PMC 2022 PRACTICE TEST 03

BIOLOGY-68
1. A virus has its of genome which is enclosed by a 10. When two amino acids such as glycine and alanine
protein coat, called: are variously arranged to make dipeptides. How many
a. Spore different dipeptide combinations can be produced?
b. Capsid a. 1
c. Envelop b. 2
d. Shell c. 3
d. 4
2. Viruses are able to recognize the host surface by
means of their: 11. Which of the following bonds maintain the primary
a. Capsid structure of a protein
b. Spikes a. Hydrogen bonds
c. DNA b. Peptide bonds
d. RNA c. Disulphide bonds
d. Hydrophobic interaction
3. Reverse transcriptase of HIV is used in:
a. Conversion of viral RNA into viral DNA 12. Maximum how many carbon atoms does an
b. Conversion of viral RNA into host DNA oligosaccharide contain?
c. Conversion of viral DNA into viral RNA a. 3
d. Conversion of host DNA into viral DNA b. 7
c. 70
4. Human immunodeficiency virus is: d. Many thousands

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a. An RNA enveloped virus

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b. A DNA enveloped virus 13. Cholesterol is not present in______

. c
c. An RNA non-enveloped virus a. milk

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d. An DNA non-enveloped virus b. egg white

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c. egg yolk

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5. In aerobic respiration, chemiosmosis occurs d. fish

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during :

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a. Electron transport chain 14. Hydrogen bonding produces a regular coiled

a
b. Photo phosphorylation arrangement in proteins called

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c. Glycolysis a. α-helix
d. Krebs's cycle b. β-helix

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c. Tertiary conformation

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6. One ATP molecule contains 1% of total energy of d. Quaternary structure

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glucose, In anaerobic reactions how much energy
of glucose is released as ATP : 15. Which of the following is correct about globular
a. 1% proteins?
b. 2% a. Insoluble in water
c. 36% b. Elastic in nature
d. 38% c. Can be crystalized
d. their final structure is secondary
7. Which of the following is the final electron
acceptor in respiratory electron transport chain? 16. Which cell organelle is incorrectly matched with its
a. NADP+ function?
b. Molecular oxygen a. Chloroplast – carbon fixation
c. PS-I b. Mitochondria – ATP synthesis
d. PS-II c. Cell membrane – cell recognition
d. Golgi apparatus – intracellular digestion
8. Neil investigation on photosynthesis was carried
on : 17. Which interactions are responsible for the
a. Cyanobacteria formation of lipid bilayer in the watery environment of
b. Angiosperms the body?
c. Algae a. Hydrophobic interactions between fatty acid tails
d. Bacteria b. Hydrophobic interactions between phosphate heads
c. Hydrophilic interactions between fatty acid tails
9. Which of the following is milk sugar? d. Hydrogen bonding between fatty acid tails
a. Sucrose
b. Lactose 18. Which of the following is responsible for giving
c. Maltose firmness and box-like shape to plant cells?
d. Starch a. Cell wall
b. Cell wall and vacuole
c. Nucleus and vacuole
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 19. Golgi complex was discovered by which 28. Which of the following is second largest part of the
scientist? brain?
a. Robert Brown a. Cerebellum
b. Camillo Golgi b. Cerebrum
c. De Duve c. Hypothalamus
d. Robert Hooke d. Thalamus

20. Which of these is the right combination of 29. Which of the following is true about cnidarians?
molecules which make up the secondary cell wall in a. They are deuterostomic animals
plant cells? b. They are triploblastic animals
a. Cellulose, lignin and xylem c. They are protostomous animals
b. Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin d. They are diploblastic animals
c. Cellulose only
d. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin 30. Which of the following animal phylum is included in
series deuterostomia?
21. Which of the following is the system of a. Platyhelminthes
elongated sac like structures (cisternae) or tubes b. Annelida
linking the cell surface membrane and the nuclear c. Chordata
envelope? d. Mollusca
a. Microtubules
b. Endoplasmic reticulum 31. Which of the following invertebrate phylum consists
c. Golgi complex of the most abundant species on planet Earth:
d. Microfilaments a. Porifera
b. Cnidaria
22. Which one of the following can easily pass c. Arthropoda
through plasma membrane d. Mollusca

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a. Fat soluble substances

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b. Proteins 32. Which among the following lacks the nervous system

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c. Highly charged materials a. Flat worms

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d. Polysaccharides b. Annelida

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c. Cnidaria

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23. Endemic goiter relates to which altered d. Sponge

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function?

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a. Increased Pancreas function 33. The enzyme-substrate complex is formed in which

a
b. Increased Thyroid function part of the enzyme molecule?

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c. Decreased Pancreas function a. Binding site
d. Decreased Thyroid function b. Allosteric site

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c. Catalytic site

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24. How many hormones does the Islets of d. On all over the surface of enzyme

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Langerhans secrete?
a. 1 34. In non-competitive inhibition, the extent of inhibition
b. 2 depends only on?
c. 3 a. Concentration of enzyme
d. 4 b. Concentration of substrate
c. Concentration of ES complex
25. The anterior part of cerebral hemisphere located d. Concentration of inhibitor
in the cerebrum is classified as?
a. Ganglion bulbs 35. When the salivary amylase is reached in stomach
b. Axon bulbs cavity:
c. Dendrite bulbs a. It becomes an apoenzyme
d. Olfactory bulbs b. It is denatured
c. It participates in protein digestion
26. Grave’s disease is produced due to which of the d. It remains unaffected
following?
a. Under Secretion of thyroxine 36. Which of the following may attach on active site of an
b. Under Secretion of corticosteroids enzyme?
c. Overproduction of corticosteroids a. Products
d. Overproduction of thyroxine b. Coenzyme
c. Activator
27. Insufficient secretion of thyroxine in adults d. Inhibitor
causes which of the following disorders?
a. Myxedema 37. Which of the following part of enzyme recognize the
b. Cretinism substrate?
c. Goiter a. Binding site
d. Addison’s disease b. Active site
c. Catalytic site
d. Overall structure of an enzyme
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 38. Which of the following shows significant effect 47. Iliac vein from the lower limb’s unit to form:
of Genetic drift ? a. Vena cava
a. Animal population b. Renal vein
b. Plant population c. Hepatic portal vein
c. Large population d. Cardiac vein
d. Small population
48. Plasma proteins synthesized in:
39. Which of the following was proposed by a. Gall bladder
Lamarck in his theory? b. Liver
a. Overproduction c. Spleen
b. struggle for existence d. Skin
c. Natural selection
d. Use and disuse of organs 49. A bacterial cell envelop does not include :
a. Slime
40. Most likely, people who perform tough manual b. Campsule
work can develop c. Cell wall
a. thick subcutaneous fat in their palms d. Cell membrane
b. greater quantity of melanin all over the body
c. Strong calf muscles 50. A periplasmic space is:
d. certain acquired characters a. The space between outer membrane and peptidoglycan
layer of cell wall
41. According to Darwin, the most critical factor for b. The space between cell membrane and cell wall
evolution is: c. The space within the cell
a. Migration d. The space between phospholipid bilayer
b. Mutation
c. Natural selection 51. Which of the following bacteria are also called

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d. Genetic drift recyclers of nature?

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a. Pathogenic bacteria

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42. Lungs are spongy due to the presence of million b. Parasitic bacteria

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of? c. Photosynthetic bacteria

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a. Alveoli d. Saprotrophic bacteria

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b. Parabronchi

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c. Air sacs 52. A chemical which is applied on non living surface in

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d. Bronchioles order to control bacteria is called:

a
a. Disinfectants

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43. Functional units of lungs are called which of the b. Antiseptic
following? c. Vaccines

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a. Alveoli d. Antibiotics

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b. Parabronchi

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c. Air sacs 53. Which of the following is true about staphylococcus?
d. Bronchioles a. It is chain of spherical bacteria
b. It is bunch of spherical bacteria
44. Which of the following fish drink large amount of c. It is square of spherical bacteria
seawater and excrete concentrated urine resulting d. It is cube of spherical bacteria
in maximum salt excretion and minimal water loss?
a. Hagfish 54. End of menstrual cycle in old age is called?
b. Freshwater fish a. Menarche
c. Bony fish b. Abortion
d. Cartilaginous fishes c. Menopause
d. Telophase
45. Which respiration is directly involved in the
production of energy, necessary for all living 55. The union of meiotically produced specialized sex
activities? cells from each parents produce?
a. Organismic a. Corpus luteum
b. Cellular b. Embryo
c. Breathing c. Zygote
d. External respiration d. Neuroglial cells

46. The mechanism of regulation, generally between 56. Which of the following is the number of
organism and its environment, of solutes and the chromosomes in human zygote?
gain and the loss of water is called? a. n
a. Hemostasis b. 2n
b. Homeostasis c. 3n
c. Osmoregulation d. 4n
d. Thermoregulation

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 57. In reproduction, semen refers to which of the 67. Which of the following is the wildtype phenotype of
following? eye color in Drosophila
a. Fluid and sperms a. Black eyes
b. Blood cells and plasma b. White eyes
c. Blood and sperms c. Light red eyes
d. Egg and sperms d. Bright red eyes

58. Which of the following part of sperm cell 68. Which of the following disease has greater incidence
penetrates into the ovum during fertilization? in human male than female?
a. Cytoplasm a. Hemophilia
b. Nucleus b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Acrosome c. Thalassemia
d. Mitochondria d. Cretinism

59. Hip joint and shoulder joint are the examples of:
a. Ball and Socket Joint
PHYSICS-54
b. Hinge Joint 69. If the bird catches its prey from a height which was
c. Fibrous joint initially at rest then momentum will conserve for:
d. Cartilaginous joints a. Bird
b. Prey
60. Cardiac tissue is made up of : c. Either bird and prey
a. Cardiac muscle d. Both bird and prey
b. Smooth muscles
c. Skeletal muscles 70. A wagon of mass 1000 kg moves 50 km/h on smooth
d. Gut muscles rails. Later, a mass of 250 kg is placed in the wagon.
What is the velocity with which it moves?

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61. The composition of skeletal muscle is:

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a. 20 km/h

c
a. Myosin only b. 50 km/h

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b. Actin only

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c. 40 km/h

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c. Actin, myosin and troponin d. 25 km/h

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d. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin

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71. A force of 50 dynes is acted on a body of mass 5 g

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62. The skeletal system consists of: which is at rest for an interval of 3 seconds, then impulse

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a. All bones in body is

a
b. All muscles and tendons a. 0.00015 N.s

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c. All body organs both soft and hard tissues b. 0.0015 N.s
d. All the bones in the body and tissues that connect

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c. 0.15 N.s
them d. 1.5 N.s

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63. What is the ratio of homozygous to
heterozygous individuals in F2 generation of
monohybrid cross
72. The total momentum of a flock of identical birds could
be zero only if the birds are:
a. Taking off from the ground
a. 1 ratio 1 b. Flying in the same direction
b. 1 ratio 2 c. Flying in different directions
c. 1 ratio 3 d. Very tired and coming down to rest
d. 3 ratio 1
73. Which of the following quantities has no effect on
64. The genetic information for a specific character simple projectile motion?
is detrrmined by a. Velocity
a. Genome b. Force
b. Transposon c. Mass
c. Gene d. Acceleration
d. Trait
74. If a particle launched with 5m/s at angle of 45 degree,
65. Blood group AB negative can receive: then time of flight is:
a. Blood group A positive a. 1.44 s
b. Blood group B positive b. 0.72 s
c. Blood group O positive c. 0.6 s
d. Any of the negative blood group d. 0.5 s

66. Blood group O negative can receive:

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 75. Kinetic energy of an oscillating simple 85. The sound waves have no:
pendulum at the equilibrium positionis: a. Frequency of the wave
a. Maximum b. Energy
b. Minimum c. Nodes
c. Zero d. Intensity
d. Information insufficient
86. Sound waves are considered as____ waves:
76. A car and a train both have same kinetic energy. a. Compressional
Which one has greater momentum? b. Transverse
a. Car c. Longitudinal
b. Train d. Shock
c. Both have same
d. No change 87. Stationary waves are produced by:
a. Reflection
77. Unit of power in british engineering system is: b. Interference
a. Horse power c. Diffraction
b. Watt d. Rarefaction
c. Kilowatt
d. Joule 88. When two ends of string are struck together
simultaneously such that two troughs are traveling
78. A 10kW motor pumps out water from a well 10 towards each other, than at reaching the centre of string
meter deep. What is the quantity of water pumped ____ is formed:
out per second? a. Higher amplitude
a. 9.2 kg b. Lower amplitude
b. 9.5 kg c. Waves die immediately
c. 10.2 kg d. Troughs converted to crest

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d. 10.8 kg

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89. Waves which always need medium to travel are

.
79. The acceleration produced by the centripetal _______ waves:

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force is always: a. Light

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a. Directed parallel to the center of the circle b. Stationary

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b. Directed perpendicular to the center of the circle c. Sound

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c. Directed towards the center of the circle d. Both sound and stationary
d. Directed away from the center of the circle

a
90. For a monatomic ideal gas of 6 mole Cp /Cv :

. p
80. The earth rotates 360∘ about its axis in about 24 a. 1.4
hours. By how many degrees will it rotate in 2 b. 1.67

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hours? c. 5

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a. 90 d. 3

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b. 60
c. 30 91. Cp for monatomic gas in terms of R is:
d. 15 a. 3/5 R
b. 5/3 R
81. The direction associated with angular c. 5/4 R
displacement is given by: d. 5/2 R
a. Left-hand rule
b. Head to tail rule 92. Cp = 49 J/K.mole and Cv= 35 J/K,mol then what type
c. Right-hand rule of gas is this?
d. Fleming left hand rule a. Diatomic
b. Monatomic
82. Centripetal force is provided by________ in a c. Triatomic
frictional road around a circular path: d. Nonlinear triatomic
a. Friction force
b. Normal force 93. Which of the following forces are only attractive?
c. Gravitational force a. Electrostatic forces
d. Pseudo forces b. Gravitational forces
c. Magnetic forces
83. Speed of sound does not depend on: d. Forces between same poles of magnet
a. Pressure
b. Density 94. Which of the following forces are non conservative?
c. Adiabatic index a. Electric force
d. Amplitude b. Gravitational force
c. Frictional forces
84. The speed of sound cannot be greater than: d. Elastic spring force
a. Speed of shock wave
b. Speed of light
c. Speed of water wave
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 95. Parallel combination of two capacitor C1 and C2 105. The specific resistance of a conductor increases
is: with:
a. C1+ C2 a. Increase in temperature
b. (C1)(C2) b. Increase in cross-sectional area
c. (C1C2)/(C1+C2) c. Decrease in length
d. C1/C2 d. Decrease in cross-sectional area

96. Charge inside conductor is: 106. When two magnets come closer such that same
a. Possible poles face each other than field lines:
b. Can be greater than zero a. Intersect
c. Zero b. Repel
d. Negative always c. Come closer
d. Nothing will happen
97. The electric flux through a closed surface
depends upon the: 107. When two positive charge particles moves towards
a. Size of the surface each other in opposite direction:
b. Shape of the surface a. Repulsion occurs
c. Position of charge enclosed in the surface b. Attraction occurs
d. Magnitude of charge enclosed in the surface c. Nothing will happen
d. Charge will be neutralized
98. Electric potential determines the flow of?
a. Atom 108. When two positive and negative particles are
b. Molecule moving opposite to each other in uniform magnetic
c. Compound field:
d. Charge a. Deflection occurs
b. Attraction occurs

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99. In parallel plate capacitor Capacitance depends c. Repulsion occurs

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on: d. Nothing will happen

.
a. Charge

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b. Electric field 109. The induced emf will oppose the flux producing it

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c. Voltage is according to:

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d. Cross-sectional area a. Gravitational law

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b. Coulomb law

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100. Ohm’s law is valid at _______ temperatures c. Newton’s law

a
a. Constant d. Lenze’s law

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b. Varying
c. Low 110. The Lenz’s law is used to find out the direction of

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d. High a. Current induced in circuit

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b. Potential energy

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101. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide c. Magnetic field
wire of a potentiometer should be d. Force
a. As long as possible
b. As short as possible 111. Transformer works on principle of :
c. Neither too small not too large a. Electromagnetic induction
d. Very thick b. Coulombs law
c. Gauss’s law
102. ______ is a source of electrical energy having d. Ampere’s law
fixed polarity and terminals
a. Motor 112. Transformer can convert _____
b. Metals a. Low DC voltage
c. Battery b. High DC voltage
d. Generator c. Battery voltage
d. AC voltage
103. Correct form of ohm’s law
a. i = vr 113. Eddy currents flow in:
b. v = i/r a. Open loops
c. v = ir b. Closed loops
d. r= iv c. Straight lines
d. Vertical loops
104. Ohm’s law is valid when the temperature of
conductor is : 114. Ripple factor of half wave rectifier is:
a. Very low a. 1.21
b. Very high b. 0.8
c. Varying c. 0.6
d. Constant d. 0.4

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 115. Planck constant is named after:
a. Einstein
CHEMISTRY-54
b. Newton
c. Maxwell 123. The number of formula units in 10.0 g of CaCO₃ are:
d. Max planck a. 6.022×10²²
b. 6.022×10²³
c. 3.011×10²²
116. Photocell is based on: d. 3.011×10²³
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Compton effect 124. In a perticular chemical reaction the actual yield was
c. Photoluminescence 70gm, while that of its theoretical yield is 100 gm. The
d. Pair production pecentage yield of the said reation is:
a. 100%
117. A beam of electrons can be: b. 70%
a. Reflected c. 40%
b. Refracted d. 20%
c. Reflected and refracted
d. Polarized 125. In the process of iron rusting, which of the following
is limiting reactant?
118. Spectral lines is like a __________ of absorbed a. Iron
or emission energy in a spectrum: b. Oxygen
a. Charged Pattern c. Air
b. Fingerprint Pattern d. Water
c. Discharged Pattern
d. Scattered Pattern 126. Which of the following doesnot have complete
octet?

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119. The black body always _____ radiations: a. O ²⁻

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a. Emit b. N⁵⁺

.
b. Absorb c. Ca²⁺

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d. K⁺

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c. Both Emit And Absorb

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d. Reflects

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127. The value of Azimuthal quantum number (l) depends

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120. How many up quarks in proton: upon:

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a. 1 a. n

a
b. 2 b. m

. p
c. 3 c. s
d. 4 d. p

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121. Which particle has no charge: 128. In the discharge tube positive rays move in which

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a. Electron direction?
b. Proton a. Towards anode
c. Neutron b. Towards cathode
d. Positron c. Move randomly
d. Move towards vacuum in the tube
122. The electrons are accelerated in microscopes
to produce: 129. What is the shape of s-orbital?
a. X rays a. Lobed
b. Beta rays b. Spherical
c. High resolution images c. Dumbell
d. Gamma rays d. Sausage

130. According to kinetic theory, which of the following

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statements is/are correct? a. Gases consist of particles
(atoms or molecules)in continuous random motion. b.
Collisions between particles are elastic. c. The volume
occupied by particles is negligibly small d. Attractive
forces between particles are significant at room
temerature and pressure.
a. a and b
b. a, b and c
c. b and c
d. only d

131. 1 atm is equal to the following EXCEPT:

a. 760 mm of Hg
b. 76 cm of Hg
c. 760 torr
d. 1.47 psi

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 132. The temperature at which volume of all the 142. Born Haber cycle is used to determine:
ideal gases becomes zero is: a. Enthalpy of lattice
a. 0 K b. Enthalpy of formation
b. 0 C⁰ c. Enthalpy of neutralization
c. 0 F⁰ d. Enthalpy of solution
d. 32 F⁰
143. Which of the following law is an application of first
133. Which of the following substances has the law of thermodynamics?
largest intermolecular forces of attraction ? a. Hess’s law
a. H₂O b. Dalton’s law
b. H₂S c. Moseley’s Law
c. H₂Se d. Avogadro’s law
d. H₂Te
144. Cu,Au and Ag are least reactive, because they
134. Which of the following substances has the have______?
largest intermolecular forces of attraction ? a. Negative reduction potential
a. H₂O b. Negative oxidation potential
b. H₂S c. Positive reduction potential
c. H₂Se d. Negative electrode potential
d. H₂Te
145. The element has highest reduction potential in
135. Which of the following solids shows the electrochemical series is:
phenomenon of Isomorphism ? a. Zinc
a. Molecular solids b. Fluorine
b. Covalent solids c. Oxygen
c. Ionic solids d. Lithium

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d. Metallic solids

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146. The requirement for bond formation in HF can be

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136. Who proposed valence bond theory for metals? met by

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a. Loren a. 2 orbitals & 1 electron

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b. Drudge b. 2 orbital & 2 electron

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c. L.Pauling c. 1 orbital & 1 electron

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d. Maxwell d. 1 orbital & 2 electron

a
137. Ksp (Solubility product) depends upon: 147. Covalent radius is defined as half of the single

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a. pressure bonded length between _____ atoms covalently bonded
b. Concentration in a molecule.

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c. Temperature a. Two Different

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d. Volume b. Two Simultaneous

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c. Any Two
138. Nitrogen and Hydrogen present in Equilibrium d. Two Similar
Mixture in Haber Process remain in
a. Solid state 148. When repulsive force tend to push the atoms apart
b. Liquid state and the potential energy of the system is _____.
c. Gaseous state a. No Effect
d. Mixture of solid and gas b. Decrease
c. Increase
139. Upon passing Hydrogen chloride gas through a d. Change in alternation
brine solution, which of the following is observed?
a. Concentration of NaCl₍ₐq₎ decreases 149. The Halide of aluminum is______?
b. Crystalization of NaCl takes place. a. Electron deficient
c. Concentraion of Na⁺ ion increases b. Lewis acid
d. concentrtion of Cl⁻ ion decreases c. High melting point
d. High boiling point
140. At ordinary temperature only few molecule
possess energy equal to 150. Among alkali metals which of the following property
a. Kinetic Energy is high for Li?
b. Potential Energy a. Hydration energy
c. Activation energy b. Ionic radius
d. Ionization Energy c. Electropositivity
d. Atomic size
141. The slowest reaction among these is:
a. Neutralization 151. Among alkaline earth metals the one which shows
b. Double Decomposition Reactions the least chemical reactivity is:
c. Ionic Reactions a. Be
d. Hydrogenation Reaction b. Ca
c. Mg
d. Ba

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 152. Alkali metal oxides dissolve in water to give: 162. In termination step two free radicals combine to
a. Alkaline solution form:
b. Neutral solution a. Another free radical
c. Acidic solution b. A molecule
d. Buffer solution c. A molecular ion
d. A cation
153. Electrons flow from———-
a. Anode to cathode 163. The correct name of CH₂Cl₂ is:
b. Cathode to anode a. Methyl chloride
c. Don’t flow b. Methylene chloride
d. In either directions c. Chloroform
d. Carbonyl chloride
154. A galvanic cell is setup
a. When a less reactive metal contacts a more reactive 164. Which one of the following is a strong Nucleophile?
metal via an electrolyte a. Cl-
b. When two reactive metals contact via an electrolyte b. Br-
c. When two reactive metals are placed in any solution c. OH-
d. When two metals come in direct contact d. HSO4-

155. The breaking of large molecules by heating at 165. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
high temperature and pressure is called: a. Primary Alkyl halides
a. Reforming b. Secondary Alkyl Halides
b. Steam cracking c. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
c. Catalytic cracking d. Quarternary Alkyl halides
d. Thermal cracking
166. Which of the following reactions are given by

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156. Which of the following has anti knocking alcohol and phenol both?

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properties? a. Esterification

.
a. (CH₃CH₂)₄Sn b. Nitrosation

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b. (CH₃CH₂)₄Pb c. Amide formation

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c. (CH₃CH₂)₄Ge d. Lucas Reaction

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d. (CH₃CH₂)₄Si

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167. Which of the following reactions are given by

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157. Which of the following fraction of petroleum alcohol and phenol both?

a
has lowest boiling point at STP. a. Esterification

. p
a. Kerosene oil b. Nitrosation
b. Lubricating oil c. Amide formation

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c. Gasoline d. Lucas Reaction

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d. Natural gas

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168. Which of the following reactions are given by
158. Benzene is less reactive than is corresponding alcohol and phenol both?
alkene due to: a. Esterification
a. More Unsaturation b. Nitrosation
b. More Saturation c. Amide formation
c. Less electronegativity difference between C and H- d. Lucas Reaction
atom
d. Delocalization of pi electrons 169. Idoform test is used to check the presence of :
a. Amines
159. What is the structure of benzene? b. Carbonyl compounds
a. Regular, flat planar hexagon c. Carboxylic acid
b. Regular, 3D hexagon d. Alkyl halides
c. Regular, flat planar octagon
d. Regular, planar pentagon 170. Acetone is less reactive than acetaldehyde due to:
a. More Steric hindrance offered by its methyl groups.
160. The less reactivity of benzene is due to: b. Electron withdrawing nature of its methyl groups.
a. Sigma bond c. Its Carbonyl carbon is sp² hybridized.
b. Delocalization of pi electrons d. Oxygen of carbonyl group is more electronegative than
c. Less electronegativity of C atom carbon atom.
d. Hexagonal structure
171. Formaldehyde reacts with which one of the following
161. What is the catalyst in Friedel-Crafts to give primary alcohols
Alkylation? a. Fehling’s reagant
a. AlCl₃ b. Benedict’s Reagant
b. Al₂S₃ c. Grignard’s reagant
c. AlH₃ d. Millon’s reagant
d. Al₂O₃
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 173. The aliphatic monocarboxylic acid is obtained 182. Which one is correct?
from: a. I will go to the market.
a. fats and oils b. I will gone to the market.
b. proteins and oils c. I will went to market.
c. fats and proteins d. I will have go to market.
d. fats only 183. The market is nearer to them than__________.
a. we
174. Acetic acid was first isolated from: b. ourself
a. Ants c. us
b. Butter d. ourselves
c. Milk 184. Find the correctly spelt word
d. Vinegar a. Sovereign
b. Soveregn
175. A solid compound exists in more than one c. Soverean
crystalline form, this phenomenon is called: d. Soverein
a. Allotropy
b. Isomorphism
c. Polymorphism 185. Choose the word wrongly spelt.
d. Isomerism a. Semester
b. Senesent
176. Which of the following is not true about c. Sensory
Polymorphs? d. Salacious
a. Have same chemical properties
b. Interconvertible 186. I ___________ to learn a lot of new words within one
c. Have same formula unit month.
d. Have different formula unit a. am going

m
b. will

co
c. about

.
d. can be

ENGLISH-18
g y
o
187. I woke up ________ five o’clock __________ the

ol
morning.

i
a. for… in

k
177. Ali sent his mother a ______ of flowers for her b. at.. in

a
birthday. c. in… at

. p
a. bar d. at… for
b. bouquet

w
c. pack 188. The weather is pleasant here ________ the spring.

w
d. packet a. above

w
b. around
178. Can you please ______ your name at the c. in
bottom of the contract? d. on
a. cross
b. answer 189. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
c. sign a. Exhebition
d. lay b. Exhibition
c. Exhabation
179. The ______ climbed up the tree and hid inside d. Exehation
the branches.
a. deer 190. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
b. rabbit a. Brucracy
c. squirrel b. Beaurocricy
d. tortoise c. Bureaucracy
d. Bueraucracy
180. We will go to Dubai. Which tense is used here?
a. Present 191. Choose the correct spelling of the word
b. Past a. Bilding
c. Future b. Buillding
d. Past Perfect c. Building
d. Bulding
181. Which one is future tense?
a. They are going to the market.
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b. I will play football.
c. We watched a movie yesterday. online by Pakiology.com. visit
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 192. Which one is correct?
a. Whatever my father wanted me see was on top of the
highest point of my farm.
b. Whatever my father wanted me to see was on top of
the highest point of my farm.
c. Whatever my father want me to see was on top of the
highest point of my farm.
d. Whatever my father wanted me to saw was on top of
the highest point of my farm.
193. Which one is correct?
a. The book that we needed to finish ours research was
missing from the library.
b. The book that we need to finish our research was
missing from the library.
c. The book that we needed to finish our research was
missing from the library.
d. The book that we needs to finish our research was
missing from the library.
194. Which one is correct?
a. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the
kitchen table to my family.
b. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the
kitchen table from my family.
c. I set up a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the
L. REASONING-06
195. I. There has been opposition by the protestors over
the government’s decision of removal of subsidy on
fertilizers. II. The government has decided to remove
subsidy on some of the items to bring reform to the
economy.
a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
c. Both statements I and II are independent causes
d. Both statements I and II are the effects of independent
cause.
196. Statement: There was a spurt in criminal activities in
the city during the recent festival season.
Courses of Action: I. The police should immediately
investigate into the causes of this increase. II. In the future
the police should take adequate precautions to avoid the
recurrence of such situation during festivals. III. The known
criminals should be arrested before any such season.
a. Only I and II follow.
b. Only II follows
c. All I, II and III follow.
d. Either I or II follows
197. “Pick the word which is always associated with

m
kitchen table for my family. “”books””.”

o
a. Pages

c
d. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the

.
kitchen table for my family. b. Learning

y
c. Pictures

g
d. Eraser

ol o
i
198. Pick the word which is always associated with:

k
Electrical Energy.

a
a. Light

. p
b. Cars
c. Power

w
d. Water

w w
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199. Daniyal has been visiting friends in his flat for the
past two weeks. He is leaving tomorrow morning and his
flight is very early. Most of his friends live fairly close to
the airport. Usman lives ten miles away. Farhan lives five
miles away, Numan, seven miles. Ali is farther away than
Farhan, but closer than Numan.
Approximately how far away from the airport is Ali?
a. Nine miles
b. Seven miles
c. Eight miles
d. Six miles
200. A boy walks 30 meters in the north direction, after
that he takes a right turn and walks 40 meters. After that,
he takes another right turn and walks 40 meters more,
and finally, he took a right turn and stops after walking 40
meters.
Find the distance of The boy from the initial position.
a. 5 m
b. 10 m
c. 15 m
d. 20 m

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