BIOL 2520 Cell Biology

October Practice exam 2

Answers are posted on the last page

1. The third tenet of cell biology states:

a. Cells can arise only by division from preexisting cells.

b. All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
c. Cells are the structural unit of life.
d. Cells are capable of responding to changes in the environment.
e. All cells perform chemical reactions.

2. Which of the following is NOT a function of MPF during the cell cycle?
a. Phosphorylation of histones
b. Activation of ubiquitin ligase
c. Phosphorylation of Cdk1
d. Reducing the integrity of the nuclear membrane
e. Phosphorylating proteins of the mitotic spindle

3. If a mutation occurs in the MAD2 protein, such that it is no longer functional, which of the following is
more likely to happen as the cell tries to divide?
a. The cell will fail to complete anaphase.
b. The cell could proceed through anaphase, with daughter cells having aneuploidy.
c. The anaphase promoting complex (APC) could be inhibited.
d. Securin will be inhibited, causing the sister chromatids to condense.
e. Cdc20 will be inhibited.

4. Nucleotides can serve which of the following functions within cells?

a. They can serve as energy storage molecules.
b. They can act as messenger molecules in cell signaling.
c. They can act as enzyme co-factors.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

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 5. Which of the following is NOT correct about microRNAs (miRNAs)?
a. miRNAs typically bind to target mRNAs in the 5’ untranslated region.
b. miRNAs are short double-stranded RNAs.
c. miRNAs are processed from larger precursor RNAs by Drosha and Dicer.
d. A single miRNA can affect the expression of many genes.
e. miRNAs aid in developmental processes by regulating gene expression.

6. Monosomy in humans describes a condition _________.

a. where the individual has one extra chromosome
b. where the individual has 22 pairs of chromosomes
c. where the individual is missing one chromosome
d. where the individual is missing one haploid set of chromosomes
e. that typically has minimal impact on the development of the individual

7. Which of the following statements about proteins is NOT correct?

a. Quaternary protein structures arise when two or more proteins bind to each other.
b. Tertiary protein structures can be determined by hydrophobic interactions of the amino acid side
chains.
c. Secondary structures of proteins include alpha sheets and beta helices.
d. A protein’s primary structure refers to its sequence of amino acids.
e. Many side chain interactions are non-covalent, but cysteines bind to each other covalently.

8. Inhibition of cdc25 in yeast cells can lead to:

a. failure to activate MPF
b. premature phosphorylation of lamin proteins
c. premature formation of the mitotic spindle
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

9. Why are viruses not considered true life forms?

a. They are not comprised of biological macromolecules.
b. They cannot reproduce autonomously.
c. They lack genetic material.
d. They are infectious.
e. More than one of the above.

10. Which of the following statements about cellular carbohydrates is NOT correct?
a. Glycogen is a common energy-storing polysaccharide found within animal cells.
b. Starch is a polysaccharide commonly found in plant cells.
c. Cellulose is a polysaccharide found predominantly on the surface of plant cells.
d. Cows rely primarily on gut protozoans to digest the cellulose that they consume.
e. Monosaccharides such as glucose provide chemical energy for cells.

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 11. Following DNA damage by radiation, the ATM protein initiates a cascade of events that involves a
protein known as p53. This p53 protein:
a. is activated by Chk2 protein.
b. is considered a component of the checkpoint regulating entry of the cell into mitosis.
c. is a transcription factor.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

12. To view, but not detect all subcomponents of a cell’s nucleus (e.g. nuclear pores), you would use a
_____ microscope, and to view a microtubule (but not its subunits) within a cell, you would use a ____
microscope.
a. electron; electron
b. light; light
c. light; electron
d. electron; atomic force
e. light; atomic force

13. Which of the following processes occur during centrosome separation?

a. The lengthening of microtubules help move the centrosomes apart.
b. Kinesins help push the centrosomes apart.
c. Dynein proteins help pull the centrosomes apart.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

14. Which of the following statements about DNA packaging is true?

a. The 10 nm fibers of DNA refers to the winding of DNA around nuclear scaffold proteins.
b. The 30 nm fibers of DNA refers to the assembly of DNA around nuclear scaffold proteins.
c. Looped domains of DNA refers to 30 nm fibers that are tethered to the nuclear scaffold.
d. MARs are proteins that help the DNA condense.
e. The nuclear lamina is part of the nuclear scaffold that attaches to euchromatin.

15. Which of the following contributes to the life span of a mRNA?

a. The length of the polyA tail.
b. Specific sequences within the 3’ UTR of the mRNA.
c. The presence/absence of a 5’ cap.
d. Two of the above.
e. Three of the above.

16. Which phrase or phrases below appropriately describe centromeric DNA?

a. tandemly (i.e. one after the other) repeated sequences
b. satellite DNA
c. constitutive heterochromatin
d. a and b
e. a, b and c

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 17. Which of the following require the expenditure of energy to move into the nucleus?
a. calcium ions
b. water molecules
c. histone proteins
d. mRNA molecules
e. more than one of the above

18. Which of the following is true about Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF)?
a. MPF has two subunits, one of which is a kinase and the other is a cyclin.
b. MPF is regulated by the action of other kinases and phosphatases.
c. Injection of MPF into a cell in G1 of the cell’s cycle could cause the DNA to condense prematurely.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

19. In the somatic cells of human females, one X-chromosome will begin to condense through the
actions of ____________.

a. XIST proteins
b. histone acetylases (HATs)
c. XIST RNA
d. Lamins
e. MPF

20. A defect in which protein is associated with the disease progeria?

a. Tubulin
b. ATM
c. Chk2
d. Lamin
e. Condensin

21. Which statement about transcriptomic and proteomic techniques is NOT true?
a. For proteomic analyses, mass spectrometry is often used to identify the individual proteins.
b. For transcriptomic analyses, microarrays can be used to examine the expression of thousands of
genes at the same time.
c. To prepare a microarray for transcriptomic analyses, DNA from two samples is labeled with different
coloured dyes, and then hybridized to a grid or array of DNA spots.
d. Transcriptomic analyses are used to compare RNA production in different biological samples.
e. Proteomic analyses are used to examine proteins in biological samples.

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 22. Which of the following statements are true about cell division?
a. The separation of chromosomes into opposite poles of a dividing cell is termed cytokinesis.
b. Animal cells use a contractile ring composed of actin and myosin II to facilitate cytokinesis.
c. Cells treated with antibodies specific for myosin II divide prematurely, forming unusually small
daughter cells.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.

23. Removal of the nontranscribed spacers from the primary transcript of rRNA is completed by:
a. RNA polymerase II
b. snoRNPs
c. snRNPs
d. RNA polymerase III
e. RNA polymerase I

24. Which of the following statements about telomerase is incorrect?

a. Telomerase helps solve the end-replication problem.
b. Telomerase is active in germ cells and many cancer cells.
c. Without telomerase, chromosomes become progressively shorter with each cell division.
d. Dolly the cloned sheep lacked telomerase in all of her cells.
e. Telomerase adds nucleotides to the 3’ end of the telomeres.

25. A defective RCC1 protein would most likely result in _______.

a. an increase in Ran-GTP levels within the nucleus
b. an increase in Ran-GDP levels within the nucleus
c. an increase in the importation of proteins into the nucleus
d. no effect to the nuclear import process
e. none of the above

26. Which statement(s) about intron splicing is/are true?

a. A snRNP is a protein-RNA complex that facilitates intron splicing.
b. One snRNA within the spliceosome acts as a ribozyme.
c. All introns have consensus sequences that bind the snRNPs precisely and with equal binding
efficiency.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

27. To reduce the expression of an actively transcribed gene, which of the following might occur?
a. Methylation of cytosine nucleotides
b. Acetylation of histones
c. Demethylation of histones
d. a and b
e. b and c

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 28. The process of translation ends as a result of an interaction between which of the following?
a. A stop codon and a protein
b. A stop codon and a tRNA
c. A stop codon and rRNA
d. A stop anticodon and a stop codon
e. A termination signal in the ribosome

29. General transcription factors bind to the _______, while the glucocorticoid receptor binds to the
_________.

a. distal promoter; glucocorticoid response element

b. core promoter; distal promoter
c. TATA box; GC and CAAT boxes
d. proximal promoter; core promoter
e. enhancer; core promoter

30. Humans have about 22,000 genes, but we can produce many more than 22,000 proteins. What process
primarily contributes to this greater number of proteins?
a. processing of hnRNAs into mRNAs
b. alternative splicing of the transcripts
c. increased rates of mutation in humans
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

31. A riboswitch is ________.

a. a DNA sequence that regulates a gene’s expression.
b. an RNA that can alter its own gene’s expression
c. a protein that can regulate the rate of transcription of a gene
d. an enzyme that can hydrolyze an RNA molecule
e. a DNA sequence that regulates intron splicing

32. Which of the following statements about chromatin is true?

a. Constitutive heterochromatin occasionally decondenses to allow genes within it to be transcribed.
b. Many of the histones in euchromatin are often methylated.
c. Facultative heterochromatin remains condensed throughout the entire cell cycle.
d. Histones in euchromatin are acetylated more than those of heterochromatin.
e. Methylation of cytosines within euchromatin facilitates transcription of the genes.

33. A mutant cells has seriously depleted levels of a number of tRNAs. The lack of the tRNAs is most
likely due to:
a. a defect in RNA polymerase I
b. a defect in RNA polymerase II
c. a defect in RNA polymerase III
d. a defect in a reverse transcriptase
e. a defect in DNA polymerase

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 34. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence __________.
a. is a ribosome binding site on an mRNA
b. is located upstream (5’) of the start codon
c. is needed for proper translation in eukaryotes
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

35. Which of the following statements about transcription factors is/are true?
a. Transcription factors have DNA binding domains.
b. Transcription factors can interact with other proteins that help loosen DNA binding to histones.
c. Helix-loop-helix transcription factors function as dimers, typically binding palindromic sequences.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

36. Which of the following is true about the use of RNA interference (RNAi) to suppress cancer in mice
models?
a. Injecting short double-stranded RNA into mice suppressed tumour growth.
b. The short double-stranded RNA was designed to target a mutant gene’s transcripts, while leaving the
normal gene’s transcripts unaffected.
c. The RNAi would have caused a reduction in the mutant gene’s rate of translation.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

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 Answers
1a
2c
3b
4e
5a
6c
7c
8a
9b
10d : D is an incorrect statement because cow rely on bacteria to degrade cellulose
11e
12c
13e
14c
15e
16e
17c : RNA does not move into the nucleus, it moves out
18e
19c
20d
21c
22b
23b
24d : Her stem cells and germ cells would still have telomerase
25b
26d : C is not correct, because not all consensus sequences bind snRNPs equally – some bind weakly, and
that is how alternative splicing can occur
27a : Neither B or C are correct – both of those modifications would keep the chromatin in an open state
and keep a gene actively transcribed
28a
29b
30b
31b
32d
33c
34d
35e
36e

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