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Manipal College of Medical Sciences, Pokhara

II Sessional Examination Nov 2016
II Semester Batch - 2015
Paper – I
[Basic Concepts, Genetics, Immune System and Immunology]

Time: 30 minutes
Date: 25 Nov 2016 (Friday) Full Marks: [30x1=30]

Instructions to candidates
All questions are compulsory. Each question carries one mark. Select single best answer and mark by √. No marks
will be awarded on marking more than one answer. Use blue or black ink. Do not use pencils.

Name ----------------------------- Roll

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Section 'A'
Multiple Choice Question's (MCQ)
1. Mark the incorrect statement about intraembryonic
coelom: 5. Mark the correct statement about tonsils:
a. Intraembryonic coelom forms the lumen of GIT a. During histology examination, the slide
b. Intraembryonic coelom communicates with the showing lymphoid tissue lined by stratified
extraembryonic coelom till the sixth month of squamous epithelium indicates towards the
pregnancy tonsil.
c. Intraembryonic coelom is lined with endoderm b. Tonsil is ectodermal in origin
d. Intraembryonic coelom forms the lumen of c. Tonsil lies in lateral wall of oral cavity
uterine tube d. Sensory supply of tonsil comes from facial nerve

2. Mark the incorrect statement about umbilical cord:
a. It contains a jelly like substance derived from
mesoderm
b. Surface of the cord is lined by mesoderm
c. Wall of the cord consists of smooth muscle fibers
d. Umbilical cord is also known as connecting stalk
3. The junction between epiphysis and diaphysis of a
bone is:
a. Symphysis type of joint
b. Syndesmosis type of joint
c. A primary cartilaginous joint
d. Gomphosis type of joint
4. Mark the correct statement about chromosomal
aberrations
a. Trisomy 18 is known as Wallenberg Syndrome
b. Trisomy 21 is known as Down Syndrome
c. Cri du chat syndrome is known as Patau
syndrome
d. Cri du chat syndrome subjects possess 45,X
chromosome compliment
6. Mark the correct statement about spleen:
a. Spleen develops in the left leaf of dorsal
mesogastrium
b. There is no peritoneum between spleen and
stomach
c. Spleen is the site of erythropoiesis in adult
d. Hilum of spleen provides attachment to greater
omentum
7. Mark the correct statement about placenta:
a. Placenta has no endocrine functions
b. Placenta is attached to myometrium
c. Placenta is lined by amnion on its free surface
d. Placental tissue receives nutrition from fetal
blood
8. Which one of the following statements about protein
structure is correct?
a. Proteins consisting of one polypeptide can have
quaternary structure.
b. The formation of a disulfide bond in a protein
requires that the two participating cysteine
residues be adjacent to each other in the primary
sequence of the protein.
c. The stability of quaternary structure in proteins is
mainly a result of covalent bonds among the
subunits.
d. The information required for the correct
folding of a protein is contained in the specific
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sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide c. Edward Jenner invented the compound
chain. microscope.
d. Edward Jenner invented the compound
9. Which one of the following statements concerning nomenclature system.
fatty acid molecules is CORRECT?
a. They consist of a carboxylic acid head group 8. Which of the following statement is correct for
attached to a carbohydrate chain. exotoxins?
b. They are called polyunsaturated when they a. produced only by gram negative bacteria.
contain one or more carbon-carbon double b. have generalized effect.
bonds. c. Require specific receptors and target sites for
c. Their melting points increase with increasing action.
unsaturation. d. have A subunit for binding.
d. They almost always have their double bonds in
the cis-configuration when they occur naturally. 9. Structure of viruses is best examined by
a. Light microscope
2. Ascorbic acid plays a crucial role in which of the
b. Elcectron microscope
following processes in collagen synthesis?
c. Dark ground microscope
a. Transcription
d. Phase contrast microscope
b. Glycosylation
c. Hydroxylation
10. Substances that are incapable of inducing antibody
d. Covalent cross-linkage
formation by themselves but can react specifically
3. The discontinuous DNA replication that occurs with antibodies are called
during replication is catalyzed via the production of a. epitopes
small DNA segments termed: b. haptens
a. Okazaki fragments c. antigens
b. Toshihiro pieces d. agglutinins
c. Onishi oligonucleotides
d. Crick strands 11. In a 53 years old man an impending myocardial
infarction was averted by giving thrombolytic ( Clot
4. Many antimicrobials inhibit protein translation. –dissolving ) therapy. Which of the biochemical
Which of the following antimicrobials is correctly events most likely occurred during the period of
paired with its mechanism of action? hypoxia?
a. Tetracyclines inhibit peptidyltransferase. a. Decreased hydrogen ion concentration.
b. Diphtheria toxin binds to the 30S ribosomal b. Increase in oxidative phosphorylation.
subunit. c. Loss of intracellular Na + and water.
c. Clindamycin binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit. d. Stimulation of anaerobic glycolysis and
d. Erythromycin binds to the 50S ribosomal glycogenolysis.
subunit
12. A 35 years old female presents with fever, chills,
5. What is the term applied to a segment of a bacterial headache, neck stiffness, vomiting and confusion.
chromosome where genes for the enzymes of a The Kernig sign and Brudzinski sign are both
particular metabolic pathway are clustered and positive. Examination of CSF reveals changes
subject to coordinate control? consistent with bacterial meningitis. C T scan
a. Operon demonstrates a localized abscess. Which of the
b. Operator following type of necrosis is most characteristic of
c. Promoter brain abscess formation?
d. Terminal controller a. Caseous
b. Liquefactive
6. Genetic recombination mediated by viruses in c. Coagulative
bacteria are known as: d. Enzymatic
a. Transition
b. Conjugation 13. In a granuloma, epithelioid and giant cells are
c. Transformation derived from :-
d. Transduction a. T Lymphocytes
b. Monocyte- Macrophages
7. What is Edward Jenner’s contribution to c. B Lymphocytes
microbiology? d. Mast Cells
a. Edward Jenner discovered the Germ Theory.
b. Edward Jenner discovered vaccinations. 14. Acute rejection of the transplanted kidney takes place
through: -
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a. Cell mediated immunity d. Chemical antagonism
b. Antibody mediated immune rejection
c. Both cell mediated and antibody mediated
immune rejection
20. Dehydration develops more rapidly and is frequently
d. Vasculitis but not through immune reaction
more severe in children than adults because in
15. Therapeutic index of a drug reveals
children:
a. Potency
a. ECFV/ICFV ratio is smaller.
b. Efficacy
b. ECFV/ICFV ratio is larger
c. Safety
c. Total body water is larger
d. Toxicity
d. Total ECFV is smaller
16. A bolus of drug A is given IV. The drug is noted to
21. Genotype is the:
follow first-order kinetics. Which of the following
a. Genetic constitution
describes the elimination of drug A?
b. Genetic constitution of the phenotype
a. The rate of elimination of drug A is constant
c. Trait expressed
b. The rate of elimination of drug A is proportional
d. Expressed genes
to the patient’s renal function.
c. The rate of elimination of drug A is
22. Ribosome is the site of synthesis for:
proportional to its concentration in the
a. Protein
patient’s plasma.
b. Lipid
d. The rate of elimination of drug A is dependent
c. Carbohydrate
on a nonlinear relationship to the plasma protein
d. None
concentration.

17. Down regulation of receptors can occur if:

a. Agonists are used in high dose for short period of
time
b. Agonists are used continuously for long period
of time
c. Antagonists are used in high dose for short
period of time
d. Antagonists are used continuously for long
period of time

18. Which of the following is true of ‘placebo’?

a. Placebo is a dummy medication
b. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for
making tablets
c. Placebos do not produce any effect
d. All patients respond to placebo

19. Histamine causes fall in Blood Pressure (BP) by

acting on Histaminic receptor while Adrenaline
increases BP through adrenergic receptors. What
type of antagonism is this?
a. Receptor antagonism
b. Physiological antagonism
c. Physical antagonism