Molecular biology test series- B 10.

DNA is synthesised from RNA by the enzyme

a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA synthetase
1. The function of β subunit of polymerase is
c. DNA convertase
a. Template binding
d. Reverse transcriptase
b. Catalytic binding
11. Which of the following base pairing rule is
c. Promoter binding
correct?
d. Cation binding
a. Adenine with guanine and thymine with
2. Which of the σ factors are heat stable?
cytosine
a. σ 54
b. DNA base pairing is non-specific
b. σ 70
c. Adenine with cytosine and guanine with
c. σ 28
thymine
d. σ 32
d. Adenine with thymine and guanine with
3. The mRNA codon of valine is
cytosine
a. GGU
12. DNA synthesis can be measured by estimating the
b. UGG
incorporation of radiolabelled
c. CCA
a. Thymine
d. TTG
b. Guanine
4. True replication of DNA is due to
c. Cytosine
a. Phosphate backbone
d. Adenine
b. Hydrogen bonding
13. How many RNA polymerases are there in a
c. Complementary base pairing rule
bacterial system?
d. None
a. 4
5. Which of the following statements is not applicable
b. 2
to viruses?
c. 1
a. The virus replicates in a bacterial host
d. 3
b. The protein coat of virus does not enter the
14. During DNA replication the synthesis of leading
host cell
strand of DNA results in fragments known as
c. The genetic material is DNA or RNA
a. Okazaki fragments
d. Virus replicate autonomously in the absence
b. Satellite segments
of host
c. Kornberg segment
6. Mode of DNA replication is
d. Double-helix segment
a. Conservative and bidirectional
15. Short strands of ——- primer are used in DNA
b. Semiconservative and unidirectional
replication.
c. Semiconservative and bidirectional
a. DNA
d. Conservative and unidirectional
b. RNA
7. Which enzyme is used to join nicks in the DNA
c. Histone
strand?
d. Protein
a. Primase
16. Round structures of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
b. DNA polymerase
around histone proteins are called
c. DNA ligase
a) monohybrid genes
d. Endonuclease
b) hybrid genes
8. Which enzyme is used in unwinding of DNA?
c) chromosomes
a. Ligase
d) nucleosomes
b. Topoisomerase
17. Process in which sequence of nucleotides of DNA
c. Helicase
is copied in form of mRNA nucleotides is called
d. Exonuclease
a) denomination
9. Which of the following processes does not occur in
b) translation
prokaryotes?
c) segregation
a. Transcription
d) transcription
b. Splicing
c. Translation
d. Replication
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18. Process in which ribosome reads the sequence 24..Which of the following is the name of the human
carried by mRNA and joins amino acids to form genetic disorder resulting from defects in nucleotide
protein is called excision repair?
a) segregation
a) Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer
b) transcription
(HNPCC)
c) denomination
b) Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)
d) translation
c) Lynch syndrome
19. Synthesis of RNA from DNA is
d) Diabetes
a) Transcription
25..In which of the following would you find
b) Translation
telomeres?
c) Metabolism
a) Human mitochondrial DNA
d) Reduction
b) Human chromosomes
20. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) present on the
c) Bacterial chromosomes
chromosome is responsible for
d) The influenza virus genome
a) mitosis of cells
b) characteristics of cells
26. Which of the following is true of RNA synthesis
c) location of cells
(transcription)?
d) life of cells

21..Which of the following reactions is required for
proofreading (i.e. correcting replication errors)
during DNA replication by DNA polymerase III?
a) 3' - 5' exonuclease activity
b) 5' - 3' exonuclease activity
c) 3' - 5' endonuclease activity
d) 5' - 3' endonuclease activity
22..How does the mismatch repair system distinguish
between the parental (i.e. correct) DNA strand and
the newly synthesised strand containing the
mismatched base?
a) Thymine in the parental strand of the helix is
methylated at GATC.
b) Thymine in the new strand of the helix is
methylated at GATC.
c) Guanine in the parental strand of the helix is
methylated at GATC.
d) Guanine in the new strand of the helix is
methylated at GATC.
23..What is the name of the DNA repair system in E.
coli in which dual incisions are made in the damaged
part of the double helix, and a 12-13 base segment is
removed and replaced with new DNA?
a) MMR
b) BER
c) NER
d) AP SITE
a) RNA synthesis is always in the 5' - 3' direction.
b) RNA polymerase needs a primer to initiate
transcription.
c) In transcription, U is inserted opposite T.
d) New nucleotides are added on to the 2' OH of the
ribose sugar.
27. In bacterial promoters, which of the following
describes the 'Pribnow box'?
a) The 5' untranslated region
b) The -10 box
c) The -35 box
d) The termination sequence
28. The deadly 'death cap' mushroom, Amanita
palloides, produces a toxin called α-amanitin. Which
cellular process is inhibited by this toxin?
a) DNA synthesis
b) Cell division
c) RNA synthesis
d) RNA splicing
29. Which of the following can be described as 'a
sequence that can be several thousand base pairs

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upstream or downstream of a eukaryotic promoter and
which increases gene expression as much as 200-fold.' b) Only EF-G
c) Both EF-Tu and EF-G
a) CAAT box d) Initiation factor 2
b) TATA box
34. Which of the following enzymes involved in
c) Insulator ribosomal protein synthesis is a ribozyme i.e. a catalytic
RNA molecule?
d) Enhancer

30. Which of the following does the abbreviation TBP
stand for?
a) TATA-box binding protein
b) Transcription associated factor
c) Transcription factor binding protein
d) TATA box polymerase
a) Amino acyl t-RNA synthase
b) Peptidyl transferase
c) Releasing factors 1 and 2
d) Ribosome recycling factor
35. The major differences between the prokaryotic and
eukaryotic protein synthesis mechanisms are in which
part of the process?

31. What would be the effect on the primary structure of a) The initiation of synthesis.
the coded protein if a single base was deleted from a
messenger RNA transcript? b) The chain elongation process.
c) The chain termination process.
a) No effect. d) None - there are no major differences.
b) A single amino acid residue is changed.
c) A complete change in amino acid sequence from 36.Proteins directed to which of the following organelles
the point of the deletion. are synthesized by ribosomes attached to the rough
endoplasmic reticulum?
d) A premature termination of the chain at the point
of mutation.
a) nucleus
32. How many different transfer RNA molecules are
present in a cell (not including those present in the b) mitochondria
mitochondria)? c) lysosomes
d) peroxisomes
a) 64
b) 61 37. What directs vesicles packaged in the Golgi cisternae
to their appropriate place in the cell?
c) 20
d) More than 20, less than 61. a) A specific carbohydrate bound to the proteins.

33. Which of the following proteins involved in peptide b) A sequence of amino acids within the proteins.
initiation and chain elongation is a GTPase switch? c) Complementary SNARE proteins on the vesicle
and its target organelle.
a) Only EF-Tu d) Coatomer or clathrin proteins coating the vesicle.

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38. In what form do proteins cross the mitochondrial
membranes?
a) In unfolded extended form without chaperones.
b) In unfolded extended form attached to Hsp70
chaperones.
c) Bound to an importin protein via a signal
sequence
d) In fully folded form
39. How do proteins enter peroxisomes?
a) Unfolded, using an N-terminal signal sequence.
b) Folded, using an N-terminal signal sequence.
c) Unfolded, using a C-terminal or internal signal
sequence.
d) Folded, using a C-terminal or internal signal
sequence
40. What is the energy source for transport of molecules
into and out of the nucleus?
a) ATP hydrolysis within the cytoplasm.
b) GTP hydrolysis within the cytoplasm.
c) ATP hydrolysis within the nucleus.
d) GTP hydrolysis within the nucleus.
41. The largest molecules in our bodies are:
a) nucleic acids
b) chromosomes
c) proteins
d) amino acids
42. Which of the following statements is true about
the protein synthesis process?
a) When a section of a DNA molecule unwinds
and unzips along its bases, a transfer RNA
forms by copying one side of the DNA.
b) The transfer RNA leaves the nucleus and
goes out to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm
where proteins are assembled with the help
of messenger RNA.
c) Both statements are false
d) Both true
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43. Which of the following statements is true about
DNA replication?
a) One DNA molecule becomes two identical
ones as a result of this process.
b) It occurs during meiosis but not mitosis.
c) It is part of the protein synthesis process.
d) All of the above
44. A DNA codon consist of
a) one nucleotide
b) two nucleosides
c) three nucleotides
d) three nucleosides
45. There are about 3 billion chemical base pairs in
human DNA. Approximately what percent of these
base pairs actually code for genes?
a) 100%
b) 50%
c) 20%
d) 1-2 % only
46. Portions of DNA molecules that do not contain
the codes for proteins are called:
a) Interon
b) Exon
c) Mutogen
d) Recon
47. Which of the following is correctly matched with its
subsequent role?
a) Topoisomerase II- can remove both positive and
negative supercoil in the DNA duplex
b) Polymerase I- larger fragment responsible for
exonuclease activity
c) DnaA protein- responsible for “melting” of the DNA
double helix during replication
d) DnaB protein- attaches to the newly unwounded
single strand of DNA to prevent folding of the strand
48. Which of the following does not affect DNA
replication?
a) Antiparallel nature of DNA
b) End specificity of polymerase
c) SSB protein
d) Helicase
49. In the case of a circular DNA synthesis how many
replication forks are observed?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3 57. Which of the following is not a feature of the
d) 4 genetic code?
50. The first amino acid added by the tRNA is added to a) Triplet
the anticodon ____________ b) Degenerate
a) AUG c) Non – overlapping
b) UAC d) Ambiguous
c) ACG
d) UGC 58. mRNA of which of the following organism does not
undergo processing?
51. The modification of which base gives rise to inosine? a) Human
a) Adenine b) Yeast
b) Guanine c) Bacteria
c) Uridine d) Fungi
d) Cytosine 59. Which of the following is not a type of RNA
processing?
52. The stop codon on the mRNA is read by __________ a) Polyadenylation at the 3’ end
a) Ribosome b) Capping of 5’ end
b) tRNA c) Removal of exons
c) eRF1 d) Splicing
d) mRNA
60. Capping is done by the addition of __________
53. With respect to the genetic code reading frame a) Methylated A
which of the following is wrong? b) Methylated T
a) 5’ → 3’ direction reading frame c) Methylated G
b) The code is non – overlapping d) Methylated C
c) No gaps present
d) Flexible reading frame 61. About how many “A” are added to the nascent RNA
in the 5’ end during Polyadenylation?
54. The mitochondrial mRNA code for methionine is a) 100
_____________ b) 200
a) UAA c) 300
b) AGA d) 0
c) AUA
d) AUG 62. What does the diagram denote?

55. According to pairing concept of wobble hypothesis

base “Inosine” in the anticodon does not pair with?
a) A
b) U
c) G
d) C

56. Which of the following is not a chain termination

codon?
a) UAA
b) UGA
c) UAG
d) UGG
a) Splicing
b) Alternative splicing
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c) Trans-splicing 69. How many reading frames are applicable in case of
d) Exon shuffling translation?
a) 1
63. Rearrange the order of the steps in the splicing b) 2
mechanism. c) 3
i) Transesterification of 3’ splice site d) 4
ii) Formation of lariat complex
iii) Formation of active site 70. Shine – Dalgarno sequence is also known as the
iv) Release of snRNPs __________
a) iii, i, ii, iv a) ORF
b) iii, ii, i, iv b) Ribosome binding site
c) ii, iii, i, iv c) Stop codon
d) ii, iv, iii, i d) Start codon

64. Which of the following groups can perform self 71. Which component of the rRNA binds to the mRNA?
splicing? a) 16S
a) mRNA, rRNA b) 5S
b) rRNA, mtRNA c) 28S
c) tRNA, mRNA d) 23S
d) rRNA, tRNA 72. Recruitment of RNA polymerase to the promoter is
a ___________
65. Introns makes up about ____________ % of the a) Covalent binding
total mRNA. b) Cooperative binding
a) 50 c) Protein – protein interaction
b) 70 d) Van der Waals forces
c) 90
d) 80 73. The site where repressor binds the DNA is the
______________
66. Which of the following types of RNA is the most a) Promoter
stable? b) Terminator
a) mRNA c) Operator
b) hnRNA d) ORF
c) tRNA
d) snRNA 74. The proteins of which of the following genes are
regularly needed for cellular activity?
67. Which of the following is the most energetically a) Regular genes
costly process among the following? b) Smart genes
a) Replication c) Structural genes
b) Transcription d) Housekeeping genes
c) Post transcriptional processing
d) Translation 75. Which of the following are the products of
constitutive gene?
68. Which of the following is not a property of open i. Involved in the synthesis of structural elements of the
reading frame? cell
a) Contiguous ii. Involved in catabolic pathway
b) Non overlapping iii. Involved in anabolic pathway
c) Encodes a single protein iv. Synthesized continuously
d) Starts and ends at either end of the mRNA. a) i and ii
b) ii and iii

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c) iii and iv
d) i, ii, iii and iv

76. Operons are ___________

a) of approximately uniform size
b) found in some eukaryotes
c) not able to bind to proteins
d) smaller in lower eukaryotes and longer in higher
eukaryotes

77. Choose the correct pair among the following.

a) The DNA sequence to which stigma factor binds –
enhancer
b) The DNA sequence to which RNA polymerase binds –
operator
c) The DNA sequence that codes for a protein –
structural gene
d) The DNA sequence to which repressors binds –
promoter

78. Which of the following is not present in the β-

galactosidase structural gene and thus is not
transcribed by the same promoter?
a) Lac A
b) Lac I
c) Lac Z
d) Lac Y

79. Glucose, as the carbon source, is the first choice by

bacteria even if other sugars are available. The
mechanism behind this selectivity is ___________
a) Operon repression
b) Glucose utilization
c) Enzyme repression
d) Catabolite repression

80. The lac operon is regulated by cAMP by

___________
a) Binding to lac repressor
b) Binding to operator
c) Binding to promoter
d) Binding to catabolite activator protein

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