. Identify the correct administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following
information.
• Two or more levels of government
• Sub-units are not subordinate to the central government.
• State Government has it own powers.
(a) Decentralised system (b) Federal system
(c) Unitary system (d) Centralised system
37. Which of the following options prove that power sharing keeps up with the spirit of
democracy?
I. Ensures maximum participation of people
II. Hinders diverse groups
III. Brings better outcomes in democracy
IV. Upholds the concepts of people’s rule.
Options:
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III
38. Identify the correct statements/s about the advantage of decentralisation?
I. Sharing of power between centre and local government reduces conflicts.
II. Large number of problems and issues can be best settled at local level.

III. People have better knowledge of their own.

IV. They participate indirectly in decision-making.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and IV
(c) I and III (d) II and III
Assertion (A): The average income of a country is about US$ 12,056; however, the country
is still not a developed country.
Reason (R): The income levels are highly skewed for the country.
Options:
40. Choose the correct option from the following
List I (States) List II (Literacy rate, 2011 census)
(a) Punjab 93.91%
(b) Kerala 61.80%
(c) Bihar 75.84%
(d) Tamil Nadu 80.1%
41. Read the following data carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given
options.
1970-71 2010-11
Primary Secondary Tertiary Primary Secondary Tertiary
sector sector sector sector sector sector
Share in GDP 45% 20% 35% 18% 24% 58%
Share in
75% 10% 15% 53% 22% 25%
Employment

The Primary sector tends to make up a large portion of the economy in developing countries
in comparison of it does in developed countries. Which of the following changes in this sector
we have observed?

(a) In GDP, the share of primary sector has dropped while the share of secondary and tertiary
sectors have expanded.

(b) The share of employment in primary sector has dropped while it has expanded in secondary
and tertiary sectors.
(c) In GDP, the share of primary sector has expanded while the share of employment in
secondary and tertiary sectors has dropped.

(d) Both (a) and (b)

42. The calculation of per capita income of all countries is made in

(a) Rupees (b) Dollars (c) Yen (d) Pounds
43. Which among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector?
(a) Educated and trained professionals
(b) Repair persons and daily wage earners
(c) People in defence services
(d) People working in health centres and hospitals
44. According to 2017-18 data, an estimate of reserves of crude oil is
 USA — 10.5 Remaining years of reserves
 Middle East — 70 Remaining years of reserves
 World — 50.2 Remaining years of reserves
Now select the correct option which defines how it is essential for the development process
of a country.
(a) If prices of crude oil increase this becomes a burden for all.
(b) Reserves of crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more.
(c) Middle East and USA may face energy crisis in future due to exhaustion of crude oil.
(d) Crude oil is a major source of energy for agriculture and industrial development.
Assertion (A): Certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating
out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional training, etc.
Reason (R): As income level of certain sections of people rise.
Options:
46. Which of the following Indian states has the lowest literacy rate?
(a) Mizoram (b) Karnataka (c) Bihar (d) Kerala
SECTION-C
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary
Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his
goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell
on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through
war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of
economic development and political dominance.

Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a
revolutionary nor a democrat. Like many other wealthy and educated members of the Italian elite,
he spoke French much better than he did Italian. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France
engineered by Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859.
Apart from regular troops, a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Giuseppe
Garibaldi joined the fray. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two
Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the local peasants in order to drive out the Spanish
rulers. In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united Italy. However, much of the
Italian population, among whom rates of illiteracy were very high, remained blissfully unaware
of liberalnationalist ideology. The peasant masses who had supported Garibaldi in southern Italy
had never heard of Italia, and believed that ‘La Talia’ was Victor Emmanuel’s wife!
47. Who established a secret society called ‘Young Italy’?
(a) Napoleon (b) Cavour
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Metternich
The failure of revolutionary movement in ................... meant that the mantle now fell on
Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler king.
(a) 1830 and 1847 (b) 1839 and 1848
(c) 1831 and 1848 (d) 1830 and 1848
49. Which of the following was the only state of Italy ruled by an Italian princely house?
(a) Romania (b) Sardinia-Piedmont
(c) Hungary (d) Bulgaria
50. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Macedonia
51. Who among the following led the movement to unify the regions of Italy?
(a) Wilhelm Wolff (b) Otto von Bismarck
(c) Ernst Renan (d) Cavour
Assertion (A): In 1860 armed forces in the leadership of Garibaldi joined the fray.
Reason (R): Garibaldi was called the ‘Bismarck of Italy’.
Options:

Agriculture has been practised in India for thousands of years. Sustained uses of land without
compatible techno–institutional changes have hindered the pace of agricultural development. Inspite
of development of sources of irrigation most of the farmers in large parts of the country still depend
upon monsoon and natural fertility in order to carry on their agriculture. For a growing population,
this poses a serious challenge. Agriculture which provides livelihood for more than 60 per cent
of its population, needs some serious technical and institutional reforms. Thus, collectivisation,
consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring
about institutional reforms in the country after Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus
of our First Five Year Plan. The right of inheritance had already lead to fragmentation of land
holdings necessitating consolidation of holdings.
53. Which of the following is the most significant occupation of the Indians?
(a) Manufacturing (b) Services
(c) Agriculture (d) Fishing
54. Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options.
I. Agriculture contributes a lot to the national economy, employment and output.
II. All the other sectors of Indian economy depend on agriculture for their growth.
III. Sustained uses of land with well-matched techno-institutional changes have slowed the
pace of agricultural development.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I only (d) III only
55. Agriculture belongs to which of the following sectors?
(a) Tertiary (b) Primary
(c) Public (d) Secondary
56. For irrigation, most of the Indian farmers depend on
(a) Monsoon (b) Rivers
(c) Reservoirs (d) Tube wells
57. What is collectivisation?
(a) Combined land of various farmers and then doing the agricultural activities on the basis
of their capacity.
(b) Combined land of various farmers and then doing the agricultural activities on collective
basis.
(c) Combined land of various farmers and then doing the agricultural activities on individual
basis.
(d) None of the above
58. What was the prime focus of the first Five Year Plan?
(a) Land reforms (b) Land overuse
(c) Land degradation (d) All of these

SECTION-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a dam. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Sardar Sarovar (b) Tehri
(c) Tungabhadra (d) Salal
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is marked as a major rubber producing state. Identify it from the following
options.
(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala


SECTION-A
1. “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”. Who said it?
(a) Louis Philippe (b) Guiseppe Mazzini (c) Metternich (d) Napoleon
2. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in which of the
following years?
(a) 1789 (b) 1879 (c) 1798 (d) 1778
3. Identify the correct reason for the uprising of the Silesian weavers from the following options.
(a) They were demanding for better jobs.
(b) They were demanding for cotton clothes.
(c) They were demanding for better electricity.
(d) They were demanding for the higher wages.
4. Which of the following was not a quality of Napoleon’s Civil Code?
(a) Right by birth (b) Right of property
(c) Right to vote for all (d) Equality before law
5. Identify the French artist who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of world
from the following.
(a) Edgar Degas (b) Auguste Rodin (c) Berthe Morisot (d) Frederic Sorrieu
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the soils and the areas they are found in.
(a) Black soils – West Bengal (b) Forest soils – Ladakh
(c) Arid soils – Karnataka (d) Red and Yellow soils – Gujarat
7. The largest sugarcane producing state of India is ___________ .
(a) Odisha (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Mizoram (d) Gujarat
8. What is the total geographical area of India?
(a) 1.38 million sq. km (b) 2.28 million sq. km
(c) 3.28 million sq. km (d) 4.48 million sq. km
9. What is jhumming cultivation called in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Dahiya (b) Kumari (c) Khil (d) Podu or Penda
10. Which of the following resources is based on exhaustibility?
(a) Community resources (b) National resources
(c) Individual resources (d) Renewable resources
11. Today democratic countries are worried about the increasing role of which of the following?
(a) Rich people and political parties (b) Rich people and large companies
(c) Poor people and political parties (d) Political parties and leaders
G–23
12. Identify the guardian of the Indian Constitution?

(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Supreme Court (d) The Governor
13. Which one of the following is a major caste group in Sri Lanka?
(a) Christian and Tamil (b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhala and Tamil (d) Sinhala and Christian
14. Which of the following is not a feature of federalism?
(a) Written Constitution
(b) Central government has all powers
(c) Two or more level of government
(d) Division of powers between the central government and governments of units (centre and
state)
15. Which type of powers does the Community Government to Belgum enjoy?
(a) The government has the power regarding culture related issue
(b) The government has the power regarding education related issue
(c) The government has the power regarding language related issue
16. Which of the following options helps local self-government to deepen democracy in India?
(a) The members of the local-self government
(b) Constitutional status for local-self government
(c) Parliamentary bills for the local-self government
17. Which of the following options is the spirit of democracy?

(a) Political parties (b) Local-self government

(c) Power sharing (d) Community government
18. The value of which of the following should be added while calculating the national income?

(a) Final goods (b) Final services

(c) Final goods and services (d) None of these
19. Which of the following is also called average income?

(a) Per Capita Income (b) National income (c) Total income (d) None of these
20. Public health is responsibility of

(a) Primary sector (b) Government (c) Private sector (d) None of these
21. Which of the following professions belong to the tertiary sector of economy?

(a) Fishing (b) Farming (c) Ship-building (d) Teaching
22. Why is groundwater overused?

(a) Due to over population (b) Due to industrialisation

(c) Due to commercialisation of agriculture (d) All of these

23. Information and Technology is a part of which sector?

(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) All of these
24. People may have different developmental goals; what is development for one, may even be
____________ for the other.
(a) Destructive (b) Constructive (c) Same (d) Equal
SECTION-B
25. Following painting is focusing on the suffering of women and children during 1824 in France.
The painter sought to appeal to the emotions of the spectators, and create sympathy for the
Greeks. What does this painting signify?
Options:
(a) Revenge and Vengeance (b) Peasant movement
(c) The Massacre at Chios (d) Battlefield
26. Which of the following reason(s) is/are correct for the nationalist uprurge in the 19th century
Europe?
I. Liberal ideas were spread by the common people.
II. The slogan ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraterity’ became the clarion call for the common people.
III. The French Revolution inspired the people to fight for freedom.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only II (d) Only I
27. Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?
(a) Treaty of Constantinople (b) Treaty of Vienna
(c) Treaty of Versailles (d) Treaty of Paris
28. Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union-1707’ from the following
options.
(a) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(b) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(c) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below.
 a tropical as well as a sub-tropical crop
 grows well in hot and humid climate
 India - the second largest producer after Brazil
(a) Wheat (b) Sugarcane (c) Tea (d) Coffee
30. Who said, ‘‘There is enough for everybody’s need and not for everybody’s greed’’?
(a) Dr Ambedkar (b) Pt. Nehru (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sardar Patel
31. Consider the following statements on horizontal power sharing and select the answer using
the codes given below.
I. It means power is shared among different organs of they government.
II. Different organs of the government are placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
III. The division of the power involves higher and lower levels of the government at entire
country level and the state level.
IV. Each organ of the government checks other so it is called the system of checks and balances.
Options:
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
32. Which of the following options helps local self-government to deepen democracy in India?
(a) The members of the local-self government
(b) Constitutional status for local-self government
(c) Parliamentary bills for the local-self government
Assertion (A): When the power is taken from the local and state government and given to
central government, it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R): Decentralisation helps to build effective communication.
Options:
Column A Column B
I. Sri Lanka 1. Dutch-speaking people in majority
II. Belgium 2. Majoritarianism
III. India 3. Dutch-speaking people in minority
IV. Brussels 4. A secular state
35. A war-like conflict between two opposite groups in a country is called?
(a) Cold war (b) Civil war (c) Ethnic war (d) The World War

36. Identify the administrative system of the Government of India with the help of the following
information.
• There is only one level of government.
• The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
• The central government orders the provincial or the local governments.
(a) Unitary federal system (b) Unitary system
(c) Federal system (d) Decentralised system
37. Which of the following prudential reasons prove that power sharing is desirable in a democratic
set up?
I. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
II. It is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
III. Its absence results into imposition of will of majority community which undermines the
unity of the nation.
IV. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
Options:
38. Identify the correct statement/s regarding the coming together federation.
I. Large country decides to divide its power between states and the centre.
II. All the states have equal power and are strong.
III. India, Spain, Belgium are examples of coming together federation.
IV. By pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they increase their security.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
Assertion (A): The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of
service sector.
Reason (R): As the primary and secondary sectors develops, the demand for transport, storage
structures, banks, insurance, etc. increases.
Options:
40. Choose the correct option from the following.
List I (Category of Person) List II (Developmental Goals)
(a) Landless rural labourers Assured a higher support prices
for their crops
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab To fulfil their livelihood
(c) Farmers who depend only on Availability of other sources
rain for agriculture of irrigation
(d) A rural woman from a land owing family More days of work and better wages

from the given options.
Organised Sector Unorganised Sector Total
No. of workers 4,00,000 10,00,000 14,00,000
Income 32,000 million 28,000 million 60,000 million
(a) Opening a cold storage (b) Invest some money in transportation
(c) Increase vocational education courses (d) Provide cheap agricultural credit
42. An adivasi from Narmada Valley has which of the following development goals?
(a) No social discrimination (b) School education for children
(c) PDS ration shop in village (d) All of these
43. Economic activities are interdependent. How can it be explained?
(a) If the companies decide not to buy cotton from Indian producers then the Indian cotton
cultivation will become less profitable and may even go bankrupt. In this case it is clear
that primary sector is dependent on the secondary sector.
(b) In case farmers refuse to sell sugarcane to a particular sugar mill then the mill have to
shutdown. It is clear in this case that secondary sector is dependent on the primary sector.
(c) In case transporters are on strike then the primary sector and secondary sector will face loss.
44. The data below shows the estimate number (in millions) of Indian workers in organised and
unorganised sectors.
 Primary sector — 2 organised, 240 unorganised
Secondary sector — 9 organised, 54 unorganised

 Tertiary sector — 17 organised, 76 unorganised
The percentage of people in the unorganised sector is 99.17 percent. Why is agriculture an
unorganised sector activity. Select the most appropriate option from the following.
(a) Jobs of farmers are low paid and often not regular.
(b) Farmers have no fixed working hours.
(c) They do not get a fixed amount of money as salary.
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to
know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Options:
46. Which of the following is not an important goal of people’s life?
(a) Good education (b) Blood donation
(c) High salaried job (d) Facilities for going abroad

SECTION-C
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like
the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most
conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather,
they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen
traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and stronger. A
modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom
could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European
powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe.
The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the
Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in
Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French
Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.
47. Which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative ideology?
(a) Preservation of believes introduced by Napoleon
(b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity
(c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
48. Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following options.
(a) To declare competition of German unification
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
(c) To declare war against France (d) To start the process of Italian unification
49. Fill in the blank from the given options
Representatives of the Europeon powers collectively defeated ___________ in 1815.
(a) Metternich (b) Garibaldi (c) Napoleon (d) Cavour
50. What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option.
(a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe
(b) To establish socialism in Europe
(c) To introduce democracy in France (d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria
51. How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option.
(a) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty
(b) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy
(c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
(d) By giving power to the German confederation
Assertion (A): The conservatives emphasised the importance of traditional customs and
established institutions.
Reason (R): Later steps were taken to prevent French expansion and creation of new states.
Options:
The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over 80 per cent of the
total area in Punjab and Haryana and less than 10 per cent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur
and Andaman Nicobar Islands. Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33 per cent
of geographical area, as it was outlined in the National Forest Policy (1952). It was considered
essential for maintenance of the ecological balance. The livelihood of millions of people who live
on the fringes of these forests depends upon it. A part of the land is termed as waste land and land
put to other non-agricultural uses. Waste land includes rocky, arid and desert areas and land put to
other non-agricultural uses includes settlements, roads, railways, industry etc. Continuous use of
land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it, has
resulted in land degradation. This, in turn, has serious repercussions on society and the environment.
53. What is the area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area called?
(a) Grazing land (b) Fallow land (c) Cropped area (d) Gross cropped area
I. The pattern of net sown area is different from state to state.
II. Forest region in India is far higher than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.
III. Waste land consists of mountainous, arid and desert regions.
Options:
(a) II and III (b) I and III (c) II only (d) I only
55. The pattern of net sown area is less than 10 per cent in which of the following states/union
territory of India?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Mizoram and Manipur
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (d) All of these
56. The National Forest Policy came into existence in which of the following years?
(a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1947 (d) 2000
57. India’s forest area is far lower than the desired ______ of geographical area as per the national
forest policy.
(a) 10 per cent (b) 54 per cent (c) 33 per cent (d) 50 per cent
58. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing

SECTION-D
(Attempt both the Map based questions)

B

A

59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a soil. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Black soil (b) Red and Yellow soil
(c) Arid soil (d) Laterite soil
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a dam. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Nagarjuna Sagar (b) Hirakud
(c) Salal (d) Rana Pratap Sagar


SECTION-A
1.
Who were the large landowners of Prussia known as?
(a) Pykars (b) Mahantas (c) Kulaks (d) Junkars
2.
What was the main theme of the paintings of Frederic Sorrieu?
(a) Democracy (b) Liberalism (c) Socialism (d) Capitalism
3.
Identify the correct statement with regard to the role of liberals in political field from the
following options that changed the outlook of Europeon countries.
(a) Liberals fought for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions
on the movement of goods and capital.
(b) The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from thirty to
two
(c) The construction of a railway network stirred economic growth and economic nationalism
which eventually strengthened nationalism.
(d) During that time the people possessing property only had the right to vote and get elected.
4.
Which of the following was not implemented under the Treaty of Vienna, 1815?
(a) Establishing up series of states on French boundaries
(b) Restoration of Bourban dynasty
(c) Diluting the German confederation of 39 states
(d) Restoration of Monarchies
5.
Identify the country which became full-fledged territorial state in Europe in 1789.
(a) Spain (b) Germany (c) England (d) France
6.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the Primitive cultivation in India from the following
options:
(a) Dahiya – Madhya Pradesh (b) Kumari – Jharkhand
(c) Khil – Andhra Pradesh (d) Koman – Karnataka
7.
Regur soil is also known as __________ .
Choose the correct option.
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Black soil (c) Arid soil (d) Laterite soil
8.
Which of the following crops requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than
200 cm and temperature above 25°C?
(a) Jute (b) Rice (c) Rubber (d) Wheat
9.
Which one of the following types of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable (b) Biotic (c) Flow (d) Non-renewable
G–32
10. Which of the following farming practice depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil
and suitability of other environmental conditions?
(a) Commercial farming (b) Internsive subsistence farming
(c) Plantation (d) Primitive subsistence farming
11. Which of the following is not included in the State List?
(a) Law and order (b) National defence
(c) Trade and commerce (d) Agriculture and irrigation
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
(a) Helps the people of different communities to celebrated their festivals
(b) Imposes the will of the majority community over others
(c) Reduces the conflict between social groups
(d) Ensures the stability of political order
13. Which one of the following countries continues to be a unitary system where the national
government has all the power?
(a) USA (b) Australia (c) Sri Lanka (d) Belgium
14. The community government in Belgium is elected by which of the following?
(a) People belonging to one language community
(b) All the citizens
(c) All the community (d) All the leaders
15. Through which of the following arrangements the basic structure of the Constitution can be
amended?
(a) Passed the amendment bill by both the houses of the Parliament with at least two-thirds
majority.
(b) The bill has to ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total states.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
16. Which language is dominantly spoken in Belgium?
(a) Dutch (b) Spanish (c) France (d) English
17. When power is taken away from state governments and is given to local government, it is
called
(a) Decentralisation (b) Centralisation (c) Panchayat Samiti (d) Federalism
18. Which among the following activities is not related to primary sector?
(a) Fishing (b) Natural gas extraction
(c) Making of sugar (d) Mining
19. What is the development goal for landless agricultural labour?
(a) High prices for crops (b) More days of work
(c) Cheap labour (d) Pollution-free environment
20. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the correct
option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.

21. The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known by which name?
(a) Final goods (b) Consumer goods
(c) Material goods (d) Intermediate goods
22. Developmental goals are different for different people. Which of the following statements is
true to justify it?
(a) Development or progress does not mean one and same thing for every individual. Each
individual has his/her own notion of development.
(b) People seek things that are most important for then, i.e. things can fulfil their aspiration
or desires.
23. Which of the following helps in maintaining the nutritional levels of poor people by providing
food at lower cost?
(a) BMI (Body Mass Index) (b) PDS (Public Distribution System)
(c) GNI (Gross National Income) (d) HDI (Human Development Index)
24. Sometimes each one seems working but no one is fully employed. The type of unemployment
in which more than required people are employed because they do not get employment
opportunities elsewhere. It is known as __________ .
(a) Underemployed (b) Over unemployed
(c) Disguished unemployment (d) Seasonal unemployment
SECTION-B
25. Following is the image of Germania related to the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848.
Identify its aspect which best signifies this image.
Options:
(a) Heroism and Justice (b) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(c) Austerity and Asceticism (d) Revenge and Vengeance

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Napoleonic Code?
I. Napoleon established equality before the law.
II. He established the feudal system.
III. He improved the transport system and communications.
IV. He abolished standardised weights and measures.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) Only II (d) Only I
27. In which of the following years, the Prussian king, Kaiser William I was proclaimed German
Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles?
(a) January 1671 (b) January 1771 (c) January 1871 (d) January 1971
28. Identified the major idea that French armies carried abroad through revolutionary wars.
(a) Abolition of feudalism (b) Depotism
(c) Nationalism (d) War and Violence
29. Identify the food crop with the help of clues given below.
 an example of plantation agriculture
 requires warm and moist frost-free climate throughout the year
 requires abundant, cheep and skilled labour
(a) Oil seeds (b) Sugarcane (c) Coffee (d) Tea
30. What does Agenda 21 mean?
(a) It is an agreement between 10 developing countries on climate change.
(b) It is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the UN with regard to
sustainable development.
(c) It is a free trade between 8 developed countries.
31. Consider the following statements about the demerits of local government and select the
answer using the codes given below.
I. Local government lack sufficient serources.
II. Gram Sabha includes all the voters of a village.
III. Gram Sabhas are not organised regularly.
IV. Mostly state governments do not provide major powers to local governments.
Options:
32. By 1980s several political organisations were demanding an independent Tamil Eelan in which
parts of the Sri Lanka?
(a) Northern part (b) Eastern part (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Western part
Assertion (A): In a federal system, the central government orders the state government to do
something.
Reason (R): State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the
central government.
Options:
Column A Column B
I. Power shared by different social groups 1. Coatition government
II. Power shared among different government organs 2. Federal government
III. Power shared by two or more parties 3. Community government
IV. Power shared among governments at different 4. Separation of powers
levels
35. Which of the following organs plays a major role in overseeing the implementation of
constitutional provisions and procedures?
(a) Judiciary (b) Executive (c) Constitution (d) Legislature
36. Identify the country of Europe with the help of the following information.
• Its capital city is Stockholm.
• It is the fifth largest country in Europe.
• It does not share its boundary with Belgium.
(a) Germany (b) Sweden (c) Austria (d) Netherlands
37. Which of the following options prove that Sri Lanka and Belgium have power sharing
arrangements.
I. The Sri Lanka Tamils demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their
culture, language and equality rights.
II. The government policies in Sri Lanka sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhalas.
III. The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one stopped the
division of country on linguistic lines.
IV. Dutch-speaking people in Belgium tried to force their dominance on the minority French-
speaking people.
Options:
(a) II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III
38. Identify the correct statement/s about decentralisation after 1992 in India.
I. For SCs, STs and other OBCs no seats are reserved in the elected bodies.
II. As per the Constitution, it became mandatory to organise regular elections to local
government bodies.
III. Local government did not have power to resources of their own.
IV. The state governments have to share some powers and revenue with local government
bodies.
Options:
(a) II and IV (b) I and II (c) II and IV (d) I and IV

Assertion (A): GDP shows how big an economy is.
Reason (R): GDP is the value of all goods and services produced within the domestic territory
of a country in a year.
Options:
List I (Example) List II (Activities)
(a) Forestry Secondary activity
(b) Trade Primary activity
(c) Transport Tertiary activity
(d) Fishing Secondary activity
41. Read the following data carefully and select the correct answer from the given options.
Table for Comparison of Three Countries
Monthly income of citizens in 2019 (approx in Rupees)
Countries I II III IV V
Country A 11500 12000 10100 13000 12000
Country B 800 7000 700 600 700
Country C 500 10000 500 6500 3000
Which country has most equitable distribution of income?
(a) Country A (b) Country B (c) Country C (d) Both (b) and (c)
42. Which of the following are the example of service sector?
(a) Teachers (b) Doctors
(c) People who do administrative works, etc. (d) All of these
43. In the World Development Reports brought out by the World Bank, countries with per capita
income of US$ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries and those with
per capita income of US$ 955 or less are called low income countries. What is the criterion
of a developed country?
(a) Total income of that of the country
(b) Different populations of that of the country
(c) Average income of that of the country
(d) Being rich
44. According to the data given below, the share of three sectors in employment in India is
 Primary sector — 1 organised, 231 unorganised
 Secondary sector — 41 organised, 74 unorganised
 Tertiary sector — 40 organised, 88 unorganised
On the basis of the data, in which one of the following sectors employment opportunities have
been expanding very slowly?
(a) Unorganised sector (b) Organised sector
(c) Private sector (d) Public sector

Assertion (A): A state has a per capita income of ` 2,25,000 per annum. The infant mortality
rate in the state is cannot be considered a developed state.
Reason (R): There are medical facilities in the state, but people fail to take their children to
hospital in time.
Options:
46. What do final goods and services mean?
(a) Production of goods and services
(b) Those goods and services that finally reach the consumers
(c) Those goods and services that are out of reach of consumers
SECTION-C
Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?’
In a lecture delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the French philosopher Ernst Renan
(1823-92) outlined his understanding of what makes a nation. The lecture was subsequently published
as a famous essay entitled ‘Qu’est-ce qu’une nation?’ (‘What is a Nation?’). In this essay Renan
criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation is formed by a common language, race, religion,
or territory: ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A
heroic past, great men, glory, that is the social capital upon which one bases a national idea. To
have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the present, to have performed great
deeds together, to wish to perform still more, these are the essential conditions of being a people. A
nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity … Its existence is a daily plebiscite … A province is its
inhabitants; if anyone has the right to be consulted, it is the inhabitant. A nation never has any real
interest in annexing or holding on to a country against its will. The existence of nations is a good
thing, a necessity even. Their existence is a guarantee of liberty, which would be lost if the world
had only one law and only one master.
47. When was Ernst Renan born?
(a) 2 October 1892 (b) 27 February 1923 (c) 27 February 1892 (d) 15 March 1882
48. How are Nations formed according to Ernst Renan?
(a) Nations are formed by removing internal impediments to trade and enterprise.
(b) They are not formed only by common language, race, religion or territory.
(c) They are formed on social capital i.e., a heroic past, great men, glories, sacrifices and devotion.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ernst Renan was belonged to ________ who gave the idea of ‘What is a Nation’.
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) France (d) Greece

50. Why did Ernst Renan believe that the existence of nations is important?
(a) Because it secures parliamentary form of government to all inhabitant citizens.
(b) Because it secures employment and health to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) Because it secures protection to all inhabitant citizens.
(d) Because it secures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
51. What is plebiscite?
(a) It is a system of indirect vote by which the people of a religion, themselves decide to
accept or reject a proposal.
(b) It is a system of direct vote by which the people of a religion, themselves decide to accept
a proposal.
(c) It is a system of direct vote by which the people of a religion themselves decide to accept
or reject a proposal.
(d) It is a system in which people of a religion do not have power to accept or reject a proposal.
Assertion (A): Ernst Renan cleared his understanding about the nation.
Reason (R): A nation is always interested to hold on to a country against its will.
Options:
These soils are black in colour and are also known as regur soils. Black soil is ideal for growing
cotton and is also known as black cotton soil. It is believed that climatic condition along with the
parent rock material are the important factors for the formation of black soil. This type of soil is
typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up
of lawa flows. Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east
direction along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys. The black soils are made up of extremely
fine i.e. clayey material. They are wellknown for their capacity to hold moisture. In addition, they
are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime. These soils are
generally poor in phosphoric contents.
53. All types of soil are formed by the process of
(a) Deposition (b) Denudation (c) Weathering (d) All of these
54. Read the following statements and final the correct from the given options.
I. The entire northern plains are made of black soil.
II. The black soil develops under tropical and subtropical climate.
III. The black soil lacks phosphoric contents.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III only (d) II only
55. Black soils are rich in
(a) magnesium (b) calcium carbonate (c) lime and potash (d) All of these

56. Where is black soil found?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Saurashtra (d) All of these
57. Which type of soil has a good capacity to hold moisture?
(a) Laterite soil (b) Arid soil (c) Black soil (d) Forest soil
58. Where are Black soil common?
(a) Kashmir valley (b) Northern plains (c) Deccan Trap (d) Ganga valley
SECTION-D

B

A

(a) Bhakra Nangal (b) Nagarjuna Sagar (c) Tungabhadra (d) Tehri
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major jute producing state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Assam (b) Odisha (c) Bihar (d) West Bengal


SECTION-A
1. Who among the following had prepared a series of four prints called ‘The Dream of Worldwide
Democratic and Social Republics’?
(a) Giuesppe Garibaldi (b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Count Cavour (d) Andreas Rebmann
2. The cover of a German almanac designed by whom among the following journalists?
(a) Andreas Rebmann (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Karl Kaspar Fritz (d) Giacomo Mantegazza
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the French revolutionaries from the following
options.
(a) They introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective
identify.
(b) The ideas of la patrie and le citoyen.
(c) A new French flag was chosen to replace the former royal standard
(d) All of the above statements
4. In which of the following cities the French armies were initially welcomed?
(a) Brussels (b) Mainz (c) Vienna (d) Only (a) and (b)
5. Identify the female allegory which represented the peoples nations in France?
(a) Marianne (b) Macedonia (c) Germania (d) None of these
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the industries in India from the following options:
(a) Cotton – Srinagar (b) Jute – Jaipur
(c) Woollen – Ludhiana (d) Silk – Kanpur
7. The piece of land left cultivated for more than 5 years is called _________ .
(a) Cultruable waste land (b) Barren land
(c) Grazing land (d) Net sown area
8. What is jhumming cultivation called in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Dahiya (b) Kumari (c) Khil (d) Podu or Penda
9. Which of the following rivers have been deposited the alluvial soil in the northern plains of
India?
(a) Indus, Ganga and Narmada (b) Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari (d) Ganga, Mahanadi and Krishna
10. Which of the following crops is grown once a year?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton
(c) Rice (d) Pulses
G–41
11. In which of the following countries the majority community could impose its will on the entire
country?
(a) Belgium (b) Sri Lanka (c) Pakistan (d) Nepal
12. Identify the significant reason for adopted a majoritarianism Constitution in Sri Lanka?
(a) The Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their
majority.
(b) Most of the population in Sri Lanka wanted to dominance over government.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) The Sinhala community wanted to supress the Tamils.
13. Which country is an example of coming together federation?
(a) USA (b) Belgium (c) Sri Lanka (d) India
14. Which of the following Indian states enjoys special power under certain provisions of Article
371 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Assam (b) Nagaland
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) All of these
15. Population of Sri Lankan Tamils is concentrated in which of the following regions of
Sri Lanka?
(a) North and South (b) North and East (c) East and West (d) South and East
16. How many languages are included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 15 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 21
17. Which of the following years witnessed the rise of regional political parties in many states of
India?
(a) 1989 (b) 1985 (c) 1990 (d) 1992
18. Which of the following sectors generates services rather than goods?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Service sector
19. If the BMI of a boy aged 15 years and 6 month is 28, then he is
(a) Malnutrition (b) Average weight (c) Overweight (d) Underweight
20. Which of the following measures the proprotion of literate population in the 7 and above age
group?
(a) Net Education Ratio (b) Literacy Rate
(c) People Education Rate (d) All India Literacy Rate
21. Which of the following sectors is the largest employer in India?
(a) IT Sector (b) Primary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) Tertiary Sector
22. Among Haryana, Kerala and Bihar, the lowest per capita income state is Bihar. It shows that
(a) Bihar has high standard of living. (b) People are earning less in Kerala.
(c) Maharashtra has more number of rich people.
(d) On an average, people in Bihar have low income.
23. Which sector helps in the development of the primary and secondary sectors?
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) None of these

24. Read the given statements in context of ‘National development’ and choose the correct option.
(a) It is measured by National Income.
(b) It is measured by Average Income and Per Capita Income.
(c) It is measured by Human Development Index.
(d) It is measured by Net Attendance Ratio.
SECTION-B
25. Following image is a personality who along with other officials gathered on 18 January 1871
in the Hall of Mirrors. Which of the options best embarks this caricature?
Options:
(a) Napoleon in the French Parliament
(b) Otto von Bismarck in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
(c) Victor Emmanuel II in the Prussian Parliament
(d) Kaiser William II in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
26. Which of the following option (s) is/are correct about the nation-building process in Germany?
I. The Prussian king Willian I was proclaimed German Emperor.
II. The new state placed a strong emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal and
and judicial systems in Germany.
III. Prussian measures and practices often became a model for the rest of Germany.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) Only II (d) I, II and III
27. Why did the female figure become an allegory of the nation? Identify the appropriate reason
from the following options.
(a) The female did not stand for any particular woman in real life.
(b) The female sought to give the abstract idea of the nation a concrete form.
(d) The female represented the ideas such as Liberty, ‘Justice and the Republic.

28. Identify the major aspect that incorporated Ireland into United Kingdom.
(a) Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed.
(b) The revolt led by Wolfe Tone and his United Kingdom was forcibly supressed.
(d) The British declared war against Ireland.
29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below.
 requires high temperature
 is a Kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature
 grows well in black soil
(a) Rubber (b) Cotton (c) Rice (d) Maize
30. Which of the following is not the soil conservation method?
(a) Terracing of slopes (b) Strip cropping
(c) Contour ploughing (d) None of these
31. Consider the following statements about the power sharing and select the answer using the
codes given below.
I. Power sharing upholds the spirit of democracy.
II. It reduces the possibilities of conflicts between social groups.
III. It ensures political stability in the long run.
IV. It is the kind of balancing powers.
(a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
32. Which are the two major ethnic groups of Belgium?
(a) French and German (b) Dutch and French
(c) Dutch and German (d) None of these
Assertion (A): Community government in Belgium is elected by one language community.
Reason (R): Community government helped in resolving conflict between different linguistic
groups.
Options:
Column A Column B
I. Foreign Affairs 1. State List
II. Agriculture 2. Concurrent List
III. Computer Software 3. Union List
IV. Forests 4. Residuary Subjects


35. Many states have been created between 1947 and 2019. Some states were created to recognise
differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography. On this basis, which of the following
states carve(s) out? Select the appropriate option.
(a) Nagaland (b) Jharkhand (c) Uttarakhand (d) All of these
36. Identify the local government bodies with the help of the following information.
• At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
• An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created for
conducting elections to these bodies.
• The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with these bodies.
(a) Panchayati Raj System (b) Municipality
(c) Municipal Corporation (d) All of these
37. Which of the following options prove the impact of the civil war in Sri Lanka?
I. Thousands of people of both the Sinhala community and Tamil community were killed.
II. Finally preferences were given to Sinhala applicants for university positions and
government jobs.
III. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their
livelihoods.
IV. It caused a terrible setback to the social, cultural and economic lives of the country.
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
38. Identify the correct statement/s about of federal system of the government.
I. A federation has two levels of government, and the central and state governments are
separately answerable to the people.
II. Federations are considered with unitary system.
III. In federal system, the central government can pass orders to the provincial or the local
government.
IV. In this system, the state government is answerable to the central government.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
Assertion (A): A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or human
development in a country.
Reason (R): Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health
facilities and public facilities in a country.

Options:
List I (Example) List II (Sectors)
(a) Washerman Service sector
(b) Forestry Tertiary sector
(c) Banking Secondary sector
(d) Manufactured goods Tertiary sector
41. Read the given data which gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil. Select the correct option
which defines how it is essential for the development process of a country.
Region/Country Reserves (2017) Number of Years
(Thousand Million Barrels) Reserves will last
Middle East 808 70
United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2
(a) If prices of crude oil increase this becomes a burden for all.
(b) Reserves of crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more.
(c) Middle East and USA may face energy crisis in future due to exhaustion of crude oil.
(d) Crude oil is a major source of energy for agriculture and industrial development.
42. Rahul works in a small shop. Like him, many people work in the unorganised sector. Which
of the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) Jobs are low paid. (b) It ensures security of employment.
(c) It provides medical benefits. (d) Terms of employment are regular.
43. Every year government can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people.
Recognising this, the Government of India passed on Act in 2005. Which of the following
options is that Act?
(a) Right to Work Act (b) MGNREGA
(c) PMRY Act (d) Central Employment Act
44. As per the workers in different sectors (in millions) the data shown only for organised sector
is
 Primary Sector — 0.12% (approx.)
 Secondary Sector — 50% (approx.)
 Tertiary Sector — 48.8% (approx.)
Out of the three sectors, why did employment in the secondary sector increase?
(a) An increase in machinary on farms.
(b) People tend to migrate to urban areas to get jobs in factories.
(c) Most people are engaged in agricultural activities.
(d) All of the above are correct reasons.

Assertion (A): There are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated
workers.
Reason (R): Not all of the service sector is growing equally well.
Options:
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true
46. National development is measured by which of the following?
(a) Average Income and Per Capita Income (b) Net Attendance Ratio
(c) National Income (d) Human Development Index
SECTION-C
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over
several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of the
nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont,
was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was
ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of
Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional
and local variations.
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary
Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his
goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell
on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through
war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of
economic development and political dominance.
47. Who among the following did not play any role in the process of unification of Italy?
(a) Napoleon (b) Cavour (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Garibaldi
48. Who among the following led the process of the unification of Italy?
(a) Venetia (b) Papal State (c) Sardinia-Piedmont (d) None of these
49. Fill in the blank from the given option.
During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into __________ states.
(a) Six (b) Five (c) Eight (d) Seven
50. Who formed ‘Young Italy’, a secret society?
(a) Emmanuel II (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Camillo de Cavour (d) Frederic Sorrieu
51. What do you know about Giuseppe Mazzini?
(a) He was a Russian revolutionary. (b) He was a French revolutionary.
(c) He was an Italian revolutionary. (d) He was a Prussian revolutionary.

Assertion (A): Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
Reason (R): The centre was ruled by the Bourbon kings of Spain while the north was under
the Pope.
Options:
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April
to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Through,
these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-western parts such as
Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir (UT), Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh
are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of precipitation during
winter months due to the western temperate cyclones help in the success of these crops. However,
the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and Parts of Rajasthan
has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops.
Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are
harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize,
jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean. Some of the most
important rice growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh,
Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Karala and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan coast) along with Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar. Recently, paddy has also become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana.
In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These
are Aus, Aman and Boro.
53. Which of the following crops grown in rabi season?
(a) Wheat, barley, gram, maize (b) Gram, wheat, peas, barley
(c) Peas, paddy, cotton, jute (d) Bajra, paddy, wheat, watermelon
I. Gram, wheat, barley and peas are rabi crops.
II. Kharif crops are harvested in September-October.
III. In Assam, two crops of paddy are grown in a year.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I only (d) III only
55. This important kharif crop is used both for food and fodder–
(a) Maize (b) Barley (c) Muskmelon (d) Wheat
56. Which of the following is not a kharif crop?
(a) Arhar (b) Moong (c) Mustard (d) Cotton
57. The staple food of India is
(a) Soyabean (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Gram
58. Boro, Aus and Aman are types of which of the following crops?
(a) Paddy (b) Bajra (c) Maize (d) Jowar

SECTION-D
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
A
32°
32°
28° 28°
24°
24°
B
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
59. On the political map of India. ‘A’ is marked as a union territory of Jammu and Kashmir where
a kind of soil is found. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Forest and mountainous soil (b) Alluvial soil
(c) Arid soil (d) Black soil
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is marked as a major rice producing state. Identify it from the following
options.
(a) Kerala (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) West Bengal (d) Rajasthan


SECTION-A
1. Which of the following artists prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world?
(a) Frederic Sorrieu (b) Berthe Morisot (c) Auguste Rodin (d) Edgar Degas
2. Leading the procession, way past the Statue of Liberty, the peoples of Germany were bearing
which of the following flags?
(a) Black (b) Red (c) Gold (d) Black, red and gold
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the provisions of the Treaty of Vienna, 1815.
(a) The Bourbon dynasty was restored to power.
(b) Germany lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(c) Two new states was set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in
future.
(d) Belgium was set up in the south and Genoa was added to Piedomont in the north.
4. In 1789 France was under the rule of
(a) federal government (b) an absolute monarch
(c) socialist (d) capitalist
5. Identify the year in which Napoleon invaded Italy and Napoleonic wars were begun?
(a) 1758 (b) 1797 (c) 1799 (d) 1801
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and their categories or names from the
following options:
(a) Golden fibre – Jute (b) Fibre crop – rubber
(c) Food crop – Cotton (d) Non-food crop – Rice
7. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised is called ___________ .
(a) Developed Resources (b) Stock Resources
(c) Potential Resources (d) Reserve Resources
8. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing
9. Which one of the following is not the basis of the classification of resources?
(a) Origin (b) Shape (c) Ownership (d) Exhaustibility
10. Which crop is harvested in the months of September-October?
(a) Zaid (b) Rabi (c) Kharif (d) None of these
11. Which of the following compositions of the Belgium is very complex?
(a) Ethinic (b) Population (c) Religions (d) Sect
G–50
12. Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based
on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies
(b) Legislature, Executive, Judiciary
(c) Among different social groups
(d) Among different pressure groups
13. When the power is shared among governments at different levels it is called–
(a) Horizontal Government (b) Federal Government
(c) Unitary Government (d) Democratic Government
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘holding together’ federations?
(a) USA (b) Belgium (c) Australia (d) Switzerland
15. In which of the following forms of government, the citizens must have freedom to choose
among various contenders for power?
(a) Democratic Government (b) Republic Government
(c) Dictatorial Government (d) Majoritarian Government
16. Which of the following plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of
constitutional provisions and procedures?
(a) Legislative (b) Judiciary (c) Executive (d) Only (a) and (c)
17. Which type of powers does the Community Government to Belgum enjoy?
(a) The government has the power regarding culture related issue
(b) The government has the power regarding education related issue
(c) The government has the power regarding language related issue
18. Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present and future use is
known as
(a) Sustainable development (b) Planned development
(c) Human Development Index (d) Development
19. Which of the following helps in maintaining the nutritional levels of poor people by proving
food at lower cost.
(a) BMI (Body Mass Index) (b) PDS (Public Distribution System)
(c) GNI (Gross National Income) (d) HDI (Human Development Index)
20. Which of the following objectives is not mentioned in the MGNREGA 2005?
(a) To give at least 100 days of guaranteed work in rural areas.
(b) It is required to provide employment within 10 km of an applicant’s home and to pay
maximum wage.
(c) If government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment
allowances to the people.
(d) To flourish durable assets like roads, canals, ponds and wells.
21. Which of the following is not an important goal of people’s life?
(a) Good education (b) Blood donation
(c) High salaried job (d) Facilities for going abroad

22. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the correct
option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
23. In which of the following sectors where the terms of employment are regular and, therefore,
people have assured work?
(a) Service sector (b) Government sector
(c) Unorganised sector (d) Organised sector
24. The Infant Mortality Rate of Odisha or ..................... is higher than some of the poorest regions
of the world.
(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar
SECTION-B
25. Following image represents here as a postman who had reformed
the French legal system. Identify its name from among the following
options.

(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) Karl Marx
26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Ernst Renan?
I. He was a German philosopher who gave the idea of ‘what is a nation’.
II. He was a French philosopher.
III. He gave the idea of ‘what is a nation’.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) Only I
27. Which of the following treaties recognized Greece as an independent nation?
(a) Treaty of Sevres (b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Lausanne (d) Treaty of Constantinople
28. Identify the correct statement about the liberal nationalists of Europe from the options given
below.
(a) They emphasized the concept of government by the consent of the people.
(b) They criticized the glorification of science.
(c) They created a sense of collective heritage.
(d) They did not stand for the freedom of markets.

29. Identify the soils with help of clues given below.

 They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
 The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar.
 After proper irrigation these soils become cultivable.
(a) Laterite soils (b) Forest soils (c) Arid soils (d) Black soils
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put pasture lands in?
(a) Reserve Resources (b) Community-owned resources
(c) Individual resources (d) National Resources
31. Consider the following statements on accommodation in Belgium and select the answer using
the codes given below.
I. The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers shall
be equal in the central government.
II. No single community can make decisions unilaterally.
III. The state governments are not subordinate to the central government.
IV. The government followed preferential policies towards Dutch people.
Options:
32. How does union government supervise over state government?
(a) The Governor is the representative of union government in the state.
(b) If any laws conflict over State list, the law mode by the union government will prevail.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Assertion (A) : When the power is taken away from control and state governments and given
to local government, it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R) : The basis idea behind decentralisation is that there is a large number of problems
and issues which are best settled at the local level.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaination of A.
Column A Column B
I. Sri Lanka 1. BAMCEF
II. Belgium 2. Community government
III. Pressure group 3. Sinhala
IV. Belgian model of power sharing 4. Complex ethnic composition



35. Hindi is the mother tongue of about 40 per cent of Indians. Besides Hindi, how many other
languages recognised as scheduled languages by the Indian Constitution?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 20 (d) 21
36. Identify the community on the basis of their demands in the government of Sri Lanka.
• Demand of recognition as an official language.
• Equal opportunities for them in government jobs and educational institutions.
• Provincial autonormy for their dominated provinces.
(a) Buddhists (b) Tamils (c) Sinhalas (d) Muslims
37. Identify the correct statements(s) about the language policy of the government.
I. The Constitution of India did not give the status of national language.
II. Beside Hindi, these are 20 other language recognised as scheduled language.
III. The Government of India continues the use of English along with Hindi for official
purposes.
IV. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India.
Options:
(a) I, III and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
38. Identify the correct statement(s) about the key feature(s) of federalism.
I. There are two or more levels or tiers of government.
II. The jurisdictions of the respective levels of government are specified in the constitution.
III. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution.
IV. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Assertion (A) : Different people having different developmental goals.
Reason (R) : Different people having different life situations.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaination of A.
List I (Example) List II (Sectors)
(a) Dairy farming Secondary sector
(b) Convert soil into bricks Primary sector
(c) Agriculture Tertiary sector
(d) Registered big units Organised sector
from the given options.
Organised sector Unorganised sector Total
No. of workers 4,00,000 11,00,000 15,00,000
Income 32,000 million 28, 000 million 60,000 million

A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in
the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-1998) was ` 60,000
million. Out of this, ` 32,000 million was generated in the organised sector.
Identify what kind of way(s) should be thought of for generating more employment in the
city.
(a) More companies need to be brought under organised sector so that workers from
unorganised sector may get jobs these with higher and more secure wages.
(b) The government must provide loans and aid to companies transferring from unorganised
to organised sectors.
42. Which one of the following goals is an aspiration for urban unemployed youth?
(a) More opportunity for higher education
(b) A permanent white collar job.
(c) Having a self owned home to live in.
43. There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. For the growth
of some plants, we depend mainly, but not entirely on natural factors like rainfall, sunshine
and climate. Find out when we produce a product using natural resources, it refers to which
of the following sectors?
(a) Primary sector (b) Industrial sector (c) Service sector (d) Public sector
44. According to 2018-19 data, the infant mortality rate (IMR) and literacy rate of Kerala, Bihar
and Haryana are:
 Kerala — 10 (IMR), 94 (literacy rate)
 Bihar — 35 (IMR), 62 (literacy rate)
 Haryana — 30 (IMR), 82 (literacy rate)
The infant mortality rate (IMR) is lowest in Bihar while the literacy rate is highest in Kerala.
What does it indicate?
(a) Bihar and Kerala lack essential necessities in life.
(b) The standard of living in Bihar is better than Kerala.
(c) The standard of living in Kerala is better than Bihar.
(d) Mostly people in Bihar and Kerala have good living condition.
Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.
Reason (R): Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished over a period of time.
Options:
46. Kamal works in the sector that includes a large number of people who are employed on their
own doing small jobs. The given statement is talking about which of the following options?
(a) Unorganised Sector (b) Private Sector
(c) Service Sector (d) Organised Sector.
SECTION-C
10 questions from this section)
The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France, as you
would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch.
The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the
transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed
that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices
that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la patrie
(the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying
equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former
royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the
National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in
the name of the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated
uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished
and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged
and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
47. The first expression of nationalism came with which of the following revolutions?
(a) The Russian Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) Greek War of Independence (d) The American Revolution
48. When did the French Revolution take place?
(a) In 1889 (b) In 1789 (c) In 1788 (d) In 1751
The idea of la patrie mean ___________ .
(a) The fatherland (b) The motherland (c) The citizen (d) The constitution
50. Identify the purpose of the French revolutionaries from the following options:
(a) To establish republic (b) To provide equal rights for all
(c) To create a sense for collective responsibility
51. Which of the following measures was not adopted by the French revolutionaries?
(a) Ideas of la patrie and le citoyen (b) The tricolour French flag
(c) Hymns composed (d) Regional dialects were encouraged
Assertion (A) : The major changes that came with the French Revolution led to the transfer
of sovereignty from the monarchy to the body of French people.

Reason (R) : External customs duties were abolished and a uniform system of measures was
abandoned.
Options:
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a
country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions
which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are
some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and
there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states
of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal
Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of
Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold
desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage
but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource
planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.
Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventory of resources
across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative
estimation and measurement of the resources (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with
appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
53. Which of the following is not essential for a developed region?
(a) Availability of resources (b) Valuation of resources
(c) Utilisation of resources (d) Valuation of planning
54. Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options:
I. Rajasthan has abundance of solar and wind energy.
II. Jharkhand, Ladakh and Tripura are very rich in minerals and coal deposits.
III. Arunachal Pradesh is also rich in infrastructural development.
(a) II and III (b) I and II (c) I Only (d) III Only
55. The state of Rajasthan lacks in
(a) Water resources (b) Soil resources
(c) Biotic resources (d) Potential resources
56. Which of the following processes is involved in Resource Planning?
(a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
(b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans
57. Which of the following union territories is isolated from other parts of India despite of its very
rich cultural heritage?
(a) Goa (b) Chandigarh
(c) Ladakh (d) Andaman and Nicobar

58. Which two famous coal deposits are located in Jharkhand?

(a) Bokaro and Jharia (b) Raniganj and Bokaro
(c) Singrauli and Korba (d) Jharia and Singrauli
SECTION-D
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
28° 28°
24°
A
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
(a) Hirakud (b) Rana Pratap Sagar (c) Tungabhadra (d) Sardar Sarovar
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is marked as a major coffee cultivating state. Identify it from the following
options.
(a) Karnataka (b) Assam (c) West Bengal (d) Gujarat

ANSWERS TO SAMPLE PAPERS 2 TO 6

Sample Paper–2
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a)
9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c)
17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (b)
33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a)
57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (d)
Sample Paper–3
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b)
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (b)
33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (b)
57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c)
Sample Paper–4
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a)
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (c)
33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d)
57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (d)
Sample Paper–5
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d)
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b)
17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (d) 32. (d)
G–59
33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c)
49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (c)
57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
Sample Paper–6
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b)
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d)
57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (a)
G–60

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Note from the Publishers

Social Science Sample Papers-X (Term-1) is based on the CBSE syllabus

Features of Sample Papers

2. Sample Paper 2....................................................................................................... G–13

3. Sample Paper 3....................................................................................................... G–23

4. Sample Paper 4....................................................................................................... G–32

5. Sample Paper 5....................................................................................................... G–41

6. Sample Paper 6....................................................................................................... G–50

l Answers to Sample Papers 2 to 6....................................................................................... G–59

G–2 n Social Science-X

(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.

Sample Paper–1 n G–3

G–4 n Social Science-X

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Sample Paper–1 n G–7

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Sample Paper–1 n G–9

36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°

72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°

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Marking Scheme of Sample Paper-1

41. (b) Has most equitable distribution of income.

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Time Allowed: 90 Minutes 

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Sample Paper – 2 n G–15

 has a good capacity to hold moisture

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Reason (R): Belgian Government favoured French-speaking community.

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III. People have better knowledge of their own.

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42. The calculation of per capita income of all countries is made in

Sample Paper – 2 n G–19

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Sample Paper – 2 n G–21

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Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

12. Identify the guardian of the Indian Constitution?

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23. Information and Technology is a part of which sector?

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Sample Paper – 3 n G–27

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Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Sample Paper – 4 n G–33

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Sample Paper – 4 n G–37

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Sample Paper – 4 n G–39

56. Where is black soil found?

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Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes