SECTION 1

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time: 30 Minutes
50 Questions

In this section, you will demonstrate your skills in understanding

spoken English. There are three parts in the listening
comprehension section, with different tasks in each.

Part A.

DIRECTIONS: In part A you will hear short conversations

between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a third
speaker will ask a question about what the first two speakers said.
Each conversation and each question will be spoken only one
time. Therefore, you must listen carefully to understand what
each speaker says. After you hear a conversation and the
question, read the four choices and select the one that is the best
answer to the question the speaker asked. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the space that
corresponds to the letter for the answer you have chosen. Blacken
the space completely so that the letter inside the space does not
show.

Listen to the following example.

In the recording, you hear:

(Man) Does the car need to be filled?

(Woman) Mary stopped at the gas station on her way home.

(Narrator) What does the woman mean?

In your test book, you will read:

(A) Mary bought some food.

(B) Mary had car trouble.
(C) Mary went shopping.
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 (D) Mary bought some gas.

From the conversation you learn that Mary stopped at the gas
station on her way home. The best answer to the question ‘Does
the car need to be filled?” is (D), “Mary bought some gas.”
Therefore, the correct answer is (D).

Now let us begin Part A with question number 1.

1. A. They gave me a lift

B. He didn’t stand close to the door
C. He walked through the door on the left
D. The door was left open

2. A. Rich students don’t take math

B. Rich didn’t know much math
C. Rich is taking a math course
D. Rich should take math next year

3. A. They wanted to know if they could buy the picture

B. They were wandering around looking for a picture
C. They stopped by the picture gallery to ask questions
D. They thought that the picture was wonderful

4. A. He spent 15 minutes reading

B. He talked for 50 minutes
C. He found the magazine
D. He enjoyed the article

5. A. He’s looking for a new apartment

B. He decided to buy a new car
C. He doesn’t have the figures

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 D. His apartment is better than hers

6. A. The police stop most drivers

B. The speed limit is unreasonable
C. Drivers don’t watch the traffic carefully
D. Few people drive within the speed limit

7. A. Pink looks great on you

B. Black is out of style
C. The fashion changes every year
D. I don’t know the date of the fashion show

8. A. The banks are open at this hour

B. The river is overflowing its banks
C. Their bank is located nearby
D. The banks close too early

9. A. The teacher taught about dreams

B. The students are required to take the course
C. The lecture on dreams was a great success
D. Hardly anyone was listening to the teacher

10. A. They haven’t had much luck with the weather

B. The door was locked because of severe weather
C. She’s not sure if the door is locked
D. She can’t remember where the key to the door is.

11. A. She gave away my half

B. She is a half hour late
C. She is very angry
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 D. She is very hungry

12. A. It’s easy to get along with Paul

B. Paul was not feeling well
C. She is sorry that Paul is ill
D. Paul was uncomfortable

13. A. They showed us the back entrance

B. When they return, the show will have started
C. They don’t know what time the show starts
D. When they came back, there was no time left

14. A. She doesn’t need any help

B. She has two people helping her
C. She’s had enough
D. The man is very kind

15. A. There is no light in number 8

B. Smoking in the lounge is prohibited
C. The management doesn’t allow complaints
D. The conversation in the lounge is too loud

16. A. Six copies were made last week

B. The copier doesn’t work well
C. Eleven copies is plenty
D. There are 11 jars of jam

17. A. The club has stopped serving the Johnsons.

B. If the Johnsons want to, they can serve
themselves
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 C. The Johnsons think the service is bad
D. The Johnsons are going to the club
18. A. The new paint makes the house look clean
B. They worked for three days
C. They ran out of paint on the second day
D. They were in pain for two days

19. A. There are more students in the first class than in the
second
B. First class mail delivery is better than second
C. First class postage is more expensive than second
class
D. The packaging comes in two prices. First and
second.

20. A. Mike didn’t sleep well

B. Mike slipped last night
C. The car is parked for the night
D. The neighbor has a white dog

21. A. In a taxi
B. In a hotel
C. Downstairs
D. Downtown

22. A. The snow will stop soon

B. The man is wrong about the situation
C. The man is happy
D. A call isn’t necessary

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 23. A. Make up her mind
B. Take the man to work
C. Go to school
D. Do the right thing

24. A. He doesn’t like the company

B. He has ordered some books
C. He is a businessman
D. He is selfish

25. A. A picture C. A letter

B. A brochure D. A flier

26. A. Joe is not French

B. Joe is going the wrong way
C. Joe has passed his exam
D. Joe will probably fail

27. A. Room 217 C. The Conference room

B. Room 17 D. The meeting room

28. A. They don’t sell milk at the store

B. They already have enough milk
C. It’s their breakfast
D. It’s too late to go out

29. A. The woman C. The woman’s husband

B. A bakery D. The woman’s mother

30. A. The Stevensons have a lot of money

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 B. The Stevensons will have to make many
arrangements
C. Will they go by boat or by plane?
D. The Stevensons don’t appear to be rich

PART B

DIRECTIONS: In this part of the test, you will hear longer

conversations. After each conversation, you will hear
several questions. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in
your test book and select the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or
write in your test book.

31. A. Leaves C. Skins

B. Cloth D. Fibers

32. A. Elegant C. Pretentious

B. Functional D. Sturdy

33. A. 100 years C. 600 years

B. 300 years D. 1600 years

34. A. Leather has become cheaper

B. Computers have come down in price
C. Shoes are made by machines
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 D. The cost of labor has declined

35. A. In an airport C. At a wedding

B. In a bus depot D. On a school campus

36. A. To Baltimore C. To Chicago

B. To Philadelphia D. To New York

37. A. While visiting their children in college

B. While the man was attending a convention
C. When they went to college together
D. When the woman was in high school

38. A. One C. Three

B. Two D. Four
C. Three
PART C

DIRECTIONS: In part C you will hear short lecturers and

extended conversations. At the end of each, you will be
asked several questions. Each lecture or conversation and
each question will be spoken only one time. For this reason,
you must listen carefully to understand what each speaker
says. After you hear a question, read the four choices and
select the one that best answers the questions the speaker
asked. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and blacken the space that contains the letter for
the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions according to what is stated or implied
in the lecture or conversation.
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Listen to this sample talk.
You will hear:

Now listen to the following example.

You will hear:

You will read:

(A) By cars and carriages
(B) By bicycles, trains, and carriages
(C) On foot and by boat
(D) On board ships and trains

The best answer to the question “According to the speaker,

how did people travel before the invention of the
automobile?” is (B), “By bicycles, trains, and carriages.”
Therefore, the correct answer is (B).

Now listen to another sample question.

(Narrator) Approximately how many people are employed

in the automobile service industry?

You will read:

(A) One million C. Twelve million

(B) Ten million D. Ninety million

The best answer to the question “Approximately how many

people are employed in the automobile service industry?” is
(C), “Twelve million.” Therefore, the correct answer is (C).

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You are not allowed to make notes during the test

\
39. A. How thrilling police work can be
B. Why police work is enlightening
C. That police work has its mundane aspects
D. That serving on the police force is difficult

40. A. As full of risk and adventure

B. As straightforward but demanding
C. As routine but necessary
D. As guaranteed employment

41. A. Directing traffic C. Patrolling streets

B. Enforcing speed laws D. Resolving disputes

42. A. Changing tires for motorist

B. Verifying vehicle licenses
C. Walking the beat on city streets
D. Producing reports and correspondence

43. A. It’s physically exhausting C. It can be boring

B. It’s ineffectual D. It may be exhilarating

44. A. The first American government

B. Writing in the early colonial times
C. Population mobility in the colonial times
D. The establishment of first libraries

45. A. To describe their new lives

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 B. To produce literary volumes
C. To conquer wilderness
D. To improve their writing skills
46. A. To gain insight and understanding
B. To help shape them into novels
C. To make them a part of legal institutions
D. To develop American national character

47. A. Jamestown colony C. English tailors

B. Virginia Company D. Religious organizations

48. A. In Virginia C. In Boston Bay

B. In Pennsylvania D. In Middle Colonies

49. A. Philadelphia C. Jamestown

B. London D. Salem

50. A. Chronicles
B. Observations and essays
C. Government documents
D. Novels and poetry

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 THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1

SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION SECTION 2
Time: 25 Minutes
40 Questions

Part A

DIRECTIONS

Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each s you will

see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D) Choose
the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be
seen.

1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building

____.
A. sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery
B. sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully
C. sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week
D. sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers

2. Because the first pair of pants did not fit properly, he asked
for ___.
A. another pants
B. others
C. the others ones
D. another pair

3. The committee has met and ____.

A. They have reached a decision
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 B. it has formulated themselves some opinions.
C. its decision was reached at
D. it has reached a decision

4. Alfred Adams has not ____.

A. lived lonelynessly in times previous
B. never before lived sole
C. ever lived alone before
D. before lived without the company of his friends

5. John's score on the test is the highest in the class; _____

A. he should study last night
B. he should have studied last night
C. he must have studied last night
D. he must had to study last night

6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because

____.
A. he must to teach a class
B. he will be teaching a class
C. of he will teach a class
D. he will have teaching a class

7. Having been served lunch, _____.

A. the problem was discussed by the members of the
committee
B. the committee members discussed the problem
C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of
the committee

8. Florida has not yet ratified the amendment, and ____.

A. several other states hasn't either
B. neither has some of the others states
C. some other states also have not either
D. neither have several other states

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 9. The chairman requested that ____.
A. the members studied more carefully the problem
B. the problem was more carefulnessly studied
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
D. the members study the problem more carefully

10. California relies heavily on income from fruit crops, and

____.
A. Florida also
B. Florida too
C. Florida is as well
D. so does Florida

11. The professor said that ____.

A. the students can turn over their reports on the Monday
B. the reports on Monday could be received from the
students by him
C. the students could hand in their reports on Monday
D. the students will on Monday the reports turn in

12. This year will be difficult for this organization because ____.
A. they have less money and volunteers than they had last
year
B. it has less money and fewer volunteers than it had last
year
C. the last year it did not have as few and little volunteers
and money
D. there are fewer money and volunteers that in the last year
there were

13. The teachers have had some problems deciding …..

A. When to the students they shall return the final papers.
B. When are they going to return to the students the final
papers.
C. When they should return the final papers to the students.
D. the time when the final papers they should return for the
students.
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14. She wanted to serve some coffee to her guests; however, …..
A. She hadn't many sugar
B. There was not a great amount of the sugar
C. She did not have much s sugar
D. she was lacking in amount of the sugar

15. There has not been a great response to the sale, …..
A. does there
B. hasn't there
C. hasn't it
D. has there

Part B

DIRECTIONS

In questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or

phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked
(A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase
that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.

16. The main office of the factory can be found in Maple

A B C
Street in New York City.
D

17. Because there are less members present tonight than

A B
there were last night, we must wait until the next meeting
C
to vote.
D

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18. David is particularly fond of cooking, and he often
A B C
cooks really delicious meals.
D

19. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s is
A B C D
remarkable.

20. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she
A B C
A was seventeen years old.
D

21. The governor has not decided how to deal with the new
A B C
problems already.
D
22. There was a very interesting news on the radio this
A B C
morning about the earthquake in Italy.
D

23. The professor had already given the homework

A
assignment when he had remembered that Monday was
B C D
a holiday.

24. Having been beaten by the police for striking an officer,

A B
the man will cry out in pain.
C D

25. This table is not sturdy enough to support a television,

A B
and that one probably isn't neither.
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 C D

26. The bridge was hitting by a large ship during a sudden

A B C
storm last week.
D

27. The company representative sold to the manager a

A B

sewing machine for forty dollars.

C D

28. The taxi driver told the man to don't allow his
A B C

disobedient son to hang out the window.

D

29. These televisions are quite popular in Europe, but those

A B C
ones are not.
D

30. Harvey seldom pays his bills on time, and his brother \
A B C
does too.
D

31. The price of crude oil used to be a great deal lower than
A B C
now, wasn't it?
D

32. When an university formulates new regulations, it must

A B C
relay its decision to the students and faculty.
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 D

33. Jim was upset last night because he had to do too

A B C
many homeworks.
D

34. There is some scissors in the desk drawer in the

A B C C
bedroom if you need them.

35. The Board of Realtors doesn't have any informations

A
about the increase in rent for this area.
B C D

36. George is not enough intelligent to pass this

A B C
economics class without help.
D

37. There were so much people trying to leave

A B
the burning building that the police had a great deal
C D
of trouble controlling them.

38. John lived in New York since 1960 to 1975, but he is

A B
now living in Detroit.
C D

39. The fire began in the fifth floor of the hotel, but it
A B C
soon spread to adjacent floors.
D

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40. Mrs. Anderson bought last week a new sports car;
A
however, she has yet to learn how to operate the manual
B C D
gearshit.

SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION

Time: 55 Minutes
50 Questions

DIRECTIONS

In this section, you will read a number of passages. Each one is

followed by approximately ten questions about it. For questions
1-50, choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each
question. Then, find the number of the question on your answer
sheet, and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen. Answer all of the questions following a
passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Questions 1 through 10 are based on the following passage.

The Stone Age was a period of history which began in

approximately 2 million B.C. and lasted until 3000 B.C. Its name
was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern
scientists found. This period was divided into the Paleolithic,
Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages. During the first period (2 million
to 8000 B.C.), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and
cooking were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which
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evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic Age, people
were forced to seek shelter in caves. wear clothing, and develop
new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C.), people
made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took dogs hunting,
and developed the bow and arrow, which were used until the
fourteenth century A.D.
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C.) saw humankind
domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being less nomadic
than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and
creating governments.

1. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

2. In line 3, the word "derived" is closest in meaning to

A. Originated C. Hallucinated
B. Destroyed D. Discusses

3. Which of the following was developed earliest?

A. Fish hook C. Bow and arrow
B. Hatchet D. Pottery

4. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the

conditions of the Ice Age?
A. Farming C. Living Indoors
B. Clothing D. Using Fire

5. The word "crude" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. Extravagant C. Vulgar
B. Complex D. Primitive

6. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because
A. It was very durable like stone
B. The tools and weapons were made of stone
C. There was little vegetation
D. People lived in stone caves
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7. In line 15, "nomadic" is closest in meaning to
A. Sedentary C. Primitive
B. Wandering D. Inquisitive

8. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?

A. The Neolithic Age C. The Stone Age
B. The Paleolithic Age D. The Ice Age

9. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?

A. People were inventive
B. People stayed indoors all the time.
C. People were warriors.
D. People were crude

10. In line 16, the word "eras" is closest in meaning to

A. Families B. Periods C. Herds D. Tools

Questions 11 through 23 are based on the following passage.

Hot boning is an energy-saving technique for the meat

processing industry. It has received significant attention in recent
years when increased pressure for energy conservation has
accentuated the need for more efficient methods of processing
the bovine carcass. Cooling an entire carcass requires a
considerable amount of refrigerated space, since bone and
trimmable fat are cooled along with the muscle. It is also
necessary to space the carcasses adequately in the refrigerated
room for better air movement and prevention of microbial
contamination, thus adding to the volume requirements for
carcass chillers.
Conventional handling of meat involves holding the beef
sides in the cooler for 24 to 36 hours before boning. Chilling in
the traditional fashion is also associated with a loss of carcass
weight ranging from 2 percent to 4 percent due to evaporation of
moisture from the meat tissue.

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 Early excision, or hot boning, of muscle prerigor
followed by vacuum packaging has several potential advantages.
By removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor, refrigeration
space and costs are minimized, boning labor is decreased, and
storage yields increased. Because hot boning often results in the
toughening of meat, a more recent approach, hot boning
following electrical stimulation, has been used to reduce the
necessary time of rigor mortis. Some researchers have found this
method beneficial in maintaining tender meat, while others have
found that the meat also becomes tough after electrical
stimulation.

11. The word "accentuated" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

A. De-emphasized C. Caused
B. Speeded up D. Highlighted

12. All of the following are mentioned as drawbacks of the

conventional method of boning EXCEPT
A. Storage space requirements
B. Energy waste
C. Loss of carcass weight
D. Toughness of meat

13. In line 3, the word "pressure" is nearest in meaning to

A. Urgency C. Flavor
B. Weight D. Cooking texture

14. Hot boning is becoming very popular because

A. It causes meat to be very tender
B. It helps conserve energy and is less expensive than
conventional methods
C. Meat tastes better when the bone is adequately seared
along with the meat.
D. It reduces the weight of the carcass

15. In line 10, "carcass chiller" is nearest in meaning to

A. A refrigerator for the animal body
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 B. A method of boning meat
C. Electrical stimulation of beef
D. Early excision

16. In line 18, "early excision" is closest in meaning to

A. Vacuum packaging C. Carcass chilling
B. Hot boning D. Electrical stimulation

17. The toughening of meat during hot boning has been

combatted by
A. Following hot boning with electrical stimulation
B. Tenderizing the meat
C. Using electrical stimulation before hot boning
D. Removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor

18. The word "bovine" in line 5 is nearest in meaning to

A. Cold C. Beef
B. Electrically stimulated D. Pork

19. The word "this" in line 23 refers to

A. Hot boning
B. Hot boning following electrical stimulation
C. Rigor mortis
D. Removing edible muscle and fat prerigor

20. In line 5, the word "carcass" is closest in meaning to

A. Deboned meat C. Refrigerator
B. Body D. Fat

21. The word "considerable" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

A. Frigid C. Kind
B. Lesser D. Substantial

22. One reason it is recommended to remove bones before

refrigerating is that
A. It makes the meat more tender
B. The bones are able to be used for other purposes
23
 C. It increases chilling time
D. It saves cooling space by not refrigerating parts that
will be discarded

23. The word "trimmable" in line 6 is nearest in meaning to

A. unsaturated C. Unhealthy
B. Removable D. Chillable

Questions 24 through 27 are based on the following passage.

Busy people don’t want their vacations to be a hassle.

That’s why all-inclusive resorts are becoming popular. At these
resorts, one price includes all meals, drinks, lodging and
sightseeing. Golf, tennis and swimming are available for free.
Other sports, such as scuba diving, deep sea fishing, and rock
climbing, may require separate fees for equipment rental, but
instruction and excursions are included. Many resorts also include
children’s activities as part of the package. Check with a travel
agent to find an all-inclusive resort with activities you would
enjoy.

24. The word “hassle” in line 1, is closest meaning to

A. Adventure C. Routine
B. Expense D. Bother

25. What does it mean to be an “all-inclusive” resort?

A. They’re in an exclusive location
B. One price includes food, lodging, and activities
C. Only families may stay here
D. Room price and airfare are included

26. What might cost extra at these resorts?

A. Excursions and instruction
B. Transportation for sightseeing
C. Hotel maid service
D. Sports equipment rental

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27. What is the best way to find an all-inclusive resort?
A. Ask a friend C. Consult a travel agent
B. Read in a travel guide D. Call some hotels

Questions 28 through 32 are based on the following passage.

Meetings can waste a great deal of time. But you can

make your meeting run more smoothly by following a few simple
rules. First, have an agenda. This will help keep you focused on
what is important. Next, decide who needs to be involved. More
people mean less efficient discussion. Finally, keep the discussion
moving. Thank each speaker as he or she finishes and move on to
the next speaker. This encourages people to make their remarks
brief. And don’t forget: what happens after a meeting is more
important that what happened during the meeting. The skills used
then are more professional and less procedural. So, no matter how
well you run a meeting, it is the work that gets done after the
meeting that is important.

28. What is one way to run a meeting well?

A. Watch how your manager runs meetings.
B. Minimize the number of participants.
C. Let the group make decisions.
D. Let everyone speak.

29. What is the purpose of a meeting agenda?

A. To keep the speakers organized.
B. To allow free discussion.
C. To send to others in advance.
D. To keep focused on important items.

30. How should you receive other people’s comments at a

meeting?
A. Try to keep others from talking.
B. Thank them and move on.
C. Give them as much time as they want.
D. Respond in detail to all comments.
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31. The word “remarks” in line 7, is closest in meaning to
A. Meetings C. Comments
B. Questions D. Schedules

32. The author states that

A. Meetings should be held more frequently.
B. All meetings should be in the morning.
C. No one should receive credit for their work.
D. The real work is accomplished after the meetings.

Questions 33 through 40 are based on the following passage.

In 1920, after some thirty-nine years of problems with

disease, high costs, and politics, the Panama Canal was officially
opened, finally linking the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans by
allowing ships to pass through the fifty-mile canal zone instead of
traveling some seven thousand miles around Cape Horn. It takes a
ship approximately eight hours to complete the trip through the
canal and costs an average of fifteen thousand dollars, one tenth
of what it would cost an average ship to round the Horn. More
than fifteen thousand ships pass through its locks each year.
The French initiated the project but sold their rights to
the United States, which actually began the construction of the
project. The latter will control it until the end of the twentieth
century when Panama takes over its duties.

33. Who currently controls the Panama Canal?

A. France C. Panama
B. United States D. Canal Zone

34. The word "locks" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

A. Securities C. lakes
B. Latches D. Canal gates

35. On the average, how much would it cost a ship to travel

around
26
 A. $ 1,500 C. $ 150,000
B. $ 15,000 D. $ 1,500,000

36. In what year was construction begun on the canal?

A. 1881 C. 1939
B. 1920 D. 1999

37. It can be inferred from this passage that

A. The canal is a costly project which should be re-
evaluated.
B. Despite all the problems involved, the project is
beneficial.
C. Many captains prefer to sail around Cape Horn because
is less expensive
D. Problems have made it necessary for three governments
to control the canal over the years.

38. In line 3, the word "linking" is closest in meaning to

A. Controlling C. Detaching
B. Dispersing D. Joining

39. In line 11, "initiated" is nearest in meaning to

A. Purchased C. Forfeited
B. Launched D. Forced

40. All of the following are true EXCEPT

A. It costs so much to pass through the locks because very
few ships use them.
B. The United States received the rights to the canal from
the French.
C. A ship can pass through the canal in only eight hours.
D. Passing through the canal saves thousands of miles of
travel time around Cape Horn.

Questions 41 through 45 are based on the following passage.

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September 1, Zurich: RADD, A.G., the Swiss chemical company
purchased the European polypropylene business of Royal
Chemical Industries, P.L.C., of Britain. No price was disclosed,
but RCI said the deal represented 1 to 2 percent of its net assets
and would be paid in cash. Based on net assets, the price would
be between $100 million and $160 million. The acquisition
includes RCI production plants in England, Denmark, Norway,
and Poland. The plants alone are valued at $60 million to $80
million. Polypropylene, a tough, flexible plastic, has used that
range from rope fibers to bottles.

41. RADD is probably located in

A. England C. Denmark
B. Switzerland D. Poland

42. According to the article, which is used to make rope fibers?

A. Hemp C. Steel
B. Cotton D. Polypropylene

43. How much will RADD pay for RCI?

A. $80 million
B. $100 million
C. Between $100 and $160 million
D. Between $60 and $80 million

44. Where is RCI’s head office?

A. Norway C. Britain
B. Denmark D. Poland

45. What are the terms of the deal?

A. Payment in cash C. 2% of gross assets
B. Payment in stock D. 1% down payment

Questions 46 through 50 are based on the following passage.

Psychology recognizes two types of research,

experimental and differential. The former concerned mainly with
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the overall processes governing human activities, and the latter
sets out to establish individual differences in performance. More
recent studies have demonstrated the need for a third type of
psychological study, namely, that which has to do with human
development. Rather than considering this aspect of human
performance as a part of the first two types, scientists have noted
that developmental research indeed belongs in a separate category
in and of itself. Puget's work would indisputably fall in the area of
developmental theories that have had great impact on both
experimental and differential research When examining Piaget's
studies, it is necessary to keep in mind that, while his theories
have been highly influential, his methodology has been strongly
criticized. The primary shortfall of his work had to do with a lack
of definition and standardization in his data and experiment
design

46. According to the passage, what is the central goal of

experimental research?
A. To arrive at a general classification of individuals.
B. To analyze individual differences in human activity.
C. To establish the psychological processes governing
humans.
D. To administer experiments on humans and processes.

47. In line 6, the word “namely” is closest in meaning to

A. Specially C. Hence
B. Specifically D. Nearly

48. According to the passage, developmental psychology

belongs in
A. The domain of Piaget’s work.
B. A category of dispute studies.
C. Its own unique area of study.
D. Other domains of research.

49. In line 13, the phrase “to keep in mind” is closest in meaning
to
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 A. Remember C. Remark
B. Restate D. Resolve

50. What is considered to be the greatest drawback of Piaget’s

research?
A. His methodology was not based on an influential theory.
B. His methodology was unsystematic, and his data were
haphazard.
C. His developmental theories and findings were not
recognized.
D. His studies did not undergo thorough examination.

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