Weekly Test - NEET 2 Year Prog - 4 June

FEAT: The Career Institute
IIT-JEE | NEET | Olympiads | CBSE - ICSE
TEST SERIES
NEET – 2025
WEEKLY TEST
TEST DATE: 04-06-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
General Instructions:
• Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
marks.
• For every wrong response. 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered /
Unattempted questions will be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
Name of the Candidate: _________________________
FEAT: The Career Institute, Saksham Palace Pallavpuram Phase-1, Modipuram, Meerut- 250110, Ph 7906128108, 8077567128,
Email: featcareer@gmail.com, website: www.feateducation.in
2 NEET MOCK TEST
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. A player stops a football weighing 0.5 kg which comes flying towards him with a velocity of 10m/s. If
the impact lasts for 1/50th sec. and the ball bounces back with a velocity of 15 m/s, then the
average force involved is
(a) 250 N (b) 1250 N (c) 500 N (d) 625 N
Q2. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) If there were no friction, work need to be done to move a body up an inclined plane is zero.
(b) If there were no friction, moving vehicles could not be stopped even by locking the brakes.
(c) As the angle of inclination is increased, the normal reaction on the body placed on it increases.
(d) A duster weighing 0.5 kg is pressed against a vertical board with force of 11 N. If the coefficient
of friction is 0.5, the work done in rubbing it upward through a distance of 10 cm is 0.55 J.
Q3. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure.
The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is m. The acceleration 𝛼 of the cart that
will prevent the block from falling satisfies:
𝑚𝑔 𝑔 𝑔 𝑔
(a) 𝛼 > (b) 𝛼 > 𝜇𝑚 (c) 𝛼 ≥ 𝜇 (d) 𝛼 < 𝜇
𝜇
Q4. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two
are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms–1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of
8 ms–1. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms–1, its mass would be
(a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg (c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg
3 NEET MOCK TEST
Q5. A monkey is decending from the branch of a tree with constant acceleration. If the breaking strength is
75% of the weight of the monkey, the minimum acceleration with which monkey can slide down
without breaking the branch is
3𝑔 𝑔 𝑔
(a) 𝑔 (b) (c) 4 (d) 2
4
Q6. A car having a mass of 1000 kg is moving at a speed of 30 metres/sec. Brakes are applied to bring the
car to rest. If the frictional force between the tyres and the road surface is 5000 newtons, the car
will come to rest in
(a) 5 seconds (b) 10 seconds (c) 12 seconds (d) 6 seconds
Q7. A plate of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface (see figure), and a body of mass m is
placed on this plate. The coefficient of dynamic friction between this body and the plate is m. If a
force 2𝜇 mg is applied to the body of mass m along the horizontal, the acceleration of the plate will
be
𝜇𝑚 𝜇𝑚 2𝜇𝑚 2𝜇𝑚
(a) 𝑔 (b) (𝑀+𝑚) 𝑔 (c) 𝑔 (d) (𝑀+𝑚) 𝑔
𝑀 𝑀
Q8. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination
with the horizontal reaches 30º the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0s. The
coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be, respectively :
(a) 0.6 and 0.5 (b) 0.5 and 0.6 (c) 0.4 and 0.3 (d) 0.6 and 0.6
Q9. Four blocks of same mass connected by cords are pulled by a force F on a smooth horizontal surface, as
shown in fig. The tensions T1, T2 and T3 will be
1 3 1
(a) 𝑇1 = 4 𝐹, 𝑇2 = 2 𝐹, 𝑇3 = 4 𝐹
1 1 1
(b) 𝑇1 = 4 𝐹, 𝑇2 = 2 𝐹, 𝑇3 = 2 𝐹
4 NEET MOCK TEST
3 1 1
(c) 𝑇1 = 4 𝐹, 𝑇2 = 2 𝐹, 𝑇3 = 4 𝐹
3 1 1
(d) 𝑇1 = 4 𝐹, 𝑇2 = 2 𝐹, 𝑇3 = 2 𝐹
Q10. A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal surface (friction coefficient μ). A person is trying to
pull the body by applying a horizontal force but the body is not moving. The force by the surface on
the body is F, then
(a) F = Mg (b) F = 𝜇Mg
(c) 𝑀𝑔 ≤ 𝐹 ≤ 𝑀𝑔√1 + 𝜇 2 (d) 𝑀𝑔 ≥ 𝐹 ≥ 𝑀𝑔√1 + 𝜇 2
Q11. Which one of the following motions on a smooth plane surface does not involve force?
(a) Accelerated motion in a straight line
(b) Retarded motion in a straight line
(c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line
(d) Motion along a straight line with varying velocity
Q12. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a
frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass m2 is
suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is μk. When the block
A is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is
(𝑚2 −𝜇𝑘 𝑚1 )𝑔 𝑚1 𝑚2 (1+𝜇𝑘 )𝑔 𝑚1 𝑚2 (1−𝜇𝑘 )𝑔 (𝑚2 +𝜇𝑘 𝑚1 )𝑔

(a) (𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
(b) (𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
(c) (𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
(d) (𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
Q13. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination f is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough.
A body starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction
for the lower half is given by
(a) 2 cos ɸ (b) 2 sin ɸ (c) tan ɸ (d) 2 tan ɸ
Q14. The coefficient of static and dynamic friction between a body and the surface are 0.75 and 0.5
respectively. A force is applied to the body to make it just slide with a constant acceleration which is
𝑔 𝑔 3𝑔
(a) (b) (c) (d) 𝑔
4 2 2
Q15. The minimum force required to start pushing a body up rough (frictional coefficient m) inclined plane
is F1 while the minimum force needed to prevent it from sliding down is F2. If the inclined plane
𝐹
makes an angle 𝜃 from the horizontal such that tan 𝜃 = 2𝜇 then the ratio 𝐹1 is
2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
5 NEET MOCK TEST
Q16. Two blocks are connected over a massless pulley as shown in fig. The mass of block A is 10 kg and the
coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at constant speed. The mass of
block B in kg is
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
Q17. Tension in the cable supporting an elevator, is equal to the weight of the elevator. From this, we can
conclude that the elevator is going up or down with a
(a) uniform velocity (b) uniform acceleration
(c) variable acceleration (d) either (b) or (c)
Q18. What is the maximum value of the force F such that the block shown in the arrangement, does not
move?
(a) 20 N (b) 10 N (c) 12 N (d) 15 N
Q19. A block has been placed on an inclined plane with the slope angle 𝜃, block slides down the plane at
constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to
(a) sin 𝜃 (b) cos 𝜃 (c) g (d) tan 𝜃
Q20. A 0.1 kg block suspended from a massless string is moved first vertically up with an acceleration of
5ms–2 and then moved vertically down with an acceleration of 5ms–2. If T1 and T2 are the respective
tensions in the two cases, then
(a) T2 > T1
(b) T1 – T2 = 1 N, if g = 10ms–2
(c) T1 – T2 = 1kg f
(d) T1 – T2 = 9.8 N, if g = 9.8 ms–2
6 NEET MOCK TEST
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
Q6.
Q7.
Q8.
Q9.
Q10.
7 NEET MOCK TEST
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
Q14.
Q15.
Q16. 1 g of Mg is burnt with 0.56 g of oxygen in a closed vessel which reactant is left in excess and how much?
(a) Mg 0.16 g (b) O2 0.16 g (c) Mg 0.44 g (d) O2 0.28 g
Q17. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is:

(a) 1.8 × 1022 (b) 6.02 × 1023 (c) 1.806 × 1023 (d) 3.6 × 1023
Q18. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions SO32–, S2O42– and S2O62– follow the order:
(a) SO32–< S2O42– < S2O62–
(b) S2O42– < SO32–< S2O62–
(c) S2O42– < S2O62– < SO32–
(d) S2O62– < S2O42– < SO32–
Q19. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is:
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 6
Q20. In Haber’s process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30 L of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50%
of the expected product. What will be the composition of gaseous mixture under the aforesaid condition in the
end?
(a) 10 L ammonia, 25 L nitrogen, 15 L hydrogen
(b) 20 L ammonia, 20 L nitrogen, 15 L hydrogen
(c) 20 L ammonia, 25 L nitrogen, 25 L hydrogen
(d) 20 L ammonia, 25 L nitrogen, 30 L hydrogen
8 NEET MOCK TEST
Biology PART – C
SECTION – A
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct. You have to attempt all 50 Questions.
Q1. Meiosis has evolutionary significance because it results in

(a) genetically similar daughters
(b) four daughter cells
(c) eggs and sperms
(d) recombination
Q2. Identify the features present in meiosis but absent in mitosis.
(a) Pairing of non-homologous chromosome
(b) Pairing of homologous chromosome and recombination between them
(c) Disappearance of nucleoli
(d) Replication of DNA
Q3. Synapsis occurs between

(a) a male and a female gamete
(b) mRNA and ribosome
(c) spindle fibres and centromere
(d) two homologous chromosomes
Q4. Best stage to observe shape, size and number of chromosomes is
(a) Interphase (b) Metaphase (c) Prophase (d) Telophase
Q5. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at.

(a) late prophase (b) early metaphase (c) late metaphase (d) early prophase
Q6. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing.
(a) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(b) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(c) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
Q7. Meiosis I:
(a) is always followed by interphase
(b) is not followed by any period of rest
(c) is followed by a period of interkinesis
(d) is sometimes followed by interphase
9 NEET MOCK TEST
Q8. The centrioles replicate during:

(a) G1 phase (b) S phase (c) G2 phase (d) Early prophase
Q9. Bivalent chromosomes clearly appear is tetrads during:

(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
Q10. The beginning of diplotene recognized by:

(a) appearance of recombination nodules
(b) crossing over
(c) dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(d) appearance of chiasmata
Q11. Consider the given two statements:
I. During G1 phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does
not replicate its DNA
II. During G2 phase, proteins are synthesized in preparation for mitosis while cell
growth continues.
Of the two statements:
(a) Only I is correct
(b) Only II is correct
(c) Both I and II are correct
(d) Both I and II are incorrect
Q12. If the DNA content of an onion tip cell is 2C at the end of the M-phase, what would be its
DNA content at the end of the S-phase?
(a) C (b) 2C (c) 3C (d) 4C
Q13. The cell shown in the given diagram is in:
(a) Early prophase

(b) Late prophase
(c) Metaphase
(d) Telophase
10 NEET MOCK TEST
Q14. In oocyte of some vertebrates, the stage of meiosis I that can last for months or years would
be:
(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
Q15. At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated?

(a) Prophase I (b) Prophase II (c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase
Q16. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper
mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is
expected to occur?
(a) Chromosomes will not condense
(b) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(c) Chromosomes will not segregate
(d) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
Q17. Fill in the blanks:
i. The morphology of the chromosome is studied at A___.
ii. Recombination nodule appears at __B__ stage of prophase-l.
iii. __C__ induces polyploidy by inhibiting polymerisation of spindles.
iv. True reduction in number of chromosome occurs in __D__ stage.
1) A - Anaphase, B - Pachytene
2) C - Mustard gas, D – Metaphase I
3) A - Prophase, C - Colchicine
4) B - Pachytene, D - Anaphase I
Q18. Which of the following options gives the correct sequences of events during mitosis?
(a) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → crossing over → Segregation →
telophase
(b) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → arrangement at equator → centromere
division → Segregation → telophase
(c) Condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane disassembly → Segregation →
telophase
(d) Condensation → arrangement at equator → centromere division → Segregation →
telophase
Q19. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in
(a) S-phase
(b) G1 – phase
(c) G2 – phase
(d) M-phase
11 NEET MOCK TEST
Q20. Match the columns:

Column I Column II
P. Zygotene i. Chromosomes become gradually visible under the
light microscope
Q. Diakinesis ii. Bivalents clearly appear as tetrads
R. Pachytene iii. Terminalisation of chiasmata
S. Leptotene iv. synapsis
a). P- iv, Q - iii, R - ii, S - i b). P - i, Q - ii, R - iii, S - iv

c). P - ii, Q - iii, R - iv, S - i d). P - iv, Q - i, R - iii, S - ii
Q21. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
(a) Disappearance of nucleolus
(b) Chromosome movement
(c) Synapsis
(d) Spindle fibres
Q22. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at
(a) leptotene (b) zygotene (c) diplotene (d) pachytene
Q23. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequences

I. Crossing over
II. Synapsis
III. Terminalisation of chiasmata
IV. Disappearance of nucleolus
(a) II, I, IV, III (b) II, I, III, IV (c) I, II, III, IV (d) II, III, IV, I
Q24. A somatic cell that has just completed the S-phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete
of the same species has
(a) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
(b) same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA
(c) twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
(d) four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
Q25. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial
amount is denoted as 2C?
(a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S (c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M
Q26. A stage in cell division in shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct
identification of the stage with its characteristics.
12 NEET MOCK TEST
(a) Telophase – Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms

(b) Late anaphase – Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not
present
(c) Cytokinesis – Cell plate formed; mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells
(d) Telophase – Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet
Q27. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during

(a) Metaphase-I
(b) Anaphase-I
(c) Prophase-I
(d) Prophase-II
Q28. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell
division. Which is this stage
(a) Prophase-I during meiosis

(b) Prophase-II during meiosis
(c) Prophase of mitosis
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
Q29. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
(a) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(b) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
(c) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in
metaphase
(d) Chromatids separate but remains in the centre of the cell in anaphase
Q30. Astral rays arise from
(a) Centriole
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Chromatid
(d) Centromere
Q31. Number of mitotic divisions required in a cell of root tip for formation of 128 cells is
(a) 12 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 6
13 NEET MOCK TEST
Q32. When synapsis is complete all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a stage
called
(a) Zygotene (b) pachytene (c) diplotene (d) diakinesis.
Q33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis?

(a) It involves two stages of DNA replication one before meiosis-I and another before
meiosis-II
(b) It involves recombination and crossing over
(c) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase-II
(d) Nuclear membrane disappears during prophase.
Q34. Microtubule depolymerizing (breakdown of microtubule protein chain) drug such as
colchicine is expected to
(a) Inhibit spindle formation during mitosis
(b) Inhibit cytokinesis
(c) Allow mitosis beyond metaphase
(d) Induce formation of multiple contractile
Q35. Which of the following statements is incorrect about G0 phase?
(a) Mitosis occurs after G0 phase
(b) Biocatalysts can be used to exit G0 phase
(c) Cell volume keeps on increasing during this phase
(d) Cell metabolism occurs continuously in G0 phase
Q36. Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle?
(a) M-phase (b) Interphase (c) Leptotene (d) S-phase
Q37. Identify the correct matched pair.
(a) Segregation-Metaphase II
(b) Significance of meiosis-production of genetically similar cells
(c) Exchange of genetic material-Diakinesis
(d) Anaphase II of meiosis-Centromeric division
Q38. What is the correct sequence of the steps given here? Also work out the process depicted in
the steps.
(i) Homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles of the cell; chromatids
do not separate
(ii) Chromosomes gather together at the two poles of the cell and the nuclear
membranes reform
(iii) Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments
(iv) Homologous chromosomes align on a central plate
(v) The haploid cells separate completely
14 NEET MOCK TEST
(a) The correct sequence is III → IV → I → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

(b) The correct sequence is II → I → V → IV → III and the process is meiosis
(c) The correct sequence is IV → I → III → II → V and the process is meiosis-I
(d) The correct sequence is II → V → IV → I → II and the process is meiosis
Q39. Which of the following statements is True?
(a) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between the walls of the adjacent cells
(b) At the time of cytokinesis, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed
between the daughter cells
(c) Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and takes place by cell-plate formation while
animal cells by burrowing/cleavage and is centripetal
(d) All are correct
Q40. Liquid endosperm in coconut is resulted due to:
(a) Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis
(b) Failure of karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis
(c) Karyokinesis twice followed by single cytokinesis
(d) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
Q41. A reduction step during meiosis is important because:
(a) It returns the chromosome number before fertilization
(b) There is a mechanism for this
(c) Only one copy of each chromosome is necessary
(d) Otherwise, chromosome copies would double each fertilization
Q42. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
(a) Anaphase II
(b) Telophase II
(c) Metaphase I
(d) Metaphase II
Q43. Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores of chromosomes becomes evident in:
(a) Anaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Prophase
(d) Metaphase
Q44. Match the following column I with column II.
A. Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes 1. Anaphase II

B. Synthesis of RNA and protein 2. Zygotene
C. Action if enzyme recombinase 3. G2 – phase
D. Centromeres do not separate, but chromatids 4. Anaphase I
move towards opposite poles 5. Pachytene
15 NEET MOCK TEST
(a) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

(b) A-2 B-3 C-5 D-4
(c) A-1 B-2 C-5 D-4
(d) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-5
Q45. Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?
(a) Metaphase – telophase

(b) Telophase – Metaphase
(c) Late anaphase – Prophase
(d) Prophase – Anaphase
Q46. A given sample of somatic cell was treated with chemical X. It was found that chemical X
inhibits chromatid separation. During somatic cell division process, the treated cell will reach
which stage of division before being interrupted?
1) Anaphase 2) Metaphase
3) Telophase 4) Cytokinesis
Q47. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are

1. Genetically similar 2. Genetically different
3. Enucleate 4. Multinucleate
Q48. Match the following column I with column II

Column –I Column-II
A. Metaphase-I 1. Centromere with 2 Kinetochores
B. Anaphase-I 2. Disjunction
C. Mitosis 3. Synapse
D. Zygotene 4. Somatic cells
1) A B C D 2) A B C D
1 2 4 3 3 1 4 2
3) A B C D 4) A B C D
2 3 1 4 4 1 3 2
Q49. As compared to meiosis, in mitosis

1) homologous chromosomes form pairs
2) daughters have half chromosome number
3) telophase stage is absent
4) the prophase is shorter
16 NEET MOCK TEST
Q50. Meiosis and mitosis are found to be the two types of cell division. A cell is observed to have
50 chromosomes in its nucleus during interphase before entering S-phase. How many
chromosomes will it have after undergoing division by the two-division process?
Meiosis Mitosis
A. 100 25
B. 50 50
C. 50 100
D. 25 50
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

Weekly Test - NEET 2 Year Prog - 4 June

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Weekly Test - NEET 2 Year Prog - 4 June

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

FEAT: The Career Institute

IIT-JEE | NEET | Olympiads | CBSE - ICSE

Name of the Candidate: _________________________

Q2. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(𝑚2 −𝜇𝑘 𝑚1 )𝑔 𝑚1 𝑚2 (1+𝜇𝑘 )𝑔 𝑚1 𝑚2 (1−𝜇𝑘 )𝑔 (𝑚2 +𝜇𝑘 𝑚1 )𝑔

(a) sin 𝜃 (b) cos 𝜃 (c) g (d) tan 𝜃

Q17. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is:

Q1. Meiosis has evolutionary significance because it results in

Q3. Synapsis occurs between

Q5. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at.

Q8. The centrioles replicate during:

Q9. Bivalent chromosomes clearly appear is tetrads during:

Q10. The beginning of diplotene recognized by:

Q13. The cell shown in the given diagram is in:

(a) Early prophase

Q15. At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated?

Q20. Match the columns:

a). P- iv, Q - iii, R - ii, S - i b). P - i, Q - ii, R - iii, S - iv

Q23. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequences

(a) Telophase – Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms

Q27. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during

(a) Prophase-I during meiosis

Q33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis?

(a) The correct sequence is III → IV → I → II → V and the process is meiosis-I

A. Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes 1. Anaphase II

(a) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

(a) Metaphase – telophase

Q47. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are

Q48. Match the following column I with column II

Q49. As compared to meiosis, in mitosis

You might also like