1

CBSE

SILPUKHURI, LOKHRA, PADUMBARI,

SILCHAR, JORHAT, SIVSAGAR
SENIOR BiPC WEEKEND EXAM
DATE : 18.10.2021
Time : 3 hr Total Marks : 100
d) The utilisation of monosaccharides from bacterial
Biology Total marks: 40 7.
cytoplasm under the controll of viral - DNA
The enzyme involves in break down of hydrogen bonds
between complimentary nitrogen bases during transcription
SECTION - A is
( Answer any 15 out of 19 following questions ) a) Endonuclease like helicase
1. Select the correct replication fork in DNA - replication b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
process. c) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
d) Topoisomerase like DNA gyrase
8. If the sequence of nucleotides on non-coding strand of
transcription unit is
5GTCATCCGTTAGAACAT 3 . Then the sequence of
a) b) nucleotides on synthesising RNA is
a) 5GUCAUCCGUUAGAACAU 3
b) 5 AUGUUCUAACGGAUGAC 3
c) 3UACAAGAUUGCCUACUG5
d) 3CAGTAGGCAATQCTTGTA5
9. SnRNA production is catalyse by
c) d) a) RNA - polymerase - I b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA - polymerase - III d) RNA - polymerase - II
10. During DNA replication the new small DNA segments are link
with each other by
2. Mostly the process of DNA replication is
a) DNA - lyase b) DNA - gyrase
I. Unidirectional II. Semi - conservative
c) DNA - polymerase d) DNA - ligase
III. Semi - continuous IV. Bidirectional
11. Androgens are secreted by
a) II, III & IV b) I & II c) I, II & III d) I & III
a) Leydig cells b) Sertoli cells
3. The experimental material used by Taylor to prove semi -
c) Male germ cells d) Rete testes
conservative mode of DNA replication
12. Semini ferous tubules are lined by
a) 15
N used in E.Coli a) Male germ cells + leydig cells
b) Radio active thymidine used in Viccia fabe b) Sertoli cells + leydig cells
c) c) Interstitial cells + leydig cells
P used in bacteriohage
32
d) Male germ cells + Sertoli cells
d) 14C used in chlorella 13. Which of the male accessory gland secretion lubricates penis
4. Physical proof for DNA as genetic material was given by a) Seminal vesicle b) Prostate gland
a) Jacob & Monod b) Messelson & Stahl c) Bulbo urethral gland d) Phallic gland
c) Watson & Crick d) Harshey & Chase 14. Urethral meatus refer to the
5. Thymidine nitrogen base is a) Urinogenital duct
a) Common among DNA & RNA b) Opening of vasa deferens into urethra
b) Methylated uracil c) External opening of the urino genital duct
c) Used to trace translation process d) Muscle surrounding the urino genital duct
d) Complimentary pair with guanine 15. Each testes bears
6. Bacteriophage capsid can produce by a) 250 seminiferous tubules within 3 testicular lobes
a) The utilisation of amino - acids from bacterial cytoplasm b) 250 testicular lobules with 3 seminiferous tubule
under the control of viral DNA c) 250 testicular lobules with 3 spesmatic cord
b) The utilisation of nucleotides from bacterial plasmids d) a and b
under the controll of bacterial nucleoid DNA 16. Glans penis is covered by
c) The utilisation of amino - acids from virus under the a) Fore skin b) Mons pubis c) Relelestes d) Scrotum
control of bacterial DNA 17. Answer the following question based on the diagram above.
 2
Where the sperms stored temporarily ? d) Assertion and reason are correct and reason explains the
assertion
23. 5 E.coli bacteria having 15
N DNA strands are allow to under
go binary fission for every 20 minutes in 14 N containing
culture media. Then after one hour ratio between the bacteria
with
15
N / 15 N , 15 N / 14 N and 14
N / 14 N DNA is
a) 0 :1: 3 b) 0 :1: 2 c) 1: 2 : 3 d) 0 :1: 7
24. The aminoacid not obeying ‘the degerative nature of codons’
a) A b) B c) C d) D is
18. In the diagram of human male reproductive system, the a) Lysin b) Alanine c) Tyrosine d) Tryptophan
different parts have been indicated by alphabets. Choose the 25. The region of lac - operon not releasing RNA is
correct match. a) Z - gene b) i - gene c) o - gene d) a - gene
26. The t-RNA with these anticodons are never found in
cytoplasm
a) UAA, UAG & UGA b) UUA, CUA & UCA
c) AUG, GUG & CGG d) AGU, GAU & AAU
27. The source of energy and structural units for DNA
replication is
a) Deoxy nucleotide triphosphates
b) Ribose nucleoside triphosphates
a) A = Epididymis, B = Testis, C = Vas deferens, D = Penile c) Deoxy nucleoside triphosphates
urethra d) Ribose nucleotide triphosphates
b) A = Testis, B = Epididymis, C = Vas deferens, D = Penile 28. The correct sequence of regions in lac - operon is (in relation
urethra with coding strand)
c) A = Penile urethra, B = Vas deferens, C = Epididymis, D =
a) 5i , p , o, z , y , a 3 b) 5o, p , i, z , a , y 3
Testis
d) A = Penile urehra, B = Testis, C = Epdidymis, D = Vas c) 3i , p , o, z , y , a 5 d) 5i , p , o, z , a , y 3
deferens 29. A :- The process of transport of the sperm into the female
19. Sertoli cells provide nutrition to vaginal tract called parturition
a) Ovum b) Sperm c) Embryo d) None of these R :- The process of delivery of the body form the mothers
SECTION - B uterus called insemination
(Answer any 15 out of 19 following questions) a) Both A and R true but R is correct explanation of A
20. Assertion :- mRNA is shorter than hnRNA. b) Both A and R true but R is not correct explanation of A
Reason :- By the splicing process hnRNA converts into c) A is true but R is false
mRNA. d) Both A and R false
a) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong 30. A :- Rete testis is a male accessory gland
b) Assertion and reason are correct but reason does not R :- Retetes leaves the testes open into the ejaculatory duct
explain assertion a) Both A and R true but R is correct explanation of A
c) Both assertion and reason are wrong b) Both A and R true but R is not correct explanation of A
d) Assertion and reason are correct and reason explains the c) A is true but R is false
assertion d) Both A and R false
21. Assertion :- The codons are non - ambiguous 31. For spermatogenesis the temparature in the scrotum is
Reason :- Each amino acid is generally coding by two or more
codons a) 2  2.5 C lower than body temparature
a) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong b) 2  2.5 C higher than body temparature
b) Assertion and reason are correct but reason does not
explain assertion c) 2  2.5 F lower than body temparature
c) Both assertion and reason are wrong d) 2  2.5 F higher than body temparature
d) Assertion and reason are correct and reason explains the
assertion 32. Genetic recombination is possible through
22. Assertion :- RNA is less stable than DNA a) Budding b) Asexual reproduction
Reason :- Ribose sugar differ from deoxy ribose sugar by c) Sexual reproduction d) Fragmentation
having OH group at its 3rd carbon. 33. The vasa deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and
a) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong open into the urethra as
b) Assertion and reason are correct but reason does not a) Epididymis b) Ejaculatory duct
explain assertion c) Efferent ductule d) ureter
c) Both assertion and reason are wrong 34. Cryptorchidism is
a) Failure of development of testes
 3
b) Failure of descending testes into scrotal sac b) Repressable system with negative regulation
c) Failure of development of scrotom c) Inducible system with positive regulation
d) Failure of production of sperm d) Repressable system with positive regulation
35. Accessory glands in the following Read and answer the following questions (Attempt any 5)
a) Epididymis b) Uterus The male reproduction system is located in the pelvic
c) Prostate gland d) Testesterone region. It include a pair of testes, along with accessory duct
36. Testes is attached to the scrotal sac by and gland and external genitalia.
a) Gubern culum b) Spermatic cord 45. Identify the odd one from the following.
c) Spetum scroti d) Raphae a) Retetesten b) Vasa deferentia
37. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading form c) Ejaculatory duct d) Isthmus
a) Testicular lobules to rete testis 46. The following are associated with male reproductive system
b) Retetestis to vasa deferens except
c) Vasa deferens to epididymis a) Seminal vesicle b) Prostate gland
d) Epididymis to urethra c) Bulbo urethral gland d) Bartholin glands
38. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in 47. The genital duct and associated genital glands together form
a) Fructose and calcium b) Glucose and calcium a) Primary sexual organ
c) DNA and testostevone d) Ribose and potassium b) Secondary sexual organ
SECTION - C c) Accessory secondary sexual organ
(Read the following case based questions and answer any 5 d) External organs
out of 6) 48. The following include the male primary sex organ
Proteins are synthesis with a partiular sequence of amino a) Testes b) Ovaries
acids in corresponding with the sequence of codons in c) Accessory duct d) Accessory glands
genetic message of mRNA known as translation. It occurs 49. The shared terminal duct of the male reproductive and
mainly in cytosol, mitochondrial matrix and plastidal stroma urinary system in the human male is
of eukaryotic cells. a) Urethra b) Ureter
39. Find the correct ascending sequence of following contents c) Vasa deferens d) Vasa efferentia
related to translation. 50. These cells of the testes secrete testosterone
I. Number of types of nucleotides in mRNA. a) Sertoli cells
II. Number of types of total codons in genetic code b) Cells of germinal epithelium
III. Number of types of proteins produced in a cell c) Cells of Leydig or interstitial cells
IV. Number of types of amino acids involve in proteins d) Secondary spermatocytes
synthesis
V. Number of types of tRNAs in cytosol
a) I, IV, V, II & III b) I, IV, III, V & II Physics Total marks: 30
c) III, II, V, IV, & I d) III, II, IV, V & I
40. If the sequence of amino acids in synthesising protein is SECTION-A
C  f .met  Arg  Ser  Ala N  . Then the This section consists of 17 multiple choice questions with
overall choice to attempt any 12 questions. In case more than
sequence of codons in genetic message of involving mRNA desired number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 12
is will be considered for evaluation.
a) 5 AUG CGU AGG GCU UAA 3 51. A body can be negatively charged by
a) giving excess of electrons to it
b) 5 AUG AGC UCU GCC UAG 3
b) removing some electron from it
c) 5 AUG AGA UCA GCA UGA 3 c) giving some protons to it
d) removing some neutrons from it
d) 5 AUG CGA UCG GUG UAA 3
41. The non - protein molecule act as ribozyme is
52. The unit of permittivity of free space ( 0 ) is
a) 28s rRNA b) 18s rRNA c) 23s rRNA d) 16s rRNA a) CN 1m 1 b) Nm 2C 2
42. In adjacent amino acids peptide bond is formed between
a) Variable group of earlier amino acid & amino group of later c) C 2 N 1m 2 d) C 2 N 2 m 2
amino acid 53. Which of the following is not a property of field lines?
a) Field lines are continuous curves without any breaks
b) COOH group of earlier & NH 2 group of later amino acid
b) Two field lines cannot cross each other
c) NH2 of earlier & COOH of later amino acid c) Field lines start at positive charges and end at negative
d) COOH groups of adjacent amino acids charges
43. If 816 A0 length of genetic message containing mRNA d) They form closed loops
involves in translation then the number of bio 54. When air is replaced by a medium of dielectric constant K, the
water molecules to be release are force of attraction between two charges separated by a dis-
a) 80 b) 56 c) 78 d) 84 tance r
44. Lac - operon is mostly a) decreases K times b) remains unchanged
a) Inducible system with negative regulation
 4
c) increases K times d) increases K–2 times staright wire is prooportional to
55. The Electric flux through the surface
1 1 1
a) r b) c) d)
r2 r3 r
65. For a point charge, the graph between electric field versus dis-
tance is given by

a) in Fig. (iv) is the largest

b) in Fig. (iii) is the least
c) in Fig. (ii) is same as Fig. (iii) but is smaller than Fig. (iv)
d) is the same for all the figures
56. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole p is
placed as shown. Which of the following statements is cor-
66. An object A has a charge of 2  C and the object B has a
rect?
charge of 6  C . Which of the following is true?

a) FAB  3FBA b) FAB   FBA

c) 3FAB   FBA d) FAB  4 FBA
67. In nature, the electric charge of any system is always equal to
a) half integral multiple of the least amount of charge
b) zero
a) the dipole will not experience any force
c) square of the least amount of charge
b) the dipole will experience a force towards right
d) integral multiple of the least amount of charge
c) the dipole will experience a force towards left
SECTION-B
d) the dipole will experience a force upwards
This section consists of 15 multiple choice questions with
57. What will be the value of electric field at the centre of the
overall choice to attempt any 12 questions. In case more than
electric dipole?
desired number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 12
a) zero
will be considered for evaluation.
b) Equal to the electric field due to one charge at centre
Assertion and Reason Type:
c) Twice the electric field due to one charge at centre
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Half the value of electric field due to one charge at centre
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
58. Which physical quantity have unit newton/coulomb?
of A.
a) Electric charge b) Elecric field
c) A is true but R is false
c) Electric force d) Electric potential
d) A is false and R is also false
59. In the process of charging, the mass of the negatively charged
68. A: Total flux through a closed surface is zero if no charge is
only
enclosed by the surface.
a) increases b) decreases
R: Gauss law is true for any closed surface, no matter what os
c) remains constant d) none of the above
shape or size is.
60. Charge on a body is integral multiple of  e . It is given by the 69. A: Net electric field inside a conductor is zero.
law of R: Total positive charge equals to total negative charge in a
a) conservation of charge b) conservation of mass charged conductor.
c) conservation of energy d) quantisation of charge 70. A: If the bob of a simple pendulum is kept in a horizontal elec-
61. Electric field intensity due to a short dipole remains directly tric fielf, its period of oscillation will remain same,
proportional to (r is the distance of a point from centre of di- R: If bob is charged and kept in horizontal elctric field, then the
pole) time period will be decreased.
a) r2 b) r3 c) r–2 d) r–3 71. A: All the charge in a conductor gets distributed on whole of
62. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called its outer surface.
a) closed surface b) spherical surface R: In a dynamic system, charges try to keep their potential
c) Gaussian surface d) plane surface energy minimum.
63. A sphere encloses an electric dipole within it. The total flux 72. A: Acceleration of charged particle in non-uniform electric field
across the sphere is does not depend on velocity of charged particle.
a) zero R: Charge is an invariant quantity. They is the amount of charge
b) half that due to a single charge on particle does not depend on frame of reference.
c) double that due to a single charge 73. Force F between charges Q1 and Q2 separated by r is 25 N. It
d) dependent on the position of the dipole can be reduced to 5 N if the separation between them is made
64. According to Gauss law, electric field of an infinitely long
 5
81. Two unlike charges of the same magnitude Q are placed at a
r r distance d. The intensity of the electric field at the centre of the
a) b) c) 2r d) 5r
5 2 line joining the two charges, is
74. Two like point charges separated by a certain distance exert a 8Q 6Q 4Q
force of 0.04 N on each other. When the distance of separation a) zero b) c) d)
between them is halved, the force exerted by each on the other 4 0 d 2 2 0 d 2
4 0 d 2
will be 82. Two point charges +8q and –2q are located at x = 0 and x = L,
a) 0.16 N b) 0.02 N c) 0.08 N d) 0.01 N respectively. The location of a point on the X-axis at which the
75. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a square. net electric field due to these two point charges is zero, is
A charge q is placed at each of the other two corners. If the net a) 8 L b) 4 L c) 2 L d) L/4
SECTION-C
Q
electrical force on Q is zero, then equals Section-C consists of Case based questions. Each question
q one marks.
Read and Answer the following question (attempt any 3):
Johann Carl Friendrich Gauss (1777 – 1855) was German math-
ematician and physicist who made significant contribution to
many fields in mathematics and science. In physics Gauss’s
law, also known as Gauss’s flux theorem, is a law relating the
distribution of electric charge to the resulting electric field. In
the integral form, it states that the flux of the electric field out of
an arbitrary closed surface is proportional to the electric charge
enclosed by the surface, irrespective of how that charge is
ditributed.
A Gaussian surface (sometimes abbreviated as G.S) is a closed
surface in three-dimensionalal field, the electric field, or mag-
1
a) 2 2 b) –1 c) 1 d)  netic field. It is an arbitrary closed surface used in conjuction
2 with Gauss’s law for the corresponding field by performing a
76. An infinite number of identically charged bodies are kept along surface integral, in order to calculate the total amount of the
the x-axis at points x = 0, 1 m, 2 m, 4m, 8 m, 16 m and so on. All sources quantity enclosed; e.g., amount of electric charge as
other charges repel the charge at the origin with a force of 1.2 the source of the electrostatic field.
N. Find magnitude of each charge.
a) 9  C b) 10  C c) 11 C d) 12  C
77. Two particles of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a
distance of 16 cm. They do not experience nay force. The value
q
of is
m

 0 G
a) l b) c) d) 4 0G
G 4 0
78. Two point charges placed at a certain distance r in air exert a
force F on each other. Then, the distance r  at which these
charges will exert the same force in a medium of dielectric con-
stant K is
a) r b) r/K c) r/ K d) r K 83. The electric flux through a cubical Gaussian surface enclosing
79. Each corner A and C has charge q1 and on the each corner B net charge q is q /  0 , while the electric flux through one face
and D, has charge –q2 of a square ABCD of side l. Charge at A
of the cube is
q1 a) q / 0 b) q / 4 0 c) q / 6 0 d) q / 8 0
is in equilibrium, then the ratio
q2 will be 84. The electric flux of a flat square having an area of 10 m2 placed
in a uniform electric field of 8000 N/C passing perpendicular to
1 it is
a) 1 b) 2 2 c) 2 d)
2 a) 8  105 Nm 2 / C b) 8  10 4 Nm 2 / C
80. The force between two charges 0.06 m apart is 5 N. If each
c) 16  105 Nm 2 / C d) 4  10 4 Nm 2 / C
charge is moved towards each other by 0.04 m, then the force
between them will become 85. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface
a) 7.20 N b) 11.25 N c) 22.50 N d) 45.00 N
 6
94. Sulphuryl chloride (SO2Cl2) reacts with white phosphorus (P4)
respectively is 1 and 2 . The electric charge inside the sur- to give
face will be a) PCl5, SO2 b) PCl3, SOCl2
2  1 1  2 c) PCl5, SO2, S2Cl2 d) OPCl3, SO2, S2Cl2
a)
0 b)  0 (1  2 ) c)
0 d)  0 (1  2 ) 95. Cl – P – Cl bond angles in PCl5 molecule are
a) 120o and 90o b) 60o and 90o
86. Gauss’s law is valid for c) 60 and 120
o o
d) 120o and 30o
a) any open surface b) any closed surface 96. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the
c) only regular closed surface d) only irregular open surface order
Read and Answer the following question (attempt any 3): a) H2S < H2Se < H2Te b) H2Se < H2S < H2Te
When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the rod acquires one kind c) H2Te < H2S < H2Se d) H2Se < H2Te < H2S
of charge and the silk acquires the second kind of charge. This 97. Name the gas that can readaily decolourise acidified KMnO4
is true for any pair of objects that are rubbed to be electrified. solution.
Now if the electrified glass rod is brought in contact with silk, a) SO2 b) NO2 c) P2O5 d) CO2
with which it was rubbed, they no longer attract each other. 98. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong
They also do not attract or repel other light objects as they did oxidising agent. Which of the following reactions does not
on being electrified. Thus, the charges acquired after rubbing show oxidising behaviour?
are lost when the charged bodies are brought in contact. What a) Cu  2 H 2 SO4  CuSO4  SO2  2 H 2O
can you conclude from these observations? It just tells us that
unlike charges acqured by the objects neutralise or nullify each b) S  2 H 2 SO4  3SO2  2 H 2O
other’s effect. Therefore, the charges were named as positive
and negative by the American scientist Benjamin Franklin. We c) C  2 H 2 SO4  CO2  2 SO2  2 H 2O
know that when we add a positive number to a negative num-
ber of the same magnitude the sum is zero. This might have d) CaF2  H 2 SO4  CaSO4  2 HF
been the philosophy in naming the charges as positive and 99. Which of the following orders is correct for the bond
that on plastic rod or silk is termed negative. If an object pos- dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
sesses an electric charge, it is said to be electrified or charged.
a) Br2  I 2  F2  Cl2 b) F2  Cl2  Br2  I 2
When it has no charge it is said to be electrically neutral.
87. When you charge a balloon by rubbing it on your hair this is an c) I 2  Br2  Cl2  F2 d) Cl2  Br2  F2  I 2
example of what method of charging?
a) Friction b) Conduction c) Grounding d) Induction 100. The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and
88. Neutral atoms contain equal numbers of positive ____ and dilute aqueous NaOH are
negative ____. a) Cl  and ClO  b) Cl  and ClO2
a) Electrons and Protons b) Protons and Elecrtons
c) Neutrons and Electrons d) Protons and Neutrons c) ClO  and ClO3 d) ClO2 and ClO3
89. Which particle in an atom can you physically manipulate? 101. Which among the following is most reactive?
a) protons b) electrons a) I2 b) ICl c) Cl2 d) Br2
c) neutrons d) you can’t manipulate any particle in an atom 102. Which one has the highest boiling point?
90. If negatively charged rod touches a conductor, the conductor a) Kr b) Xe c) He d) Ne
will be charged by what method? 103. Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs
a) Friction b) Conduction c) Induction d) Convection associated with Xe?
a) XeO3 b) XeF4 c) XeF6 d) XeF2
Chemistry Total marks: 30 104. The gases produced in the reaction, Pb( NO3 ) 2 

 and

SECTION-A NH 4 NO3   are respectively
This section consists of 17 multiple choice questions with a) N2O, NO b) N2O, NO2 c) NO, NO2 d) NO2, N2O
overall choice to attempt any 12 questions. In case more than 105. Which of the following is the wrong statement?
desired number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 12 a) ozone is diamagnetic gas
will be considered for evaluation. b) ONCl and ONO– are isoelectronic
91. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits high- c) O3 molecule is bent
est oxidation state? d) Ozone is violet black in solid state
a) N2H4 b) NH3 c) N3H d) NH2OH 106. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with negative sign
92. Extra pure N2 can be obtained by heating of F, Cl, Br and I, having atomic numbers 9, 17, 35 and 53
a) NH3 and CuO b) NH4NO3 respectively is
c) (NH4)2Cr2 O7 d) Ba(N3)2 a) I > Br > Cl > F b) F > Cl > Br > I
93. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, c) Cl > F > Br > I d) Br > Cl > I > F
respectively produces 107. The correct geometry & hybridization for XeF4 are
a) N2O and NO2 b) NO2 and NO a) Octahedral, sp3d2 b) trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
c) NO and N2O d) NO2 and N2O c) planar triangle, sp d
3 3
d) square planar, sp3d2
 7
SECTION-B b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
This section consists of 15 multiple choice questions with of the A.
overall choice to attempt any 12 questions. In case moe than c) If A is true, but R is false
desired number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 12 d) If both A and R are false
will be considered for evaluation. 118. A: Nitrogen is less reactive than molecular oxygen.
108. Which of the following does not form a pentachloride? R: The bond length of N2 is shorter than that of oxygen.
a) P b) As c) Sb d) N 119. A: On cooling, the brown colour of nitrogen dioxide
109. The values of oxidation number of S in S8, S2F2 and H2S are disappears.
respectively R: On cooling, NO2 undergoes dimerisation resulting in the
a) –2, +1 and –2 b) –2, –1 and +2 pairing of odd electron of NO2.
c) 0, +1 and +2 d) 0, +1 and –2 120. A: H3PO3 is a dibasic acid.
  R: There are two H atoms directly attached to P.
110. The formation of O [P tF6 ] is the basis for the formation of
2 121. A: H2O is the only hydride of chalcogens which is liquid at
xenon fluorides. This is because ordinary temperature.
a) O2 and Xe have comparable sizes R: In ice, each O atom is surrounded by two covalent bonds
b) both O2 and Xe are gases and two H-bonds
c) O2 and Xe have comparable ionisation energies 122. A: The S–S–S bond angle in S8 molecule is 105o.
d) O2 and Xe have comparable electronegativities R: S8 has V-shape.
111. Bond dissociation enthalpy of E-H (E = element) bonds is given SECTION-C
below. Which of the compounds will act as strongest reducing This section consists of 8 multiple choice questions will over-
agent? all choice to attempt any 6 questions. In case more than de-
Compound NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3 sired number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 6 will be
 diss ( E  H ) / kJ mol 1 389 322 297 255 considered for evaluation.
a) NH3 b) PH3 c) AsH3 d) SbH3 123. Match the compounds given in Column I with the hybridisation
112. On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert and shape given in Column II and mark the correct option.
atmosphere of CO2, white phosphorus gives a gas. Which of Column I Column II
the following statement is incorrect about the gas? A) XeF6 1) sp3d3 – distorted octahedral
a) It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish B) XeO3 2) sp3d2 – square planar
b) It’s solution in water decomposes in the presence of light C) XeOF4 3) sp3 – pyramidal
c) It is more basic than NH3 D) XeF4 4) sp3d2 – square pyramidal
d) It is less basic than NH3 Code:
113. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to a) A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2) b) A(1), B(2), C(4), D(3)
a) Low oxidation state of phosphorus c) A(4), B(3), C(1), D(2) d) A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)
b) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H bond 124. Match the items of Columns I and II and mark the correct
c) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds option.
d) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus Column I Column II
114. Which of the following statement is wrong? A) H2SO4 1) Highest electron gain enthalpy
a) Single N–N bond is stronger than the single P–P bond B) CCl3NO2 2) Chalcogen
b) PH3 can act as a liquid in the formation of coordination C) Cl2 3) Tear gas
compound with transition elements D) Sulphur 4) Storage batteries
c) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature Code:
d) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O5 is four a) A(4), B(3), C(1), D(2) b) A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
c) A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3) d) A(2), B(1), C(3), D(4)
115. A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3 ion. It is due 125. Match the items of Columns I and II and mark the correct
to the formation of option.
Column I Column II
a) [ Fe( H 2O )5 ( NO )]2 b) FeSO4 .NO2 A) Its partial hydrolysis does 1) He
not change oxidation state
c) [ Fe( H 2O ) 4 ( NO ) 2 ]2 d) FeSO4 .HNO3 of central atom
116. The oxidation state of central atom in the anion of compound B) It is used in modern diving 2) XeF6
NaH2PO2 will be .... . apparatur
a) +3 b) +5 c) +1 d) –3 C) It is used to provide inert 3) XeF4
117. Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as moderately strong oxidising agent. It atmosphere for filling electrical
oxidises both metals and nonmetals. Which of the following bulbs
element is oxidised by conc. H2SO4 into two gaseous prod- D) Its central atom is in sp3d2 4) Ar
ucts? hybridisation
a) Cu b) S c) C d) Zn Code:
Assertion and Reason Type a) A(1), B(4), C(2), D(3) b) A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4)
a) If both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of c) A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3) d) A(1), B(3), C(2), D(4)
the A. 126. Match the species given in Column I with the shape in Column
II and mark the correct option.
 8
Column I Column II
A) SF4 1) Tetrahedral
B) BrF3 2) Pyramidal
C) BrO3 3) See-saw shaped

D) NH 4 4) Bent T-shaped
Case Study-I
Upon heating KClO3 in the presence of catalytic amount of
MnO2, a gas W is formed. Excess amount of W reacts with
white phosphorus to give X. The reaction of X with pure HNO3
gives Y and Z.
127. Y and Z are, respectively
a) N2O5 and HPO3 b) N2O3 and H3PO4
c) N2O4 and H3PO3 d) N2O4 and HPO3
128. W and X are, respectively
a) O2 and P4O6 b) O2 and P4O10
c) O3 and P4O6 d) O3 and P4O10
Case Study-II
The reactions of Cl2 gas with cold dilute and hot concentrated
NaOH in water give sodium salts of two (different) oxocids of
chlorine P and Q, respectively. The Cl2 gas reacts with SO2 gas,
in presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with
white phosphorus to give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S
gives an oxoacid of phosphorus, T.
129. R, S and T, respectively are
a) SO2Cl2, PCl5 and H3PO4 b) SO2Cl2, PCl3 and H3PO3
c) SOCl2, PCl5 and H3PO2 d) SOCl2, PCl5 and H3PO4
130. P and Q, respectively, are the sodium salts of
a) hypochlorus and chloric acids
b) hypochlorus and chlorus acids
c) chloric and perchloric acids
d) chloric and hypochlorus acid

All the best

*************