Father of Admission Test 2nd Edition JU PMSCS Version

Father of Admission Test
[2nd Edition]
JU PMSCS Version
Mail Me: mustakimbilla007@gmail.com
Prepared by: Mustakim Billah Bedar
www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation
Links to connect With Me:
https://www.facebook.com/groups/NetC https://www.facebook.com/groups/8580 www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

omEducation 42971559671
Applicant's Eligibility [PMSCS]
Applicants must satisfy any one of the following criteria:
• BSc (Engineering) in any discipline from any recognized University

• 4-year BSc (or 3-year Honors + 1-year MSc) in CS/CSE/IT/EEE/ECE/ETE or equivalent
• 4-year BSc (or 3-year Honors + 1-year MSc) in
Physics/Mathematics/Statistics/Geological/Sciences/Chemistry/Environmental Sciences
• 4-year BSc (or 3-year Honors + 1-year MSc) in any subject with at least 1-year PGD in CSE/IT or
equivalent
N.B. Candidates with third Division Class or CGPA below 2.50 at any level of their academic career are not eligible
to apply. [ Source Admission Notice of CSE department]
Subjects to crack PMSCS Admission Test
1. Computer fundamental 9. IQ ICT related

2. Programing (C/C++) Advance /JAVA basic 10. Basic English [Grammar (Specially
knowledge) preposition, right form of verb), Synonym,
3. Data Structure Antonym]
4. Algorithm design 11. OS
5. Microprocessor 12. Digital Electronics
6. Database 13. Analytical reasoning
7. Data communication and Networking 14. Quantitative Analysis
8. Mathletics/Statistics and Probability
Mark Distribution
Total 50 marks
MCQ 40*1=40, Written 10*1=10. [Recent Procedure]
MCQ 30*1=30, written 10*2=20. [Older Procedure]
https://youtu.be/Z_z3H_jLVNo
Courses offered by PMSCS
All the courses are not available right now. Approximately 35 courses are available in each season.
Prerequisite Courses
1. Structured Programming 12. Database System

2. Object Oriented Programming 13. Simulation and Modeling
3. Discrete Mathematics 14. Computer Networks
4. Data Structures 15. Human Computer Interaction
5. Computer Architecture 16. Algorithm Analysis and Design
6. Operating Systems 17. System Analysis and Design
7. Data Communication 18. Multimedia Communication
8. Numerical Methods 19. Math Lab Programming
9. Signals and systems 20. Web Design and Programming
10. Computer Graphics 21. Computer Ethics & Cyber Law
11. Software Engineering
Core Courses:
1. Cloud Computing 21. Web Application Security

2. Software Design and Development 22. Neuro Informatics
3. Advanced Database Management System 23. Switching and Routing Technology
4. E-Commerce 24. Network Security
5. Advanced Operating Systems 25. Information Theory and Coding System
6. Artificial Intelligence and Expert System 26. Artificial Neural Networks
7. Parallel and Distributed Computing 27. Embedded System Engineering
8. Mobile and Wireless Communication Systems 28. Telecommunication Network Planning and Optimization
9. Network Management 29. Telemedicine and Telehealth
10. Software Project Management and quality Assurance 30. Adhoc Networks
11. Mobile Application Development 31. Digital Forensic
12. Digital Signal Processing 32. Robotics
13. Digital Image Processing 33. internet Engineering and IP Technology
14. Computer vision 34. internet Technologist and Applications
15. Medical imaging 35. Introduction to Data Science
16. Data Mining 36. Internet of Things and Sensor Networks
17. Industrial Automation Systems 37. Natural Language Processing
18. Health Informatics 38. Network Programming
19. Management information System 39. Machine Learning
20. Software Tasting
Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

Faculty Members
Jahangirnagar University
Department of Computer Science and Engineering
initial Name Background

HA Dr. Mohammad Hanif Ali B.Sc(JU), MSc.(JU), PhD(UK)Professor
JKD Dr. Jugal Krishna Das B.Sc(Donetsk), MSc.(Donetsk), PhD(Kiev)Professor
MSU Dr. Mohammad Shorif Uddin B.Sc. Engg. (BUET), M.Tech.Ed. (Japan), Ph.D. (Japan)Professor
ZR Dr. Mohammad Zahidur Rahman B.Sc(BUET), MSc.(BUET), PhD(Malaysia) Professor
II Dr. Md. Imdadul Islam B.Sc. Engg. (BUET), MSc. Engg. (BUET), PhD (JU)Professor
LJR Dr. Liton Jude Rozario B.Sc(JU), MS(JU), PhD(JU)Professor
GM Md. Golam Moazzam B.Sc(JU), MS(JU) Professor, PHD (JU) (Coordinator)
IJ Dr. Israt Jahan B.Sc(BUET), MSc.(BUET), PhD (JU)Professor
HK Dr. Md. Humayun Kabir B.Sc(DU), MSc.(DU), PhD(Ireland)Professor
AKA Md. Abul Kalam Azad B.Sc(JU), MSc.(KTH, Sweden)Professor
ASMMR Dr. Abu Sayed Md. Mostafizur Rahaman B.Sc(JU), MSc.(Germany) PhD(JU)Professor
EI Dr. Md. Ezharul Islam B.SC. (JU), M.ENGG.(JAPAN), PHD(JAPAN)Associate Professor
MA Dr. Morium Akter Associate Professor
MMA Dr. Md. Musfique Anwar B.Sc (JU), MSc. (Japan), PhD (Australia) Associate Professor
SB Sarnali Basak BSC(JU), MSC (University of Edinburgh, UK)Assistant Professor
TH Tahsina Hashem B.Sc. (JU), M.Sc. Engg. (BUET)Assistant Professor
RJ Md. Rafsan Jani B.SC. (JU), MS(JU)Lecturer
SS Sabrina Sharmin B.Sc (JU)
MS (JU)
AM Anup Majumder BSc (JU)
MS (JU)
MAI Mohammad Ashraful Islam BSc(JU)
MSc(JU)
BA Bulbul Ahmed BSc(JU)
MSc(JU)
Department of Computer Science and Engineering: Staff members (Register office)

Mukul Vai: 01941336337
Rehana Mam: 01772131872
Sohid vai: 01762109478, 01935026111
[Information collected and organized by JU PMSCS Alumni Association]

Waiver, Credit System and Cost
• CSE students having CGPA 3.00 or above gets waiver and completes 10 Subjects including project/thesis
(2 prerequisite+7 core + project/thesis)
• Other Students complete 13 subjects including project/thesis (5 prerequisite+7 core+ project/thesis)
• Students can take maximum 4 courses in a semester.
• Retake option is there but you have to pay some extra for that and if you extend any semester you will have
to pay more.
• 1 course = 3 credit and per credit 2.5k
• Overall cost 1 Lakh 40k (approx.) for Waived Students and 1 Lakh 65k (approx.)
• During admission you have to pay 53.5k

Class Routine and Mark Distribution
• Classes are held on only Fridays. But sometimes classes are held on Saturday as a make up class and during
semester final Friday and Saturday both.
• There are four time slots. 2 classes Before Jumma Salah and 2 classes after that.
• Class duration 1.5 hours (sometimes more, sometime less than that)
• 100 marks for each course. 40 marks for assignments, quiz, CT etc. and rest 60 is written exam.
• Class routine gets changed frequently.

Let’s Begin Our Journey to Crack JU PMSCS Admission Test
We have seen that PMSCS mostly follows MCQ based on CSE major Subjects. Almost 80% mcq comes from
CSE and ICT related subjects . Rest 20% includes mathematics, analytical and English. Some mathematics
from differential calculus which is tough to answer. Some math from JSC, SSC, HSC general math book which
is not that tough. English includes mostly prepositions and right form of verb which is also quite easy. So, you
should focus on CSE based subjects MCQ as much as possible.
There are few subjects which is most popular for this admission test and it has been seen that these topics are
touched much more than other subjects. These Subjects/ Topics are:
1. Computer Network
2. Programming
3. Database
4. Data Structure
5. Probability
6. Math from series
So You should have a clear and broad knowledge of these subjects/Topics.
It has been seen that almost 10% mcq is been repeated without any change. 20% mcq is slightly changed but
the answer remains same and 20% mcq is changed but the fact is similar to the previous questions. So, If you
can solve previous questions the possibility of getting merit position is much higher. If you read this pdf with
your full attention, I assure you that you will be able to solve more than 90% of the previous questions.
They usually provide two sets of question paper colored differently and You just need to tick the correct answer.
There is no negative marking (so far). Earlier the questions used to be hard enough and that’s why students
obtaining 50% mark used to get chance. Recently we have seen that the questions are bit easy and that’s why
the percentage may get high. So you should keep a target to obtain more than 30 mark out of 50. There are
some tricks and tips to correct mcq. You should also apply this. To learn these tricks watch my video.
https://youtu.be/zJth9N_FvfY

Join this group: https://www.facebook.com/groups/858042971559671
Programming with OOP and Basic Java
1. Who developed C language? 8. A relational operator……

Dennis Ritchie
(A) assigns operand to another
(B) yields a Boolean result

2. Which of the following is true about static variable?
(C) logically combines two operands
A. It can be called from another function
(D) compares two operands
B. It exists even after the function ends.
C. It can be modified in another function by sending it as a

parameter. 9. The keyword used to transfer control from a function
back to the calling function is
D. All of the above
A. switch
3. An array element is accessed using B. goto
(A) member name C. go back
(B) an index number D. return
(C) dot operator
(D) a first in first out approach 10. Choose correct statement about Functions in c
language
A. A function is a group of statement which can be reused any

4. A pointer is ……….. number of times.
(A) address of a variable B. Every function has a return value
(B) a variable for storing address C. Every function may not return a value.
(C) data type of an address variable D. All of the above
(D) indication of the variable to be accessed next
11. Choose correct statement about Functions in c

language
5. By the process of linking, the resulting code is called
as ____ A. A function name cannot be same as a predefined c keyword.
Executable code B. A function name can start with an underscore.
C. Default return type of any function is an integer.
6. In the ____ structure, the logical expression is D. All of the above

checked first.
While-loop
12. Choose the correct statement about c language pass
by value.
7. How many values can be returned from a function? A. Pass by value copies the variable value in one more memory
location
(A) 1
B. Pass by value does not use pointers
(B) 2
C. Pass by value protect your source variable from changes in
(C) 3 outside functions.
(D) 4 D. All of the above
Prepared By Mustakim Billah Bedar www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

13. Global variables are 19. Choose the correct statement about c structures.
A. Internal A. Structure elements can be initialized at the time of

declaration.
B. External
B. Structure elements cannot be initialized at the time of
C. Both internal and external declaration.
D. None of the above C. Only integer members of the structure can be initialized at
the time of declaration
D. None of the above

14. Which of the following cannot be static in C?
A. Variable
20. Choose the correct statement about c structure
B. Functions elements
C. Structures A. Structure elements are stored on random free memory
locations
B. Structure elements are stored on register memory location
C. Structure elements are stored in contiguous memory

15. Which of the following is a storage specifier?
locations.
A. enum
D. None of the above.
B. union
C. auto
21. What is the size of c union?
D. volatile
A. C union is always 128 bytes
B. Size of the union is the total bytes of all elements of

16. The default parameter passing mechanism is structure.
A. Call by values C. Size of the union is the size of largest element
B. Call by reference D. None of the above
C. Call by value result
D. None of these 22. What is actually passed if you pass a structure

variable to a function?
A. Copy of structure variable

17. What is the size of c structure?
B. Reference of structure variable
A. C structure is always 128 bytes
C. Starting address of structure variable
B. Size of the structure is the total bytes of all elements of
structure. D. Ending address of structure variable
C. Size of the structure is the size of largest element
D. None of the above 23. User defined data type can be derived by
A. struct
18. Address stored in pointer variable is of………. type B. enum
A. Integer C. typedef
B. Float D. All of the above
C. Char
D. Array

24. What is the main difference between structure and 30. A mode which is used to open an existing file for both
union? reading and writing is
A. There is no difference A. W
B. Union takes less memory B. W+
C. Union is faster C. A+
D. Structure is faster D. R+
25. The reason for using pointers in c program is 31. Select a function which is used to write a string to a
file
A. Pointers allow different functions to share and modify their
local variable A. pits()
B. To pass large structures so that complete copy of the B. putc()

structure can be avoided
C. fputs()
C. Pointers enable complex linked data structures
D. fgets(
D. All of the above
32. Select a function which is used to read a single

26. A pointer is character from a file at a time?
A. A keyword used to create variables A. fscanf()
B. A variable that stores address of an instruction B. getch()
C. A variable that stores address of another variable C. fgetc()
D. All of the above. D. fgets()
27. Which header file should be included to use function 33. Select a function which is used as a formatted output
like malloc(), calloc()? file function
A. memory.h A. printf()
B. stdlib.h B. fprintf()
C. dos.h C. puts()
D. string.h D. fputs()
28. How will you free the allocated space? 34. The data type of file pointer is
A. remove(variable-name) A. int
B. free(variable-name) B. double
C. delete(variable-name) C. void
D. dealloc(variable-name) D. FILE
29. FILE is of ……. type
A. int type
B. char * type
C. struct type

35. What is the need of closing a file in c language? 41. Which function is related to dynamic memory
allocation:
A. fclose(fp) close a file to release the memory used in opening
a file. a. malloc();
B. closing a file clears buffer contents from RAM or memory b. calloc()
C. unclosed files occupy memory and PC hangs when on low c. realloc()

memory
d. All of above.
D. all of the above
42. In the call by reference we pass:

36. If there is an error while opening a file, fopen will
return a. Value of the variable
A. nothing b. Address of variable
B. EOF c. Both value and address
C. NULL d. None of these
D. Depend on compiler
43. A pointer variable can store
37. getc() returns End of file when a. Constant value
A. getc() fails to read the character b. Value of anther variable.
B. end of file is reached c. Address of another variable
C. both a and b d. None of these.
D. none of the above

44. Which of the following is input function:
38. Specify the two library functions to dynamically a. gets();

allocates memory.
b. getch();
A. malloc() and memalloc()
c. getchar();
B. mlloc() and memalloc()
d. scanf();
C. malloc() and calloc()
e. All of the above
D. memalloc() and faralloc()
45. Which is not the output function:

39. Which is not the selective control flow statement:
a. printf();
a. while
b. puts();
b. if
c. puchar();
c. Switch-case
d. putch();
d. if-else
e. None of the above
40. strcmp() function is used for …………….
46. Array can be sorted by using:
a. Copy two strings
a. Bubble Sort
b. Compare two strings.
b. Merge Sort
c. Concatenation of two strings
c. Quick Sort
d. None of these
d. All of above

47. An array is a ………… data-structure: 53. Which is the incorrect statement:
a. Linear a. Variable name can contain underscore.
b. Non-linear b. Variable name may start from digit.
c. Hierarchical c. Variable name may not have white space character.
d. None of these d. Keyword can not be a variable name.
48. Array index is always starts from: 54. C has ………. keywords:
a. 0 a. 30
b. 1 b. 31
c. 2 c. 32
d. 3 d. 33
49. Which is the incorrect statement: 55. What is the only language that a computer
understands directly?
a. An array is the collection of variables.
(a) English
b. All array variables have same type.
(b) BASIC
c. Array variables can be used individually.
(c) machine language
d. None of these.
(d) Assembly Language
50. Which statement is wrong:

56. Which of the following is the functionality of ‘Data
a. A function may have arguments. Abstraction’?
b. A function may return value. (a) Reduce Complexity
c. A can be invoked many time in a single program. (b) Binds together code and data
d. Function cannot be reused. (c) Parallelism
(d) None of the mentioned

51. Which is not the c keyword:
a. typedef 57. Which of the these is the functionality of

‘Encapsulation’?
b. extern
(a) Binds together code and data
c. register
(b) Using single interface for general class of actions.
d. local
(c) Reduce Complexity
(d) All of the mentioned

52. Uninitialized variable may have:
58. What is ‘Basis of Encapsulation’?
a. Garbage value.
(a) object
b. Can not be zero
(b) class
c. Both
(c) method
d. None of these.
(d) all of the mentioned

59. How will a class protect the code inside it? 65. Variable which uses same name in whole program
and in its all routines thus best classified as
(a) Using Access specifiers
(a) middle variable
(b) Abstraction
(b) default variable
(c) Use of Inheritance
(c) local variable
(d) All of the mentioned
(d) global variable
60. Which of the following is a mechanism by which

object acquires the properties of another object? 66. If the function returns no value then it is called ____
(a) Encapsulation (A) Data type function
(b) Abstraction (B) Calling function
(c) Inheritance (C) Main function
(d) Polymorphism (D) Void function
61. Which of the following supports the concept of 67. Technique of using fixed words for machine code
hierarchical classification? functions is classified as
(a) Polymorphism (a) mnemonics
(b) Encapsulation (b) mechanics
(c) Abstraction (c) compiler
(d) Inheritance (d) translator
62. Which of the following concept is often expressed by 68. 'object program' is also called
the phrase, ‘One interface, multiple methods’?
(a) program code
(a) Abstraction
(b) machine code
(b) Polymorphism
(c) assembler
(c) Inheritance
(d) compiler
(d) Encapsulation
69. Data structure in which all elements have similar

63. Functions used in programs that are defined by name is considered as
programmers are called
(a) string structure
(a) program layout
(b) positive structure
(b) program procedure
(c) array
(c) built-in functions
(d) data structure
(d) user-defined function
70. Translation of assembly language into machine code
64. An assembler translates is a task of
(a) machine code into assembly code (a) assembler
(b) assembly code into machine code (b) programmer
(c) processing time into manual time (c) analysts
(d) routine into subroutine (d) financer

71. Which character is used to indicate the end of the 77. Left most bit 0 in Singed representation indicates.?
string?
A) A Positive number
(A) Any alphabet
B) A Negative Number
(B) A
C) An Unsigned number
(C) Null
D) None of the above
(D) None of these
78. Operator % in C Language is called.?

72. Which of the following input function cannot be used
to input multiword string in a single function call? A) Percentage Operator
(A) getche() B) Quotient Operator
(B) gets() C) Modulus
(C) scanf() D) Division
(D) None of above
79. Which of the following are tokens in C?
73. C is _______ type of programming language.? a) Keywords
A) Object Oriented b) Variables
B) Procedural c) Constants
C) Bit level language d) All of the above
D) Functional
80. What is the valid range of numbers for int type of
data?
74. C language was invented in which laboratories.?
a) 0 to 256
A) Uniliver Labs
b) -32768 to +32767
B) IBM Labs
c) -65536 to +65536
C) AT&T Bell Labs
d) No specific range
D) Verizon Labs
81. Character constants should be enclosed between ___

75. C language was invented to develop which Operating
System.? a) Single quotes
A) Android b) Double quotes
B) Linux c) Both a and
C) Ubuntu b d) None of these
D) Unix
76. Size of float, double and long double in Bytes are.? 82. String constants should be enclosed between ___
A) 4, 8, 16 a) Single quotes
B) 4, 8, 10 b) Double quotes
C) 2, 4, 6 c) Both a and b
D) 4, 6, 8 d) None of these

83. Which of the following is an example of compounded 89. The printf() function retunes which value when an
assignment statement? error occurs?
a) a=5 a) Positive value
b) a+=5 b) Zero
c) a=b=c c) Negative value
d) a=b d) None of these
84. The operator && is an example for ___ operator. 90. Null character is represented by
a) Assignment a) \n
b) Increment b) \0
c) Logical c) \o
d) Rational d) \e
85. The operator & is used for 91. Which among the following is an unconditional
control structure
a) Bitwise AND
a) do-while
b) Bitwise OR
b) if-else
c) Logical AND
c) goto
d) Logical OR
d) for
86. Operators have precedence. Precedence determines

which operator is………… 92. Continue statement is used
a) faster a) to go to the next iteration in a loop
b) takes less memory b) come out of a loop
c) evaluated first c) exit and return to the main function
d) takes no arguments d) restarts iterations from the beginning of the loop
87. Which of the following is a ternary operator? 93. Which of the following is a keyword is used for a
storage class
a) ?:
a) printf
b) *
b) external
c) sizeof
c) auto
d) ^
d) scanf
94. A Link is
88. p++ executes faster than p+1 because
a) a compiler
a) p uses registers
b) an active debugger
b) p++ is a single instruction
c) a C interpreter
c) ++ is faster than +
d) an analyzing tool in C
d) None of these

95. A pointer to a pointer is a form of 101. Who developed object-oriented programming?
a) multiple indirections a. Adele Goldberg

b. Dennis Ritchie
b) a chain of pointers c. Alan Kay
d. Andrea Ferro
c) both a and b
d) None of these
102. In C++, a function contained within a class is called
(A) a method
96. If the size of the array is less than the number of
initializers then, (B) a class function
a) Extra values are being ignored (C) member function
b) Generates an error message (D) none of these
c) Size of Array is increased
d) Size is neglected when values are given 103. Which of the following is not an OOPS concept?
a. Encapsulation
b. Polymorphism
c. Exception
97. What is used as a terminator in C?
d. Abstraction
a) ?
b) ;
104. Which feature of OOPS described the reusability of
c) : code?
d) _ a. Abstraction
b. Encapsulation
c. Polymorphism
d. Inheritance
98. What is the answer of: 7%3
a) 2.5
105. Which feature of OOPS derives the class from
b) 1
another class?
c) 2 a. Inheritance
b. Data hiding
d) 3 c. Encapsulation
d. Polymorphism
99. The _______ chars have values from -128 to 127.

106. Which operator from the following can be used to
a) signed
illustrate the feature of polymorphism?
b) unsigned
a. Overloading <<
c) long b. Overloading &&
c. Overloading | |
d) none d. Overloading +=
100. C supports the ______ statement to branch

unconditionally from one point to another in the
program. 107. Which operator overloads using the friend function?
a. *
a) continue b. ()
c. ->
b) goto
d. =
c) break
d) for

108. Which two features of object-oriented programming 115. Which of the following feature is also known as run-
are the same? time binding or late binding?
a. Abstraction and Polymorphism features are the same a. Dynamic typing
b. Inheritance and Encapsulation features are the same b. Dynamic loading
c. Encapsulation and Polymorphism features are the same c. Dynamic binding
d. Encapsulation and Abstraction d. Data hiding
109. Which of the following definition is incorrect for 116. Which of the following OOP concept binds the code
polymorphism? and data together and keeps them secure from the
a. Polymorphism helps in redefining the same functionality outside world?
b. Polymorphism concept is the feature of object-oriented a. Polymorphism
programming (OOP) b. Inheritance
c. It always increases the overhead of function definition c. Abstraction
d. Ease in the readability of the program d. Encapsulation
110. Which among the following cannot be used for the 117. Which member of the superclass is never accessible
concept of polymorphism? to the subclass?
a. Static member function a. Public member
b. Constructor Overloading b. Protected member
c. Member function overloading c. Private member
d. Global member function d. All of the mentioned
111. Which function best describe the concept of 118. Which class cannot create its instance?
polymorphism in programming languages? a. Parent class
a. Class member function b. Nested class
b. Virtual function c. Anonymous class
c. Inline function d. Abstract class
d. Undefined function
119. Which of the following variable violates the definition

112. ……. is not a member of the class? of encapsulation?
a. Virtual function a. Array variables
b. const function b. Local variables
c. Static function c. Global variables
d. Friend function d. Public variables
113. Which member function is assumed to call first when 120. How can the concept of encapsulation be achieved in
there is a case of using function overloading or the program?
abstract class? a. By using the Access specifiers
a. Global function b. By using the concept of Abstraction
b. Local function c. By using only private members
c. Function with lowest priority d. By using the concept of Inheritance
d. Function with the highest priority
121. The object cannot be________?

114. What is the extra feature in classes which was not in a. passed by copy
the structures? b. passed as function
a. Member functions c. passed by value
b. Data members d. passed by reference
c. Public access specifier
d. Static Data allowed

122. Which among the following feature does not come 133. Which of the following operators always takes no
under the concept of OOPS? argument if overloaded?
a. Data binding (a) ++

b. Data hiding
c. Platform independent (b) /
d. Message passing
(c) —
(d) +
123. Which of the following feature interacts one object
with another object?
124. Message reading 134. The keyword that is used that the variable can not
125. Message passing change state?
126. Data transfer
(a) static
127. Data binding
(b) friend
(c) private
128. Which definition best defines the concept of
abstraction? (d) const
a. Hides the important data
b. Hides the implementation and showing only the features
c. Hiding the implementation 135. In OOP a class is an example of:
d. Showing the important data
(a) Data Type
(b) both a & d

129. The combination of abstraction of the data and code
(c) User Defined Type
is viewed in________.
a. Inheritance (d) Abstract Type
b. Object
c. Class
d. Interfaces
136. Which operator can not be overloaded?
(a) The relation operator ( >= )

130. The principle of abstraction___________
(b) Conditional operator (? : )
a. is used to achieve OOPS.
b. is used to avoid duplication (c) Script operator ( [] )
c. Use abstraction at its minimum
d. is used to remove longer codes (d) Assignment operator ( = )
131. To convert from a user-defined class to a basic type, 137. A static member function cannot be declared
you would most likely use
(a) Explicit
(a) an overloaded = operator
(b) Implicit
(b) a one-argument constructor
(c) Static
(c) a built-in conversion operator
(d) Virtual
(d) a conversion operator that‘s a member of the class
138. We can get only one unique value which can be used
132. The main function of scope resolution operator (::) is, by all the objects of that class by the use of
(a) To define an object (a) instance variables
(b) To define a data member (b) dynamic variables
(c) To link the definition of an identifier to its declaration (c) static variables
(d) All of the given (d) data members

139. Friend functions are _____________ functions of a 145. When a variable is define as static in a class then all
class object of this class
(a) object member (a) Have different copies of this variable
(b) non-member (b) Have same copy of this variable
(c) data member (c) Can not access this variable
(d) None of these (d) None of these
140. _______ remain in memory even when all objects of 146. When the base class and the derived class have a
a class have been destroyed member function with the same name, you must be
more specific which function you want to call using
(a) Primitive variables ___________
(b) Instance variable (a) Operator overloading

(c) Static variables (b) null operator
(d) None of these (c) scope resolution operator
(d) dot operator
141. What problem(s) may occur when we copy objects

without using deep copy constructor?
147. The compiler won‘t object if you overload the *
(a) Dangling pointer operator to perform division
(b) System crash (a) True
(c) Memory Leakage(Object is not deleted) (b) False
(d) All of the given
148. Default constructor is such constructor which either

has no________ or if it has some parameters these
142. The return type of a constructor is of have________ values
(a) Integer (a) Parameter, default
(b) No type (b) Null, Parameter
(c) Double (c) Parameter, temporary
(d) Character (d) None of these
143. Which one of the following terms must relate to
polymorphism?
149. Outside world can access only __________ members
(a) Dynamic allocation of a class using its object
(b) Static typing (a) Public
(c) Static allocation (b) Private
(d) Dynamic binding (c) Protected
(d) No member is accessible

144. Which one is not a class association? 150. A copy constructor is invoked when
(a) Composition (a) an argument is passed by reference
(b) Inheritance (b) an argument is passed by value
(c) Simple Association (c) a function returns by reference
(d) Aggregation (d) a function do not returns by value

151. __________ Operator will take only one operand 157. Which of the following best defines a class?
(a) New a) Parent of an object
(b) int b) Instance of an object
(c) object c) Blueprint of an object
(d) None of these d) Scope of an object
152. Class is _________ abstraction. 158. Which header file is required in C++ to use OOP?
a) Object a) iostream.h
b) Logical b) stdio.h
c) Real c) stdlib.h
d) Hypothetical d) OOP can be used without using any header file
153. When is a constructor called? 159. Object is ________ abstraction.
(a) Each time the constructor identifier is used in a program a) Object

statement
b) Logical
(b) During the instantiation of a new object
c) Real
(c) During the construction of a new class
d) Hypothetical
(d) At the beginning of any program execution
160. Which definition best describes an object?

154. The main function of scope resolution operator (::) is
a) Instance of a class
(a) To define an object
b) Instance of itself
(b) To define a data member
c) Child of a class
(c) To link the definition of an identifier to its declaration
d) Overview of a class
(d) To make a class private
161. The object can’t be __________

155. ________ is automatically called when the object is
created a) Passed by reference
(a) member function b) Passed by value
(b) object c) Passed by copy
(c) constructor d) Passed as function
(d) None of these
156. Which of the following operators cannot be 162. How members of an object are accessed?
overloaded?
a) Using dot operator/period symbol
(a) Scope resolution operator ( :: )
b) Using scope resolution operator
(b) Insertion operator ( << )
c) Using member names directly
(c) Extraction operator ( >> )
d) Using pointer only
(d) The relation operator ( > )

163. Object declared in main() function _____________ 170. Which option is false about the final keyword?
a) Can be used by any other function a) A final method cannot be overridden in its subclasses.
b) A final class cannot be extended.
b) Can be used by main() function of any other program c) A final class cannot extend other classes.
d) A final method can be inherited.
c) Can’t be used by any other function
d) Can be accessed using scope resolution operator

171. What do you mean by chained exceptions in Java?
a) Exceptions occurred by the VirtualMachineError
b) An exception caused by other exceptions
164. Size of a class is _____________
c) Exceptions occur in chains with discarding the
a) Sum of the size of all the variables declared inside the class debugging information
d) None of the above
b) Sum of the size of all the variables along with inherited
variables in the class
c) Size of the largest size of variable 172. Who invented Java Programming?
d) Classes doesn’t have any size a) Guido van Rossum
b) James Gosling
165. Which of the following option leads to the portability c) Dennis Ritchie
and security of Java? d) Bjarne Stroustrup

a) Bytecode is executed by JVM
b) The applet makes the Java code secure and portable
c) Use of exception handling 173. Which statement is true about Java?
d) Dynamic binding between objects
a) Java is a sequence-dependent programming language
b) Java is a code dependent programming language

166. Which of the following is not a Java features?
a) Dynamic c) Java is a platform-dependent programming language
b) Architecture Neutral
c) Use of pointers d) Java is a platform independent programming language
d) Object-oriented
174. Which component is used to compile, debug and

167. _____ is used to find and fix bugs in the Java execute the java programs?
programs. a) JRE
a) JVM
b) JIT
b) JRE
c) JDK c) JDK
d) JDB
d) JVM
168. Which package contains the Random class?

a) java.util package 175. Which environment variable is used to set the java
b) java.lang package path?
c) java.awt package
a) MAVEN_HOME
d) java.io package
b) CLASSPATH
c) JAVA
169. What do you mean by nameless objects?
a) An object created by using the new keyword. d) JAVA_HOME
b) An object of a superclass created in the subclass.
c) An object without having any name but having a
reference.
d) An object that has no reference.

176. What is the extension of compiled java classes? 178. Which of these keywords can be used to prevent
Method overriding in Java?
a) .txt
a) final
b) .js
b) protected
c) .class
c) static
d) .java
d) constant
177. Which exception is thrown when java is out of
memory?
a) MemoryError 179. Which provides runtime environment for java byte

code to be executed?
b) OutOfMemoryError
A.JDK
c) MemoryOutOfBoundsException
B.JVM
d) MemoryFullException
C.JRE
D.JAVAC
To practice small codes that comes in admission test these videos (follow the link) helped me a lot and I believe you will correct most of the
admission test mcq’s if you learn these examples shown in these two videos.
https://youtu.be/EmYvmSoTZko
https://youtu.be/AlOQMTr5zD0

Computer Network MCQ
1. The communication mode that supports data in both 7. Which Project 802 standard provides for a collision-
directions at the same time is……….. free protocol?
A. simplex A. 802.2
B. half-duplex B. 802.3
C. full-duplex C. 802.5
D. multiplex D. 802.6
2. Why was the OSI model developed? 8. The 802.5 standard implements a way for preventing
collisions on the network. How are collisions
A. manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite prevented when using this standard?
B. the rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially A. CSMA/CD
C. standards were needed to allow any two systems to B. Token passing

communicate
C. Collision detection
D. Time sharing
3. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is

__________ 9. Transport layer of OSI model lies between Network
a) 5 and ___________ layer
b) 7
c) 6 A. Application
d) 10
B. Data link
C. Session
4. CRC stands for __________
D. Presentation
a) Cyclic redundancy check
b) Code repeat check
c) Code redundancy check
d) Cyclic repeat check 10. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?
A. Application layer
5. Who invented the modem? B. Transport layer
A. Wang Laboratories Ltd. C. Network layer
B. AT & T Information Systems, USA D. Data link layer
C. Apple Computers Inc.
D. Digital Equipment Corpn 11. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable?
A. A packet may be lost
6. Pure ALOHA has a maximum throughput of --------- B. Packets may arrive out of order
A.16.4 % C. Duplicate packets may be generated
B. 18.4 % D. All of the above
C. 7.4 %
D. 1 %
Prepared by Mustakim Billah Bedar www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

12. The Internet is an example of……. 18. Which of the following device is used to connect two
systems, especially if the systems use different
A. Cell switched network protocols?
B. circuit switched network A. hub
C. Packet switched network B. bridge
D. All of above C. gateway
D. repeater
13. What is the use of Ping command?
A. To test a device on the network is reachable 19. _______ can detect burst error of length less than or
equal to degree of the polynomial and detects burst
B. To test a hard disk fault errors that affect odd number of bits.
C. To test a bug in an Application A. Hamming Code
D. To test a Pinter Quality B. CRC
C. VRC
14. The combination of an IP address and a port D. None of the above
number is known as___________
A. network number
20. The PSTN is an example of a …………………
B. socket address network.
C. subnet mask number A. packet switched
D. MAC address B. circuit switched
C. message switched
15. Which of the following is reliable communication? D. None of these
A. TCP
B. IP 21. A subset of a network that includes all the routers

but contains no loops is called:
C. UPD
A. spanning tree
D. All of them
B. spider structure
C. spider tree
16. What is the size of Host bits in Class B of IP
address? D. none of the mentioned
A. 04
B. 08 22. ICMP is primarily used for…………

C. 16 A. error and diagnostic functions
D. 32 B. addressing
17. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for C. forwarding
transferring electronic mail messages from one
machine to another? D. none of the mentioned
A. FTP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. RPC

23. FDDI is a 29. A small network making up the Internet and also
having a small numbers of computers within it is
A. ring network called…………..
B. star network A. Host

C. mesh network B. Address
D. bus based network C. Subdomain

24. When displaying a web page, the application layer
uses the…………..
30. The ____ translates internet domain and host names
A. HTTP protocol to IP address.
B. FTP protocol A. domain name system
C. SMTP protocol B. routing information protocol
D. none of the mentioned C. network time protocol
D. internet relay chat

25. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?
A. Vulnerability attack 31. Which address is the loopback address?

B. Bandwidth flooding A. 0.0.0.1
C. Connection flooding B. 127.0.0.0
D. All of the mentioned C. 127.0.0.1
D. 255.255.255.255
26. Which transmission media has the highest
transmission speed in a network?
32. What is the port number for HTTP?
A. coaxial cable
A. 99
B. twisted pair cable
B. 86
C. optical fiber
C. 80
D. electrical cable
D. 23
27. The slowest transmission speeds are……..

33. With an IP address of 201.142.23.12, what is your
A. Coaxial cable default subnet mask?
B. Twisted pair wire A. 0.0.0.0

C. Fiber-optic cable B. 255.0.0.0
D. Microwave C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
28. What does the acronym ISDN stand for?
A. Indian Standard Digital Network
B. Integrated Services Digital Network
C. Intelligent Services Digital Network
D. Integrated Services Data Network

34. Which Layer is Responsible for Congestion 40. What is the first octet range for a class A IP
Control? address?
A. Network Layer A. 1 - 126
B. Data link Layer B. 192 - 255
C. Transport Layer C. 192 - 223
D. Application layer D. 1 – 127
35. Which of these is a feature of hubs? 41. What is the first octet range for a class B IP
address?
A. Hubs amplifies the incoming signal.
A. 128 - 255
B. Hubs understand frames, packets or headers
B. 1 - 127
C. All lines coming into a Hub must operate at a same speed.
C. 192 - 223
D. all of these
D. 128 – 191
36. Which of the following is a MAC address?

42. What OSI layer handles logical address to logical
A. 192.166.200.50 name resolution?
B. 00056A:01A01A5CCA7FF60 A. Transport
C. 568, Airport Road B. Physical

D. 01:A5: BB: A7: FF: 60 C. Presentation
D. Data Link
37. The main difference between TCP and UDP is
A. UDP is connection oriented whereas TCP is datagram service 43. A __________ is a device that forwards packets
B. TCP is an Internet protocol whereas UDP is an ATM protocol between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.
C. UDP is a datagram whereas TCP is a connection-oriented
service a. Bridge
b. Firewall
D. All of the above c. Router
d. Hub
38. What operates in the Data Link and the Network

layer? 44. Network congestion occurs _________
a) In case of traffic overloading
A. NIC
b) When a system terminates
B. Bridge c) When connection between two nodes terminates
d) In case of transfer failure
C. Brouter
D. Router
45. Which of the following networks extends a private
39. In OSI model, which of the following layer provides network across public networks?
error-free delivery of data? a) Local area network
b) Virtual private network
A. Data link c) Enterprise private network
d) Storage area network
B. Network
C. transport
D. Session

46. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI 54. In TDM, the transmission rate of a multiplexed path
model when compared with TCP IP model? is always _______ the sum of the transmission
a) Application layer a) Greater than
b) Presentation layer b) Lesser than
c) Session layer c) Equal to
d) Session and Presentation layer d) Equal to or greater than
47. The functionalities of the presentation layer include 55. Propagation delay depends on ___________
____________ a) Packet length
a) Data compression b) Transmission rate
b) Data encryption c) Distance between the routers
c) Data description d) Speed of the CPU
d) All of the mentioned
56. Which of the following protocols below work in the

48. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is application layer?
provided by __________
a) Application layer A. POP
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer B. PPP
d) Link layer
C. FTP
D. Both a and d above

49. Which layer is used to link the network support
layers and user support layers?
a) Session layer 57. A network point that provides entrance into another
b) Data link layer network is called as ___________
c) Transport layer
d) Network layer A. Node
B. Gateway
50. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________ C. Switch

a) Network layer
b) Physical layer D. Router
c) Data link layer
d) Transport layer
58. Token Ring is a data link technology for?
51. Which of the following are transport layer protocols A. WAN

used in networking?
B. MAN
a) TCP and FTP
b) UDP and HTTP C. LAN
c) TCP and UDP
d) HTTP and FTP D. both a and b above
52. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called 59. TELNET used _________ protocol for data
__________ connection
a) Death period
b) Poison period A. TCP
c) Silent period
d) Stop period B. UDP
C. IP
53. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________ D. DHCP

a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits

60. ARP works on Ethernet networks. b) 100 mbps

A. False c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps
B. True
67. In which topology there is a central controller or
hub?
61. _______ assigns a unique number to each IP
network adapter called the MAC address.
a) Star
b) Mesh
A. Media Access Control c) Ring
B. Metro Access Control d) Bus
C. Metropolitan Access Control

68. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as
D. Both B and C above analog signal by
a) digital modulation
62. A packet whose destination is outside the local b) amplitude modulation

TCP/IP network segment is sent to the ___ _. c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
A. File server
B. Default gateway 69. How long is an IPv6 address?
C. DNS server a) 32 bits
D. DHCP server
b) 128 bytes
c) 64 bits
d) 128 bits
63. Which protocol below operates at the network layer
in the OSI model? 70. Communication between a computer and a keyboard
involves……….transmission
A. IP
a) Automatic
B. ICMP
b) Half-duplex
C. RARP c) Full-duplex
D. All of the above d) Simplex
64. Which of the IP headers decides when the packet 71. MAC address is of
should be discarded?
a) 24 bits
A. Fragment control b) 36 bits
B. TTL c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
C. Checksum
D. Header length 72. Ethernet frame consists of
65. Which port is reserved for use of the SMTP a) MAC address
protocol? b) IP address
A. 21 c) both MAC address and IP address
d) none of the mentioned
B. 23
C. 25 73. ICMP is primarily used for

D. 53
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
66. What is the max data capacity of STP?
c) forwarding
a) 10 mbps

74. What flavor of Network Address 80. A local telephone network is an example of
Translation can be used to have one IP a……network.
address allow many users to connect to
the global Internet? a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
a) NAT
c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched
b) Static
d) Line switched
c) Dynamic
d) PAT 81. Most packet switches use …………. principle
a) Stop and wait

75. A is a device that b) Store and forward
forwards packets between networks by c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward
processing the routing information
d) Stop and forward
included in the packet.
a) bridge 82. The default connection type used by HTTP is

b) firewall
c) router a) Persistent
d) all of the mentioned b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on
connection request
76. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE
802.11 standard for wireless LAN? d) None of the mentioned
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
83. FTP is built on architecture
c) ALOHA
d) None of the mentioned a) Client-server
b) P2P
77. Multiplexing is used in
c) Both of the mentioned
a) Packet switching d) None of the mentioned
b) Circuit switching
84. FTP uses parallel TCP
c) Data switching connections to transfer a file
d) Packet & Circuit switching
a) 1
b) 2
78. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per
layer, is called c) 3
d) 4
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack 85. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it
has to be encoded into
c) protocol suite
d) none of the mentioned a) Binary
b) Signal
79. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital
signals?
c) ASCII
d) None of the mentioned
a) FDM
b) TDM 86. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for……..
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned

87. SSH uses to authenticate the 93. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?
remote computer.
A. Session layer
a) public-key cryptography
B. Physical layer
b) private-key cryptography
C. Data Link layer
c) any of public-key or private-key
D. Application layer
d) both public-key & private-key
94. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the
88. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is

provided by
a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
a) Application layer c) Application layer
b) Session layer d) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer 95. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in
89. You have 10 users plugged into a hub
running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a
a) Browser security
server connected to the switch running b) Email security
10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much c) FTP security
bandwidth does each host have to the d) None of the mentioned
server?
96. ATM and frame relay are
a) 100 kbps
b) 1 Mbps a) virtual circuit networks
c) 2 Mbps b) datagram networks
d) 10 Mbps c) virtual private networks
90. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol)
provides …….to the client.
97. ATM uses the
a) IP address
b) MAC address
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
c) Url b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
d) None of the mentioned c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
91. The DHCP server
98. An ATM cell has the payload field of
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration
a) 32 bytes
parameters
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) 128 bytes
99. Frame relay has error detection at the
92. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport
layer? a) physical layer
b) data link layer
a) IP c) network layer
b) TCP d) transport layer
c) UDP
d) ARP 100. In classless addressing, there are no classes but
addresses are still granted in
a) IPs
b) Blocks
c) Codes
d) Sizes

101. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is…….

108. What is a stub network?
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes A. A network with more than one exit point.
c) 30bytes B. A network with more than one exit and entry point.
d) 40bytes C. A network with only one entry and no exit point.
D. A network that has only one entry and exit point.
102. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is
a) Huge number of systems on the internet 109. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as
b) Very low number of system on the internet
a) Stream of bytes
c) Providing standard address
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
103. Which of the following is the d) Packets
broadcast address for a Class B
network ID using the default
subnetmask? 110. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet
called
a) 172.16.10.255
b) 255.255.255.255 a) Packet
c) 172.16.255.255
b) Buffer
d) 172.255.255.255
c) Segment
d) Stack
111. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP

104. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with
a Class C network ID, which subnet a) Connection-oriented
mask would you use?
b) Unreliable
a) 255.255.255.252 c) Transport layer protocol
b) 255.255.255.255 d) All of the mentioned
c) 255.255.255.240
112. what is the header size of UDP packet?
d) 255.255.255.248
a) 8 bytes
105. Which protocols are used for Storage management? b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
a) SNMP d) 124 bytes
b) LDAP
c) POP3 113. The technique in which a congested node
stops receiving data from the immediate
d) MIB
upstream node or nodes is called as
106. allows you to connect and login to a a) Admission policy

remote computer
b) Backpressure
a) Telnet c) Forward signaling
b) FTP d) Backward signaling
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned 114. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model.

107. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, B. So application developers can change only one layer's
authentication, and multilink? protocols at a time.
A. NCP
C. So different networks could communicate.
B. HDLC
D. So Cisco could use the model.
C. LCP (Link Control Protocol)

D. X.25

115. The functions of a DNS server to convert 120. This is an IP address 168.212.226.204 which class
……………… name to ……………….. address? this address belong to?
a. Web address and DNS a. Class A
b. Email address and DNS b. Class B
c. MAC address and IP c. Class C
d. DNS and IP d. Class D
116. Active HUB is under -----layer but passive HUB is 121. A DNS client is called……….
under -----layer OSI model? a) DNS updater
a. Data link and network
b) DNS resolver
b. Physical and data link
c) DNS handler
c. physical and zero
d. network and transport
122. If a server has no clue about where to find the

117. Which of the following cables is widely used in address for a hostname, then
LAN? a) server asks to the root server
a. Twisted pair
b) server asks to its adjacent server
b. Co-axial
c) request is not processed
c. Fiber optic
d. None
123. A switch is most often used to connect……….

118. Physical transmission medium lies in which layer of a. Individual Computer
OSI reference model?
b. Different LANs
a. Physical
c. Cable segments of a LAN
b. Network
d. None of the above
c. session
d. None
124. Which one of the following allows client to update
119. The datalink layer takes the packet from---------------
their DNS entry as their IP address change?
-------- and encapsulates them into frame
a) dynamic DNS
transmission.
a. Network layer b) mail transfer agent
b. Physical layer c) authoritative name server
c. Transport layer d) none of the mentioned
d. Application layer

125. In wireless ad-hoc network 130. WiMAX provides………….

a) access point is not required a) simplex communication
b) access point is must b) half duplex communication
c) nodes are not required c) full duplex communication
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
126. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 131. In TCP/IP network, the port address is
802.11 standard for wireless LAN? (a) 16-bit
a) CDMA
(b) 32-bit
b) CSMA/CA
(c) 64-bit
c) ALOHA
(d) 128-bit
132. WiMAX is mostly used for………..

127. A wireless network interface controller can work in a) local area network
a) infrastructure mode
b) metropolitan area network
b) ad-hoc mode
c) personal area network
c) both (a) and (b)
133. An interconnected collection of piconet is called

128. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN. a) scatternet
a) time division multiplexing
b) micronet
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) mininet
c) space division multiplexing
134. In case of fiber-optic cables, which transmission

129. Which one of the following event is not possible in mode is used for transmission data over long
wireless LAN. distance?
a) collision detection (a) Infrared
b) Acknowledgement of data frames (b) Radio
c) multi-mode data transmission (c) Single mode
d) none of the mentioned (d) Multimode

135. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for……….. 140. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client
a) local area network connected in the internet?
a) DHCP
b) personal area network
b) IP
c) both (a) and (b)
c) RPC
136. Bluetooth uses………….

a) frequency hoping spread spectrum 141. In cryptography, what is cipher?
a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) encrypted message
c) time division multiplexing
c) both (a) and (b)
137. In the piconet of bluetooth one master device

a) can not be slave 142. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is
kept by
b) can be slave in another piconet
a) sender
c) can be slave in the same piconet
b) receiver

c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
138. A scatternet can have maximum

a) 10 piconets
143. What is data encryption standard (DES)?
b) 20 piconets
a) block cipher
c) 30 piconets
b) stream cipher
d) 40 piconets
c) bit cipher

139. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the
wires of a local telephone network is provided by
a) leased line 144. Firewalls are often configured to block
a) UDP traffic
b) digital subscriber line
b) TCP traffic
c) digital signal line
c) Both of the mentioned

145. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP 150. IPv6 does not use ______ type of address
conflict the client may use a) Broadcast
a) internet relay chat
b) Multicast
b) broader gateway protocol
c) Anycast
c) address resolution protocol
151. Which error detection method uses one's

146. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for complement arithmetic?
a) secure data communication (a) Simply parity check
b) remote command-line login (b) Checksum
c) remote command execution (c) Two-dimensional parity check
d) all of the mentioned (d) CRC
147. SSH uses _______ to authenticate the remote 152. An applet __________
computer. (a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client
a) public-key cryptography
(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website
b) private-key cryptography
(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client
c) both (a) and (b)
(d) collects data from visitors to a Website
153. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?

148. A session may include a) Vulnerability attack
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Bandwidth flooding
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Connection flooding
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
154. The function of LLC sub-layer of data link layer

149. Fragmentation has following demerits are:
a) complicates routers (a) Framing and channel allocation
b) open to DOS attack (b) Channel allocation and error control
c) overlapping of fragments. (c) Error control and security
d) All of the mentioned (d) Framing and error control

155. IPV6 increases the size of the IP address from 160. Which error detection method involves the use of
(a) 64 to 132 bits parity bits?
(b) 32 to 128 bits

a) Simple parity check
(c) 64 to 128 bits
b) Two-dimensional parity check
(d) None
c) CRC
d) (a) and (b)

156. VLANs can __________.
(a) reduce network traffics
(b) provide an extra measure of security 161. A DNS response is classified as ----- if the
information comes from a cache memory
(c) None of the above
(d) both (a) and (b)

a) Authoritative
b) Recursive
157. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to
another LAN via the device – c) Unauthoritative
(a) Router
d) Iterative
(b) Repeater
(c) Modem
162. ------is a client-server program that provides an IP
(d) Bridge address, subnet mask, IP address of a router, and IP
address of a name server to a computer
158. In which type of circuit switching, delivery of data is

a) NAT
delayed because data must be stored and retrieved
from RAM b) DHCP
a) Space-division
c) CIDR
b) Time-division
d) ISP
c) Virtual
d) Packet
163. What is the maximum data rate in IEEE 802.11n?
159. What is the maximum data rate of a channel with a
bandwidth of 200 KHz if we use four levels of digital
a) 300 Mbps
signaling?
b) 600 Mbps
a) 400 Kbps c) 1 Gbps
b) 800 Kbps d) 832 Mbps
c) 1000 Kbps
d) 1200 Kbps

164. Major function of a transport layer in the OSI 168. An Access point operates in which layer of OSI
model is to perform model?
a) Peer to peer message encryption a) Data link Layer
b) Node to node message delivery b) Presentation layer
c) Transparent transfer of data between end users c) Physical layer
d) None of the above d) Transport layer
165. An IPv6 basic header is fixed as 169. Which protocol provides e-mail facility among
different hosts?
A. FTP
a) 32 bytes long
B. SMTP
b) 40 bytes long
C. TELNET
c) 64 bits long
D. SNMP
d) 128 bit long
170. A wireless network uses .......... waves to transmit
signals.
166. Which of the following services uses both TCP and A. Mechanical
UDP ports?
B. Radio
C. Sound
a) DNS
D. Magnetic
b) TFTP
171. Firewalls are used to protect against .......
c) SSH
A. Unauthorized Access
d) TELNET
B. Virus Attacks
C. Data Driven Attacks

167. A single switch port is considered as
D. Fire Attacks
172. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to

a) A separate unicast domain
another LAN via…………
b) A separate broadcast domain a. modem
c) A separate multicast domain b. repeater
d) A separate collision domain c. bridge
d. router

173. Application Layer protocols are HTTP, FTP, SSH, 186. BUS backbone uses LAN and Bridges.
DNS etc.
187. Star backbone uses Switch.
174. Presentation Layer protocols are SSL, MPEG, JPEG
etc. 188. IEEE 802.3 is ETHERNET
175. Session Layer protocols are API’s , Sockets etc. 189. Repeater works with volts or signals.
176. Transport Layer protocols are TCP, UDP 190. Getway connects different networks.
177. Network Layer protocols are routing, IP, IPsec, 191. Class C starts with 110 (binary) or 192 (dotted
ICMP, Packets etc. decimal)
178. Datalink Layer Protocols are Frame, PPP, Switch, 192. Session, Presentation and Application layers are user
Bridge etc. supported.
179. Physical Layer Protocols are Coax, Fiber, Hubs, 193. Kerbaros is an authentication service for passwords.
repeaters etc.
194. TCP is connection Oriented.
180. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find
the hardware address of a local device. 195. IEEE 802.11 is a slang name for Wi-Fi
181. BUS, Ring and Star Topologies are mostly used in 196. In class A the range is 1-126 and there are 16M host.
LAN
197. In class B the range is 128-191 and there are 64k
182. Connection of telephone regional office is a practical host.
example of MESH topology.
198. In class C the range is 192-223 and there are 254 host
183. Cable TV and DSL are example of MAN.
199. Class D is used for Broadcasting
184. Repeaters are used in Ring topology.
200. Class E used for future use
185. Modulator and Demodulator combinedly known as
Modem.

Data Structure and Algorithms MCQ
1. The logical or mathematical model of a particular 6. Which of the following best describes an array?
organization of data is called a ………
a) A data structure that shows a hierarchical behavior
A) Data structure
b) Container of objects of similar types
B) Data arrangement
c) Arrays are immutable once initialized
C) Data configuration
d) Array is not a data structure
D) Data formation
7. How do you initialize an array in C?

2. Which one of the below mentioned is linear data
structure? a) int arr[3] = (1,2,3);
(A) Queue b) int arr(3) = {1,2,3};
(B) Stack c) int arr[3] = {1,2,3};
(C) Arrays d) int arr(3) = (1,2,3);
(D) All of these
8. When does the ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException

occur?
3. On which principle does stack work?
a) Compile-time
A. LIFO
b) Run-time
B. FIFO
c) Not an error
C. LILO
d) Not an exception at all
D. Both a and c above
9. In a stack, if a user tries to remove an element from

4. A …………………… does not keep track of address empty stack it is called _________
of every element in the list.
a) Underflow
A) Stack
b) Empty collection
B) String
c) Overflow
C) Linear array
d) Garbage Collection
D) Queue
10. What is the best case for linear search?

5. In ........ search start at the beginning of the list and
check every element in the list. a) O(nlogn)
a. Binary search b) O(logn)
b. Hash Search c) O(n)
c. Linear search d) O(1)
d. Binary Tree search

11. Pushing an element into stack already having five 17. Can linked list be implemented using arrays? Yes
elements and stack size of 5, then stack becomes
a) Overflow
18. The data structure required to check whether an
b) Crash expression contains balanced parenthesis is?
c) Underflow a) Stack
d) User flow b) Queue
c) Array
12. A graph in which all vertices have equal degree is d) Tree

known as ____
(A) Complete graph

19. A binary tree in which all its levels except the last,
(B) Regular graph have maximum numbers of nodes, and all the nodes
in the last level have only one child it will be its left
(C) Multi graph child. Name the tree.
(D) Simple graph (A) Threaded tree
13. Which of the following concepts make extensive use (B) Complete binary tree
of arrays?
(C) M-way search tree
a) Binary trees
(D) Full binary tree
b) Scheduling of processes
c) Caching
20. What is the worst case for linear search?
d) Spatial locality
a) O(nlogn)
b) O(logn)
14. A vertex of in-degree zero in a directed graph is
called a/an c) O(n)
(A) Root vertex d) O(1)
(B) Isolated vertex
(C) Sink 21. If two trees have same structure and node content,
then they are called ____
(D) Articulation point
(A) Synonyms trees
(B) Joint trees

15. A graph is a tree if and only if graph is
(C) Equivalent trees
(A) Directed graph
(D) Similar trees
(B) Contains no cycles
(C) Planar
22. The time complexity of quicksort is ……..
(D) Completely connected
A. O(n)
16. To perform level-order traversal on a binary tree,
which of the following data structure will be B. O(logn)
required?
C. O(n2)
(A) Hash table
D. O(n logn)
(B) Queue
(C) Binary search tree
(D) Stack

23. Which of these is not an application of linked list? 29. The total number of comparisons in a bubble sort is
….
a) To implement file systems
A. O(n logn)
b) For separate chaining in hash-tables
B. O(2n)
c) To implement non-binary trees
C. O(n2)
d) Random Access of elements
D. O(n)
24. Which of the following application makes use of a

circular linked list? 30. The postfix form of A*B+C/D is?
a) Undo operation in a text editor a) *AB/CD+
b) Recursive function calls b) AB*CD/+
c) Allocating CPU to resources c) A*BC+/D
d) Implement Hash Tables d) ABCD+/*
25. Quick sort is also known as …….. 31. What is the advantage of recursive approach than
an iterative approach?
A. merge sort
a) Consumes less memory
B. tree sort
b) Less code and easy to implement
C. shell sort
c) Consumes more memory
D. partition and exchange sort
d) More code has to be written
26. The process of accessing data stored in a serial access

memory is similar to manipulating data on a……. 32. The situation when in a linked list START=NULL is
….
a) Heap
A. Underflow
b) Binary Tree
B. Overflow
c) Array
C. Houseful
d) Stack
D. Saturated
27. ………. sorting is good to use when alphabetizing a

large list of names. 33. Which of the following is non-liner data structure?
A. Merge A) Stacks
B. Heap B) List
C. Radix C) Strings
D. Bubble D) Trees
28. Two dimensional arrays are also called 34. Which data structure is needed to convert infix
notation to postfix notation?
A. tables arrays
a) Branch
B. matrix arrays
b) Tree
C. both of above
c) Queue
D. none of above
d) Stack

35. What is the result of the following operation? 40. Which of the following statements hold true for
binary trees?
Top (Push (S, X))
A. The left subtree of a node contains only nodes with keys less
a) X than the node’s key
b) X+S B. The right subtree of a node contains only nodes with keys
greater than the node’s key.
c) S
C. Both a and b above
d) SX
D. Noth left and right subtree nodes contains only nodes with keys
less than the node’s key
36. Which data structure is used for implementing
recursion?
41. Binary Search can be categorized into which of the
a) Queue following?
b) Stack a) Brute Force technique
c) Array b) Divide and conquer
d) List c) Greedy algorithm
d) Dynamic programming
37. AVL trees have a faster ________
A. Insertion 42. What is the time complexity of an infix to postfix

conversion algorithm?
B. Deletion
a) O(N log N)
C. Updating
b) O(N)
D. Retrieval
c) O(N2)
d) O(M log N)
38. What is the worst case complexity of binary search
using recursion?
a) O(nlogn) 43. The data structure required for Breadth First

Traversal on a graph is?
b) O(logn)
a) Stack
c) O(n)
b) Array
d) O(n2)
c) Queue
d) Tree
39. Which of the following is an infix expression?
a) (a+b)*(c+d)
44. What is an external sorting algorithm?
b) ab+c*
a) Algorithm that uses tape or disk during the sort
c) +ab
b) Algorithm that uses main memory during the sort
d) abc+*
c) Algorithm that involves swapping
d) Algorithm that are considered ‘in place’

45. A queue follows __________ 51. The given array is arr = {1, 2, 4, 3}. Bubble sort is
used to sort the array elements. How many iterations
a) FIFO (First In First Out) principle will be done to sort the array?
b) LIFO (Last In First Out) principle a) 4

c) Ordered array b) 2
d) Linear tree c) 1
d) 0
46. Can stack be described as a pointer?
A. Yes 52. Which of the following ways below is a pre order

traversal?
B. No
A. Root->left sub tree-> right sub tree
B. Root->right sub tree-> left sub tree

47. What is an internal sorting algorithm?
C. right sub tree-> left sub tree->Root
a) Algorithm that uses tape or disk during the sort
D. left sub tree-> right sub tree->Root
b) Algorithm that uses main memory during the sort
c) Algorithm that involves swapping

53. What is the advantage of selection sort over other
d) Algorithm that are considered ‘in place’ sorting techniques?
a) It requires no additional storage space

48. Circular Queue is also known as ________ b) It is scalable
a) Ring Buffer c) It works best for inputs which are already sorted
b) Square Buffer d) It is faster than any other sorting technique
c) Rectangle Buffer
d) Curve Buffer 54. Queues serve major role in ______________
a) Simulation of recursion
49. What is the peculiarity of red black trees? b) Simulation of arbitrary linked list
A. In red-black trees, the root do not contain data. c) Simulation of limited resource allocation
B. In red-black trees, the leaf nodes are not relevant and do not d) Simulation of heap sort
contain data.
C. In red-black trees, the leaf nodes are relevant but do not contain
data. 55. Which of the following ways below is a In order
traversal?
A. Root->left sub tree-> right sub tree
B. Root->right sub tree-> left sub tree

50. A data structure in which elements can be inserted
or deleted at/from both the ends but not in the C. right sub tree-> left sub tree->Root
middle is?
D. left sub tree-> root->right sub tree
a) Queue
b) Circular queue
c) Dequeue
d) Priority queue

56. With what data structure can a priority queue be 62. Shell sort is also known as _____________
implemented?
a) diminishing decrement sort
a) Array
b) diminishing increment sort
b) List
c) partition exchange sort
c) Heap
d) diminishing insertion sort
d) Tree
63. A tree cannot contain cycles.

57. What is the disadvantage of selection sort?
A. False
a) It requires auxiliary memory
B. True
b) It is not scalable
c) It can be used for small keys

64. Breadth First search is used in
d) It takes linear time to sort the elements
A. Binary trees
B. Stacks
58. What is the applications of dequeue?
C. Graphs
a) A-Steal job scheduling algorithm
b) Can be used as both stack and queue
c) To find the maximum of all sub arrays of size k

65. Shell sort is an improvement on ____
d) To avoid collision in hash tables
a) insertion sort
b) selection sort
59. Which of the following linked list below have last
node of the list pointing to the first node? c) binary tree sort
A. circular doubly linked list d) quick sort
B. circular linked list
C. circular singly linked list 66. Which of the following is the distribution sort?
D. doubly linked list a) Heap sort
b) Smooth sort
60. What is the need for a circular queue? c) Quick sort
a) effective usage of memory d) LSD radix sort
b) easier computations
c) to delete elements based on priority 67. Key value pair is usually seen in
d) implement LIFO principle in queues A. Hash tables
61. Items in a priority queue are entered in a B. Heaps

_____________ order
C. Both a and b
A. random
D. Skip list
B. order of priority
C. as and when they come

68. In a heap, element with the greatest key is always in 73. The depth of a complete binary tree is given by
the _______ node.
a. Dn = n log2n
A. leaf
b. Dn = n log2n+1
B. root
c. Dn = log2n
C. first node of left sub tree
d. Dn = log2n+1
D. first node of right sub tree
74. When converting binary tree into extended binary

69. In _________ tree, the heights of the two child tree, all the original nodes in binary tree are
subtrees of any node differ by at most one
a. internal nodes on extended tree
A. Binary
b. external nodes on extended tree
B. Red black
c. vanished on extended tree
C. Splay
d. None of above
D. AVL
75. The post order traversal of a binary tree is

70. Which data structure allows deleting data elements DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal
from front and inserting at rear?
a. ABFCDE
a. Stacks
b. ADBFEC
b. Queues
c. ABDECF
c. Deques
d. ABDCEF
d. Binary search tree
76. Which of the following sorting algorithm is of

71. To represent hierarchical relationship between divide-and-conquer type?
elements, which data structure is suitable?
a. Bubble sort
a. Deque
b. Insertion sort
b. Priority
c. Quick sort
c. Tree
d. All of above
d. All of above
77. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is

72. A binary tree whose every node has either zero or known as
two children is called
a. Sub algorithm
a. Complete binary tree
b. Recursion
b. Binary search tree
c. Polish notation
c. Extended binary tree
d. Traversal algorithm
d. None of above

78. In a Heap tree 84. Two main measures for the efficiency of an
algorithm are
a. Values in a node is greater than every value in left sub tree and
smaller than right sub tree a. Processor and memory
b. Values in a node is greater than every value in children of it b. Complexity and capacity
c. Both of above conditions applies c. Time and space
d. None of above conditions applies d. Data and space
79. If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node 85. The time factor when determining the efficiency of
v in G, A graph is said to be algorithm is measured by
a. isolated a. Counting microseconds
b. complete b. Counting the number of key operations
c. finite c. Counting the number of statements
d. strongly connected d. Counting the kilobytes of algorithm
80. In linked lists there are no NULL links in: 86. The space factor when determining the efficiency of
algorithm is measured by
a. Single linked list
a. Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm
b. Lin ear doubly linked list
b. Counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm
c. circular linked list
c. Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm
d. Counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm
81. In a Stack the command to access nth element from

the top of the stacks will be 87. Which of the following case does not exist in
complexity theory
a. S[Top-n]
a. Best case
b. S [Top+n]
b. Worst case
c. S [top-n-1]
c. Average case
d. Null case
82. The total number of comparisons in a bubble sort is

88. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm
a. O(n log n) when
b. O(2n) a. Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
c. O(n2) b. Item is not in the array at all
d. None of the above c. Item is the last element in the array
83. The dummy header in linked list contains…… d. Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
a. First record of the actual data
b. Last record of the actual data
c. Pointer to the last record of the actual data

89. The Average case occur in linear search algorithm 95. Linked lists are best suited
a. When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array a. for relatively permanent collections of data
b. When Item is not in the array at all b. for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are
constantly changing
c. When Item is the last element in the array
c. for both of above situation
d. When Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
d. for none of above situation
90. The complexity of linear search algorithm is

96. he elements of an array are stored successively in
a. O(n) memory cells because
b. O(log n) a. by this way computer can keep track only the address of the first
element and the addresses of other elements can be calculated
c. O(n2)
b. the architecture of computer memory does not allow arrays to
d. O(n log n) store other than serially
c. both of above
91. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is d. none of above
a. O(n)
b. O(log n) 97. Value of the first linked list index is _______

c. O(n2) A. One
d. O(n log n) B. Zero
C. -1
92. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is D. None of these
a. O(n)
b. O(log n) 98. New nodes are added to the _____ of the queue.
c. O(n2) A. front
d. O(n log n) B. back
C. middle
93. The operation of processing each element in the list D. Both 1 and 2
is known as
a. Sorting
99. A _______ is a data structure that organizes data
b. Merging similar to a line in the supermarket, where the first
one in line is the first one out.
c. Inserting
A. queue linked list
d. Traversal
B. stacks linked list
C. both of them
94. Arrays are best data structures
D. neither of them
a. for relatively permanent collections of data
b. for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are
constantly changing
c. for both of above situation
d. for none of above situation

100. What happens when you push a new node onto a 105. Which of the following data structure store the
stack? homogeneous data elements?
A. the new node is placed at the front of the linked list. A. Arrays
B. the new node is placed at the back of the linked list. B. Records
C. the new node is placed at the middle of the linked list. C. Pointers
D. No Changes happens D. None
101. The memory address of the first element of an array 106. In the ....... traversal we process all of a vertex’s
is called descendants before we move to an adjacent vertex.
A. floor address a. Depth Limited
B. foundation address b. With First
C. first address c. Breadth First
D. base address d. Depth First
102. Which of the following data structures are indexed 107. A binary search tree whose left subtree and right
structures? subtree differ in height by at most 1 unit is called
……
A. linear arrays
A) AVL tree
B. linked lists
B) Red-black tree
C. both of above
C) Lemma tree
D. none of above
103. A variable P is called pointer if

108. Which of the following data structure is nonlinear
A. P contains the address of an element in DATA. type?
B. P points to the address of first element in DATA A) Strings
C. P can store only memory addresses B) Lists
D. P contain the DATA and the address of DATA C) Stacks
D) Graph
104. Which of the following data structure can’t store the

non-homogeneous data elements?
109. Which of the following data structure is linear type?
A. Arrays
A) Graph
B. Records
B) Trees
C. Pointers
C) Binary tree
D. None
D) Stack

110. A directed graph is ………………. if there is a path 115. In general, the binary search method needs no more
from each vertex to every other vertex in the digraph. than ……………. comparisons.
A) Weakly connected A) [log2n]-1
B) Strongly Connected B) [logn]+1
C) Tightly Connected C) [log2n]
D) Linearly Connected D) [log2n]+1
111. Which of the following is not the internal sort? 116. Any node is the path from the root to the node is
called
A) Insertion Sort
A) Successor node
B) Bubble Sort
B) Ancestor node
C) Merge Sort
C) Internal node
D) Heap Sort
112. A graph is said to be ……………… if the vertices can

be split into two sets V1 and V2 such there are no 117. In a priority queue, insertion and deletion takes
edges between two vertices of V1 or two vertices of place at ………………
V2.
A) front, rear end
A) Partite
B) only at rear end
B) Bipartite
C) only at front end
C) Rooted
D) any position
D) Bisects
118. Which of the following sorting algorithm is stable?

113. What will be the value of top, if there is a size of
stack [STACK_SIZE is 5] (A) Insertion sort
A) 5 (B) Bubble sort
B) 6 (C) Quick sort
C) 4 (D) Heap sort
D) None
119. In order to get the contents of a Binary search tree

in ascending order, one has to traverse it in
114. There is an extra element at the head of the list …………
called a ……….
(A) pre-order
A) Antennal
(B) in-order
B) Sentinel
(C) post order
C) List header
(D) not possible
D) List head

120. Which of the following has search efficiency of Ο(1)? 125. Minimum number of moves required to solve a
Tower of Hanoi puzzle is …………..
(A) Tree
(A) 2^n2
(B) Heap
(B) n-1
(C) Hash Table
(C) 2n – 1
(D) Linked-List
(D) 2n – 2
121. Time required to merge two sorted lists of size m

and n, is………… 126. One can convert a binary tree into its mirror image
by traversing it in
(A) Ο(m | n)
(A) in-order
(B) Ο(m + n)
(B) pre-order
(C) Ο(m log n)
(C) post-order
(D) Ο(n log m)
(D) any order
122. The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes

…………. 127. Which of the following is an example of dynamic
programming approach?
(A) O(1) time
(A) Fibonacci Series
(B) O(n2) time
(B) Tower of Hanoi
(C) O(log n) time
(C) Dijkstra’s Shortest Path
(D) O(n log n) time
(D) All of the above
123. Quick sort running time depends on the selection of

……………… 128. The Θ notation in asymptotic evaluation represents
………..
(A) size of array
(A) Base case
(B) pivot element
(B) Average case
(C) sequence of values
(C) Worst case
(D) none of the above
(D) NULL case
124. Which of the following sorting methods would be

most suitable for sorting a list which is almost 129. A full binary tree with n leaves contains ………….
sorted?
(A) n nodes
(A) Bubble Sort
(B) log n2 nodes
(B) Insertion Sort
(C) 2n –1 nodes
(C) Selection Sort
(D) 2n nodes
(D) Quick Sort
130. In a min heap………………
(A) minimum values are stored.
(B) child nodes have less value than parent nodes.
(C) parent nodes have less value than child nodes.
(D) maximum value is contained by the root node.

131. A technique for direct search is ………… 137. Travelling salesman problem is an example of
……………….
(A) Binary Search
(A) Dynamic Algorithm
(B) Linear Search
(B) Greedy Algorithm
(C) Tree Search
(C) Recursive Approach
(D) Hashing
(D) Divide & Conquer
132. A graph ‘G’ with ‘n’ nodes is bipartite if it contains

…………. 138. What data structure is used for breadth first
traversal of a graph?
(A) n edges
(A) Queue
(B) a cycle of odd length
(B) Stack
(C) no cycle of odd length
(C) List
(D) n2 edges
(D) None of these
133. Which of the following is a difference between

vectors and arrays? 139. The spanning tree of connected graph with 10
vertices contains…………..
(A) Access to any element using the [] operator.
(A) 9 edges
(B) Stored in contiguous blocks of memory.
(B) 11 edges
(C) The ability to change size dynamically.
(C) 10 edges
(D) Efficient direct access to any element.
(D) 9 vertices
134. Which of the following uses memorization?

140. The extra key inserted at the end of the array is
(A) Greedy approach called a ……………
(B) Divide and conquer approach (A) End Key
(C) Dynamic programming approach (B) Stop Key
(D) None of the above (C) Sentinel
(D) Transposition
135. Linked lists are not suitable data structures for

which one of the following problems?
141. Program with highest run-time complexity is
(A) Insertion sort ………………..
(B) Binary search (A) Tower of Hanoi
(C) Radix sort (B) Fibonacci Series
(D) Polynomial manipulation (C) Prime Number Series
136. Which of the following types of expressions do not (D) None of these
require precedence rules for evaluation?
(A) fully parenthesized infix expression
(B) postfix expression
(C) partially parenthesized infix expression
(D) more than one of the above

142. Which of the following is an application of stack? 144. Arrays are best data structures
A) finding factorial A) for relatively permanent collections of data
B) tower of Hanoi B) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are
constantly changing
C) infix to postfix conversion
C) for both of above situation
D) all of the above
D) for none of above situation
143. The disadvantage in using a circular linked list

is……………………. 145. When does top value of the stack changes?
A) It is possible to get into infinite loop. A) Before deletion
B) Last node points to first node. B) While checking underflow
C) Time consuming C) At the time of deletion
D) Requires more memory space D) After deletion
146. In a queue, the initial values of front pointer f rare

pointer r should be …….. and ……….. respectively.
A) 0 and 1
B) 0 and -1
C) -1 and 0
D) 1 and 0

Operating System MCQ
1. What is an operating system? 6. What is the degree of multiprogramming?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) system service provider to the application programs b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) interface between the hardware and application programs c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) all of the mentioned d) the number of processes in memory
2. Whenever a process needs I/O to or from a disk it 7. Which one of the following is a synchronization
issues a ______________ tool?
a) system call to the CPU a) thread
b) system call to the operating system b) pipe
c) a special procedure c) semaphore
d) all of the mentioned d) socket
3. By operating system, the resource management can 8. Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________
be done via __________
a) for communication between two processes remotely different
a) time division multiplexing from each other on the same system
b) space division multiplexing b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) time and space division multiplexing c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
4. A “glue” between client and server parts of 9. The initial program that is run when the computer
application is………. is powered up is called __________
a) Middleware a) boot program
b) Firmware b) bootloader
c) Package c) initializer
d) System Software d) bootstrap program
5. What is interprocess communication? 10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by
the kernel?
a) communication within the process
a) kernel level thread
b) communication between two process
b) user level thread
c) communication between two threads of same process
c) process

11. What is Dispatch latency? 16. The interval from the time of submission of a
process to the time of completion is termed as
a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready ____________
state
a) waiting time
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state
and keeping the CPU idle b) turnaround time
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one c) response time
d) none of the mentioned d) throughput
12. A software that lies between the OS and the 17. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first
applications running on it. to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) Firmware a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) Middleware b) shortest job scheduling
c) Utility Software c) priority scheduling
d) Application Software d) none of the mentioned
13. The _______ calls certain procedures on remote 18. In priority scheduling algorithm____________
systems and is used to perform synchronous or
asynchronous interactions between systems. a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
a) Procedure b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
b) RPC c) Equal priority processes cannot be scheduled
c) Message Oriented d) None of the mentioned
d) DB
19. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process

arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared
14. Which module gives control of the CPU to the with the priority of ____________
process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a) all process
a) dispatcher
b) currently running process
b) interrupt
c) parent process
c) scheduler
d) init process
20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

15. The processes that are residing in main memory and
are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
called _____________
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
a) job queue
c) priority scheduling algorithm
b) ready queue
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
c) execution queue
d) process queue

21. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by 27. What is Turnaround time?
the kernel?
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
a) kernel level thread
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
b) user level thread
c) the total time spent in the running queue
c) process
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a
d) none of the mentioned process
22. CPU scheduling is the basis of___________ 28. What is Waiting time?
a) multiprocessor systems a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b) multiprogramming operating systems b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) larger memory sized systems c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) none of the mentioned d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a
process
23. With multiprogramming ______ is used

productively. 29. What is Response time?
a) time a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion
time
b) space
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first
c) money response is produced
d) all of the mentioned c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is
output

24. What are the two steps of a process execution?
a) I/O & OS Burst

30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category
b) CPU & I/O Burst of____________
c) Memory & I/O Burst a) Non-preemptive scheduling
d) OS & Memory Burst b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned

25. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the d) None of the mentioned
________ scheduler, to be executed.
a) blocked, short term

31. The strategy of making processes that are logically
b) wait, long term
runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
____________
c) ready, short term
a) Non preemptive scheduling
d) ready, long term
b) Preemptive scheduling
26. Scheduling is done to ____________
c) Shortest job first
a) increase CPU utilization
d) First come First served
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle

32. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize 37. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives
the process flow time? minimum average waiting time?
a) First come First served a) FCFS
b) Shortest Job First b) SJF
c) Earliest Deadline First c) Round – robin
d) Longest Job First d) Priority
33. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm? 38. To access the services of operating system, the
interface is provided by the ___________
a) FCFS – First come First served
a) System calls
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
b) API
c) RR – Round Robin
c) Library
d) Assembly instructions
34. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling

is ____________ 39. If a process fails, most operating system write the
error information to a ______
a) it is too good an algorithm
a) log file
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
b) another running process
c) it is too complex to understand
c) new file
35. What is ‘Aging’?

40. What is the ready state of a process?
a) keeping track of cache contents
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced completed
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite c) when process is using the CPU
time
36. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of

low priority processes is____________ 41. The address of the next instruction to be executed by
the current process is provided by the __________
a) Starvation
a) CPU registers
b) Wait queue
b) Program counter
c) Ready queue
c) Process stack
d) Aging
d) Pipe

42. The number of processes completed per unit time is 48. What is a long-term scheduler?
known as __________
a) It selects processes which have to be brought into the ready
a) Output queue
b) Throughput b) It selects processes which have to be executed next and allocates

CPU
c) Efficiency
c) It selects processes which heave to remove from memory by
d) Capacity swapping

43. The state of a process is defined by__________
a) the final activity of the process 49. What is a medium-term scheduler?

b) the activity just executed by the process a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
c) the activity to next be executed by the process b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates
CPU
d) the current activity of the process
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

44. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
50. What is a short-term scheduler?
b) Old
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
c) Waiting
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates
d) Running CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

45. A single thread of control allows the process to d) None of the mentioned
perform __________
a) only one task at a time

51. The primary distinction between the short term
b) multiple tasks at a time scheduler and the long term scheduler is__________
c) only two tasks at a time a) The length of their queues
d) all of the mentioned b) The type of processes they schedule
46. Which of the following do not belong to queues for c) The frequency of their execution
processes?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
52. The only state transition that is initiated by the user
c) Device Queue process itself is __________
d) Ready Queue a) block
b) wakeup
47. What will happen when a process terminates? c) dispatch
a) It is removed from all queues d) none of the mentioned
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never deallocated

53. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time 58. Which one of the following is a synchronization
slot given to a process is completed, the process goes tool?
from the running state to the__________
a) thread
a) Blocked state
b) pipe
b) Ready state
c) semaphore
c) Suspended state
d) socket
d) Terminated state
59. A semaphore is a shared integer variable

54. In a multiprogramming environment__________ __________
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time a) that can not drop below zero
b) the programs are developed by more than one person b) that can not be more than zero
c) more than one process resides in the memory c) that can not drop below one
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time d) that can not be more than one
55. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting 60. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by
for some I/O service. When the service is completed, medium priority task effectively inverting the
it goes to the __________ relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is
called__________
a) Running state
a) priority inversion
b) Ready state
b) priority removal
c) Suspended state
c) priority exchange
d) Terminated state
d) priority modification
56. When several processes access the same data

concurrently and the outcome of the execution 61. Process synchronization can be done on __________
depends on the particular order in which the access
takes place, is called? a) hardware level
a) dynamic condition b) software level
b) race condition c) both hardware and software level
c) essential condition d) none of the mentioned
d) critical condition
62. Restricting the child process to a subset of the
parent’s resources prevents any process from
57. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no __________
other processes can be executing in their critical
section. This condition is called? a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
a) mutual exclusion b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
b) critical exclusion c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
c) synchronous exclusion d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources
d) asynchronous exclusion

63. In UNIX, each process is identified by its__________ 69. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues
are referred to as__________
a) Process Control Block
a) Programmed buffering
b) Device Queue
b) Automatic buffering
c) Process Identifier
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
64. The child process can __________

70. Concurrent access to shared data may result in
a) be a duplicate of the parent process ____________
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process a) data consistency
c) cannot have another program loaded into it b) data insecurity
d) never have another program loaded into it c) data inconsistency
65. The child process completes execution, but the parent

keeps executing, then the child process is known as
__________ 71. A situation where several processes access and
manipulate the same data concurrently and the
a) Orphan outcome of the execution depends on the particular
order in which access takes place is called
b) Zombie ____________
c) Body a) data consistency
d) Dead b) race condition
c) aging
66. Which of the following two operations are provided d) starvation
by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message

72. The segment of code in which the process may change
b) delete & receive message common variables, update tables, write into files is
known as ____________
c) send & delete message
a) program
d) receive & send message
b) critical section
c) non – critical section

67. Messages sent by a process __________
d) synchronizing
a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size

73. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied
c) can be fixed or variable sized
to solve the critical section problem?
a) Mutual Exclusion
68. The Zero Capacity queue __________
b) Progress
a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
c) Bounded Waiting
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link

74. Mutual exclusion implies that____________ 79. The signal operation of the semaphore basically
works on the basic _______ system call.
a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other
process must be executing in their critical sections a) continue()
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other b) wakeup()

processes must be executing in their critical sections
c) getup()
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the
resources of the system must be blocked until it finishes execution d) start()
80. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer

values ____________
75. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical
section problem. a) 1
a) hardware for a system b) -1
b) special program for a system c) 0.8
c) integer variable d) 0.5

81. Semaphores are mostly used to
implement____________
76. What are Spinlocks?
a) System calls
a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) IPC mechanisms
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) System protection
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
82. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.

77. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?
a) Mutual Exclusion
a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) Bounded Waiting
b) they require busy waiting
c) Aging
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) Progress
d) they are too complex for programmers
83. The bounded buffer problem is also known as

78. The wait operation of the semaphore basically ____________
works on the basic _______ system call.
a) Readers – Writers problem
a) stop()
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
b) block()
c) Producer – Consumer problem
c) hold()
d) wait()
84. In the bounded buffer problem____________
a) there is only one buffer
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded

85. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosopher’s 90. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?
problem ____________
a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will
a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation need
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further c) resource once available can disappear
d) none of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
86. Which of the following condition is required for a 91. A problem encountered in multitasking when a
deadlock to be possible? process is perpetually denied necessary resources is
called ____________
a) mutual exclusion
a) deadlock
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting
assignment of other resources b) starvation
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it c) inversion
d) all of the mentioned d) aging
87. A system is in the safe state if____________ 92. To avoid deadlock ____________
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
and still avoid a deadlock
b) resource allocation must be done only once
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
c) all of the mentioned
d) inversion technique can be used
93. The number of resources requested by a process

88. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
____________
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types in the system
b) using thread b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available
in the system
c) using pipes
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the
d) all of the mentioned system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the

89. Which one of the following is the deadlock system
avoidance algorithm?
a) banker’s algorithm
94. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following
b) round-robin algorithm conditions must hold simultaneously?
c) elevator algorithm a) Mutual exclusion
d) karn’s algorithm b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait

95. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a 100. What is the solution to starvation?
____________
a) the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost factor
a) safe allocation
b) the number of resources must be included in resource
b) safe resource preemption
c) safe sequence c) resource preemption be done instead
d) all of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
96. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph 101. The major part of swap time is _______time.
____________
a) waiting
a) then the system will not be in a safe state
b) transfer
b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) execution
c) all of the mentioned
102. Swap space is allocated ____________

97. The Banker’s algorithm is_____________ than the
resource allocation graph algorithm. a) as a chunk of disk
a) less efficient b) separate from a file system
b) more efficient c) into a file system
c) equal d) all of the mentioned
103. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address

is done by ____________
98. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection
algorithm that is applicable when____________ a) Memory management unit
a) all resources have a single instance b) CPU
b) all resources have multiple instances c) PCI
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances d) None of the mentioned
104. Memory management technique in which system

stores and retrieves data from secondary storage for
99. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process use in main memory is called?
cannot continue with its normal execution and it must
be ____________ a) fragmentation
a) aborted b) paging
b) rolled back c) mapping
c) terminated d) none of the mentioned
d) queued 105. What is compaction?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error

106. Transient operating system code is code that 112. A page fault occurs when?
____________
a) a page gives inconsistent data
a) is not easily accessible
b) a page cannot be accessed due to its absence from memory
b) comes and goes as needed
c) a page is invisible
c) stays in the memory always
d) never enters the memory space
113. When a page fault occurs, the state of the

107. With paging there is no ________fragmentation. interrupted process is ____________
a) internal a) disrupted
b) external b) invalid
c) either type of c) saved
108. A process is thrashing if ____________

114. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically
a) it is spending more time paging than executing improves performance because____________
b) it is spending less time paging than executing a) Virtual memory increases
c) page fault occurs b) Larger RAMs are faster
d) swapping can not take place c) Fewer page faults occur

109. Virtual memory allows ____________
a) execution of a process that may not be completely in memory

115. An unrecoverable error is known as_________
b) a program to be smaller than the physical memory
a) hard error
c) a program to be larger than the secondary storage
b) tough error
d) execution of a process without being in physical memory
c) soft error

110. Virtual memory is normally implemented by
________
a) demand paging 116. When device A has a cable that plugs into device B,
and device B has a cable that plugs into device C and
b) buses device C plugs into a port on the computer, this
arrangement is called a_________
c) virtualization
a) port
b) daisy chain
c) bus
111. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex
than page replacement algorithms because d) cable
____________
a) Segments are better than pages
b) Pages are better than segments
c) Segments have variable sizes
d) Segments have fixed sizes

117. The ________ keeps state information about the use 120. The first process launched by the linux kernel is
of I/O components. ___________
a) CPU a) init process
b) OS b) zombie process
c) kernel c) batch process
d) shell d) boot process
118. The first linux kernel which supports the SMP 121. A process having multiple threads of control implies
hardware? ___________
a) linux 0.1 a) it can do more than one task at a time
b) linux 1.0 b) it can do only one task at a time, but much faster
c) linux 1.2 c) it has to use only one thread per process
d) linux 2.0 d) none of the mentioned
119. Which one of the following linux file system does not 122. When one thread immediately terminates the target
support journaling feature? thread, it is called ____________
a) ext2 a) Asynchronous cancellation
b) ext3 b) Systematic cancellation
c) ext4 c) Sudden Termination
d) none of the mentioned d) Deferred cancellation

Database management System (DBMS)
1. In the relational model, cardinality is termed as: 9. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes
(A) Number of tuples. to form a primary key is a
(B) Number of attributes. (A) strong entity set. (B) weak entity set.
(C) simple entity set. (D) primary entity set.
(C) Number of tables.
(D) Number of constraints.
10. In a Hierarchical model, records are organized as
(A) Graph. (B) List.
2. Relational calculus is a
(C) Links. (D) Tree.
(A) Procedural language.
(B) Non- Procedural language. 11. In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
(C) Data definition language. (A) rectangle. (B) square.
(D) High level language. (C) ellipse. (D) triangle.
3. The view of total database content is 12. The language used in application programs to
(A) Conceptual view. request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
(B) Internal view. (A) DML (B) DDL
(C) External view. (C) VDL (D) SDL
(D) Physical View.

13. A logical schema
4. Cartesian product in relational algebra is (A) is the entire database.
(A) Unary operator. (B) is a standard way of organizing information into
(B) Binary operator. accessible parts.
(C) Ternary operator. (C) describes how data is actually stored on disk.
(D) not defined. (D) both (A) and (C)
5. DML is provided for 14. In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a

(A) Description of logical structure of database. (A) rectangle. (B) ellipse.
(B) Addition of new structures in the database system. (C) diamond box. (D) circle.
(C) Manipulation & processing of database.
(D) Definition of physical structure of database system. 15. The DBMS language component which can be
embedded in a program is
6. In a relational model, relations are termed as (A) The data definition language (DDL).
(A) Tuples (B) Attributes (B) The data manipulation language (DML).
(C) Tables. (D) Rows. (C) The database administrator (DBA).
(D) A query language.
7. The database schema is written in
(A) HLL (B) DML 16. A relational database developer refers to a record as
(C) DDL (D) DCL (A) a criteria
(B) a relation.
8. In the architecture of a database system external (C) a tuple.
level is the (D) an attribute.
(A) physical level. (B) logical level.
(C) conceptual level (D) view level.

17. The method in which records are physically stored 24. Relational Algebra is
in a specified order according to a key field in each (A) Data Definition Language
record is (B) Meta Language
(A) hash. (C) Procedural query Language
(B) direct. (D) None of the above
(C) sequential
(D) all of the above. 25. Key to represent relationship between tables is
called
18. A subschema expresses (A) Primary key (B) Secondary Key
(A) the logical view. (C) Foreign Key (D) None of these
(B) the physical view.
(C) the external view. 26. The file organization that provides very fast access
(D) all of the above. to any arbitrary record of a file is
(A) Ordered file (B) Unordered file
19. An advantage of the database management (C) Hashed file (D) B-tree
approach is
(A) data is dependent on programs. 27. Which of the following are the properties of entities?
(B) data redundancy increases. (A) Groups
(C) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple (B) Table
programs. (C) Attributes
(D) none of the above. (D) Switchboards
20. Transaction processing is associated with everything 28. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are
below except (A) Stringent real-time requirements.
(A) producing detail, summary, or exception reports. (B) Multiple users wish to access the data.
(B) recording a business activity. (C) Complex relationships among data.
(C) confirming an action or triggering a response. (D) All of the above.
(D) maintaining data.
29. Which of the following operation is used if we are
21. The method of access which uses key transformation interested in only certain columns of a table?
is known as (A) PROJECTION (B) SELECTION
(A) direct. (B) hash. (C) UNION (D) JOIN
(C) random. (D) sequential.
30. …………….data type can store unstructured data
22. The statement in SQL which allows to change the (A) RAW (B) CHAR
definition of a table is (C) NUMERIC (D) VARCHAR
(A) Alter.
(B) Update. 31. The method of access which uses key transformation
(C) Create. is known as
(D) select. (A) Direct
(B) Hash
23. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity (C) Random
set? (D) Sequential
(A) Dotted rectangle.
(B) Diamond
(C) Doubly outlined rectangle
(D) None of these

32. …………. is a virtual table that draws its data from 39. Cross Product is a:
the result of an SQL SELECT statement. (A) Unary Operator (B) Ternary Operator
(A) View (C) Binary Operator (D) Not an operator
(B) Synonym
(C) Sequence 40. In E-R Diagram derived attribute are represented by
(D) Transaction
(A) Ellipse (B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Rectangle (D) Triangle
33. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by
(A) Ellipse
41. A data dictionary is a special file that contains:
(B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Rectangle (A) The name of all fields in all files.
(D) Triangle
(B) The width of all fields in all files.
34. A data manipulation command that combines the
(C) The data type of all fields in all files.
records from one or more tables is called………
(A) SELECT (D) All of the above.
(B) PROJECT
42. Which of the following is a comparison operator in
(C) JOIN SQL?
(D) PRODUCT
(A) = (B) LIKE
35. In E-R Diagram relationship type is represented by (C) BETWEEN (D) All of the above
(A) Ellipse 43. The underlying structure of database is known

(B) Dashed ellipse as...................
(C) Rectangle A) Data model
(D) Diamond B) Data arrangement
C) Data manipulation
36. A primary key if combined with a foreign key D) Encapsulation
creates………………..
(A) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that 44. Which of the following describes way of storing and
connect them. retrieving the data?
(B) Many to many relationship between the tables that A) Data model
connect them. B) Data arrangement
(C) Network model between the tables that connect them. C) Data manipulation
D) Encapsulation
(D) None of the above.
45. Database Management System can perform
37. The natural join is equal to……………. A) Retrieval of data as per user requirement
(A) Cartesian Product B) Securing data and Maintaining backup of database
C) Allowing multiple users to access database simultaneously
(B) Combination of Union and Cartesian product D) All of them
(C) Combination of selection and Cartesian product
46. .............. are real world objects about which
(D) Combination of projection and Cartesian product
information is to be stored in database.
A) Entities
38. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R B) Objects
has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the maximum C) Data
D) Attributes
size of join is:
(A) mn (B) m+n
(C) (m+n)/2 (D) 2(m+n)

47. Each entity generally has collection of ................ 56. An instance is ___________
associated to it. a) a set of relationships
b) set of attributes
A) attributes
c) set of entities
B) database
d) schema
C) table
D) none of them
57. The language used application programs to request
data from the DBMS is referred to as the
48. Which data type stores up to the specified length
a) DML
and no padding is done? b) DDL
c) query language
A) Var Char
d) none
B) Char
C) Var Char Ignore case
58. The relational database environment has all of the
D) None of them
following components except
49. ______ code that needs only one byte to store a
a) users
character. b) separate files
c) database
A) ASCII
d) query languages
B) ANSI
C) DBMS
59. ______________ is a ‘thing’ in the real world with an
D) RDBMS
independent existence.
a) Entity
50. A _____ value means unknown or missing value.
b) Attribute
A) junk c) Key
B) null d) Relationship
C) litter
D) refuse 60. Which view is normally more stable
a) internal level
b) external level
51. Primary key values cannot contain _______
c) conceptual level
A) Duplicate values d) view level
B) Null values
C) (a) and (b) 61. The ability to modify the conceptual schema without
D) None of them
causing any change to the application program
a) Physical data independence
52. A primary key designed by combining more than b) Logical Data independence
c) External Data independence
one field is known as ______ primary key.
d) none
A) Composite
B) Secondary 62. The information about data in a database is called
C) Tertiary
_____
D) Main
a) Meta data
53. Base will automatically assign ............. extension to b) Tera data
c) hyper data
the database file .
d) none
A) .obd
B) .odb
C) .bas 63. The links between rows of a master table and those
D) .bdo
of a nested table are maintained using:
54. ER model is used in _______ a. pointers.
b. foreign keys.
a) conceptual database b) schema refinement
c. determinants
c) physical refinement d) applications and security
d. clusters.
64. A tuple is also known as a(n)

55. Which of the following statements is not correct?
___________________________ .
a) an entity is an object to the real world
a. table
b) entity is described using attributes
b. relation
c) attributes are described using entity
c. row
d) each attribute must identify a domain
d. field

65. An attribute is also known as a(n) 73. A table with a _____________ cannot exhibit partial
a. table dependencies.
b. relation
A: two rows
c. row
B: single-attribute
d. field
C: three columns
D: none of the above
66. This Relational Algebra operation requires two
tables as input and the two tables must have one 74. Denormalization produces a ____________ normal
common form.
a) RESTRICTION A: higher
b) JOIN B: upper
c) DIVISION C: slower
e) PROJECTION D: lower
67. Which SQL keyword must be used to remove 75. Higher normal forms are better than lower normal
duplicate rows from the result relation ? forms because higher normal forms yield fewer
a) DELETE _______________ in the database.
b) DISTINCT
A: update, delete
c) NOT EXISTS
B: data storage
d) UNIQUE
C: data redundancies
D: none of the above
68. Which SQL keyword is used to return only different
values? 76. The 2NF describes the tabular format in which:
A: COUNT A: there are no repeating groups in the table
B: NOSAME B: all attributes are dependent on the primary key
C: GROUP C: A & B with no partial dependency
D: DISTINCT D: there is no partial dependency
77. The process of converting complex object data

69. Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result?
structures into well-structured relations is called:
A: ORDER
a. object-relational modeling.
B: SORT-ORDER
b. normalization.
C: SORT
c. referential integrity.
D: ORDER BY
d. determinant analysis.
70. A table that is in 2NF and contains no transitive
78. A relation is considered to be in second normal form
dependencies is said to be in
if it is in first normal form and it has no
a. 1NF.
____________ dependencies.
b. 2NF.
c. 3NF. a. referential
d. 4NF. b. functional
c. partial key
71. An entity is in second normal form if: d. transitive
A. all the values of nonprimary keys are dependent on the full
79. An attribute in one table that references a unique
primary key.
B. any nonkey attributes that are dependent on only part of the record in another table is called a:
primary key should be moved to any entity where that partial key
a. determinant.
is the actual full key.
b. foreign key.
C. it must already be in first normal form.
c. referential attribute.
D. all of the above.
d. functional dependency.
72. A functional dependency is a relationship between or
80. The essential characteristic of____________ normal
among:
form is that every determinant in the table must be a
A) Tables
candidate key.
B) Relations
C) Rows a. Boyce Codd
D) Attributes b. Domain Key
c. Fourth
d. Fifth

81. MySQL is a ______.

Ans. Relational Database Management System 91. The traditional storage of data that is organized by
customer, stored in separate folders in filing cabinets
82. The number of indexes allowed per table in MySQL is an example of what type of 'database' system?
are ______.
Ans. 64 A) Hierarchical
B) Network
83. ______ is a synonym for CREATE DATABASE. C) Object oriented
D) Relational
Ans. CREATE SCHEMA
84. Each table has an ______ file that contains the table
92. The database design that consists of multiple tables
definition. that are linked together through matching data
Ans. .frm stored in each table is called a:
85. A ______ is a named database object that is A) Hierarchical database

associated with a table and that is activated when a B) Network database
particular event occurs for the table, such as an insert C) Object oriented database
or update. D) Relational database
Ans. Trigger
93. What is the main limitation of Hierarchical
86. The ______ statement can pass back values to its Databases?
caller using parameters that are declared as OUT or
INOUT parameters. A) Limited capacity (unable to hold much data)
B) Limited flexibility in accessing data
Ans. CALL
C) Overhead associated with maintaining indexes
D) The performance of the database is poor
87. Software that defines a database, stores the data,
supports a query language, produces reports and
creates data entry screens is a: 94. An abstract data type is used to:
A) data dictionary
B) database management system (DBMS) A) link data from remote databases.
C) decision support system B) prevent users from getting to database security
D) relational database information.
C) provide a conceptual view of the data so it is easier to
understand.
88. The modern database report writer: D) store complex data structure to represent the properties of
A) is a career path that focuses on creating, managing and objects
supporting the reports generated from databases
B) provide limited control over how information is displayed
and reported. 95. One of the first phases of a new database project that
involves critical areas, expensive hardware or
C) provides the tools for database designer to display
software within the organization is called
information in the desired format
___________
D)provides the tools for the database administrator to
monitor and report on database use and activity
A) analysis phase
B) feasibility study
C) investigation stage
89. The separation of the data definition from the D) system design
program is known as…………….
A) data dictionary 96. Which component of the database management

system (DBMS) most affects the ability to handle
B) data independence large problems (scalability)?
C) data integrity
A) Data Storage Subsystem
D) referential integrity
B) Database Engine
C) Query Processor
D) Security Subsystem
90. In the client / server model, the database:
A) is downloaded to the client upon request

B) is shared by both the client and server
C) resides on the client side
D) resides on the server side

97. The primary difference between the Relational 104. The association role defines…………..
database (RDB) and Object oriented database
(OODB) models is:
A) how tables are related in the database
B) the relationship between the class diagram and the tables
A) OODB incorporates methods in with the definition of the in the database
data structure, while RDB does not C) the tables that each attribute is contained
B) OODB supports multiple objects in the same database D) which attribute is the table's primary key
while RDB only supports a single table per database
C) RDB allows the definition of the relationships between
the different tables, while OODB does not allow the 105. The purpose of an N-Ary association is:
relationships to be defined between objects
D) RDB supports indexes, while OODB does not support A) to capture a parent-child relationship
indexes B) to deal with one to many relationships
C) to deal with relationships that involve more than two
tables
98. Which of the following items is not the advantage of D) to represent an inheritance relationship
a DBMS?
106. A composition association is drawn using which
A) Improved ability to enforce standards symbol:
B) Improved data consistency
C) Local control over the data A) A line which loops back onto the same table
D) Minimal data redundancy B) Small closed diamond at the end of a line connecting two
tables
99. The predominant way of storing data today is using C) Small open diamond at the end of a line connecting two
which type of database models? tables
D) Small triangle at the end of a line connecting the
aggregated item and multiple component items
A) Hierarchical
B) Network
C) Object oriented 107. A reflexive association is drawn using which symbol:
D) Relational
A) a line which loops back onto the same table
100. Two different terms are used to describe the B) small closed diamond at the end of a line connecting two
characteristics of interest for an entity. They are tables
attributes and: C) small open diamond at the end of a line connecting two
A) classes tables
B) entities D) small triangle at the end of a line connecting the
C) properties aggregated item and multiple component items
D) traits
108. Assume you are creating a database to handle the
101. When building a database, the data dealing with an data associated with instruction at a university. What
entity is modeled as a: is the most appropriate special association to model
that a class may have multiple pre-requisites?
A) attribute
B) class A) aggregation association
C) object B) generalization association
D) table C) n-ary association
D) reflexive association
109. Assume you are creating a database to handle the
102. The property (or set of properties) that uniquely data associated with instruction at a university. What
defines each row in a table is called the: is the most appropriate special association to model
degree requirements (i.e., required number of courses
in humanity, science, math, etc)?
A) identifier
B) index
C) primary key A) composition association
D) symmetric key B) generalization association
C) n-ary association
103. Business rules can be represented in the database D) reflexive association
through:
A) associations (or relationships)

B) attributes
C) properties
D) secondary keys

110. Assume you are creating a database to handle the 113. The ability to define common properties or functions
data associated with instruction at a university. What in the higher class and then modify them in the lower
is the most appropriate special association to model classes is called:
that a course has an assigned instructor, Teaching A) Inheritance
Assistants, a classroom, meeting time slot, and class B) Polymorphism
roster? C) Reflexive
D) Transformance
A) aggregation association
B) generalization association 114. A reflexive association is one where one class is:
C) n-ary association
D) reflexive association
A) broken down into special cases
B) combined with multiple other classes
111. What is the most appropriate special association that C) combined with one other class
indicates that multiple textbooks make up a course D) linked back to itself
required reading list?
115. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) aggregation association
B) generalization association
C) n-ary association A) A primary goal of a database system is to share data with
D) reflexive association multiple users
B) It is possible to change a method or property inherited
from a higher level class
112. What is the special association that indicates that one C) While companies collect data all the time, the structure of
object can be broken down into multiple special the data changes very often.
cases? D) In a client / server environment, data independence
causes client-side applications to be essentially independent
of the database stored on the server side.
A) composition association
B) generalization association
C) n-ary association 116. Which of the following statements is not correct?
D) reflexive association A) Data Normalization is the process of defining the table
structure
B) The purpose of class diagrams is to model the
interrelationships between the different classes in the
database
C) Individual objects are stored as rows in a table
D) Properties of an object are stored as columns in a table.

Computer Architecture and Microprocessors MCQ
1. Control Unit acts as the central nervous system of the 6. Which of the following is correct about 8086
computer. microprocessor?
a) True a) Intel’s first x86 processor
b) False b) Motrola’s first x86 processor
c) STMICROELECTRONICS’s first x86 processor
2. The address generated by the CPU is referred to as d) NanoXplore x86 processor

____________
a) Physical address
7. Which of the following is a type of microprocessor?
b) Logical address
a) CISC
c) Neither physical nor logical
b) RISC
c) EPIC

3. The address loaded into the memory address register
of the memory is referred to as____________
a) Physical address 8. The microprocessor of a computer can operate on

any information if it is present in ______________
b) Logical address only.
c) Neither physical nor logical a) Program Counter
d) None of the mentioned b) Flag
c) Main Memory
4. Which of the following holds the last instruction d) Secondary Memory

fetched?
a) PC
9. Which of the following addressing method does the
b) MAR instruction, MOV AX,[BX] represent?
c) MBR a) register indirect addressing mode
d) IR b) direct addressing mode
c) register addressing mode
5. Whenever the data is found in the cache memory it is d) register relative addressing mode
called as _________
a) HIT
10. Which of the following is not true about the address
b) MISS bus?
c) FOUND a) It consists of control PIN 21 to 28
d) ERROR b) It is a bidirectional
c) It is 16 bits in length
d) It is Unidirectional

11. Which of the following is true about 17. What does a loader do in a microprocessor?
microprocessors?
a) Converts hexadecimal code to binary
a) It has an internal memory
b) Converts decimal to binary
b) It has interfacing circuits
c) Increments the content of the program counter by 1
c) It contains ALU, CU, and registers
d) Decodes an opcode
d) It uses Harvard architecture
18. When the data at a location in cache is different from

12. Which of the following is a special-purpose register of the data located in the main memory, the cache is
microprocessor? called _____________
a) Program counter a) Unique
b) Instruction register b) Inconsistent
c) Accumulator c) Variable
d) Temporary register d) Fault
13. How many address lines are present in 8086 19. In ____________ mapping, the data can be mapped
microprocessor? anywhere in the Cache Memory.
a) 16 a) Associative
b) 20 b) Direct
c) 32 c) Set Associative
d) 40 d) Indirect
14. Which of the following is not a condition flag? 20. The transfer between CPU and Cache
is______________
a) Trap flag
a) Block transfer
b) Auxiliary carry flag
b) Word transfer
c) Parity flag
c) Set transfer
d) Zero flag
d) Associative transfer
15. A memory connected to a microprocessor has 20
address lines and 16 data lines. What will be the
memory capacity?
21. The number of clock cycles per second is referred as
a) 8 KB ________
b) 2 MB a) Clock speed
c) 16 MB b) Clock frequency
d) 64 KB c) Clock rate
16. Which of the following is not true about 8085 d) Clock timing
microprocessor?
a) It is an 8-bit microprocessor
b) It is a 40 pin DIP chip
c) It is manufactured using PMOS technology
d) It has 16 address lines

22. Which of the following processor has a fixed length of 27. If M denotes the number of memory locations and N
instructions? denotes the word size, then an expression that denotes
the storage capacity is ______________
a) CISC
a) M*N
b) RISC
b) M+N
c) EPIC
c) 2M+N
d) Multi-core
d) 2M-N
23. Processor which is complex and expensive to produce

is ________ 28. The operation that does not involves clock cycles is
____________
a) RISC
a) Installation of a device
b) EPIC
b) Execute
c) CISC
c) Fetch
d) Multi-core
d) Decode
29. Word length of a personal computer___________

24. Which of the following is the fastest means of memory
access for CPU? a) 64bits
a) Registers b) 16 bits
b) Cache c) 8 bits
c) Main memory d) 32 bits
d) Virtual Memory
30. The process in which a file is partitioned into smaller

parts and different parts are stored in different disks
25. Size of the ________ memory mainly depends on the is ____________
size of the address bus.
a) RAID
a) Main
b) Mirroring
b) Virtual
c) Stripping
c) Secondary
d) RAID classification
d) Cache
31. The base register is also known as the____________

26. Which of the following is independent of the address
bus? a) basic register
a) Secondary memory b) regular register
b) Main memory c) relocation register
c) Onboard memory d) deallocation register
d) Cache memory 32. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according
to the value of ____________
a) program counter
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word

33. Program always deals with ____________ 39. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between
them are collectively called as _____
a) logical address
a) process route
b) absolute address
b) information trail
c) physical address
c) information path
d) relative address
d) data path
34. The ALU makes use of _______ to store the

intermediate results.
40. ______ are used to overcome the difference in data
a) Accumulators transfer speeds of various devices.
b) Registers a) Speed enhancing circuitry
c) Heap b) Bridge circuits
d) Stack c) Multiple Buses
d) Buffer registers
35. ______ structure is usually used to connect I/O

devices.
41. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus we
a) Single bus use ________
b) Multiple bus a) PCI bus
c) Star bus b) SCSI bus
d) Rambus c) Controllers
d) Multiple bus
36. ______ is generally used to increase the apparent size

of physical memory.
42. The ISA standard Buses are used to connect
a) Secondary memory ___________
b) Virtual memory a) RAM and processor
c) Hard-disk b) GPU and processor
d) Disks c) Harddisk and Processor
d) CD/DVD drives and Processor
37. ISP stands for _________
a) Instruction Set Processor 43. A processor performing fetch or decoding of different

instruction during the execution of another
b) Information Standard Processing instruction is called ______
c) Interchange Standard Protocol a) Super-scaling
d) Interrupt Service Procedure b) Pipe-lining

38. ______ is used to choose between incrementing the c) Parallel Computation
PC or performing ALU operations.
a) Conditional codes
b) Multiplexer
c) Control unit

44. For a given FINITE number of instructions to be 49. The addressing mode, where you directly specify the
executed, which architecture of the processor operand value is_______
provides for a faster execution?
a) Immediate
a) ISA
b) Direct
b) ANSA
c) Definite
c) Super-scalar
d) Relative
50. Which method of representation has two

45. The clock rate of the processor can be improved by representations for ‘0’?
_________
a) Sign-magnitude
a) Improving the IC technology of the logic circuits
b) 1’s complement
b) Reducing the amount of processing done in one step
c) 2’s complement
c) By using the overclocking method
51. The processor keeps track of the results of its

46. The ultimate goal of a compiler is to ________ operations using flags called ________
a) Reduce the clock cycles for a programming task a) Conditional code flags
b) Reduce the size of the object code b) Test output flags
c) Be versatile c) Type flags
d) Be able to detect even the smallest of errors d) None of the mentioned
47. When Performing a looping operation, the 52. The register used to store the flags is called as
instruction gets stored in the ______ _________
a) Registers a) Flag register
b) Cache b) Status register
c) System Heap c) Test register
d) System stack d) Log register
48. The addressing mode/s, which uses the PC instead of 53. The Flag ‘V’ is set to 1 indicates that_____________
a general purpose register is ______
a) The operation is valid
a) Indexed with offset
b) The operation is validated
b) Relative
c) The operation has resulted in an overflow
c) Direct
d) Both Indexed with offset and direct

54. In the implementation of a Multiplier circuit in the 59. When generating physical addresses from a logical
system we make use of_______ address the offset is stored in __________
a) Counter a) Translation look-aside buffer
b) Flip flop b) Relocation register
c) Shift register c) Page table
d) Push down stack d) Shift register
55. A 24 bit address generates an address space of ______ 60. The technique used to store programs larger than the
locations. memory is ____________
a) 1024 a) Overlays
b) 4096 b) Extension registers
c) 248 c) Buffers
d) 16,777,216 d) Both Extension registers and Buffers
56. If a system is 64 bit machine, then the length of each 61. The transfer of large chunks of data with the
word will be _______ involvement of the processor is done by _______
a) 4 bytes a) DMA controller
b) 8 bytes b) Arbitrator
c) 16 bytes c) User system programs
d) 12 bytes d) None of the mentioned
57. The type of memory assignment used in Intel 62. In a system, which has 32 registers the register id is
processors is _____ __________ long.
a) Little Endian a) 16 bit
b) Big Endian b) 8 bits
c) Medium Endian c) 5 bits
d) None of the mentioned d) 6 bits
63. The two phases of executing an instruction are

__________
58. To get the physical address from the logical address
generated by CPU we use____________ a) Instruction decoding and storage
a) MAR b) Instruction fetch and instruction execution
b) MMU c) Instruction execution and storage
c) Overlays d) Instruction fetch and Instruction processing
d) TLB 64. The instructions like MOV or ADD are called as

______
a) OP-Code
b) Operators
c) Commands

70. The interrupt-request line is a part of the

___________
65. The utility program used to bring the object code into
memory for execution is ______ a) Data line
a) Loader b) Control line
b) Fetcher c) Address line
c) Extractor d) None of the mentioned
d) Linker
71. An interrupt that can be temporarily ignored is

___________
66. When parameters are being passed on to the
subroutines they are stored in…………. a) Vectored interrupt
a) Registers b) Non-maskable interrupt
b) Memory locations c) Maskable interrupt
c) Processor stacks d) High priority interrupt
72. Which interrupt is unmaskable?
67. The most efficient way of handling parameter passing a) RST 5.5
is by using ______
b) RST 7.5
a) General purpose registers
c) TRAP
b) Stacks
d) Both RST 5.5 and 7.5
c) Memory locations

73. When dealing with multiple devices interrupts, which
mechanism is easy to implement?
68. The data structure suitable for scheduling processes a) Polling method
is _______
b) Vectored interrupts
a) List
c) Interrupt nesting
b) Heap
c) Queue
d) Stack
74. The processor indicates to the devices that it is ready
to receive interrupts ________
69. The process wherein the processor constantly checks a) By enabling the interrupt request line
the status flags is called as ___________
b) By enabling the IRQ bits
a) Polling
c) By activating the interrupt acknowledge line
b) Inspection
c) Reviewing
d) Echoing

75. _________ method is used to establish priority by 80. facilities provided by the debugger is __________
serially connecting all devices that request an
interrupt. a) Trace points
a) Vectored-interrupting b) Break points
b) Daisy chain c) Compile
c) Priority d) Both Trace and Break points
d) Polling
81. The instructions which can be run only supervisor
mode are?
76. Interrupts initiated by an instruction is called as
_______ a) Non-privileged instructions
a) Internal b) System instructions
b) External c) Privileged instructions
c) Hardware d) Exception instructions
d) Software
82. In DMA transfers, the required signals and addresses
are given by the__________
77. If during the execution of an instruction an exception
is raised then__________ a) Processor
a) The instruction is executed and the exception is handled b) Device drivers
b) The instruction is halted and the exception is handled c) DMA controllers
c) The processor completes the execution and saves the data and d) The program itself
then handle the exception

83. Can a single DMA controller perform operations on
two different disks simultaneously?
78. _____ is/are types of exceptions. a) True
a) Trap b) False
b) Interrupt
c) System calls 84. The primary function of the BUS is__________
d) All of the mentioned a) To connect the various devices to the cpu
b) To provide a path for communication between the processor and

other devices
79. The program used to find out errors is called
__________ c) To facilitate data transfer between various devices
a) Debugger d) All of the mentioned
b) Compiler
c) Assembler 85. The transformation between the Parallel and serial

ports is done with the help of ______
d) Scanner
a) Flip flops
b) Logic circuits
c) Shift registers

91. The situation wherein the data of operands are not

available is called______
86. A narrow SCSI BUS has _____ data lines.
a) Data hazard
a) 6
b) Stock
b) 8
c) Deadlock
c) 16
d) Structural hazard
d) 4
92. The computer architecture aimed at reducing the

87. The maximum number of devices that can be time of execution of instructions is ________
connected to SCSI BUS is ______
a) CISC
a) 12
b) RISC
b) 10
c) ISA
c) 16
d) ANNA
d) 8
93. In CISC architecture most of the complex

88. The multiplier is stored in ______ instructions are stored in _____
a) PC Register a) Register
b) Shift register b) Diodes

c) Cache c) CMOS
d) None of the mentioned d) Transistors
89. The pipelining process is also called as ______ 94. If the page table is large then it is stored in
__________
a) Superscalar operation
a) Processor
b) Assembly line operation
b) Main memory
c) Von Neumann cycle
c) Disk
d) Secondary storage
90. Each stage in pipelining should be completed within

___________ cycle. 95. Whenever a request to the page that is not present in
the main memory is accessed ______ is triggered.
a) 1
a) Interrupt
b) 2
b) Request
c) 3
c) Page fault
d) 4

96. When an operand is stored in a register it is _______ 102. The time lost due to the branch instruction is often
referred to as ____________
a) Stored in the lower order bits of the register
a) Latency
b) Stored in the higher order bits of the register
b) Delay
c) Stored in any of the bits at random
c) Branch penalty
97. The main importance of ARM microprocessors is

providing operation with ______ 103. The logical addresses generated by the cpu are
mapped onto physical memory by ____________
a) Low cost and low power consumption
a) Relocation register
b) Higher degree of multi-tasking
b) TLB
c) Lower error or glitches
c) MMU
d) Efficient memory management
98. In the ARM, PC is implemented using___________

104. A 16 X 8 Organization of memory cells, can store up
a) Caches to _____
b) Heaps a) 256 bits
c) General purpose register b) 1024 bits
d) Stack c) 512 bits
d) 128 bits
99. The LEA mnemonic is used to__________
a) Load the effective address of an instruction 105. To reduce the number of external connections
required, we make use of______
b) Load the values of operands onto an accumulator
a) De-multiplexer
c) Declare the values as global constants
b) Multiplexer
d) Store the outcome of the operation at a memory location
c) Encoder
d) Decoder
100. SIMD stands for __________
a) Single Instruction Multiple Data

106. The time taken to transfer a word of data to or from
b) Simple Instruction Multiple Decoding the memory is called as______
c) Sequential Instruction Multiple Decoding a) Access time
d) System Information Mutable Data b) Cycle time
c) Memory latency
101. Any condition that causes a processor to stall is called d) None of the mentioned
as _________
a) Hazard
b) Page fault
c) System error

107. The fastest data access is provided using _______ 112. ______ translates the logical address into a physical
address.
a) Caches
a) MMU
b) DRAM’s
b) Translator
c) SRAM’s
c) Compiler
d) Registers
d) Linker
108. The correspondence between the main memory

blocks and those in the cache is given by _________ 113. The minimum number of transistors required to
implement a two input AND gate is
a) Hash function
A. 2
b) Mapping function
B. 4
c) Locale function
C. 6
d) Assign function
D. 8
109. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus we

use ______ 114. A structure that stores a number of bits taken
“together as a unit” is a
a) PCI bus
A. gate
b) SCSI bus
B. mux
c) Controllers
C. decoder
d) Multiple bus
D. register
110. The main purpose of having memory hierarchy is to

________ 115. Which register usually store the output generated by
ALU in several arithmetic and logical operations?
a) Reduce access time
a. Accumulator
b) Provide large capacity
b. Special Function Register
c) Reduce propagation time
c. Timer Register
d) Reduce access time & Provide large capacity
d. Stack Pointer
111. __________ is used to implement virtual memory

organization. 116. Which operations are performed by stack pointer
during its incremental phase?
a) Page table
a. Push
b) Frame table
b. Pop
c) MMU
c. Return
d. All of the above

117. What kind of instructions usually affect the program 122. The NAND gate output will be low if the two inputs
counter? are
a. Call & Jump (A) 00
b. Call & Return (B) 01
c. Push & Pop (C) 10
d. Return & Jump (D) 11
118. Which commands are used for addressing the off- 123. The number of control lines for a 8 – to – 1
chip data and associated codes respectively by data multiplexer is
pointer?
(A) 2
a. MOVX & MOVC
(B) 3
b. MOVY & MOVB
(C) 4
c. MOVZ & MOVA
(D) 5
d. MOVC & MOVY
124. How many Flip-Flops are required for mod–16

119. Which instruction find its utility in loading the data counter?
pointer with 16 bits immediate data?
(A) 5
a. MOV
(B) 6
b. INC
(C) 3
c. DEC
(D) 4
d. ADDC
125. EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to

120. What is the maximum capability of addressing the
off-chip data memory & off-chip program memory in (A)Ultraviolet rays.
a data pointer?
(B) Infrared rays.
a. 8K
(C) Burst of microwaves.
b. 16K
(D) Intense heat radiations.
c. 32K
d. 64K
126. Data can be changed from special code to temporal
code by using
121. How does the processor respond to an occurrence of (A)Shift registers

the interrupt?
(B) counters
a. By Interrupt Service Subroutine
(C) Combinational circuits
b. By Interrupt Status Subroutine
(D) A/D converters.
c. By Interrupt Structure Subroutine
d. By Interrupt System Subroutine

127. The device which changes from serial data to parallel

data is
(A)COUNTER
(B)DEMULTIPLEXER
(C)MULTIPLEXER
(D) FLIP-FLOP
128. The access time of ROM using bipolar transistors is

about
(A) 1 sec
(B) 1 msec
(C) 1 µsec
(D) 1 nsec.
129. How many select lines will a 16 to 1 multiplexer will

have
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 1
130. The chief reason why digital computers use

complemented subtraction is that it
(A)Simplifies the circuitry.
(B)Is a very simple process.
(C)Can handle negative numbers easily.
(D)Avoids direct subtraction
131. How many address bits are required to represent 4K

memory
(A)5 bits.
(B) 12 bits.
(C) 8 bits.
(D) 10 bits.

Peripheral and Multimedia MCQ
1. The high-speed memory between the main memory 7. For large data transfers, _________ is used.
and the CPU called?
a) DMA
a) Register Memory
b) programmed I/O
b) Cache Memory
c) controller register
c) Storage Memory
d) Virtual Memory
8. The smallest entity of memory is called _______

2. Cache Memory is implemented using the DRAM
a) Cell
chips.
b) Block
a) True
c) Instance
b) False
d) Unit
3. The Cache memory is implemented using the SRAM

chips 9. The BOOT sector files of the system are stored in
___________
a) True
a) Hard disk
b) False
b) ROM
c) RAM
4. ………………. memory is implemented using the
semiconductor chips. d) Fast solid state chips in the motherboard
a) Cache
b) Main 10. The assembler stores the object code in ______

c) Secondary a) Main memory
d) Registers b) Cache
c) RAM
5. Winchester disks are a type of _______ d) Magnetic disk
a) optical disks
b) magnetic disks 11. The DMA transfer is initiated by_____

c) compact disks a) Processor
d) magnetic drives b) The process being executed
c) I/O devices
6. The software substituted for hardware and stored in d) OS
ROM is…………..
a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) Firmware
d) Middleware

12. The virtual memory bridges the size and speed gap 18. Why did PROM introduced?
between __________ and__________
a) To increase the storage capacity
a) RAM and ROM
b) To increase the address locations
b) RAM and Secondary memory
c) To provide flexibility
c) Processor and RAM
d) To reduce the size
19. PROMs are available in ___________

13. ‘Burst refresh’ in DRAM is also called
a) Bipolar and MOSFET technologies
A. Concentrated refresh
b) MOSFET and FET technologies
B. Distributed refresh
c) FET and bipolar technologies
C. Hidden refresh
d) MOS and bipolar technologies
20. How many types of fuse technologies are used in

14. Which memory has read operation, byte erase, byte PROMs?
write and chip erase?
a) 2
A. RAM
b) 3
B. UVEPROM
c) 4
C. EEPROM
d) 5
D. both (b) and (c)
21. The PROM starts out with _____________

15. EPROM uses an array of _______________
a) 1s
a) p-channel enhancement type MOSFET
b) 0s
b) n-channel enhancement type MOSFET
c) Null
c) p-channel depletion type MOSFET
d) Both 1s and 0s
d) n-channel depletion type MOSFET
22. For implementation of PROM, which IC is used?

16. ROMs retain data when ______________
a) IC 74187
a) Power is on
b) IC 74186
b) Power is off
c) IC 74185
c) System is down
d) IC 74184
d) All of the Mentioned
17. What is the difference between static RAM and

dynamic RAM? 23. Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on
A) tracks per inch of surface
a) Static RAM must be refreshed, dynamic RAM does not
b) There is no difference B) bits per inch of tracks
c) Dynamic RAM must be refreshed, static RAM does not C) disk pack in disk surface
d) SRAM is slower than DRAM
D) All of above

24. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands 29. Mnemonic a memory trick is used in which of the
coming from following language?
A) Primary memory A) Machine language
B) Control section B) Assembly language
C) External memory C) High level language
D) Cache memory D) None of above
25. The output quality of a printer is measured by….. 30. An integrated circuit is………….
A) Dot per sq. inch A) A complicated circuit
B) Dot per inch B) An integrating device
C) Dots printed per unit time C) Much costlier than a single transistor
D) All of the above D) Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip
26. A physical connection between the microprocessor 31. The difference between memory and storage is that
memory and other parts of the microcomputer is memory is _____ and storage is __
known as………… A) Temporary, permanent
A) Path
B) Permanent, temporary
B) Address bus
C) Slow, fast
C) Route
D) All of above
D) All of the above
32. Which printer is very commonly used for desktop

27. Which of the following produces the best quality publishing?
graphics reproduction? A) Laser printer
A) Laser printer
B) Inkjet printer
B) Ink jet printer
C) Daisywheel printer
C) Plotter
D) Dot matrix printer
D) Dot matrix printer
33. In a computer _____ is capable to store single binary

28. A set of flip flops integrated together is called ____ bit.
A) Counter A) Capacitor
B) Adder B) Flip flop
C) Register C) Register
D) None of the above D) Inductor

34. Which of the following memories allows 39. Which of the following disk is fixed disk?
simultaneous read and write operations? A) Hard Disks
A) ROM
B) Flash Disks
B) RAM
C) Blu-Ray Disks
C) EPROM
D) DVDs
D) None of above
40. Daisy wheel printer is a type of…………

35. Which of the following is a read only memory A) Matrix printer
storage device?
B) Impact printer
A) Floppy Disk
C) Laser printer
B) CD-ROM
D) Manual printer
C) Hard Disk
D) None of these
41. Circular division of disks to store and retrieve data
are known as…………
36. The memory which is programmed at the time it is A) tracks
manufactured
A) ROM B) sectors
B) RAM C) cycles
C) PROM D) rings
D) EPROM
42. Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Cache memory is a small amount of memory which is a part of
37. Which of the following memories needs refreshing? the Random-Access Memory
A) SRAM
b) Cache memory is used to temporarily hold instructions and data
B) DRAM that the CPU is likely to reuse
C) ROM c) Cache Memory is cheaper memory
D) All of above d) All of the above statements are true
38. Which technology is used in Compact disks?

43. A light sensitive device that converts drawing,
A) Mechanical
printed text or other images into digital form is
B) Electrical
A. Keyboard
C) Electro Magnetic
B. Plotter
D) Laser
C. Scanner
D. OMR

44. Which of the following memory is non-volatile? 49. The process of determining which pixels will provide
a better approximation to the desired line is known
A. SRAM
as____.
B. DRAM
(a) Scan conversion
C. ROM
(b) Randomization
D. All of the above

(c) Rasterization
(d) Recreation
45. ROM is needed for storing an initial program called
_______.
50. Rasterization combined with the process of rendering
A. Computer Startup Loader
the picture scan line order is known as _________
B. OS Version
(a) Scan conversion
C. Kernel
(b) Randomization
D. Bootstrap Loader
(c) Recreation
(d) None of the above

46. The most advanced form of ROM is?
A. PROM
51. Basic methods of projection are _______ and
B. RAM ________ .
C. EEPROM (a) Parallel and perspective
D. Cache Memory (b) Parallel and perceptive
(c) Perceptive and perspective
47. What technology of memory is Cache RAM usually? (d) None of the above
A. DRAM
B. Flash 52. Good graphics programming avoids the use of _____

operations whenever possible.
C. SRAM
(a) Multiplications
D. EEPROM
(b) Division
(c) Floating point

48. What is PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)?
(d) Integer
A. A type of monitor
B. A type of system bus
C. A kind of graphics
D. A modem standard

53. For a __________graphics device adjacent pixels on 57. _____ is the process of extracting a portion of the
a scan line are likely to have the same characteristics. database, is fundamental to several aspects of
computer graphics.
(a) Random scan
(a) Projection
(b) Raster scan
(b) Clipping
(c) CRT
(c) Rotation
(d) Translation
54. What is scan line coherence?

58. Clipping algorithm can be implemented in……..
(a) Adjacent pixels on a scan line are likely to have different
characteristics (a) Software
(b) Non-adjective pixels on a scan line are likely to have different (b) Both a and b
characteristics
(c) Hardware
(c) Adjective pixels on a scan line are likely to have the same
characteristics

59. The object is held stationary while the coordinate
system is moved relative to the object is called…..
55. The edge flag algorithm is a ________ process
(a) Geometric Transformation
(a) One-step
(b) Coordinate transformation
(b) Three-step
(c) Translation
(c) Two-step
(d) Rotation
(d) Four-step
60. The object is held stationary while the coordinates

56. The First step of edge –flag algorithm is system is moved relation to the object is called.
(a) Fill (a) Geometric transformation
(b) Sean line (b) Coordinate transformation
(c) Contour outline (c) Translation
(d) None of the above (d) Rotation

61. The object is displaced a given distance and 65. An optical drive uses the ……. To read data.
direction its original position is called
a. Magnetize particle
(a) Translation
b. Electric particle
(b) Rotation
c. Reflected light
(c) Transformation
d. Refracted light
(d) Scaling
62. ________ is the process of expanding or compressing

the dimensions of an object.
(a) Translation
(b) Rotation
(c) Transformation
(d) Scaling
63. In Perspective Projection eye of the artist is placed

at the
(a) Left of projection
(b) Right of projection
(c) Top of projection
(d) Center of projection
64. Flash memory was developed taking the concept

of………..
a. EPROM
b. EEPROM
c. DRAM
d. SRAM

Digital Circuits/Logic Design MCQ
1. The systematic reduction of logic circuits is 6. Total number of inputs in a half adder is __________
accomplished by……….
a) 2
a) Symbolic reduction
b) 3
b) TTL logic
c) 4
c) Using Boolean algebra
d) 1
d) Using a truth table
7. In which operation carry is obtained?

2. Perform binary addition: 101101 + 011011 = ?
a) Subtraction
a) 011010
b) Addition
b) 1010100
c) Multiplication
c) 101110
d) Both addition and subtraction
d) 1001000
8. If A and B are the inputs of a half adder, the sum is

3. Whose operations are more faster among the given by __________
following?
a) A AND B
a) Combinational circuits
b) A OR B
b) Sequential circuits
c) A XOR B
c) Latches
d) A EX-NOR B
d) Flip-flops
9. If A and B are the inputs of a half adder, the carry is

4. Transfer of one bit of information at a time is called given by __________
_______
a) A AND B
a) Rotating
b) A OR B
b) Serial transfer
c) A XOR B
c) Parallel transfer
d) A EX-NOR B
d) Shifting
10. Half-adders have a major limitation in that they

5. Which of the following is not a combinational circuit? cannot __________
a) Adder a) Accept a carry bit from a present stage
b) Code convertor b) Accept a carry bit from a next stage
c) Multiplexer c) Accept a carry bit from a previous stage
d) Counter d) Accept a carry bit from the following stages

11. The difference between half adder and full adder is 16. input circuit will have total of ____________
__________
a) 32 entries
a) Half adder has two inputs while full adder has four inputs
b) 128 entries
b) Half adder has one output while full adder has two outputs
c) 256 entries
c) Half adder has two inputs while full adder has three inputs
d) 512 entries
d) All of the Mentioned
17. 3 bits full adder contains ____________

12. If A, B and C are the inputs of a full adder then the
sum is given by __________ a) 3 combinational inputs
a) A AND B AND C b) 4 combinational inputs
b) A OR B AND C c) 6 combinational inputs
c) A XOR B XOR C d) 8 combinational inputs
d) A OR B OR C
18. The simplified expression of full adder carry is

____________
13. How many AND, OR and EXOR gates are required
for the configuration of full adder? a) c = xy+xz+yz
a) 1, 2, 2 b) c = xy+xz
b) 2, 1, 2 c) c = xy+yz
c) 3, 1, 2 d) c = x+y+z
d) 4, 0, 1
19. Decimal digit in BCD can be represented by

____________
14. The register is a type of ___________
a) 1 input line
a) Sequential circuit
b) 2 input lines
b) Combinational circuit
c) 3 input lines
c) CPU
d) 4 input lines
d) Latches
20. How many natural states will there be in a 4-bit ripple

15. The main difference between a register and a counter counter?
is ___________
a) 4
a) A register has no specific sequence of states
b) 8
b) A counter has no specific sequence of states
c) 16
c) A register has capability to store one bit of information but
counter has n-bit d) 32
d) A register counts data 21. A ripple counter’s speed is limited by the propagation
delay of _____________
a) Each flip-flop
b) All flip-flops and gates
c) The flip-flops only with gates
d) Only circuit gates

22. A modulus-10 counter must have ________ 28. Canonical form is a unique way of representing
____________
a) 10 flip-flops
a) SOP
b) 4 Flip-flops
b) Minterm
c) 2 flip-flops
c) Boolean Expressions
d) Synchronous clocking
d) POS
23. A counter circuit is usually constructed of

____________ 29. How many AND gates are required for a 1-to-8
multiplexer?
a) A number of latches connected in cascade form
a) 2
b) A number of NAND gates connected in cascade form
b) 6
c) A number of flip-flops connected in cascade
c) 8
d) A number of NOR gates connected in cascade form
d) 5
24. How many types of the counter are there?

30. How many types of flip-flops are there?
a) 2
a) 2
b) 3
b) 3
c) 4
c) 4
d) 5
d) 5
25. Ripple counters are also called ____________

31. What is a trigger pulse?
a) SSI counters
a) A pulse that starts a cycle of operation
b) Asynchronous counters
b) A pulse that reverses the cycle of operation
c) Synchronous counters
c) A pulse that prevents a cycle of operation
d) VLSI counters
d) A pulse that enhances a cycle of operation
26. BCD counter is also known as ____________

32. In D flip-flop, D stands for _____________
a) Parallel counter
a) Distant
b) Decade counter
b) Data
c) Synchronous counter
c) Desired
d) VLSI counter
d) Delay
33. A D flip-flop can be constructed from an ______ flip-

27. A variable on its own or in its complemented form is flop.
known as a __________
a) S-R
a) Product Term
b) J-K
b) Literal
c) T
c) Sum Term
d) S-K
d) Word

34. Which of the following is the Universal Flip-flop? 40. The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to
a) S-R flip-flop (A) 1100
b) J-K flip-flop (B) 0101
c) Master slave flip-flop (C) 1001
d) D Flip-flop (D) 0110
35. The characteristic of J-K flip-flop is similar to 41. The 2’s complement of the number 1101101 is
_____________
(A) 0101110
a) S-R flip-flop
(B) 0111110
b) D flip-flop
(C) 0110010
c) T flip-flop
(D) 0010011
d) Gated T flip-flop
36. _______ is used to store data in registers. 42. The code where all successive numbers differ from
their preceding number by single bit is
a) D flip flop
(A)Binary code.
b) JK flip flop
(B) BCD.
c) RS flip flop
(C) Excess – 3.
(D) Gray.
37. Which representation is most efficient to perform

arithmetic operations on the numbers? 43. A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is
called
a) Sign-magnitude
(A)Encoder
b) 1’s complement
(C) Multiplexer
c) 2’S complement
(B) Decoder
(D) Demultiplexer
38. A _______ gate is used to detect the occurrence of an

overflow. 44. In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means
a) NAND (A)Set Q = 1 and Q = 0.
b) XOR (B)Set Q = 0 and Q = 1.
c) XNOR (C)Change the output to the opposite state.
d) AND (D)No change in output.
39. The bit used to store whether the page has been 45. When the set of input data to an even parity
modified or not is called as _______ generator is 0111, the output will be
a) Dirty bit (A) 1
b) Modify bit (B) 0
c) Relocation bit (C) Unpredictable
d) None of the mentioned (D) Depends on the previous input

46. A full adder logic circuit will have 52. All input of NOR as low produces result as
__________
(A)Two inputs and one output.
a) Low
(B)Three inputs and three outputs.
b) Mid
(C)Two inputs and two outputs.
c) High
(D)Three inputs and two outputs
d) Floating
47. Any signed negative binary number is recognized by

its ________ 53. The primary advantage of RTL technology was that
__________
a) MSB
a) It results as low power dissipation
b) LSB
b) It uses a minimum number of resistors
c) Byte
c) It uses a minimum number of transistors
d) Nibble
d) It operates swiftly
48. What does RTL in digital circuit design stand for?

54. The disadvantage of RTL is that __________
a) Register transfer language
a) It uses a maximum number of resistors
b) Register transfer logic
b) It results in high power dissipation
c) Register transfer level
c) High noise creation
d) Resistor-transistor logic
d) It uses minimum number of transistors
49. RTL mainly focuses on describing the flow of signals

between ________ 55. Diode–transistor logic (DTL) is the direct ancestor of
_____________
a) Logic gates
a) Register-transistor logic
b) Registers
b) Transistor–transistor logic
c) Clock
c) High threshold logic
d) Inverter
d) Emitter Coupled Logic
50. Which flip-flop is usually used in the implementation

of the registers? 56. The DTL propagation delay is relatively
___________
a) D flip-flop
a) Large
b) S-R flip-flop
b) Small
c) T flip-flop
c) Moderate
d) J-K flip-flop
d) Negligible
51. Which of the following tool performs logic
optimization? 57. CMOS behaves as a/an ____________
a) Simulation tool a) Adder
b) Synthesis tool b) Subtractor
c) Routing tool c) Inverter
d) RTL compiler d) Comparator

58. Transistor–transistor logic (TTL) is a class of digital 64. The basic latch consists of ___________
circuits built from ____________
a) Two inverters
a) JFET only
b) Two comparators
b) Bipolar junction transistors (BJT)
c) Two amplifiers
c) Resistors
d) Two adders
d) Bipolar junction transistors (BJT) and resistors
65. Why latches are called as memory devices?

59. Which of the examples below expresses the
commutative law of multiplication? a) It has capability to stare 8 bits of data
a) A + B = B + A b) It has internal memory of 4 bit
b) A • B = B + A c) It can store one bit of data
c) A • (B • C) = (A • B) • C d) It can store infinite amount of data
d) A • B = B • A
66. On a J-K flip-flop, when is the flip-flop in a hold

condition?
60. The characteristic equation of S-R latch is
____________ a) J = 0, K = 0
a) Q(n+1) = (S + Q(n))R’ b) J = 1, K = 0
b) Q(n+1) = SR + Q(n)R c) J = 0, K = 1
c) Q(n+1) = S’R + Q(n)R d) J = 1, K = 1
d) Q(n+1) = S’R + Q'(n)R
67. Which of the following flip-flop is used by the ring

counter?
61. The difference between a flip-flop & latch is
____________ a) D flip-flops
a) Both are same b) SR flip-flops
b) Flip-flop consist of an extra output c) JK flip-flops
c) Latches has one input but flip-flop has two d) T flip-flops
d) Latch has two inputs but flip-flop has one

68. In __________ universal clock is not used.
62. The S-R flip flop consist of ____________ a) Synchronous counter
a) 4 AND gates b) Asynchronous counter
b) Two additional AND gates c) Decade counter
c) An additional clock input d) Ring counter
d) 3 AND gates
63. What is one disadvantage of an S-R flip-flop? 69. State transition happens _______ in every clock cycle.
a) It has no Enable input a) Once
b) It has a RACE condition b) Twice
c) It has no clock input c) Thrice
d) Invalid State d) Four times

Computer Basics (CSE)
1. In which year were chips used inside the computer 7. An error in software or hardware is called a bug.
for the first time? What is the alternative computer jargon for it?
A. Leech
a) 1964 B. Squid
b) 1974 C. Slug
c) 1975 D. Glitch
d) 1981
8. Which of the following are loaded in safe mode?
2. A ...... is a set of computer instructions that carry out A. Keyboard driver
a task on the computer B. Mouse driver
A. Program C. VGA drive
B. Database D. All of above
C. Memory files
D. None of the above 9. A distribute database has which of the following
advantage over a centralized database?
3. A program that performs a useful task while a. Software cost
simultaneously allowing destructive acts is: b. Software complexity
A. Worm c. Slow response
B. Trojan Horse d. Modular growth
C. Virus
D. Macro Virus 10. Which of the following is not a valid variable name?
a. int 31
4. Database is a ……………… b. float _rate
a. Collection of files c. double num ber
b. Collection of data d. int variable_count
c. Collection of interrelated data

d. all of them 11. The primary purpose of an operating system is:
A. To make the most efficient use of the computer hardware
5. The majority of computer crimes are committed by: B. To allow people to use the computer
A. Hackers C. To keep systems programmers employed
B. Insiders D. To make computers easier to use
C. Overseas criminals
D. Young teenage computer geniuses 12. What is dispatch latency?
A. The time taken by the dispatcher to stop one process and start
6. An entity is a/an………….. another
a. Collection of items in an application B. The time taken by the processor to write a file into disk
a. Inanimate object in an application C. The whole time taken by all processor
a. District real world item in an application D. None of Above
a. Data structure

13. You should choose this mode if you don't know how 19. UNIX operating system is…………
long you won't use your computer but want to have A. Time sharing operating system
the same desktop state when you resume B. Multi-user operating system
A. Shut Down C. Multi-tasking operating system
B. Restart D. All of the above
C. Sleep
D. Hibernate 20. Semantic error occurs due to…………..
a. Incorrect syntax
14. XML makes it easier for…………. b. incorrect logic
a. Human to read web sites c. wrong input
b. Machine to read web sites d. none of them
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above 21. The term MIPS refer to……….
a. millions input processor second
15. What is the method of handling deadlocks? b. megabyte of instructions per second
A. Use a protocol to ensure that the system will never enter a c. multiple instructions per second
deadlock state d. millions of instructions per second
B. Allow the system to enter the deadlock state and then recover
C. Pretend that deadlocks never occur in the system
D. All of the Above 22. A= {2, 3, 4}, what is the cardinality of set A?
a. 24
16. UNIVAC is b. 3
A) Universal Automatic Computer c. 2
B) Universal Array Computer d. 9
C) Unique Automatic Computer
D) Unvalued Automatic Computer 23. What is the main difference between a mainframe
and a super computer?
17. The necessary conditions needed before deadlock A) Super computer is much larger than mainframe computers
can occur? B) Super computers are much smaller than mainframe computers
A. No Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, Preemption, Circular C) Supercomputers are focused to execute few programs as fast as
Wait possible while mainframe uses its power to execute as many
B. Mutual Exclusion, No Hold and wait, Preemption, Circular programs concurrently
Wait D) Supercomputers are focused to execute as many programs as
C. Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, No Preemption, Circular possible while mainframe uses its power to execute few programs
Wait as fast as possible.
D. Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, Preemption, No Circular
Wait 24. Metadata means?
a. Data that describes other data
18. Which is the best way of protecting data from loss? b. unused data
a. Make regular backup of the data c. data used as metaphor
b. Delete all files d. frequently accessed data
c. Lock your computer
d. Change your password 25. Which one makes data access from database faster?
a. Traversing
b. Searching
c. Indexing
d. Partitioning

26. The brain of any computer system is 33. Which of the following does not support more than
A) ALU one program at a time?
B) Memory a. DOS
C) CPU b. Linux
D) Control unit c. Windows
d. Unix
27. Which of the following does the interface between a
process and the operating system? 34. Creating a new class using one or more existing
a. Procedure call classes is known as-----------------?
b. system call a. Polymorphism
c. function optic b. Encapsulation
d. None c. Overloading
d. Inheritance
28. Which technic is Preferable for huge data transfer
between I/O and memory? 35. The automatic execution of some SQL statements
a. Memory Mapped I/O can be started automatically due to any change to a
b. Isolated I/O database relation can be caused by
c. Interrupt I/O a. View
d. DMA b. None
c. Assertion
29. Chief component of first generation computer was d. Trigger
A) Transistors
B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves 36. A high quality CAD system uses the following for
C) Integrated Circuits printing drawing and graphs
D) None of above A) Dot matrix printer
B) Digital plotter
30. Which of the following terms does not describe a C) Line printer
type of flash drive? D) All of the above
a. hard drive
b. pen drive 37. What is interframe gap?
c. jump drive a) idle time between frames
d. thumb drive b) idle time between frame bits
c) idle time between packets
31. What type of RAM is often used for system d) none of the mentioned
memory?
a. SRAM 38. The decimal number -34 is expressed in 2’s
b. PRAM complement form as:
c. SDRAM a. 10000110
d. VRAM b. 11011001
c. 11011110
32. Which computer was considered the first electronic d. 11011100
computer until 1973 when court invalidated the
patent? 39. The digital computer was developed primarily in
A) ENIAC A) USSR
B) MARK I B) Japan
C) Z3 C) USA
D) ABC D) UK

40. The amount of time a program takes from when a 47. If you want your conditional to depend on two
request was submitted until the first result is conditions both being true, what is the proper
processed. notation to put between the two Boolean statements?
a. Waiting time (a) ||
b. Response time (b) &
c. Turnaround time (c) |
d. Through round time (d) &&
41. Which is used for manufacturing chips? 48. The first machine to successfully perform a long
A) Bus series of arithmetic and logical operations was…….
B) Control unit A) ENIAC
C) Semiconductors B) Mark-I
D) A and b only C) Analytic Engine
D) UNIVAC-1
42. Who preside the interface between a process and the
OS? 49. Which one is the largest space?
(a) Kernel A) kilobyte
(b) System Calls B) petabyte
(c) API C) terabyte
(d) Processor D) gigabyte
43. Instruction in computer languages consists of 50. POST means……….

A) OPCODE (a) Post Operating System Test
B) OPERAND (b) Power On Self-Test
C) Both of above (c) Power On Self Timing
D) None of above (d) None
44. When was the world’s first laptop computer 51. Analog computer works on the supply of
introduced in the market and by whom? A) Continuous electrical pulses
A) Hewlett-Packard, 1980 B) Electrical pulses but not continuous
B) Epson, 1981 C) Magnetic strength
C) Laplink Traveling Software Inc, 1982 D) None of the above
D) Tandy Model-200, 1985
52. The personal computer industry was started by
45. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into A) IBM
a database depends on what? B) Apple
(a) Data integrity C) Compaq
(b) The type of database D) HCL
(c) The user's perspective
(d) The business practices and policies 53. Which number system is usually followed in a
typical 32-bit computer?
46. Before a package can be used in a java program it A) Binary
must be___. B) Decimal
(a) executed C) Hexadecimal
(b) referenced D) Octal
(c) imported
(d) declared

54. Which of the following is generally a benefit of 61. Memory is made up of

normalization? A) Set of wires
(a) Performance is improved B) Set of circuits
(b) Insertion anomalies are avoided C) Large number of cells
(c) Selection anomalies are avoided D) All of these
(d) Number of tables is reduced
62. Which technology is more reliable?
55. Which electronic component was made out of A) Mechanical
semiconductor material? B) Electro-Mechanical
A) Vacuum tubes C) Electronic
B) Transistors D) For reliability it does not matter. So all of above are reliable
C) ICs
D) All of above 63. Which of the following is the most quickly accessible
storage?
56. What is the first stage in software development? A) RAM
A) Specification and design B) Registers
B) Testing C) Disks
C) System Analysis D) Pen Drive
D) Maintenance
64. Which of the following processors use RISC
57. Which of the following is problem oriented technology?
language? A) 486dx
A) High level language B) Power PC
B) Machine language C) 486sx
C) Assembly language D) 6340
D) Low level language
65. The word length of a computer is measured in
58. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal A) Bytes
to B) Millimeters
A) 2 byte C) Meters
B) 32 byte D) Bits
C) 4 byte
D) 8 byte 66. Which unit holds data permanently?
A) Input unit
59. Access time is B) Secondary storage unit
A) seek time + latency time C) Output Unit
B) seek time D) Primary Memory Unit
C) seek time ? latency time
D) latency time 67. Number crunchier is the informal name for
A) Mini computer
60. Which American computer company is called Big B) Super computer
Blue? C) Microcomputer
A) Microsoft D) Mainframe computer
B) Compaq Corp
C) IBM
D) Tandy Svenson

68. The first microprocessor built by the Intel 75. Cursor is a ____
corporation was called A) Pixel
A) 8008 B) Thin blinking line
B) 8080 C) Pointing device
C) 4004 D) None of these
D) 8800
76. Which of the following are the two main components
69. Who invented the microprocessor? of the CPU?
A) Marcian E Huff A) Control Unit and Registers
B) Herman H Goldstein B) Registers and Main Memory
C) Joseph Jacquard C) Control unit and ALU
D) All of above D) ALU and bus
70. Which of the following does not affect the resolution 77. Which of the following statement about directories
of a video display image? is false?
A) Bandwidth A. Directories can exist inside directories
B) Raster scan rage B. The root directory is always at the highest level
C) Vertical and horizontal lines of resolution C. Directories cannot be renamed
D) Screen size D. Directories can be deleted
71. The number of records contained within a block of 78. In which language is source program written?
data on magnetic tape is defined by the A) English
A) Block definition B) Symbolic
B) Record contain clause C) High level
C) Blocking factor D) Temporary
D) Record per block
79. Copying a process from memory to disk to allow
72. What hole will allocates in "Worst-Fit" algorithm of space for other processes is called
memory management? A. Swapping
A. It allocates the smaller hole than required memory hole B. Deadlock
B. It allocates the smallest hole from the available memory holes C. Demand Paging
C. It allocates the largest hole from the available memory holes D. Page Fault
D. It allocates the exact same size memory hole
80. The computer that process both analog and digital is
73. Which of the following are the cheapest memory called
devices in terms of Cost/Bit? A) Analog computer
A) Semiconductor memories B) Digital computer
B) Magnetic Disks C) Hybrid computer
C) Compact Disks D) Mainframe computer
D) Magnetic Tapes
81. The memory resident portion of operating system is
74. Which of the following is the allocation method of a called the
disk space? A. Registry
A. Contiguous allocation B. API
B. Linked allocation C. CMOS
C. Indexed allocation D. Kernel
D. All of the Above

82. What was the name of the first commercially 88. Java Virtual Machine
available microprocessor chip?
A) Intel 308 a) Acts as a full-fledged hypervisor
B) Intel 33 b) Converts byte codes to Operating System dependent code
C) Intel 4004 c) Is known as the Compiler of Java programming language
D) Motorola 639 d) Manages system memory and provides a portable execution
environment for Java-based applications
83. Which of the following class of computers can not
support multiple users simultaneously? 89. Which one of the following is a No-SQL Database?
A) Mainframe Computer
B) Mini Computers a) MongoDB
C) Micro Computers b) CasperDB
D) All of them can support c) ZBase
d) All of the above
84. Which of the following devices can be used to
directly image printed text?
A) OCR 90. Which of the following statements is false?
B) OMR
C) MICR a) 64-bit processor is more capable than a 32-bit processor because
D) All of above it can handle more data at once
b) A Computer works with Hexa Decimal number System
c) A 32-bit system can access 232 memory addresses
85. Which one of the following is false with respect to d) None of the above statements is false
4G and 5G cellular network?
91. Which one of the following statements is true with
a) 5G supports faster bandwidth compared to 4G. respect to a Database Management System?
b) Latency in 4G networks is much higher than 5G network
c) 4G uses a narrow slice of the available spectrum from 600 MHz a) Super key and candidate keys are similar
to 2.5 GHz b) Candidate Keys and Unique Keys are similar
d) There will be data session handoff feature in 5G network which c) Unique Keys and Primary keys are similar
is not available in 4G network d) Candidate Keys and Primary Keys are similar
86. Finding useful pattern from the data in a database is 92. The Average-case Time Complexity of the binary
known as search algorithm is
a) Data Visualization a) O(n/2log n)

b) Data Mining b) O(n log n)
c) Data Analytics c) O(log n)
d) All of the above d) O(1)
87. .NET can be used in the following 93. An Ethernet LAN using the OSPF protocol with five
attached routers can be called a ------- network.
a) Development of Desktop Applications
b) Development of Micro services and containers a) Point-to-point
c) Development of Cloud Applications b) Stub
d) All of the above statements are true c) Transient
d) Virtual

94. The term LPDDR means 100. Which is the type of white box testing:
a. Path Testing
a) Low-Power Discrete Data Rate. b. Loop Testing
b) Low-processing Double Data Rate c. Domain Testing.
e) Low-Programmable Double Data Rate d. All of these
d) Low-Power Double Data Rate
101. The person who ensures that systems are developed
95. Which of the following neural networks uses on time, within budget, and with acceptable quality
supervised learning? is a
a. systems designer
(a) Multilayer perceptron b. project manager
(b) Self organizing feature map c. systems owner
(c) Hopfield network d. external system user
(d) Singlelayer Perceptron
102. A task of developing a technical blueprint and
96. In software development, value adjustment factors specifications for a solution that fulfills the business
include the following among others: requirements is undertaken in the following phase of
the system development process
a) the criticality of the performance and reusability of the code. a. system initiation
b) number of lines of code in the software. b. system implementation
c) number of technical manpower and hardware costs. c. system analysis
d) time period available and the level of user friendliness. d. system design
97. Which of the following Process scheduling algorithm 103. If a university sets up a web-based information
is highly improbable to be implemented? system that faculty could access to record student
grades and to advise students, that would be an
a) FCFS Scheduling example of a/an
b) Priority Scheduling a. CRM
c) Shortest Job First Scheduling b. intranet
d) None of the above c. ERP
d. Extranet
98. How many core/threads does the Intel Core i7-
9700K processor have? 104. To improve the performance of a business process,
which of the following is most relevant?
a) 6/12 a. Input.
b) 4/8 b. Processing.
c) 8/8 c. Control and feedback
d) 8/16 d. Output.
99. Assuming the existence of a start and end nodes for 105. The majority of publicly available Internet
a program graph (PG), the total number of Paths is information sources are:
equivalent to------------. set of fest data required to a. created in XML.
test software, b. structured information.
a) Minimum c. normal information.
b) Maximum d. unstructured information.
c) Optimum
d) Supreme

106. A web blueprint depicts: 113. Which of the following is(are) an input process
a. the layout of an individual web page method(s)?
b. the layout of the home page a. smart card
c. the layout of an index page b. biometric
d. the layout of a website c. optical mark
d. all of the above
107. UML depicts information systems as a collection of: 114. A form used to record data about a transaction is
a. Entities a(n)
b. Processes a. batch document
c. Data b. source document
d. Objects c. on-line document
d. data entry document
108. Which of the following relates to enterprise
interoperability? 115. Fifth generation computers are based on
a. DFD A. Artificial Intelligence
b. Information flow diagram B. Programming Intelligence
c. XML C. System Knowledge C. System Knowledge
d. Entity relationship diagram D. VVLSI
109. Which of the following is part of a static view of 116. Time during which a job is processed by the
information? computer is:
a. Logical data model A. Execution Time
b. Meta data B. Delay Time
c. Data flow model C. Real Time
d. Information process model D. Waiting Time
110. Open database connectivity (OBDC) tools are an 117. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory
example of: device' in computers?
a. layerware A. Rectifier
b. tool kit B. Flip Flop
c. interfaceware C. Comparator
d. middleware D. Attenuator
111. All of the following are phases of systems analysis, 118. Operating System is the most common type of
except _________ software.
a. decision analysis phase A. Communication
b. requirements analysis phase B. Application
c. design analysis phase C. System
d. problem analysis phase D. Word Processing Software
112. A property or quality the system must have is called 119. Super computers are mainly useful for
a……………. A. Mathematical intensive scientific applications
a. scope B. Data-retrieval operations
b. functional requirement C. Input-output intensive processing
c. preliminary requirement D. All of the above
d. nonfunctional requirement

120. Which of the following is the product of data 127. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a
processing? symptom of a virus?
A. Information A. Existing program files and icons disappear.
B. Data B. The CD-ROM stops functioning.
C. Software Program C. The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
D. System D. Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
121. Where is computer's BIOS stored? 128. By default, your documents print in ..........mode
A. DRAM A. Page setup
B. Flash B. Portrait
C. SRAM C. Landscape
D. EEPROM D. Print preview
122. Which company is not a microprocessor 129. Chip is a common nickname for ………….?
manufacturer? A. Transistor
A. IBM B. Resistor
B. AMD (Advanced Micro Devices) C. Integrated Circuit
C. Microsoft D. Semiconductor
D. Intel
130. Which of the following is not an manufacturer of
123. Basic Building Blocks for a Digital Circuit is ______ Hard Disk drives?
A. CMOS A. Samsung
B. Logic Gate B. Intel
C. BIOS C. Seagate
D. DMOS D. Western Digital
124. The most important or powerful computer in a 131. The main purpose of a primary key in a database
typical network is _____ table is………
A. Desktop a. updating
B. Network client b. deleting
C. Network server c. modifying
D. Network station d. searching
125. When sending an e-mail, the _____ line describes the 132. A result of a computer virus can not lead to......
contents of the message. A. Disk Crash
A. To B. Mother Board Crash
B. Subject C. Corruption of program
C. Contents D. Deletion of files
D. CC
133. What is the function of Recycle Bin?
126. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web A. Store deleted file
are known as: B. Store temporary file
A. Listservs C. Store corrupted file
B. Webcasts D. Store Document file
C. Blogs
D. Subject Directories

134. Concurrent access to share data may result in 141. Which of these is the first web-based e-mail service?
data………… A. Gmail
a. recovery B. Yahoo Mail
b. inconsistency C. Hotmail
c. repository D. Rediff Mail
d. consistency
142. Protocols are…………..
135. A computer assisted method for the recording and A. Sets of rules
analyzing of existing hypothetical systems is known B. Sets of maps
as……… C. Sets of computers
A. Distributed processing D. Sets of product
B. Data transmission
C. Data link 143. Hyper-threading (HT) is related to-
D. Data flow A. Processor
B. RAM
136. Which provides the fastest access to large video C. Mother board
files? D. Hard Disk
a. SCSI hard drives
b. IDE hard drives 144. Datagram is related with ……………… service and
c. EIDE hard drives virtual circuit is related to………………..service.
d. Optical drives a. both are connectionless
b. Connectionless and connection oriented.
137. Logical design of database is called…. c. connection oriented and connectionless
a. Database schema d. None
b. All of them
c. Database Instance 145. Computers ability to use disk storage as memory is
d. Database snapshot called
a. Cashe memory
138. In a network, the computer that stores the files and b. Associative memory
process the data is named as c. Virtual memory
A. Server d. CMOS memory
B. Terminal
C. Modem
D. All of these
139. Which of the following can't spread virus

A. An e-mail with attachment
B. A plain text mail
C. Downloading files over the web
D. None of these
140. "Zipping" a file means

A. Encrypting the message
B. Compressing the message
C. Transfer the message
D. All of the above

146. Which type of ROM is used in pen drives? EEPROM 172. Bluetooth operations use ……………….
147. In data communication which device converts digital Technology? Radio
data to analog signal? MODEM 173. Bluetooth is the popular name for the ………………..
148. Which one can be both as input and output device? wireless networking standard? 802.11
Touch Screen 174. If a computer on the network shares resources for
149. Which unit is known as nerve center of computer? others to use it is called ………..? Server
ALU 175. The process of loading the operating system in the
150. The word length of a computer is measured in? Bits memory is known as ………? Booting
151. The process of identifying and correcting mistakes in 176. …………………. is the machine readable form of a
a computer program is referred to as? Debugging program? Object code
152. Which computer memory is never erased? ROM 177. Which utility program could improve the speed of
153. ……………… is Permanent memory of a computer? disk? Defragmentation
ROM 178. ……………….. works first when you start your
154. When you start your computer than which computer? Processor
component works first? BIOS 179. ……………….. is not a part of motherboard? Power
155. One nibble means? 4 bits Supply
156. The file system ‘NTFS’ stands for? New Technology 180. ………………. Scanner is used in Banking? MICR
File System 181. …………………. Is the function of RAM in
157. Bridge works in which layer of OSI model? Data computer? Storing data temporarily
Link Layer 182. In ……………. Mode windows starts with only the
158. The last address of IP address represents? Broadcast core drivers and services? Safe
Address 183. …………………………….. is the primary job of the
159. CD ROM is ……………….? Optical Memory operating systems of a computer? Managing
160. The function of Gateway is to connect to……………. Resources
network? Dissimilar 184. How many keys are available in the numerical
161. Flash memory is ……………….? Non-Volatile keypad of a standard keyboard? 17
162. Most frequently used instructions are kept in? Cache 185. The common keyboard arrangement is called the
Memory ………….. layout? QWERTY
163. A computer connected with server is called? Work 186. Which of the following converts scanned text into
Station editable text? OCR
164. …………….. is the most common type of storage 187. The term ‘Dot Per Inch’ (DPI) refers to
device? Magnetic device ……………………? Resolution
165. …………….. permanently stores information 188. Which printer usually not used in official work? Line
without program? PROM chips printer
166. …………….. memory needs refresh? DRAM 189. Leaser full form ……………… ? Light Amplification
167. Computer can understand and execute …………… by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
Language? Machine 190. Leaser printers are known as ………………. ? Page
168. The local antenna for satellite connection is called? printers
VSAT 191. Which one works as an output and input device?
169. A destination for data going outside the system is Modem
called? Sink 192. Which of the following is an example of optical
170. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are storage device? CD ROM
subdivided into ………….. ? Sectors 193. Pen drive takes the place of ………………… ? Floppy
171. ………………. is a small piece of text stored on Disk
computer, phone or wherever you use to surf 194. The most frequently used instructions are kept in
internet? Cookie the………………? Cache Memory.

195. In binary number system each bit represents a 220. What is the unit of measurement for drive access
………….? Signal time? Milliseconds
196. Which of the following private banks of Bangladesh 221. The smallest unit of information is ………………?
introduced mobile banking first? Dutch Bangla Bank Bit
Ltd. 222. An electrical pathway within a computer is called
197. bKash is an example of …………… ? Mobile ……………… ? Bus
Banking 223. When you boot a computer you are ………………….
198. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client ? Loading the operating system.
connected in the Internet? DHCP 224. Process of combining string is known as…………….?
199. Internet works on……………….? Packet Switching Concatenation
200. Every WEB page has a unique address called 225. Collecting personal information and effectively
………………….. ? Uniform Resource Locator posing as another individual is known as the crime of
201. Which one of the following enables the mobile devices ………………..? Identity theft
to access internet resources? WAP 226. The common name for the crime of stealing password
202. What is ‘Cookie’ ? Internet Information File is……………….? Spoofing
203. When was @ chosen for its use in e-mail addresses? 227. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is
1972 a lack of………………… ? memory/disk space
204. Which is the first program of Microsoft? MS DOS 228. What is the name of an application program that
205. Which one is the social networking site developed by gathers user information and sends it to someone
Google? Google Plus through the internet? Spybot
206. Windows media player is an example of …………..? 229. Software program that close potential security
Application Software breaches in an operating system is known
207. VSAT full form is ………..? Very Small Apparatus as…………..? Security patches
Terminal 230. When customers of a website are unable to access it
208. Trojan Horse is a …………? Virus due to a bombardment of fake traffic is known
209. Which of the following is the most commonly used as………………? Denial of service attack
HTTP methods? GET and POST 231. The scrambling of code is known
210. Which of the following refers to the correctness and as…………………….? Encryption
completeness of the data in a database? Data 232. If you want to secure a message use…………………
Integrity ? Cryptosystem
211. Which memory allocation policy allocates the largest 233. When data is entered into a memory location it
hole to the process? Worst-Fit ……………….? Erases the previous content
212. Portable program means ……………? Independent 234. The ALU of a computer responds to the command
Platform coming from……………..? control section
213. How do the main components of the computer 235. Which key on a keyboard of a computer does not
communicate with each other? System bus have its name printed on the key? SPACE
214. When a computer is first turn on or restarted a 236. Where would you find a magnetic strip? Credit card
special type of absolute loader is executed called 237. Magnetic tape is a …………………… ? Serial access
……………? Bootstrapped Loader medium
215. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses 238. What program runs first after computer is booted
available by default? Class A and loading GIU? Authentication
216. The ASCII code of A is……………? 65 239. The Bankers algorithm is used to ………………….. ?
217. In most applications F1 stands for………….? Help prevent deadlock
218. In a flow chart a diamond generally stands for 240. A page fault occurs when ……………. ? the page is
……………. ? Decision not found in the memory
219. What is the standard storage capacity of a CD ROM
disk? 700 MB

241. …………………….. is a compromise mode between 260. High entropy means that the partitions in
shut down and sleep mode because it does not classification are …………..? Not pure
consume power and remembers the current state of 261. All data is labelled and the algorithm learn to predict
your desktop? Hibernate the output from the input data is …………………?
242. The problem with …………………. File is that they Supervised Learning.
slow your computers operation? Fragmented 262. The term machine learning is coined by
243. The chunks of a memory are known as ……………….? Arthur Samuel
……………………. ? Frame 263. …………………. Data used to build a data mining
244. ………………….. used to operate the mobile phone? model? Training
Embedded OS
245. When you cut or copy the text or picture it stores
temporarily in …………………. ? Clipboard
246. First in First out (FIFO) scheduling is
……………………..? Non Preemptive Scheduling
247. Voice/video is a network is …………….............
traffic? Real time
248. Which method do we use to find the best fit line for
data in Linear Regression?Least square error
249. Linear regression errors values has to be normally
distributed but in case of Logistic Regression it is not
the case? True.
250. Which of the following is true about residuals? Lower
is better
251. Which of the following method do we use to best fit
the data in Logistic Regression? Maximum
Likelihood
252. Regression Trees are often used to model …………..
data? Non-Linear
253. Simple regression assumes a ……………….
Relationship between the input attribute and output
attribute? Linear
254. The average squared difference between classifier
predicted output and actual output? Mean squared
error.
255. Which language is best for machine learning? Python
256. Overfitting is a type of modelling error which results
in the failure to predict future observations
effectively or fit additional data in the existing model?
True
257. …………….. is a part of machine learning that works
with neural networks? Deep Learning.
258. A nearest neighbor approach is best used
when……………? Irrelevant attributes have been
removed from the data
259. Supervised learning differs from unsupervised
clustering in that supervised learning requires
…………………? Input attributes to be categorical.

Miscellaneous
1. If the probability of sending successful data packet 6. What is the following is the subset of {b c d}?
is 80%, what will be the probability of successful
delivery if a packet is sent twice? a. { }
a. 64% b. {n}
b. 96% c. {1, 2, 3}
c. 100% d. {a, b, c}
d. 80%
7. The perpendicular of the line 2x+3y=4 is
2. An RGB image has 16 pixels. The storage (a) 3x-2y=4

requirement for the image will be
(b) 3x+2y=4
a. 16*24 bits
(c) 2x-3y=4
b. 16*1 bits
(d) 2x-3y=0
c. 16*8 bits
d. None
8. Arithmetic and geometric mean of X and Y will be
the same if
3. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter a. X=Y

the father of her uncle. The boy is girls….
b. X=√Y
a. Brother
c. Y=√X
b. Uncle
d. X =Y/2
c. Son
d. Nephew
9. _________ refers to the weakness in the security
system.
4. What will be the equation of the line that passe A. Threat

through the point (1, 2) and is parallel to 2x+3y=4?
B. Vulnerability
a. 2x+3y=8
C. Control
b. 3x+2y=4
D. Intrusion
c. 3x+2y=4
d. 2x+3y=0
10. ______ is the process of encoding a plain text to

5. Synonym of PROBITY cipher text.
a. Probability A. Decryption
b. Honesty B. Cryptanalysis
c. Peaceful C. Cryptosystem
d. Carelessness D. Encryption

11. One of the major drawbacks of symmetric system is 17. Unsupervised learning is an example of………..
_____.
a. Classification and prediction
A. Key Distribution
b. Classification and Regression
B. Key Diffusion
c. clustering
C. Key Confusion
d. Data Mining
D. Key Construction
18. K-means technique is based on………….

12. Repeat cycles are used in ________________.
a. Centroid Object
A. AES and RSA
b. Reference object
B. AES and DES
c. Representative object
C. DES and RSA
d. Partition Object
D. RSA and VAN
19. The objective of ____ is to find problems and fix

13. Public key system is best used for _____. them to improve quality of a project.
A. Key exchange a. Software bug
B. Authentication b. Software complexity
C. Key exchange and Authentication c. Software testing
D. Validation d. Software development
14. The security services that IPSec provide requires 20. Unit testing is to test the ____ of the units.
shared keys to perform___________.
a. Performance
A. Privacy
b. System issues
B. Reliability
c. Functionality
C. Authentication
d. Hardware failure
D. Security
15. _____ is a classic example of symmetric key

exchange procedure. 21. ____ is an umbrella activity that is applied
throughout the software process.
A. Certificate
A) Software Quality Assurance
B. Cryptographic hash function
B) Software Quality Management
C. Diffie-Hellman Scheme
C) Software Quality Testing
D. Digital Signature
D) Software Quality Engineering
16. SSL utilizes ___________Algorithm in order to

provide a message integrity. 22. The goal of software assurance is to reduce ____.
A. Hash A) Cost
B. NULL B) Risks
C. Encryption C) Time
D. Decryption D) Quality

23. Which of the following is not an object-oriented 39. Which device can forward data packet from one
programming language? Ans: Pascal network to another network? Ans: Router
24. Which of the following is a possible IP address 40. “BAUD” means …………….? Ans: The rate at
in a network with IP address 172.16.10.5 and which the signal changes
subnet mask 255.255.248.0? Ans: 172.16.8.0 41. Who invented OOP? Alan Kay
25. What is the inner most part of optical fiber? Ans: 42. Which was the first purely object oriented
Core programming language developed? SmallTalk
26. To correctly send binary data from one computer 43. Which feature of OOP indicates code
to another, which type of redundant bits are reusability? Inheritance
27. added? Ans: Parity bit 44. The feature by which one object can interact
28. Which device support circuit switching? Ans: with another object is _____________ Message
Switch Passing
29. For providing connection between networks 45. What is an abstraction in object-oriented
which of the following sends data from one programming? Hiding the implementation and
30. network protocol by translating it to other showing only the features
network protocol so that data can be transmitted 46. What happens when an object is passed by
between these dissimilar networks? Ans: reference? Destructor is not called
Gateway 47. Which access specifier is usually used for data
31. If the screen resolution is 1024x768, then what members of a class? Private
would be the aspect ratio? Ans: 4:3 48. Which feature of OOP reduces the use of nested
32. A physical connection between the classes? Inheritance
microprocessor memory and other parts of the 49. Which keyword among the following can be
microcomputer is known as? Ans: address bus used to declare an array of objects in java? new
33. Data in the form of continuous flow is known 50. Single level inheritance supports
as? Ans: analog data _____________ inheritance? runtime
34. Which of the following processors use RISC 51. How to overcome diamond problem? Using
technology? Ans: 486dx virtual keyword with same name function
35. IPv6 is ……….. addressing. Ans: 16 bytes 52. What happens if non static members are used in
(16*8=128 bits) static member function? Compile time error
36. CSA stands for……………….? Ans: Cloud 53. Where is the memory allocated for the objects?
service Alliance Ram
37. Sending signals to the all ports means 54. Encapsulation and abstraction differ as
………….. ? Ans: broadcast ____________Binding and Hiding respectively
38. In general a monitor with refresh rate of 55. Which feature of OOP is exhibited by the
…………… should not cause eyestrain. Ans: 72 function overriding? Polymorphism
Hz or higher 56. How to access the private member function of a
class? Using address of member function

57. Which is correct syntax for declaring pointer to 72. The bit used to signify that the cache location is
object? className* objectName; updated is ________ Dirty bit
58. Object being passed to a copy constructor 73. Software is defined as ___________set of
___________Must be passed by reference programs, documentation & configuration of
59. Instance of which type of class can’t be created? data
Abstract class 74. CASE stands for……………..Computer-Aided
60. Which feature in OOP is used to allocate Software Engineering
additional functions to a predefined operator in 75. ________ is defined as the process of generating
any language? Operator Overloading analysis and designing documents? Reverse
61. Which of the following is a type of architecture engineering
used in the computers nowadays? Von-Neumann 76. Attributes of good software is ____________
Architecture Maintainability & functionality
62. Which of the architecture is power efficient? 77. Who proposed the spiral model? Barry Boehm
RISC 78. __________ is not suitable for accommodating
63. What does CSA stands for? Computer Speed any change? Waterfall Model
Addition 79. Software Debugging is known as
64. If an exception is raised and the succeeding _________________ finding and correcting
instructions are executed completely, then the errors in the program code
processor is said to have ______ Imprecise 80. To access the services of the operating system,
exceptions the interface is provided by the ___________
65. The IA-32 system follows which of the System calls
following design? CISC 81. CPU scheduling is the basis of
66. The VLIW architecture follows _____ approach ___________multiprogramming operating
to achieve parallelism. MIMD systems
67. What does VLIW stands for? Very Long 82. If a process fails, most operating system write
Instruction Word the error information to a ______log file
68. In CISC architecture most of the complex 83. What does OS X has? hybrid kernel
instructions are stored in _____ CISC 84. In a timeshare operating system, when the time
69. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have been slot assigned to a process is completed, the
developed to reduce the ______ Semantic gap process switches from the current state to? Ready
70. The reason for the cells to lose their state over state
time is ________ Usage of capacitors to store the 85. When a process is in a “Blocked” state waiting
charge for some I/O service. When the service is
71. The memory devices which are similar to completed, it goes to the __________Ready state
EEPROM but differ in the cost effectiveness is 86. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically
______ Flash memory examines the __________ to ensure that a

circular wait condition can never exist? resource memory. Which of the following helps in
allocation state achieving this goal? Buffer
87. For real time operating systems, interrupt latency 101. Who is responsible for the creation of the symbol
should be ____________minimal table? Compiler
88. The priority of a process will ______________ if 102. Characters are grouped into tokens in which of
the scheduler assigns it a static priority. remain the following phase of the compiler design?
unchanged Lexical analyzer
89. On systems where there are multiple operating 103. Bitmap is a collection of ____________ that
system, the decision to load a particular one is describes an image. Pixels
done by _____________boot loader 104. Among the following process, which process is
90. Which of the following architecture is followed known as the elimination of parts of a scene
by general-purpose microprocessors? Von outside a window or a viewport? Clipping
Neumann architecture 105. Which of the following is the process of
91. Which memory storage is widely used in PCs digitizing a given picture definition into a set of
and Embedded Systems? DRAM pixel-intensity for storage in the frame buffer?
92. Which type of memory is suitable for low Scan conversion
volume production of embedded systems? Non- 106. Which of the following is commonly known as
volatile frame buffer on a black and white system with
93. Which of the following unit protects the one bit per pixel? Bitmap
memory? memory management unit 107. Which of the following algorithm is a faster
94. Which of the architecture is more complex? method for calculating pixel positions? DDA line
SPARC algorithm
95. Which one of the following offers CPUs as 108. ‘Skala’ is an example of which of the following
integrated memory or peripheral interfaces? type of clipping? line clipping
Microcontroller 109. The Unix shell is both _______ and _______
96. What is information about data called? Meta data language. scripting, interpreter
97. The ability to query data, as well as insert, 110. Which part of the Unix operating system
delete, and alter tuples, is offered by interacts with the hardware? Kernel
____________ DML (Data Manipulation 111. Which of the following is the first and foremost
Language step in Image Processing? Image acquisition
98. ______________ is a set of one or more 112. Caesar Cipher is an example of? Mono-
attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify alphabetic Cipher
a record. Super key 113. Which layer is used for wireless connection in
99. Procedural language among the following is IoT devices? Data link layer
__________ Relational algebra 114. Which of the following is used to capture data
100. A major goal of the db system is to minimize the from the physical world in IoT devices? Sensors
number of block transfers between the disk and

English Part
Synonyms
Word Synonym-1 Synonym-2 Synonym-3 Synonym-4
Amazing Incredible Unbelievable Improbable Astonishing
Anger Enrage Infuriate Arouse Nettle
Angry Wrathful Furious Enraged Indignant
Answer Reply Respond Retort Acknowledge
Ask Question Inquire Query Interrogate
Awful Dreadful Terrible Abominable Unpleasant
Bad Depraved Rotten Contaminated Sinful
Beautiful Gorgeous Dazzling Splendid Magnificent
Begin Start Open Launch Initiate
Big Enormous Huge Immense Gigantic
Brave Courageous Fearless Dauntless Intrepid
Break Fracture Wreck Crash Demolish
Bright Sparkling Shimmering Radiant Vivid
Calm Quiet Peaceful Unruffled Tranquil
Come Approach Advance Near Arrive
Cool Chilly Cold Frosty Frigid
Crooked Bent Twisted Zigzag Hooked
Cry Weep Wail Sob Bawl
Cut Slice Carve Cleave Slit
Dangerous Perilous Hazardous Risky Uncertain
Dark Shadowy Unlit Murky Gloomy
Decide Determine Settle Choose Resolve
Definite Certain Sure Positive Determined
Delicious Savory Delectable Appetizing Luscious
Describe Portray Characterize Picture Narrate
Destroy Ruin Demolish Raze Slay
Difference Disagreement Inequity Contrast Dissimilarity
Do Execute Enact Carry Out Finish
Dull Unimaginative Lifeless Tedious Tiresome
Eager Keen Fervent Enthusiastic Involved
End Stop Finish Terminate Conclude
Enjoy Appreciate Delight In Be Pleased Indulge In
Explain Elaborate Clarify Define Interpret

Fair Just Impartial Unbiased Objective

Fall Drop Descend Plunge Topple
False Fake Fraudulent Counterfeit Spurious
Fast Quick Rapid Hasty Swiftly
Fat Stout Corpulent Paunchy Plump
Fear Fright Dread Terror Alarm
Fly Soar Hover Flit Wing
Funny Humorous Amusing Droll Laughable
Get Acquire Obtain Secure Procure
Go Recede Depart Fade Disappear
Good Excellent Apt Marvelous Qualified
Great Noteworthy Worthy Distinguished Remarkable
Gross Improper Rude Coarse Indecent
Happy Pleased Contented Satisfied Delighted
Hate Despise Loathe Detest Abhor
Have Acquire Gain Maintain Believe
Help Aid Assist Succor Encourage
Hide Conceal Camouflage Shroud Veil
Hurry Hasten Urge Accelerate Bustle
Hurt Damage Distress Afflict Pain
Idea Thought Concept Conception Notion
Important Necessary Vital Critical Indispensable
Interesting Fascinating Bright Intelligent Animated
Keep Hold Maintain Sustain Support
Kill Slay Execute Assassinate Abolish
Lazy Indolent Slothful Idle Inactive
Little Dinky Puny Diminutive Miniature
Look Scrutinize Inspect Survey Study
Love Like Admire Esteem Fancy
Make Design Fabricate Manufacture Produce
Mark Impress Effect Trace Imprint
Mischievous Prankish Waggish Impish Sportive
Move Plod Go Creep Crawl
Neat Trim Dapper Natty Smart
New Novel Modern Current Recent
Old Aged Used Worn Dilapidated
Part Portion Section Fraction Fragment
Place Space Area Spot Plot
Plan Region Location Situation Position
Predicament Quandary Dilemma Plight Spot

Put Place Assign Keep Establish

Quiet Tranquil Peaceful Calm Restful
Right Correct Accurate Factual True
Run Race Sprint Dash Rush
Say/Tell Recount Narrate Explain Reveal
Scared Panicked Fearful Unnerved Insecure
Show Display Exhibit Present Note
Slow Unhurried Behind Tedious Slack
Stop Cease Halt Stay Pause
Story Tale Yarn Account Narrative
Strange Odd Peculiar Unusual Unfamiliar
Take Hold Catch Seize Grasp
Tell Disclose Reveal Show Expose
Think Consider Contemplate Reflect Mediate
Trouble Distress Anguish Anxiety Wretchedness
True Accurate Right Proper Precise
Ugly Horrible Unpleasant Monstrous Terrifying
Reference: https://www.hitbullseye.com/Vocab/List-of-Synonyms.php
Reference: https://leverageedu.com/blog/synonyms-list/
Words Meanings Meanings/ synonyms

Abstract Actual instances Theoretical, notional, intellectual, symbolic
Abstruse Hard to understand Incomprehensible, unfathomable, arcane
Arduous Difficult Hard, toilsome, onerous, wearisome, exhausting)
Augean Difficult and Unpleasant Challenging, difficult, effortful)
Baffling To confuse or perplex Puzzle, mystify, bemuse
Confined Restricted in an area or volume Cramped, constricted, limited
Austere Strict and serious in appearance and Strict, harsh, stern, severe
behavior
Competence The ability to do something Capability, proficiency, ability, skill
Parochial Having a limited or narrow outlook Conservative, insular, short-sighted
Moribund No longer effective and about to come to an Inactive, stagnant, motionless
end completely
Ineptitude Lack of skill or ability Inability, inefficacy, incompetence
Bystander A person who is present at an event or Observer, onlooker, watcher)
incident but does not part
Entrench To establish something very strongly so that Establish, ensconce, install, settle
it is difficult to change

All-encompassing Including everything Comprehensive, wide, extensive

Contagion The spread of disease by close contact Infection, transmission, foulness
between people
Cohort A group of people who share a common Partner, companion, comrade
future or aspect of behaviour
Ploy Words or actions that are carefully planned Tactic, gambit, trick
to get an advantage over somebody else
Idiosyncrasy An unusual feature Mannerism, trait, eccentricity
Quibble A small complaint or criticism Minor, criticism, trivial
Aghast Shocked or scared Horrified, stunned, appalled
Accrue Payments or benefits Collect, gather, amass
Muzzle Prevent a person or group from expressing Gag, suppress, restrain
their opinions freely
Synergy The extra energy Collaboration, cooperation, associations
Officious Assertive of authority in a domineering Over-bearing, high handed
way
Dash Destroy or frustrate Shatter, destroy, ruin, spoil
Outcry A reaction of anger or strong protest Furor, uproar, commotion
Progenitor A person who starts an idea or a Founder, forerunner, begetter
development
Sumptuous Very expensive/impressive Lavish, luxurious, palatial
Enthuse To make somebody feel very interested and Motivate, encourage, inspire, spur)
excited
Underscore To emphasize Stress, accentuate, point up
Sanguine Optimistic or positive Hopeful, assured, positive, buoyant
Fable A short story moral, story, parable, allegory
Protectionist A Defensor Shielder, hedger, firewall
Remit Task/activity assigned to an Orbit, ambit, jurisdiction
individual/organization
Slack Characterized by a lack of work or activity Laggard, sluggish, inactive, stagnant
Polemics The practice of engaging in a controversial debate, discussion, wrangling
debate
Sully Damage the purity or integrity Defile, soil, tarnish, stain
Salience The quality of being particularly noticeable prominence, eminence, distinction, the primacy
or important
Totter Move-in a shabby way/feel insecure Be shaky, be insecure, falter
Reckon To calculate something/be of an opinion Compute, Believe, Figure, Assume
Cataclysmic Causing sudden and violent upheaval Disastrous, calamitous, devastating
Unflinching Remaining strong and determined Resolute, steadfast, dogged, firm

Goliath A person or thing that is very large or Giant, titan, whopper, colossus
powerful (
Ferment A state of political or social excitement and Tumult, uproar, mayhem, furore
confusion
Mangled Destroy or severely damaged by tearing or Mutilated, lacerated maimed, marred
crushing
Febrile Nervous/excited/ Showing fever Tense, edgy, fidgety, feverish, flushed, jittery
Connote To suggest a feeling, an idea, etc Recommend, indicate, signify, denote
Serpentine Winding and twisting like a snake Winding, zigzag, meandering, twisting
Heyday The period of a person’s or thing’s greatest Prime, zenith, acme, salad days
success
Fret Anxious/nervous Worry, agonize, bother, distress
Inkling A slight knowledge or suspicion Clue, hunch, glimmering
Dangerous Something which is likely to cause injury or Perilous
damage
Dark With no light or very little light Shadowy
Decide To think about two or more possibilities and Determine
choose one of them
Definite Having certain or distinct limits a definite Certain
period of time
Delicious Having a very pleasant taste or smell Savory
Describe To say what somebody/something is like, or Portray
what happened
Dull Not interesting or exciting; boring Unimaginative
Eager Strongly wanting to do or have something. Keen
Explain To make something clear or easy to Elaborate
understand
Fair Appropriate and acceptable in a particular Just
situation
Fat Weighing too much; covered with too much Stout
flesh
Fear The feeling that you have when something Fright
dangerous, painful or frightening might
happen
Fly To move through the air Soar
Great Large in amount, degree, size, etc.; a lot of Noteworthy
Gross Being the total amount before anything is Improper
taken away
Hate To have a very strong feeling of not liking Despise
somebody/something at all

Help To do something for somebody in order to Aid

be useful or to make something easier for
him/her
Hide To put or keep somebody/something in a Conceal
place where he/she/it cannot be seen; to
cover something so that it cannot be seen
Interesting Enjoyable and entertaining; holding your Fascinating
attention
Laugh An expression of mirth, derision, etc. Chuckle
Label A short word or phrase descriptive of a Trademark
person, group, intellectual movement, etc.
Landfill A low area of land that is built up from Junkyard
deposits of solid refuse in layers covered by
soil.
Malice Desire to inflict injury, harm, or suffering Bitterness
on another, either because of a hostile
impulse or out of deep-seated meanness
Management The person or persons controlling and Administration
directing the affairs of a business,
institution, etc
Near Close to a point or place not far away Adjacent
Narrow Of little breadth or width; not broad or Cramped
wide; not as wide as usual or expected
Preposition for practice

1. Life is not a bed ________ roses. (of) 15. Who are you talking —–? (to)
2. My grandfather will come here —– a week. 16. I am vexed _______ my brother. (with)
(within) 17. He has been accused ______ Murder. (of)
3. The work was completed —– sunset. (at) 18. He is envious ________ my achievements. (of)
4. He comes —– a car. (by) 19. The minister flew ___________ the flooded are
5. Sumaiya is short —— Naina. (beside) by helicopter. (over)
6. My wife works —– the town hall. (at) 20. It is 10 O’clock ________ my watch. (by)
7. She smiled __________ my mistakes. (at) 21. Children should be able to adopt ….. harsh
8. He was learning —– a lamb post. (against) weather conditions. (to)
9. I am interested —– reading novels. (in) 22. In most parts of the city there were huge traffic
10. She is good —– English. (at) jams with vehicles backed up ….. miles. (for)
11. I will think —– the matter. (about) 23. Celebrations transform our life of routine and
12. Can I count —– your help? (on) boredom ……. rejuvenation and rejoicing. (into)
13. I came to live here —– 1992. (in)
14. What are you looking —–? (for)

24. Miserly people are incapable of trusting life and 45. I could not prevail ___________ him. (upon)
that’s why life does not open its treasures ….. 46. She dwells to much ________ her past. (upon)
them. (to) 47. I could hardly hear the song …. the music in the
25. He is _______ the phone right now. (on) background. (above)
26. His father is angry __________ his behavior. (at) 48. My friend stood _______ me during my
27. There are so many people of Indian origin settled misfortune. (by)
….. the globe, from different professions. 49. Everyone has to be at work ________ seven. (by)
(across) 50. The standard of your work is well ….. the
28. Fluctuations in business fortunes is another average of your class. (below)
reason for companies going in …. a floating 51. I like this tree _____ the river. (by)
workforce. (for) 52. He is blind _________ one eye. (of)
29. She hopes to be a teacher but her real talent lies 53. He is thoroughly conversant ____________ the
in wielding the brush …. aplomb. (with) situation. (with)
30. You should devote your time ________ studies. 54. I agree ________ your proposal. (to)
(to) 55. The police was informed ________ the matter.
31. Today, the youth are so self centered, they are not (of)
bothered ….. the poverty around them. (about) 56. She persists _________ wearing that old
32. There has been a large accession of books …. the fashioned ornament.
library. (to) 57. His dead body was found ….. the debris caused
33. My wife always grumbles ________ her bad by earthquake. (beneath)
luck. (at) 58. There are so many mistakes in these books,
34. We searched _______ happiness in vain. (for) sometimes I feel like trying my hand ….. it. (at)
35. Literature cannot close its eyes ….. the ambient 59. The plan will be sanctioned ________ a fortnight.
society. (upon) (within)
36. His habit of interfering made him extremely 60. We never know life ….. we have borne its trials
unpopular ….. his colleagues. (at) and hardships. (until)
37. We cannot comply _______ your request. (with) 61. You may surprised ________ the news. (at)
38. It is difficult for an over scrupulous person to live 62. A gentleman should be true to his words.
….. coarse people. (amongst) 63. I beg pardon of you for being late.
39. After the earthquake, the whole city appeared to 64. Eventually, I pursued it her to comply with my
be …. a shambles. (in) requests.
40. There is no exception ________ this rule. (to) 65. The Village was plunged into Darkness due to a
41. …… circumstances compelled him, the lazy sudden power failure.
refused to work for his living. (until) 66. His statement is very much similar to mine.
42. A shocked nation was trying to come to terms 67. Beware of backbiters.
….. the sudden death of the Prime Minister. 68. He has been living in this house since 1985.
(with) 69. The dog ran down the street.
43. He never deviated …. his commitment to serve 70. Turn the lights off before you go to bed.
the people of Bangladesh with exceptional 71. He will be cured of this disease at the earliest.
devotion. (in) 72. I have no desire for fame.
44. Driving ….. the sun, we had to shade our eyes. 73. The mother was concerned about the safety of a
(into) child.

74. Competitors around the globe, took part in the 86. After an inquiry, he was relieved of his post.
game. 87. He cannot cope with the pressure.
75. He took the man to hospital. 88. We do not go for work on Sunday.
76. There was a queue of people in the rain patiently 89. He is very good at making stories.
waiting to get onto the coach. 90. He has been absent for a fortnight.
77. The minister had promised to look into the 91. He is jealous of me.
matter. 92. He comes of a noble family.
78. The dwell among the wicked is bad. 93. Sheila gained an advantage over me.
79. His house is adjacent to mine. 94. He held his breath for several minutes.
80. She is suffering from fever. 95. He has some respite from suffering.
81. The shopkeeper deals in household goods. 96. I am sick of the whole business.
82. The room has been empty for several years. 97. The store house was infested with rats.
83. Place a ladder against the wall. 98. He tried to prevent me from doing my duty.
84. A crime is charged against him. 99. Did you watch the football on TV last night?
85. He was involved in a crime.
References:
https://www.frogview.com/preposition-exercise/
https://tripuraexam.in/search_mynote_1-paging-ENGLISH-00000_preposition.php
Right form of verbs
• We have been living here since 2001. • I made her do the work.
• The people of Bangladesh are simple. • I watched him living away.
• The brave are always winners. • You would rather go there.
• The rise and fall is inevitable. • I saw him to go.
• Many a student is present here. • I met him last night.
• Two dozen makes 24. • I wish I could fly.
• One of the boys is nice. • I fancy I turned a trifle pale.
• He has been punished. • It is many years since I saw you.
• Half of the work is done. • I already have forgot his address.
• Neel with his brother is present. • Have you ever been to Cox's Bazar?
• There is a book on the Shelf. • He has left the place just now.
• Without knowing I will not tell her. • Have you seen her lately?
• We can't help laughing. • A number of students were present in the
• The book is worth reading. class.
• I prefer running to playing. • We went there with a view to seeing you.
• Would you mind taking a cup of tea?

• One and a half, lemons are enough. • I went to market last night with a view to
• Five miles is not a long distance. buying a shirt.
• He wanted the picture to be seen. • It is high time I changed my character.
• Neither She nor her sisters are present here. • He speaks as though he were a mad.
• The committee were divided on the decision. • The book has been published.
• The police are the friends of the people. • If you helped the boy he would help you.
• Neither of the two men is responsible. • He ran fast least he should miss the train.
• Money in addition to honor makes men • While reading a book I saw a picture of an
unhappy. ox.
• He said that ice floating on water was blue. • Ill news runs quickly.
• Many years have passed since I visited Taj • No buses and no rickshaws are on the road.
Mahal. • None of the girls has qualified.
• No sooner had they reached the station, then • The wall has been printed.
the train left. • Rice and curry is my favorite food.
• The rain having stopped We started our • Cattle are grazing in the field.
journey. • The family is unanimous in the opinion.
• No, sooner had the teacher entered the class • The virtuous are always happy.
Then the students stood up. • One of the students does his homework.
• We caught a thief last night. • Two plus two makes four.
• The headmaster had entered into the class • You, he and I are friends.
before the students came. • Rahim as well as his friends does well.
• When does Mr. Kamal take his breakfast? • I found the boy crying on the bed.
• I have read the book recently. • I was called there yesterday.
• It is many years since I came to your house. • Why did you go to market yesterday?
• We started the meeting after the guest has • It is no use spoiling time by gossiping.
been coming. • He talked as if he had known everything.
• You must better do the work. • You had better do the work.
• The boy ran away having taken the first • As soon as I have thought about her, she calls
prize. me.

Written Part
10 marks
PMSCS
Red Color Questions are Most important Mustakim Billah Bedar

1. What is Normalization? Why we do that? What are the types of normalization?

Normalization is a database design technique that reduces data redundancy and eliminates undesirable
characteristics like Insertion, Update and Deletion Anomalies. Normalization rules divides larger tables into
smaller tables and links them using relationships. The purpose of Normalization in SQL is to eliminate redundant
(repetitive) data and ensure data is stored logically.
Types:
✓ 1NF (First Normal Form)

✓ 2NF (Second Normal Form)
✓ 3NF (Third Normal Form)
✓ BCNF (Boyce-Codd Normal Form)
1NF (First Normal Form) Rules

• Each table cell should contain a single value.
• Each record needs to be unique.
2NF (Second Normal Form) Rules

• Rule 1- Be in 1NF
• Rule 2- Single Column Primary Key that does not functionally dependent on any subset of candidate
key relation
3NF (Third Normal Form) Rules

• Rule 1- Be in 2NF
• Rule 2- Has no transitive functional dependencies
Boyce Codd normal form (BCNF)

• A table is in BCNF if every functional dependency X → Y, X is the super key of the table.
• For BCNF, the table should be in 3NF, and for every FD, LHS is super key.
2. What is parity check?

Parity check is a method for detecting errors in data communications or within a computer system by counting
the number of ones or zeros per byte or per word, including a special check bit (parity bit), to see if the value is
even or odd.

3. What are the functions of CDROM?
A CD-ROM drive (Compact Disk – Read Only Memory) is a type of device used by your computer to read CDs.
These CDs are used for a variety of purposes such as installing software and playing music. A CD-ROM drive
operates by using a laser to reflect light off the bottom of the CD or disc. The reflected light pulses are read by a
photo detector. These incoming pulses are decoded by the microprocessor and then sent as usable data to the rest
of the computer where it is processed and used.
CD-ROM drives can open documents on data CDs, such as music files, pictures, word documents and other files.
However, CD-ROM drives cannot write information to a CD (burn) because they are read-only drives; writing
information to a CD is done with a CD-R drive.
4. Discuss Optical Fibre, Twisted Pair and Coaxial Cable.

Optical fibre:
Optical fibre is a transmitting device that’s transmits signals in the form of light. Optical fibre is made up of glass
or plastic. It is very thin above 2 to 125 µm. It belongs to a cylindrical shape containing three sections:
• Core: The innermost section
• Cladding: The middle section
• Jacket: The outer section
Twisted Pair:
Twisted pair is the most widely used and least expensive guided medium. It consists of two conductors (copper)
that is twisted together with its own plastic insulation. One of the wire is used to carry signal to the receiver and
the other one is used for ground reference only. The receiver uses the difference among them. There are two types
of twisted pair cable.
• Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
• Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
Coaxial Cable:
Coaxial Cable has better shielding than twisted pairs, so it can span longer distances at higher speeds. A Coaxial
cable is consist of a stiff copper wire as the core, surrounding by an insulating material. The construction and
shielding of the coaxial cable give it a good combination of high bandwidth and excellent immunity. Coaxial
cable is widely used for cable television and Metropolitan Area Network.
5. What do you mean by redundancy?

Redundancy means having multiple copies of same data in the database. This problem arises when a database is
not normalized. Problems caused due to redundancy are: Insertion anomaly, Deletion anomaly, and Updation
anomaly.

6. What is distributed processing?
Distributed processing is the organization of processing to be carried out on a distributed system. Each process is
free to process local data and make local decisions. The processes exchange information with each other over a
data communication network to process data or to read decisions that affect multiple processes. In a distributed
processing system the various cooperating processes that jointly make up the total activity may run on separate
processing systems linked only by communications channels. In an open distributed system, the components are
physically separated and are linked by communications channels that use open systems standards for their
interfaces and protocols, and the intercommunication between the processes is again in accordance with a
(different) set of open systems standards. It is clear that there is still a long way to go before open distributed
processing will be a commercial reality.
7. What is point to point connection?
In telecommunications, a point-to-point connection refers to a communications connection between two

communication endpoints or nodes. An example is a telephone call, in which one telephone is connected with one
other, and what is said by one caller can only be heard by the other. This is contrasted with a point-to-multipoint
or broadcast connection, in which many nodes can receive information transmitted by one node. Other examples
of point-to-point communications links are leased lines and microwave radio relay.
8. What do you know about Shannon's Capacity?
Claude Shannon extended Nyquist's work for actual channels that are subject to noise. Noise can be of various
types like thermal noise, impulse noise, cross-talks etc. Among all the noise types, thermal noise is unavoidable.
The random movement of electrons in the channel creates an extraneous signal not present in the original signal,
called the thermal noise. The amount of thermal noise is calculated as the ratio of the signal power to noise power,
SNR.
Shannon's Capacity gives the theoretical maximum data rate or capacity of a noisy channel. It is expressed as:
Capacity = Bandwidth × log2( 1+SNR ) [Here, Capacity is the maximum data rate of the channel in bps,
Bandwidth is the bandwidth of the channel, SNR is the signal – to – noise ratio]
For example, if the bandwidth of a noisy channel is 4 KHz, and the signal to noise ratio is 100, then the maximum
bit rate can be computed as:
Capacity = 4000 × log2( 1+100 ) = 26,633 bps = 26.63 kbps

9. What is Nyquist bit rate formula?
Nyquist bit rate was developed by Henry Nyquist who proved that the transmission capacity of even a perfect
channel with no noise has a maximum limit.
The theoretical formula for the maximum bit rate is:
maximum bit rate = 2 × Bandwidth × log2V

Here, maximum bit rate is calculated in bps. Bandwidth is the bandwidth of the channel. V is the number of
discrete levels in the signal
For example, if there is a noiseless channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz that is transmitting a signal with 4 discrete
levels, then the maximum bit rate will be computed as, maximum bit rate = 2 × 4000 × log24 = 16,000 bps = 16
kbps
10. What are the types of errors?
There are three types of error: logic, run-time and compile-time error:
Logic errors occur when programs operate incorrectly but do not terminate normally (or crash). Unexpected or
undesired outputs or other behavior may result from a logic error, even if it is not immediately recognized as such.
Logic errors occur when executed code does not produce the expected result. Logic errors are best handled by
meticulous program debugging.
A run-time error is an error that takes place during the execution of a program and usually happens because of
adverse system parameters or invalid input data. The lack of sufficient memory to run an application or a memory
conflict with another program and logical error is an example of this.
Compile-time errors rise at compile-time, before the execution of the program. Syntax error or missing file
reference that prevents the program from successfully compiling is an example of this.
Classification of Compile-time error
Lexical: This includes misspellings of identifiers, keywords or operators

Syntactical: a missing semicolon or unbalanced parenthesis
Semantical: incompatible value assignment or type mismatches between operator and operand
Logical: code not reachable, infinite loop.

11. Define cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a technique used to detect errors in digital data. As a type of checksum,
the CRC produces a fixed-length data set based on the build of a file or larger data set. In terms of its use, CRC
is a hash function that detects accidental changes to raw computer data commonly used in digital
telecommunications networks and storage devices such as hard disk drives. In the cyclic redundancy check, a
fixed number of check bits, often called a checksum, are appended to the message that needs to be transmitted.
The data receivers receive the data, and inspect the check bits for any errors.
12. What is hamming code?
Hamming code is a set of error-correction codes that can be used to detect and correct the errors that can occur
when the data is moved or stored from the sender to the receiver. Redundant bits are extra binary bits that are
generated and added to the information-carrying bits of data transfer to ensure that no bits were lost during the
data transfer.
The number of redundant bits can be calculated using the following formula:
2r ≥ m + r + 1
where, r = redundant bit, m = data bit
13. What is Firewall?
A firewall is a division between a private network and an outer network, often the internet, that manages traffic
passing between the two networks. It’s implemented through either hardware or software. Firewalls allow, limit,
and block network traffic based on preconfigured rules in the hardware or software, analyzing data packets that
request entry to the network. In addition to limiting access to computers and networks, a firewall is also useful
for allowing remote access to a private network through secure authentication certificates and logins.
14. What is Repeater?
Repeaters are network devices operating at physical layer of the OSI model that amplify or regenerate an incoming
signal before retransmitting it. They are incorporated in networks to expand its coverage area. They are also
known as signal boosters.
When an electrical signal is transmitted via a channel, it gets attenuated depending upon the nature of the channel
or the technology. This poses a limitation upon the length of the LAN or coverage area of cellular networks. This
problem is alleviated by installing repeaters at certain intervals. Repeaters amplifies the attenuated signal and then
retransmits it. Digital repeaters can even reconstruct signals distorted by transmission loss. So, repeaters are
popularly incorporated to connect between two LANs thus forming a large single LAN.

15. What is domain name system (DNS)?

The domain name system (DNS) is a naming database in which internet domain names are located and translated
into Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. The domain name system maps the name people use to locate a website to
the IP address that a computer uses to locate that website. For example, if someone types "example.com" into a
web browser, a server behind the scenes maps that name to the corresponding IP address. An IP address is similar
in structure to 203.0.113.72. DNS servers convert URLs and domain names into IP addresses that computers can
understand and use. They translate what a user types into a browser into something the machine can use to find a
webpage. This process of translation and lookup is called DNS resolution.
16. What is TELNET

TELNET stands for TErminaL NETwork. It is a type of protocol that enables one computer to connect to local
computer. It is a used as a standard TCP/IP protocol for virtual terminal service which is given by ISO. Computer
which starts connection known as the local computer. Computer which is being connected to i.e. which accepts
the connection known as remote computer. When the connection is established between local and remote
computer. During telnet operation whatever that is being performed on the remote computer will be displayed by
local computer. Telnet operates on client/server principle. Local computer uses telnet client program and the
remote computers uses telnet server program.
17. What is MANNET?

MANNET Stands for "Mobile Ad Hoc Network." A MANET is a type of ad hoc network that can change
locations and configure itself on the fly. Because MANETS are mobile, they use wireless connections to connect
to various networks. This can be a standard Wi-Fi connection, or another medium, such as a cellular or satellite
transmission.
18. Describe the three levels of data abstraction?

There are mainly three levels of data abstraction:
• Internal Level: Actual PHYSICAL storage structure and access paths.
• Conceptual or Logical Level: Structure and constraints for the entire database
• External or View level: Describes various user views
19. What is Functional Dependency?

A functional dependency is a constraint that specifies the relationship between two sets of attributes where one
set can accurately determine the value of other sets. It is denoted as X → Y, where X is a set of attributes that is
capable of determining the value of Y. The attribute set on the left side of the arrow, X is called Determinant,
while on the right side, Y is called the Dependent. Functional dependencies are used to mathematically express
relations among database entities and are very important to understand advanced concepts in Relational Database
System.

20. What is Program counter?

Program counter holds the address of either the first byte of the next instruction to be fetched for execution
or the address of the next byte of a multi byte instruction, which has not been completely fetched. In both
the cases it gets incremented automatically one by one as the instruction bytes get fetched. Also Program
register keeps the address of the next instruction.
21. What is Stack Pointer?

Stack pointer is a special purpose 16-bit register in the Microprocessor, which holds the address of the top
of the stack.
22. Which interrupt has the highest priority?

TRAP has the highest priority
23. What is SIM and RIM instructions?

SIM is Set Interrupt Mask. Used to mask the hardware interrupts.
RIM is Read Interrupt Mask. Used to check whether the interrupt is Masked or not.
24. What are the flags in 8086?

Carry flag, Parity flag, Auxiliary carry flag, Zero flag, Overflow flag, Trace flag, Interrupt flag, Direction
flag, and Sign flag.
25. Briefly Describe ER Diagram.

ER Diagram stands for Entity Relationship Diagram, also known as ERD is a diagram that displays the
relationship of entity sets stored in a database. In other words, ER diagrams help to explain the logical structure
of databases. ER diagrams are created based on three basic concepts: entities, attributes and relationships.
ER Diagrams contain different symbols that use rectangles to represent entities, ovals to define attributes and
diamond shapes to represent relationships.
At first look, an ER diagram looks very similar to the flowchart. However, ER Diagram includes many specialized
symbols, and its meanings make this model unique. The purpose of ER Diagram is to represent the entity
framework infrastructure.
• The elements should be sorted.

• The middle element should be accessible.

27. Describe briefly ROM, PROM, EPROM, EEPROM.

ROM
ROM stands for Read-only Memory. It is a type of memory that does not lose its contents when the power is
turned off. For this reason, ROM is also called non-volatile memory.
PROM (programmable ROM)

PROM refers to the kind of ROM that the user can burn information into. In other words, PROM is a user-
programmable memory. Programming ROM also called burning ROM, requires special equipment called a ROM
burner or ROM programmer. EPROM was invented to allow making changes in the contents of PROM after it is
burned. For every bit of the PROM, there exists a fuse. PROM is programmed by blowing the fuses. If the
information burned into PROM is wrong, that PROM must be discarded since its internal fuses are blown
permanently. For this reason, PROM is also referred to as OTP (One Time Programmable).
EPROM (erasable programmable ROM)

In EPROM, one can program the memory chip and erase it thousands of times. This is especially necessary during
the development of the prototype of a microprocessor-based project. A widely used EPROM is called UV-
EPROM, where UV stands for ultraviolet. The only problem with UV-EPROM is that erasing its contents can
take up to 20 minutes. All UV-EPROM chips have a window through which the programmer can shine ultraviolet
(UV) radiation to erase the chip’s contents. For this reason, EPROM is also referred to as UV-erasable EPROM
or simply UV-EPROM.
EEPROM (electrically erasable programmable ROM)

EEPROM has several advantages over EPROM, such as the fact that its method of erasure is electrical and
therefore instant as opposed to the 20-minute erasure time required for UV-EPROM.
In addition, in EEPROM one can select which byte to be erased, in contrast to UV-EPROM, in which the entire
contents of ROM are erased. However, the main advantage of EEPROM is that one can program and erase its
contents while it is still in the system board. It does not require the physical removal of the memory chip from its
socket. In other words, unlike UV-EPROM, EEPROM does not require an external erasure and programming
device.
28. What do you know about BCD?

Binary Coded Decimal, or BCD, is another process for converting decimal numbers into their binary equivalents.
It is a form of binary encoding where each digit in a decimal number is represented in the form of bits. This
encoding can be done in either 4-bit or 8-bit (usually 4-bit is preferred). It is a fast and efficient system that
converts the decimal numbers into binary numbers as compared to the existing binary system. These are generally
used in digital displays where is the manipulation of data is quite a task. Thus BCD plays an important role here
because the manipulation is done treating each digit as a separate single sub-circuit.

29. What are the various registers in 8085?

Accumulator register, Temporary register, Instruction register, Stack Pointer, Program Counter
30. What is enum?

Enumeration (or enum) is a user defined data type in C. It is mainly used to assign names to integral constants,
the names make a program easy to read and maintain.
31. What do you understand by Encapsulation?

Encapsulation is one of the fundamentals of OOP (object-oriented programming). It refers to the bundling of data
with the methods that operate on that data. Encapsulation is used to hide the values or state of a structured data
object inside a class, preventing unauthorized parties’ direct access to them. Publicly accessible methods are
generally provided in the class (so-called getters and setters) to access the values, and other client classes call
these methods to retrieve and modify the values within the object.
32. What do you know about OOPS concept?

Object Oriented programming (OOP) is a programming paradigm that relies on the concept of classes and objects.
It is used to structure a software program into simple, reusable pieces of code blueprints (usually called classes),
which are used to create individual instances of objects. There are many object-oriented programming languages
including JavaScript, C++, Java, and Python.
33. What is Malware?

Malware, or malicious software, is any program or file that is intentionally harmful to a computer, network or
server.
Types of malwares include computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, ransomware and spyware. These malicious
programs steal, encrypt and delete sensitive data; alter or hijack core computing functions and monitor end users'
computer activity.
34. What is Polymorphism?
Polymorphism is the ability of an object to take on many forms. The most common use of polymorphism in
OOP occurs when a parent class reference is used to refer to a child class object.

35. What do you know about POST?

Short for power-on self-test, the POST is a test the computer must complete verifying all hardware is working
properly before starting the remainder of the boot process. The POST process checks computer hardware, like
RAM (random access memory), hard drive, CD-ROM drive, keyboard, etc., to make sure all are working
correctly.
If all hardware passes the POST, the computer continues the boot up process and may generate a single beep
sound as well. If POST is unsuccessful, it generates a beep code to indicate the error encountered and the computer
will not boot up. All POST errors are relating to hardware issues with one of the components in the computer.
36. What are the functions of GPU?
The graphics processing unit, or GPU, has become one of the most important types of computing technology,
both for personal and business computing. Designed for parallel processing, the GPU is used in a wide range of
applications, including graphics and video rendering. Although they’re best known for their capabilities in
gaming, GPUs are becoming more popular for use in creative production and artificial intelligence (AI).
GPUs were originally designed to accelerate the rendering of 3D graphics. Over time, they became more flexible
and programmable, enhancing their capabilities. This allowed graphics programmers to create more interesting
visual effects and realistic scenes with advanced lighting and shadowing techniques. Other developers also began
to tap the power of GPUs to dramatically accelerate additional workloads in high performance computing (HPC),
deep learning, and more.
37. What is Recursive function?

A function that calls itself is known as a recursive function. And, this technique is known as recursion.
void recurse()
{
... .. ...
recurse();
... .. ...
}
int main()
{
... .. ...
recurse();
... .. ...
}

38. What is Deadlock? What are deadlock conditions?

Deadlock is a situation where two or more processes are waiting for each other. For example, let us assume, we
have two processes P1 and P2. Now, process P1 is holding the resource R1 and is waiting for the resource R2. At
the same time, the process P2 is having the resource R2 and is waiting for the resource R1. So, the process P1 is
waiting for process P2 to release its resource and at the same time, the process P2 is waiting for process P1 to
release its resource. And no one is releasing any resource. So, both are waiting for each other to release the
resource. This leads to infinite waiting and no work is done here. This is called Deadlock.
There are four different conditions that result in Deadlock. These four conditions are also known as Coffman
conditions and these conditions are not mutually exclusive. Let's look at them one by one.
Mutual Exclusion: A resource can be held by only one process at a time. In other words, if a process P1 is using
some resource R at a particular instant of time, then some other process P2 can't hold or use the same resource R
at that particular instant of time. The process P2 can make a request for that resource R but it can't use that resource
simultaneously with process P1.
Hold and Wait: A process can hold a number of resources at a time and at the same time, it can request for other
resources that are being held by some other process. For example, a process P1 can hold two resources R1 and
R2 and at the same time, it can request some resource R3 that is currently held by process P2.
No preemption: A resource can't be preempted from the process by another process, forcefully. For example, if
a process P1 is using some resource R, then some other process P2 can't forcefully take that resource. If it is so,
then what's the need for various scheduling algorithm. The process P2 can request for the resource R and can wait
for that resource to be freed by the process P1.
Circular Wait: Circular wait is a condition when the first process is waiting for the resource held by the second
process, the second process is waiting for the resource held by the third process, and so on. At last, the last process
is waiting for the resource held by the first process. So, every process is waiting for each other to release the
resource and no one is releasing their own resource. Everyone is waiting here for getting the resource. This is
called a circular wait.
39. What is the basic structure of SQL and what are its use?
SQL stands for Structured Query Language. It is a widely used programming language designed for working with
Relational DataBase Management System. SQL can be used to insert, search, update, and delete database records.
Basic structure of an SQL expression consists of select, from and where clauses.
select clause lists attributes to be copied - corresponds to relational algebra project.

from clause corresponds to Cartesian product - lists relations to be used.
where clause corresponds to selection predicate in relational algebra.

40. What do you know about leaner search?
Linear search is a very simple search algorithm. In this type of search, a sequential search is made over all items
one by one. Every item is checked and if a match is found then that particular item is returned, otherwise the
search continues till the end of the data collection.
41. What is Fibonacci series?
The Fibonacci numbers are the numbers in the following integer sequence.
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, 89, 144, ……..
In mathematical terms, the sequence Fn of Fibonacci numbers is defined by the recurrence relation
Fn = Fn-1 + Fn-2 with seed values F0 = 0 and F1 = 1.
42. What is Big O notation, Omega Notation, Theta Notation?
Big O Notation (O): It represents the upper bound of the runtime of an algorithm. Big O Notation's role is to
calculate the longest time an algorithm can take for its execution, i.e., it is used for calculating the worst-case time
complexity of an algorithm.
Omega Notation (Ω(n)): It represents the lower bound of the runtime of an algorithm. It is used for calculating
the best time an algorithm can take to complete its execution, i.e., it is used for measuring the best case time
complexity of an algorithm.
Theta Notation (Θ(n)): It carries the middle characteristics of both Big O and Omega notations as it represents
the lower and upper bound of an algorithm.
43. What is NoSQL?

NoSQL databases are non-tabular databases and store data differently than relational tables. NoSQL databases
come in a variety of types based on their data model. The main types are document, key-value, wide-column, and
graph. They provide flexible schemas and scale easily with large amounts of data and high user loads.
NoSQL databases are purpose built for specific data models and have flexible schemas for building modern
applications. NoSQL databases are widely recognized for their ease of development, functionality, and
performance at scale. This page includes resources to help you better understand NoSQL databases and to get
started.
NoSQL databases use a variety of data models for accessing and managing data. These types of databases are
optimized specifically for applications that require large data volume, low latency, and flexible data models,
which are achieved by relaxing some of the data consistency restrictions of other databases.

44. What is Triggers in DBMS?
Triggers are the SQL statements that are automatically executed when there is any change in the database. The
triggers are executed in response to certain events(INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE) in a particular table. These
triggers help in maintaining the integrity of the data by changing the data of the database in a systematic fashion.
45. What are the DBMS ACID properties?
A transaction in a database system must maintain Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and Durability − commonly
known as ACID properties − in order to ensure accuracy, completeness, and data integrity.
Atomicity − This property states that a transaction must be treated as an atomic unit, that is, either all of its
operations are executed or none. There must be no state in a database where a transaction is left partially
completed. States should be defined either before the execution of the transaction or after the
execution/abortion/failure of the transaction.
Consistency − The database must remain in a consistent state after any transaction. No transaction should have
any adverse effect on the data residing in the database. If the database was in a consistent state before the execution
of a transaction, it must remain consistent after the execution of the transaction as well.
Durability − The database should be durable enough to hold all its latest updates even if the system fails or
restarts. If a transaction updates a chunk of data in a database and commits, then the database will hold the
modified data. If a transaction commits but the system fails before the data could be written on to the disk, then
that data will be updated once the system springs back into action.
Isolation − In a database system where more than one transaction are being executed simultaneously and in
parallel, the property of isolation states that all the transactions will be carried out and executed as if it is the only
transaction in the system. No transaction will affect the existence of any other transaction.
46. What is Inheritance and what are the properties of inheritance?
Inheritance is the capability of one class to derive or inherit the properties from another class.
The benefits of inheritance are:
• It represents real-world relationships well.
• It provides reusability of a code. We don’t have to write the same code again and again. Also, it allows us to
add more features to a class without modifying it.
• It is transitive in nature, which means that if class B inherits from another class A, then all the subclasses of
B would automatically inherit from class A.

47. What is Cache memory?

Cache memory is a small-sized type of volatile computer memory that provides high-speed data access to a
processor and stores frequently used computer programs, applications and data.
A temporary storage of memory, cache makes data retrieving easier and more efficient. It is the fastest memory
in a computer, and is typically integrated onto the motherboard and directly embedded in the processor or main
random access memory (RAM).
48. Why Cache memory is expensive?

The cache memory is usually SRAM (Static RAM) where the principle of storing the bit is latching it between
two inverters. The output of one inverter in the input of another. This set up of two inverters when not accessed
can continue to store the bit till there is power. In addition to this, there are two more transistors to access the
memory cell. This makes 6 transistors in one memory cell which stores only 1 bit (6T SRAM). The latch provides
the advantages of speed and reliable storage but it needs 6 transistors for 1 bit.
On the other hand, the main memory is usually DRAM (Dynamic RAM) where the principle of storing the bit is
storing charge in the capacitor. The capacitor is hooked to one transistor to act as an access transistor. In such
memory cells, every bit is rewritten after every read operation. This makes it a bit slower but it requires a smaller
space (since it needs only 1 transistor and 1 capacitor to store 1 bit).
There are many other types of SRAMs and DRAMs but I guess you get the general idea and difference in the
storing principle between these two. And that is the simple reason why SRAMs (Cache) are usually more
expensive than DRAMs (Main Memory).
49. What is Unicode?
Unicode is a universal character encoding standard that assigns a code to every character and symbol in every
language in the world. Since no other encoding standard supports all languages, Unicode is the only encoding
standard that ensures that you can retrieve or combine data using any combination of languages. Unicode is
required with XML, Java, JavaScript, LDAP, and other web-based technologies.
50. What do you know about Tower of Hanoi?

Tower of Hanoi is a mathematical puzzle where we have three rods and n disks. The objective of the puzzle is to
move the entire stack to another rod, obeying the following simple rules:
• Only one disk can be moved at a time.

• Each move consists of taking the upper disk from one of the stacks and placing it on top of another stack
i.e. a disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk on a stack.
• No disk may be placed on top of a smaller disk.

51. What is the difference between Homogeneous and Heterogenous data?
A data set is homogeneous if it is made up of things that are similar to each other it means data from the exact
same source. In a typical scenario of supervised learning, this will result in the data set to have the exact same
label across the entire set.
The heterogeneous data refer to any data that has a high variability of data formats. They are perhaps indefinite
and pose low qualities due to missing values, high data redundancy, and untruthfulness. It is very complicated to
combine heterogeneous data for meeting the demands of business information.
52. Differentiate between Memory and Storage.

The main difference between computer memory and storage is that memory stores data short-term for immediate
access. A computer's moment-to-moment operations are performed using short-term data access — loading
applications, browsing the Web, or editing a spreadsheet. Memory is volatile storage, which means that when you
turn the computer off, the data disappears.
Storage (either a hard drive or a solid state drive) stores data long-term for permanent access. It's the component
that accesses and stores your files, applications, and operating system. The storage drive is non-volatile, which
means the data is stored even if you turn off the computer. For more information about solid state drives, read
here. Memory and storage work in tandem with your computer's processor (CPU) to access and use data.
53. What is CMOS?

CMOS (complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) is the semiconductor technology used in the transistors that
are manufactured into most of today's computer microchips. Semiconductors are made of silicon and germanium,
materials which "sort of" conduct electricity, but not enthusiastically. Areas of these materials that are "doped"
by adding impurities become full-scale conductors of either extra electrons with a negative charge (N-type
transistors) or of positive charge carriers (P-type transistors). In CMOS technology, both kinds of transistors are
used in a complementary way to form a current gate that forms an effective means of electrical control. CMOS
transistors use almost no power when not needed. As the current direction changes more rapidly, however, the
transistors become hot. This characteristic tends to limit the speed at which microprocessors can operate.
54. Why do we use Debugging?

Software programs undergo heavy testing, updating, troubleshooting, and maintenance during the development
process. Usually, the software contains errors and bugs, which are routinely removed. Debugging is the process
of fixing a bug in the software. It refers to identifying, analyzing and removing errors. This process begins after
the software fails to execute properly and concludes by solving the problem and successfully testing the software.
But, it is considered to be an extremely complex and tedious task because errors need to be resolved at all stages
of debugging.

55. Differentiate between Constructor and Destructor.

Constructor
• It helps to allocate memory to an object.
• It can take arguments.
• It is called automatically when an object is created.
• It allows an object to initialize a value before it is used.
• They are called in the successive order of their creation.
• There can be multiple constructors in a single class.
• The copy constructor allows the constructor to declare and initialize an object from another object.
• It can be overloaded.
Example:
class_name( arguments if any )
{
};
Destructor
• It deallocates the memory of an object.
• It doesn’t take any argument.
• It is called automatically when the block is exited or when the program terminates.
• They allow objects to execute code when it is being destroyed.
• They are called in the reverse order of their creation.
• There is a single destructor in a class.
• Destructor can’t be overloaded.
Example:
~ class_name( no arguments )
{
};
56. What is prime number?

A prime number is a number that can only be divided by itself and 1 without remainders. A prime number is a
number greater than 1 with only two factors – themselves and 1. A prime number cannot be divided by any other
numbers without leaving a remainder. An example of a prime number is 13. It can only be divided by 1 and 13.

57. What is Wireless Sensor network?

Wireless Sensor Network (WSN) is an infrastructure-less wireless network that is deployed in a large number of
wireless sensors in an ad-hoc manner that is used to monitor the system, physical or environmental conditions.
Sensor nodes are used in WSN with the onboard processor that manages and monitors the environment in a
particular area. They are connected to the Base Station which acts as a processing unit in the WSN System. Base
Station in a WSN System is connected through the Internet to share data.
Applications of WSN:
• Internet of Things (IOT)
• Surveillance and Monitoring for security, threat detection
• Environmental temperature, humidity, and air pressure
• Noise Level of the surrounding
• Medical applications like patient monitoring
• Agriculture
• Landslide Detection
58. What do you understand by Universal Gate?

A universal gate is a logic gate which can implement any Boolean function without the need to use any other type
of logic gate. The NOR gate and NAND gate are universal gates. This means that you can create any logical
Boolean expression using only NOR gates or only NAND gates.
59. write difference between database schema and instance

Schema
• It is defined as the overall description of the database.
• It remains the same for the entire database.
• It doesn’t change frequently.
• It is used to define the basic structure of the database.
• It tells about how the data would be stored in a database.
Instance
• It refers to the collection of information that is stored in the database at a specific moment.
• Data in these instances can be changed.
• This can be done using addition, deletion, and updating.
• The instance changes frequently.
• It is the set of Information that is stored at a particular time

60. What is Function Overloading and Overriding?

1.Function Overloading is when multiple function with same name exist in a class. Function Overriding is when
function have same prototype in base class as well as derived class.
2.Function Overloading can occur without inheritance. Function Overriding occurs when one class is inherited
from another class.
3.Overloaded functions must differ in either number of parameters or type of parameters should be different. In
Overridden function parameters must be same.
61. How to Print in PHP?

The echo statement can be used with or without parentheses: echo or echo().
Example
<?php
echo "Hello world!<br>";
?>
62. What is Aggregate function?

In database management an aggregate function is a function where the values of multiple rows are grouped
together as input on certain criteria to form a single value of more significant meaning.
Various Aggregate Functions
1. Count() 4. Min()
2. Sum() 5. Max()
3. Avg()
63. What is GUI?

A GUI (graphical user interface) is a system of interactive visual components for computer software. A GUI
displays objects that convey information, and represent actions that can be taken by the user. The objects change
color, size, or visibility when the user interacts with them.
64. What are the functions of operating system?

An Operating System acts as a communication bridge (interface) between the user and computer hardware. The
purpose of an operating system is to provide a platform on which a user can execute programs in a convenient
and efficient manner. The main task an operating system carries out is the allocation of resources and services,
such as the allocation of memory, devices, processors, and information. The operating system also includes
programs to manage these resources, such as a traffic controller, a scheduler, memory management module, I/O
programs, and a file system.

65. Differentiate between Syntax and Semantic error.
Syntax errors and "semantic" errors are not the same. The syntax error is an incorrect construction of the source
code, whereas a semantic error is erroneous logic that produces the wrong result when executed.
66. What is difference between mysql and nosql?

• MySQL is a relational database that is based on tabular design whereas NoSQL is non-relational in
nature with its document-based design.
• MySQL has established a database, covering huge IT market whereas NoSQL databases are the latest
arrival, hence still gaining popularity among big IT giants.
• MySQL database with its settled market encompasses a huge community whereas the NoSQL database
with the short span arrival has a comparatively short community.
• MySQL is not so easily scalable with their rigid schema restrictions whereas NoSQL can be easily
scaled with their dynamic schema nature.
• MySQL is one of the types of relational database whereas NoSQL is more of design based database
type with examples like MongoDB, Couch DB, etc.
• MySQL is available with a wide array of reporting tools help application’s validity whereas NoSQL
databases lack reporting tools for analysis and performance testing.
• MySQL being a relational database is less flexible with its design constraint whereas NoSQL being
non-relational in nature, provides a more flexible design as compared to MySQL.
• MySQL is being used with a standard query language called SQL whereas NoSQL like databases
misses a standard query language.
• MySQL like a relational database can provide a performance issue for a huge amount of data, hence
require optimization of queries whereas NoSQL databases like MongoDB are good at performance
even with the dataset is huge in size.
67. Why LIFO is used? Where LIFO is used?

LIFO stands for Last-In-First-Out. In this approach, the new element is inserted above the existing element, So
that the newest element can be at the top and taken out first. The data structure that implements LIFO is Stack.
An arithmetic logic unit (ALU) is a digital circuit used to perform arithmetic and logic operations. It represents
the fundamental building block of the central processing unit (CPU) of a computer. The ALU performs simple
addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and logic operations, such as OR and AND. The memory stores
the program’s instructions and data.

69. What does Referential Integrity (RI) mean?
Referential integrity refers to the relationship between tables. In order to maintain referential integrity, the
relational data in database tables has to be universally configurable so that changes in one part of the system don't
lead to unanticipated problems elsewhere.
Specifically, keys that reference elements of other tables need to be connected to those other fields, so that if there
is a change, everything gets updated together, and not separately.
70. What are the major components of a web search engine?
A search engine normally consists of four components, that are:

• search interface
• crawler (also known as a spider or bot)
• indexer
• database.
71. What is View and what do you understand by index in DB?
SQL Index
Indexes are special lookup tables. It is used to retrieve data from the database very fast. An Index is used to speed
up select queries and where clauses. But it shows down the data input with insert and update statements. Indexes
can be created or dropped without affecting the data. An index in a database is just like an index in the back of a
book.
For example: When you reference all pages in a book that discusses a certain topic, you first have to refer to the
index, which alphabetically lists all the topics and then referred to one or more specific page numbers.
Views in SQL
Views in SQL are considered as a virtual table. A view also contains rows and columns. To create the view, we
can select the fields from one or more tables present in the database. A view can either have specific rows based
on certain condition or all the rows of a table.

72. Full form of RAID? Why do we use RAID? What are the Levels of RAID?
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Inexpensive/Independent Disks. RAID is a technique of data virtualization
that uses multiple hard disks or solid-state drives to provide for data redundancy and performance improvement.
Redundancy provides threat resilience to the data in case of unforeseen events, thus proving advantageous over
the conventional storage technique of having a “single large expensive disk” (SLED). So instead of having all the
data on one SLED, RAID instead makes use of multiple small-sized disks allowing faster I/O operations and
providing robustness to the whole system. In case one of the disks in the system crashes the others remain safe
and the whole system doesn’t collapse.
Advantages
• Data access speed: Data access speed in RAID systems is undeniably better that SLED systems. RAID
0, RAID 4 and RAID 5 are specially designed for fast and cheap data access.
• Reundant data: Data redundancy provided by RAID systems provides for a reliable storage system.
RAID 1 uses data mirroring to keep copies of data to ensure reliability.
• Error Correction: RAID 2, RAID 3, RAID 4 and RAID 5 use hamming code parity for error correction
in data.
• Simultaneous I/O requests: RAID 0, RAID 4 and RAID 5 use the striping storage techniques hence
support multiple I/O operations at the same time.
• Bulk data transfer: RAID 3 provides for quick bulk data transfers.
• Data security: Striping and continuous parity checks provide for high data security.
Disadvantages
• Cost: The cost of RAID systems is more than SLED systems.
• Data loss: The RAID systems that do not use mirroring are vulnerable to some data loss.
• Choice of RAID level: Given that there are so many RAID levels with each having some drawbacks and
features of their it is a difficult choice as to what system can be used.
• Improper use: If RAID is not use properly, the overall performance of the system as a whole may
decrease.
• Complex technology: RAID is a difficult to use architecture of data storage and requires skilled and
proficient people to unlock the full potential of RAID.
RAID levels:
RAID 0 – striping
RAID 1 – mirroring
RAID 5 – striping with parity
RAID 6 – striping with double parity
RAID 10 – combining mirroring and striping

74. What is BIOS? What are the Properties of BIOS? What happens when BIOS fails?
Every computer with a motherboard includes a special chip referred to as the BIOS or ROM BIOS (Read
Only Memory Basic Input/Output System). The BIOS includes instructions on how to load basic computer
hardware. The BIOS also includes a test referred to as a POST (Power On Self Test) which will ensure that
the computer meets requirements to boot up properly. If the computer does not pass the POST you will
receive a combination of beeps indicating what is malfunctioning within the computer.
The BIOS has 4 main functions:

• POST - Test computer hardware insuring hardware is properly functioning before starting process of loading
Operating System.
• Bootstrap Loader - Process of locating the operating system. If capable Operating system located BIOS will
pass the control to it.
• BIOS - Software / Drivers which interfaces between the operating system and your hardware. When running
DOS or Windows you are using complete BIOS support.
• CMOS Setup - Configuration program. Which allows you to configure hardware settings including system
settings such as computer passwords, time, and date.
BIOS is a piece of program. When the system starts, the register EIP is initialized to FFFF0 to execute the JMP
instruction there, which leads to the execution of the system BIOS code.
BIOS will initialize other devices; initialize the interrupt vector; find other BIOS programs and run them.
If your BIOS update procedure fails, your system will be useless until you replace the BIOS code.
You have two options:
Install a replacement BIOS chip (if the BIOS is located in a socketed chip).
Use the BIOS recovery feature (available on many systems with surface-mounted or soldered-in-place BIOS chips).

75. What are the steps to build a software?
Software Development Life Cycle is the application of standard business practices to building software
applications. It’s typically divided into six to eight steps: Planning, Requirements, Design, Build, Document, Test,
Deploy, Maintain. Some project managers will combine, split, or omit steps, depending on the project’s scope.
These are the core components recommended for all software development projects.
SDLC is a way to measure and improve the development process. It allows a fine-grain analysis of each step of
the process. This, in turn, helps companies maximize efficiency at each stage. As computing power increases, it
places a higher demand on software and developers. Companies must reduce costs, deliver software faster, and
meet or exceed their customers’ needs. SDLC helps achieve these goals by identifying inefficiencies and higher
costs and fixing them to run smoothly.
Phases of SDLC:
1. Planning
2. Define Requirements
3. Design and Prototyping
4. Software Development
5. Testing
6. Deployment
7. Operations and Maintenance
76. What is XOR gate?

“XOR” an abbreviation for “Exclusively-OR.” The simplest XOR gate is a two-input digital circuit that outputs
a logical “1” if the two input values differ, i.e., its output is a logical “1” if either of its inputs are 1, but not at the
same time (exclusively). The symbol and truth table for an XOR is shown in Figure 1. The Boolean expression
for a two-input XOR gate, with inputs A and B and output X:

77. What is Optical Disk and how does it work?
An optical disk is an electronic data storage medium that can be written to and read from using a low-powered
laser beam. Most of today's optical disks are available in three formats: compact disks (CDs), digital versatile
disks (DVDs) -- also referred to as digital video disks -- and Blu-ray disks, which provide the highest capacities
and data transfer rates of the three.
Optical disks rely on a red or blue laser to record and read data. Most of today's optical disks are flat, circular and
12 centimeters in diameter. An optical disk drive uses a laser beam to read the data from the disk as it is spinning.
It distinguishes between the pits and lands based on how the light reflects off the recording material. The drive
uses the differences in reflectivity to determine the 0 and 1 bits that represent the data.
78. Where the mass of an object is zero?
The weight of an object is zero when the net gravitational force acting on the object is zero. However, the mass
of an object can never be zero since mass is a property of matter.
79. What are the fundamental colors of a TV screen?
A monitor or TV screen generates three colors of light (red, green, and blue) and the different colors we see are
due to different combinations and intensities of these three primary colors.
80. What are the programming languages that are interpreter based?
An Interpreter directly executes instructions written in a programming or scripting language without previously
converting them to an object code or machine code. Examples of interpreted languages are Perl, Python and
Matlab.
81. What do you know about the speed of Supercomputer?

A supercomputer is a computer with a high level of performance compared to a general-purpose computer.
Performance of a supercomputer is measured in floating-point operations per second (FLOPS) instead of
million instructions per second (MIPS). Supercomputers contain tens of thousands of processors and can perform
billions and trillions of calculations or computations per second. Some supercomputers can perform up to a
hundred quadrillion FLOPS. Since information moves quickly between processors in a supercomputer (compared
to distributed computing systems) they are ideal for real-time applications.

82. What do you know about active hub and passive hub?
Active hub: These hubs regenerate our signals as well as amplifies the signal. Active hubs need electricity to
work.
Passive hub: Talking about passive hubs, it simply distributes the signal coming from the previous ports. Passive
hub neither regenerates any signal nor amplifies, therefore it does not require electricity to work.
83. What is 2 tier and 3 tier architecture?
2-Tier Architecture: A 2 Tier Architecture in DBMS is a Database architecture where the presentation layer
runs on a client (PC, Mobile, Tablet, etc.), and data is stored on a server called the second tier. Two tier
architecture provides added security to the DBMS as it is not exposed to the end-user directly. It also provides
direct and faster communication.
Example: A Contact Management System created using MS- Access.
3-Tier Architecture: A 3 Tier Architecture in DBMS is the most popular client server architecture in DBMS in
which the development and maintenance of functional processes, logic, data access, data storage, and user
interface is done independently as separate modules. Three Tier architecture contains a presentation layer, an
application layer, and a database server.
84. What are the functions of LLC sublayer and MAC sublayer?
Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer provides the logic for the data link. Thus, it controls the synchronization,
flow control, and error checking functions of the data link layer.
Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer provides control for accessing the transmission medium. It is
responsible for moving data packets from one network interface card (NIC) to another, across a shared
transmission medium. Physical addressing is handled at the MAC sublayer.
85. What is system call in OS?
In computing, a system call is the programmatic way in which a computer program requests a service from the
kernel of the operating system it is executed on. A system call is a way for programs to interact with the operating
system. A computer program makes a system call when it makes a request to the operating system’s kernel.
System call provides the services of the operating system to the user programs via Application Program
Interface(API). It provides an interface between a process and operating system to allow user-level processes to
request services of the operating system. System calls are the only entry points into the kernel system. All
programs needing resources must use system calls.

86. What is VPN?
A virtual private network (VPN) gives you online privacy and anonymity by creating a private network from a
public internet connection. VPNs mask your internet protocol (IP) address so your online actions are virtually
untraceable. Most important, VPN services establish secure and encrypted connections to provide greater privacy
than even a secured Wi-Fi hotspot.
87. What is page fault?
A page fault occurs when a program attempts to access a block of memory that is not stored in the physical
memory, or RAM. The fault notifies the operating system that it must locate the data in virtual memory, then
transfer it from the storage device, such as an HDD or SSD, to the system RAM.
88. SRAM VS DRAM
SRAM DRAM
SRAM stands for Static Random Access Memory. DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory.
Transistors are used to store information in SRAM Capacitors are used to store information in DRAM
Refreshing is not required. Refreshing is required.
SRAM offers low packaging density. DRAM offers high packaging density.
SRAM storage capacity is in Mega Bytes. DRAM storage capacity is in Giga Bytes.
SRAM consumes less power. DRAM consumes much power.
SRAM is costlier than DRAM DRAM is cheap compared to SRAM
89. Hub Vs Switch
Hub Switch
Hub transmits the signal to every port except the Switch do not transmit to every port rather it sends
port that received the signal to specific addresses
Hub operates on the physical layer Switch operates on the data link layer
Transmission mode for Hub is Half Duplex Transmission mode for Switch is Full Duplex
Hub is a passive device Switch is an active device
Hub Not an intelligent device Switch is an intelligent device
Speed is up to 10 Mbps Speed is more than Hub, up to 10 Gbps
Hub does not use software Switch has software for administration
Hub can have maximum 4 ports. Switch can have 24 to 28 ports
Hub does not provide packet filtering Switch provides packet filtering

90. IP address Vs MAC address
MAC Address IP Address

MAC Address stands for Media Access Control IP Address stands for Internet Protocol Address.
Address.
NIC Card’s Manufacturer provides the MAC Internet Service Provider provides IP Address.
Address.
MAC Address is used to ensure the physical address IP Address is the logical address of the computer.
of a computer.
MAC Address operates in the data link layer. IP Address operates in the network layer.
MAC Address helps in simply identifying the IP Address identifies the connection of the device on
device. the network.
MAC Address of computer cannot be changed with IP Address modifies with the time and environment.
time and environment.
91. DDL Vs DML
DDL DML
It stands for Data Definition Language. It stands for Data Manipulation Language.
It is used to create database schema and can be used to It is used to add, retrieve or update the data.
define some constraints as well.
It basically defines the column (Attributes) of the table. It add or update the row of the table. These rows are called
as tuple.
It doesn’t have any further classification. It is further classified into Procedural and Non-Procedural
DML.
Basic command present in DDL are CREATE, DROP, BASIC command present in DML are UPDATE, INSERT,
RENAME, ALTER etc. MERGE etc.
DDL does not use WHERE clause in its statement. While DML uses WHERE clause in its statement.
92. Stack Vs Queue
Stack Queue
The stack is based on LIFO(Last In First Out) principle The queue is based on FIFO(First In First Out) principle.
Push and Pop Operation takes place from one end of the Enqueue and Dequeue Operation takes place from a
stack different end of the queue
The most accessible element is called Top and the least The insertion end is called Rear End and the deletion end
accessible is called the Bottom of the stack is called the Front End.
Only one pointer is used for performing operations Two pointers are used to perform operations
Used to solve the recursive type problems Used to solve the problem having sequential processing

93. Interpreter Vs Compiler
Interpreter Compiler
Interpreter translates just one statement of the Compiler scans the entire program and translates the
program at a time into machine code. whole of it into machine code at once.
An interpreter takes very less time to analyze the source A compiler takes a lot of time to analyze the source
code. However, the overall time to execute the process code. However, the overall time taken to execute the
is much slower. process is much faster.
An interpreter does not generate an intermediary code. A compiler always generates an intermediary object
Hence, an interpreter is highly efficient in terms of its code. It will need further linking. Hence more memory
memory. is needed.
Keeps translating the program continuously till the first A compiler generates the error message only after it
error is confronted. If any error is spotted, it stops scans the complete program and hence debugging is
working and hence debugging becomes easy. relatively harder while working with a compiler.
Interpreters are used by programming languages like Compliers are used by programming languages like C
Ruby and Python for example. and C++ for example.
94. Primary Vs Foreign Key
PRIMARY KEY FOREIGN KEY

A primary key is used to ensure data in the specific A foreign key is a column or group of columns in a
column is unique. relational database table that provides a link
between data in two tables.
It uniquely identifies a record in the relational It refers to the field in a table which is the primary
database table. key of another table.
Only one primary key is allowed in a table. Whereas more than one foreign key are allowed in a
table.
It is a combination of UNIQUE and Not Null It can contain duplicate values and a table in a
constraints. relational database.
It does not allow NULL values. It can also contain NULL values.
Its value cannot be deleted from the parent table. Its value can be deleted from the child table.
It constraint can be implicitly defined on the It constraint cannot be defined on the local or global
temporary tables. temporary tables.

95. High Level Vs Low Level Language
High Level Language Low Level Language

It is programmer friendly language. It is a machine friendly language.
High level language is less memory efficient. Low level language is high memory efficient.
It is easy to understand. It is tough to understand.
It is simple to debug. It is complex to debug comparatively.
It is simple to maintain. It is complex to maintain comparatively.
It is portable. It is non-portable.
It can run on any platform. It is machine-dependent.
It needs compiler or interpreter for translation. It needs assembler for translation.
It is used widely for programming. It is not commonly used now-a-days in programming
96. IPv4 Vs IPv6
IPv4 IPv6
IPv4 has a 32-bit address length IPv6 has a 128-bit address length
It can generate 4.29×109 address space Address space of IPv6 is quite large it can produce
3.4×1038 address space
The Security feature is dependent on application IPSEC is an inbuilt security feature in the IPv6 protocol
Address representation of IPv4 is in decimal Address Representation of IPv6 is in hexadecimal
Fragmentation performed by Sender and forwarding In IPv6 fragmentation performed only by the sender
routers
In IPv4 Packet flow identification is not available In IPv6 packet flow identification are Available and uses
the flow label field in the header
In IPv4 checksum field is available In IPv6 checksum field is not available
It has broadcast Message Transmission Scheme In IPv6 multicast and anycast message transmission
scheme is available
In IPv4 Encryption and Authentication facility not In IPv6 Encryption and Authentication are provided
provided
IPv4 has a header of 20-60 bytes. IPv6 has header of 40 bytes fixed

97. Array Vs Linked List
Array Linked list

An array is a collection of elements of a similar data type. A linked list is a collection of objects known as a
node where node consists of two parts, i.e., data and
address.
Array elements store in a contiguous memory location. Linked list elements can be stored anywhere in the
memory or randomly stored.
Array works with a static memory. The Linked list works with dynamic memory
Accessing any element in an array is faster as the element Accessing an element in a linked list is slower as it
in an array can be directly accessed through the index. starts traversing from the first element of the linked
list.
In the case of an array, memory is allocated at compile- In the case of a linked list, memory is allocated at
time. run time.
98. Call by Value Vs Call by Reference?
No. Call by value Call by reference

1 A copy of the value is passed into the function An address of value is passed into the function
2 Changes made inside the function is limited to the Changes made inside the function validate outside of
function only. The values of the actual parameters do the function also. The values of the actual parameters
not change by changing the formal parameters. do change by changing the formal parameters.
3 Actual and formal arguments are created at the Actual and formal arguments are created at the same
different memory location memory location
99. Strong entity Vs week entity.
Strong entity Week entity

Strong entity has a primary key. Weak entity has a partial key.
Strong entity is independent Weak entity is dependent on a strong entity
Strong entity indicated by a single rectangle. Strong entity indicated by a double rectangle.
Two strong entity’s relationship is indicated by a single One strong and one weak entity is indicated by a double
diamond. diamond.
Strong entity may be or may not be participate Weak entity always participates relationships.
relationships.
In strong entity connecting line is a single line In weak entity connecting line is a double line

100. http Vs https
Parameter HTTP HTTPS

Protocol It is hypertext transfer protocol. It is hypertext transfer protocol with secure.
Security It is less secure as the data can be It is designed to prevent hackers from accessing
vulnerable to hackers. critical information. It is secure against such
attacks.
Port It uses port 80 by default It uses port 443 by default.
Used for It’s a good fit for websites designed for If the website needs to collect the private
information consumption like blogs. information such as credit card number, then it is
a more secure protocol.
Scrambling HTTP does not scramble the data to be HTTPS scrambles the data before transmission. At
transmitted. That’s why there is a higher the receiver end, it descrambles to recover the
chance that transmitted information is original data. Therefore, the transmitted
available to hackers. information is secure which can’t be hacked.
Domain HTTP website do not need SSL. HTTPS requires SSL certificate.
Name
Validation
Search HTTP does not improve search rankings. HTTPS helps to improve search ranking.
Ranking

Written Part (PMSCS)

Math for Practice
[including Quantitative analysis, Critical reasoning]
1. Binary Addition practice.
2. Number system math practice.


3. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed?
4. On the circle there are 9 points selected. How many triangles in these points exits?
5. Suppose a=2, b=8. Find the arithmetic mean and geometric mean.

AM = (a+b)/2 = (2+8)/2 = 5
GM = √(ab) = √(2*8) = 4
6. Differentiation of log (ex) is……..
Ans: e^x
7. Find the next two elements of the following series: 0,1,2,3,5………
Ans: 8,13
8. Standard deviation 1….10?

Solution: http://www.gmatfree.com/module-999/gmat-standard-deviation/
9. Convert binary number 110001 in decimal

110001 is 49 in decimal form
Step 1: Write down the binary number: 110001

Step 2: Multiply each digit of the binary number by the corresponding power of two:
1x25 + 1x24 + 0x23 + 0x22 + 0x21 + 1x20
Step 3: Solve the powers:
1x32 + 1x16 + 0x8 + 0x4 + 0x2 + 1x1 = 32 + 16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1
Step 4: Add up the numbers written above:
32 + 16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 49.
So, 49 is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 110001.
10. Find subnet mask from the IP address 175.231.232.116/27
Here, n = CIDR = 27
Network bit = 27
So, Host bit = 32 - n
= 32 - 27
=5
So, Subnet Mask = 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000 = 255.255.255.224
11. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. What is the
present age of his son?

Ans 22
12. Present ages of Kiran and Syam are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of
their ages will become 11:9 respectively. What is Syam's present age in years?
13. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. Find out the age of the
youngest child.
14. At present, the ratio between the ages of Shekhar and Shobha is 4: 3. After 6 years, Shekhar's age
will be 26 years. Find out the age of Shobha at present?

15. The present ages of A,B and C are in proportions 4:7:9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was
56. What are their present ages (in years)?
16. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the
remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
17. A train having a length of 240 metre passes a post in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a
platform having a length of 650 metre?

18. cube root of 0.000729 is………………
19. What is the largest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 88?
20. How many prime numbers are there less than 50?
Ans: 15
21. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be………….
22. Find the mode of the following set of scores.

14 11 15 9 11 15 11 7 13 12
Solution:
The mode is 11 because 11 occurred more times than the other numbers.
If the observations are given in the form of a frequency table, the mode is the value that has the highest
frequency.
23. Find the mode of the following set of marks.

Marks 1 2 3 4 5
Frequency 6 7 7 5 3
Solution:
The marks 2 and 3 have the highest frequency. So, the modes are 2 and 3.
Note: The above example shows that a set of observations may have more than one mode.
24. The following frequency table shows the marks obtained by students in a quiz. Given that 4 is the
mode, what is the least value for x?
Marks 1 2 3 4 5 6
Number of students (Frequency) 7 9 10 x 9 11
Solution:
x is as least 12
(if x is less than 12 then 4 will not be the mode)
25. Find the median of the following set of points in a game:

15, 14, 10, 8, 12, 8, 16
When the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle value.
26. Find the median of the following set of points:

15, 14, 10, 8, 12, 8, 16, 13
When the number of observations is even, the median is the average of the two middle values.
27. x is the median for 4, 3, 8, x and 7. Find the possible values for x.
Solution:
Arrange the numbers in ascending order with x in the middle 3, 4, x, 7, 8
This tells us that the possible values of x are 4, 5, 6 and 7.
28. The set of scores 12, 5, 7, -8, x, 10 has a mean of 5. Find the value of x.
Solution:
29. 10 students of a class had a mean score of 70. The remaining 15 students of the class had mean score
of 80. What is the mean score of the entire class?
Solution:
Total score of first 10 students = 10 × 70 = 700
Total score of remaining 15 students = 15 × 80 = 1200
Mean score of whole class
30. A coin is thrown 3 times. what is the probability that at least one head is obtained?

Sample space = [HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, TTH, THT, HTT, TTT]
Total number of ways = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8. Fav. Cases = 7
P (of getting at least one head) = 1 – P (no head) ⇒ 1 – (1/8) = 7/8
31. What is the probability of getting a sum of 7 when two dice are thrown?
Total number of ways = 6 × 6 = 36 ways.
Favorable cases = (1, 6) (6, 1) (2, 5) (5, 2) (3, 4) (4, 3) --- 6 ways.
P (A) = 6/36 = 1/6
32. Three dice are rolled together. What is the probability as getting at least one '4'?
Total number of ways = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216.
Probability of getting number ‘4’ at least one time = 1 – (Probability of getting no number 4) = 1 – (5/6) x (5/6) x
(5/6) = 91/216
33. Find the probability of getting two heads when five coins are tossed.
Number of ways of getting two heads = 5C2 = 10.

Total Number of ways = 25 = 32
P (two heads) = 10/32 = 5/16
34. A die is rolled, find the probability that an even number is obtained.
Let us first write the sample space S of the experiment.

S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}
Let E be the event "an even number is obtained" and write it down.
E = {2,4,6}
We now use the formula of the classical probability.
P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 3 / 6 = 1 / 2
35. Which of these numbers cannot be a probability?

a) -0.00001
b) 0.5
c) 1.001
d) 0
e) 1
f) 20%
Solution
A probability is always greater than or equal to 0 and less than or equal to 1, hence only a) and c) above cannot
represent probabilities: -0.00010 is less than 0 and 1.001 is greater than 1.
36. A card is drawn at random from a deck of cards. Find the probability of getting a queen.
Let E be the event "getting a Queen".

An examination of the sample space shows that there are 4 "Queens" so that n(E) = 4 and n(S) = 52.
Hence the probability of event E occurring is given by
P(E) = 4 / 52 = 1 / 13
37. A jar contains 3 red marbles, 7 green marbles and 10 white marbles. If a marble is drawn from the
jar at random, what is the probability that this marble is white?
color frequency
red 3
green 7
white 10
total=3+7+10=20
P(E) = Frequency for white color / Total frequencies in the above table
= 10 / 20 = 1 / 2
38. Studenst in a math class where 40% are males and 60% are females took a test. 50% of the males
and 70% of the females passed the test. What percent of students passed the test?
Let events E1 "be a male" and E2 "be a female", and event A "passed the test".
P(A)=P(A|E1)P(E1)+P(A|E2)P(E2)
=50%×40%+70%×60%=62%

39. 5% of a population have a flu and the remaining 95% do not have this flu. A test is used to detect the
flu and this test is positive in 95% of people with a flu and is also (falsely) positive in 1% of the people
with no flu. If a person from this population is randomly selected and tested, what is the probability
that the test is positive?
Solution
Use the total probability theorem to find the percentage as follows:

5%×95%+95%×1%=5.7%
40. A card is drawn form a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a queen of club or a king
of heart
First, we will find the number of favorable outcomes and total outcomes. The total number of cards in the pack is 52.
Therefore, the total number of possible outcomes when a card is picked from the pack is 52. Next, we will find the
number of favorable outcomes. There are 4 queens (1 each of clubs, spades, diamonds, hearts) in a pack. Thus, there
is only 1 queen of clubs in a pack of 52 cards. Similarly, there are 4 kings (1 each of clubs, spades, diamonds, hearts)
in a pack. Thus, there is only 1 king of hearts in a pack of 52 cards. We need the probability of getting either a king
of hearts, or a queen of clubs when 1 card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards Therefore, the number of favorable
outcomes is 2. Finally, we will use the formula for probability of an event to calculate the probability of getting a card
of diamond. Let E be the event of getting a queen of clubs or a king of hearts. Substituting 2 for the number of favorable
outcomes, and 52 for the number of total outcomes in the formula, we get
⇒P(E)=2/52 = 1/26
41. Which number should be come next in this series: 10, 17, 26, 37? Ans: 50
42. If xy = 2 and y2 = 8, what is the value of x? Ans: ½
43. If n and k are positive integers and 8n=2k. What is the value of n/k? Ans: 1/3
44. The decimal number -34 is expressed in 2’s complement form as? Ans: 11011110
45. If a sweater sells for $48 after a 25% markdown, what was its original price?
(100-25) = 75% = 75/100 = 0.75
0.75*x = 48
x = $64 Ans:
46. What percent of 50 is 0.15? Ans: 0.3

47. If the side of a square is increased by a 20% then area increased by……
Let side of square =100 cms.
Then Area =100×100=10000 sq.cms.
Now after increase in side by 20 %. Area of Square =120×120=14400 sq.cms.
Increase in Area=14400 - 10000=4400 sq.cms.
Percentage change in area=( 4400/10000)×100= 44%
48. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sums of the number is?
Ans: 23
49. A certain password must contain 3 distinct digits followed by 2 distinct capital letters. Given ten digits
and 26 capital letters, how many different passwords are possible?
List the number of possible options for each character in the password. There are 10 possibilities for the first digit, 9
left for the second, and 8 left for the third. There are 26 possibilities for the first letter and 25 for the second. There
are 10 × 9 × 8 × 26 × 25 = 468,000 possible passwords.
50. If the average of 5 numbers is 36 and the average of four of those numbers is 34, then what is the value
of the fifth number?
The average of 5 numbers is 36 --> the sum of 5 numbers is 5*36 = 180;

The average of 4 numbers is 34 --> the sum of 4 numbers is 4*34 = 136.
The difference = the omitted number = 180 - 136 = 44.
51. If two painters can complete two rooms in two hours, how many painters would it take to do 18
rooms in 6 hours?
2 painter takes 2 hours to Paint 2 rooms means, 1 painter takes 2 hours to paint 1 room.
So in 6 hours 1 painter can paint 3 rooms.
So to paint 18 rooms in 6 hours 6 painters are needed.

52. The difference between the squares of two consecutive numbers is 37. Find the numbers.... .........
If the difference between the squares of two consecutive numbers is x,
then the numbers are (x-1)/2 and (x+1)/2
So it's, (37-1)/2 and (37+1)/2
= 36/2 and 38/2
Answer: 18 and 19
53. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price
remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?
54. If m and n are whole numbers such that mn = 121, the value of (m - 1)n + 1 is:
We know that 112 = 121.
Putting m = 11 and n = 2, we get:
(m - 1)n + 1 = (11 - 1)(2 + 1) = 103 = 1000.
55. Sachin borrows Rs. 5000 for 2 years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately lends money to
Rahul at 25/4% p.a. for 2 years. Find the gain of one year by Sachin.

56. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower. The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of
the tower is 30º. The heights of the tower is:
57. A train 100 m long passes a bridge at the rate of 72 km/h in 25 s. The length of the bridge is
58. The perimeter of a rectangle is 26 cm. If its length is 3 cm more than its breadth, find the dimensions
of the rectangle.
Let breadth be x cm.

Length = x+3 cm
Perimeter of rectangle = 26 cm
2(l+b) =26
x+3+x=13
2x=10
x=5
Therefore,
Breadth = 5 cm
Length = 8 cm

59. Mia has a large bag of sweets.If she shares the sweets equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people there will
always be 1 sweet left over.What is the smallest number of sweets there could be in the bag?
Mia has a large bag of sweets. If she shares the sweets equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people. First find the LCM
that will gives us the least number of sweets distributed equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people.
2=2
3=3
4=2×2
5=5
6=2×3
LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 60.
That means if she has 60 sweets, she can shares them equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people.
Now we want to be 1 sweet left over.
So add 1 and 60.
60+1=61.
60. A boy was asked to multiply a certain number by 25 He multiplied it by 52 and got his answer more
by 324 than the correct answer The number to be multiplied was?
Let the number is x
The if be multiply by 25 then correct answer =25x
But boy multiply with 52 then boys answer =52 x
As per question boy answer if more then 324 than correct answer
∴52x=25x+324
⇒52x−25x=324
⇒27x=324
⇒x=12
61. A two-digit number is such that the product of its digits is 8.When 18 is added to the number, the
digits are reversed. The number is:

62. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she
paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?
63. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that
the ball drawn is white?
64. Find the probability that a number selected from the numbers 1 to 25 is not a prime number when
each of the given numbers is equally likely to be selected.
65. A box contains 3 red, 3 white and 3 green balls. A ball is selected at random. Find the probability
that the ball picked up is neither a white nor a red ball:

66. A letter is chosen at random from the letters of the English alphabet The probability that it is not a
vowel is?
There are 26 letters of which 21 are consonants Therefore
P(not a vowel)=21/26
67. What is the probability of selecting 'W' from the letters of the word SWORD?
68. If the letters of the word RANDOM be arranged at random, the probability that there are exactly 2
letters in between A and O is
69. If tanθ=cotθ, then the value of secθ is :














Full Forms (CSE Related Only)
1. API Application Programming Interface.

2. APK Android Application Package.
3. BIOS Basic Input Output System.
4. CSS Cascading Style Sheet.
5. DHTML Dynamic Hyper Text Markup Language.
6. FTP File Transfer Protocol.
7. GPRS General Packet Radio Service.
8. GPS Global Positioning System.
9. GUI Graphical User Interface.
10. GOOGLE Global Organization Of Oriented Group Language Of Earth.
11. HTTPS Hyper Text Transfer protocol secure
12. IBM International Business Machines.
13. JPG Joint Photographic Experts Group.
14. MVC Model View Controller.
15. PDF Portable Document Format.
16. PNG Portable Network Graphics.
17. PHP Hypertext Preprocessor.
18. UML Unified Modeling Language.
19. URL Uniform Resource Locator.
20. USB Universal Serial Bus.
21. VGA Video Graphics Array.
22. VIRUS Vital Information Resources Under Seize.
23. WIFI Wireless Fidelity.
24. XML EXtensible Markup Language.
25. XAMPP Cross - Platform (X), Apache (A), MariaDB (M), PHP (P) and Perl (P).
26. PROM Programmable Read Only Memory
27. POST Power ON Self Test
28. LCD Liquid Crystal Display
29. SIM Subscriber Identity Module.
30. GIF Graphic Interchangeable Format
31. ARPANET Advanced Research Project Agency Network.
32. FAT FILE ALLOCATION TABLE
33. CMYK CYAN – MAGENTA – YELLOW – KEY (BLACK)
34. ASCII American Standard Code for Information Interchange
35. MAC Media Access Control

36. MODEM Modulator Demodulator

37. MIDI Musical Instrument Digital Interface
38. MIME Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
39. MPEG Moving Picture Experts Group
40. NAT Network Address Translation
41. NIC Network Interface Card
42. NTFS New Technology File System
43. PCI Peripheral Component Interconnect
44. PPP Point-To-Point Protocol
45. QoS Quality Of Service
46. RAID Redundant Array Of Inexpensive Disks
47. SMTP Simple Mail Transport Protocol
48. SSL Secure Sockets Layer
49. UART Universal Asynchronous Receiver Or Transmitter
50. SMS Short Message Service
51. MMS Multimedia Messaging Service
52. ATM Asynchronous Transfer Mode
53. CIDR Classless Inter Domain Routing
54. CMOS Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
55. DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
56. DMA Direct Memory Access
57. DNS Domain Name Service/Server/System
58. DOS Disk operating system or Denial of Service
59. DTE Data Terminal Equipment
60. GSM Global System for Mobile-communications
61. HTML Hypertext Markup Language
62. HTTP Hypertext Transfer Protocol
63. PAN Personal Area Network
64. PIN Personal Identification Number
65. RISC Reduced Instruction Set Computer
66. RPC Remote Procedure Call
67. SDH Synchronous Digital Hierarchy
68. SONET Synchronous Optical Network
69. SQL Structured Query Language
70. TCP/IP Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
71. UTP Unshielded Twisted Pair
72. VPN Virtual Private Network

73. ALU Arithmetic Logic Unit

74. BCD Binary Coded Decimal
75. CAD Computer Aided Design
76. OSI Open System Interconnection
77. WiMAX Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
78. RUP Rational Unified Process
79. SDLC: Software Development Life Cycle
80. COBOL Common Business Oriented Language
81. PROLOG Programming in Logic
82. ORACLE Oak Ridge Analytical and Common Logical Engine
83. DSL Digital Subscribers Line
84. MAN Metropolitan Area Network
85. PLA Programmable Logic Array
86. CDMA Code Division Multiple Access.
87. GPU Graphics Processing Unit.
88. MSB Most Significant Bit
89. RDBMS Relational Database Management System
90. CPU Central Processing Unit
91. BTRC Bangladesh Telecommunication Regulatory Commission
92. UMTS Universal Mobile Telecommunication System
93. AMR Adaptive Multi-Rate Codec
94. JAD Java Application Descriptor
95. AAC Advanced Audio Coding
96. GIF Graphic Interchangeable Format
97. WMV Windows Media Video
98. DVD Digital Versatile Disk
99. DAT Digital Audio Tape
100. DOS Disk Operating System
101. UPS Uninterruptable Power Supply
102. EDGE Enhanced Data for Global Evolution. (Also known as Enhanced GPRS)
103. GPRS General Packet Radio Service
104. WAP Wireless Application Protocol
105. HP Hawlett Packard
106. WORM Write Once Read Many
107. MBR Memory Buffer Register / Master Boot Record
108. MIDI Musical Instrument Digital Interface
109. MPEG Moving Pictures Expert Group

110. NIC Network Interface Card

111. OMR Optical Mark Reader
112. OCR Optical Character Reader/Recognition
113. TCP Transmission Control Protocol
114. UDP User Datagram Protocol
115. TDM Time Division Multiplexing
116. URL Uniform Resource Locator
117. VAN Value Added Network
118. VCR Video Cassette Recorder
119. VGA Video Graphics Array
120. VoIP Voice over Internet Protocol
121. VSAT Very Small Aperture Terminal
122. FAT File Allocation Table
123. FDM Frequency Division Multiplexing
124. JRE Java Runtime Engine
125. URI Uniform Resource Identifier
126. BCD Binary Coded Decimal
127. CAD Computer Aided Design
128. CLI Command Line Interface
129. CRT Cathode Ray Tube
130. DDL Data Definition Language
131. IMAP Internet Message Access Protocol
132. PLA Programmable Logic Array
133. FPGA Field Programmable Gate Array
134. CISC Complex Instruction Set Computer
135. MAR Memory address register
136. MOM Message oriented middleware

Admission Test [Viva Voce]
PMSCS
Mustakim Billah Bedar
In future if they take viva voce after written exam or if there is any occurrence for
which online admission test is held again then this part will be crucial. The suggestion
is prepared based on Previous Viva question Analysis. This can also be helpful for
written (10 marks). If you want to make strong preparation you should learn these
question answers too no matter whether the exam is online or offline.
Must: (if viva voce)

• Tell me something about yourself in brief in English.
• Tell Something about Zoom application/ Google meet/ google classroom.
• Why you want to admit here? what do you expect from us?
• Why should we give you the chance to admit in JU?
• Tell us about your result and project.
• Is online education beneficial?
• What is your future plan?
• Describe IT sector of Bangladesh.







•
•
•
• https://youtu.be/EfkfFxaHOPs
References:
https://www.javatpoint.com/ https://techdifferences.com/
https://www.guru99.com/ https://byjus.com/
https://onlinecomputertips.com/ https://study.com/
https://www.tutorialspoint.com/ https://www.maximintegrated.com/
https://techdifferences.com/ https://www.w3schools.com/
https://www.encyclopedia.com/ https://www.omnisci.com/
https://www.vedantu.com/ https://www.educba.com/
https://en.wikipedia.org/ https://www.examveda.com/
https://www.tutorialspoint.com/ https://www.javatpoint.com/
https://www.dictionary.com/ https://www.tutorialspoint.com/
https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/ https://www.sanfoundry.com/
https://www.webopedia.com/ https://www.examtray.com/
https://www.techtarget.com/ https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/
https://www.edureka.co/ https://tutorialslink.com/
https://www.diffen.com/ https://www.udemy.com/
https://studyelectrical.com/ https://studymaterialz.in/
https://www.programiz.com/ https://easyengineering.net/
https://www.programiz.com/ https://unacademy.com/
https://favtutor.com/ https://lastmomenttuitions.com/
https://www.computerhope.com/ https://www.examtray.com/
https://thirdspacelearning.com/ https://www.courseya.com/
http://flint.cs.yale.edu/ https://www.toppr.com
https://www.investopedia.com/
Links to connect With Me:
https://www.facebook.com/groups/NetC https://www.facebook.com/groups/8580 www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

omEducation 42971559671
Mail Me at: mustakimbilla007@gmail.com

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Father of Admission Test

Prepared by: Mustakim Billah Bedar

Links to connect With Me:

https://www.facebook.com/groups/NetC https://www.facebook.com/groups/8580 www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

Applicants must satisfy any one of the following criteria:

• BSc (Engineering) in any discipline from any recognized University

Subjects to crack PMSCS Admission Test

1. Computer fundamental 9. IQ ICT related

MCQ 40*1=40, Written 10*1=10. [Recent Procedure]

MCQ 30*1=30, written 10*2=20. [Older Procedure]

1. Structured Programming 12. Database System

1. Cloud Computing 21. Web Application Security

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

Department of Computer Science and Engineering

initial Name Background

Department of Computer Science and Engineering: Staff members (Register office)

[Information collected and organized by JU PMSCS Alumni Association]

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

(2 prerequisite+7 core + project/thesis)

• Other Students complete 13 subjects including project/thesis (5 prerequisite+7 core+ project/thesis)

• Students can take maximum 4 courses in a semester.

• 1 course = 3 credit and per credit 2.5k

• During admission you have to pay 53.5k

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

semester final Friday and Saturday both.

• Class routine gets changed frequently.

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

So You should have a clear and broad knowledge of these subjects/Topics.

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

Programming with OOP and Basic Java

1. Who developed C language? 8. A relational operator……

(B) yields a Boolean result

C. It can be modified in another function by sending it as a

3. An array element is accessed using B. goto

(A) member name C. go back

(B) an index number D. return

(C) dot operator

A. A function is a group of statement which can be reused any

(A) address of a variable B. Every function has a return value

(C) data type of an address variable D. All of the above

(D) indication of the variable to be accessed next

11. Choose correct statement about Functions in c

Executable code B. A function name can start with an underscore.

C. Default return type of any function is an integer.

6. In the ____ structure, the logical expression is D. All of the above

(D) 4 D. All of the above

Prepared By Mustakim Billah Bedar www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

A. Internal A. Structure elements can be initialized at the time of

D. None of the above

C. Structure elements are stored in contiguous memory

B. Size of the union is the total bytes of all elements of

A. Call by values C. Size of the union is the size of largest element

B. Call by reference D. None of the above

C. Call by value result

D. None of these 22. What is actually passed if you pass a structure

A. Copy of structure variable

C. Size of the structure is the size of largest element

18. Address stored in pointer variable is of………. type B. enum

B. Float D. All of the above

Prepared By Mustakim Billah Bedar www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

B. Union takes less memory B. W+

B. To pass large structures so that complete copy of the B. putc()

32. Select a function which is used to read a single

A. A keyword used to create variables A. fscanf()

MCQ 401=40, Written 101=10. [Recent Procedure]

MCQ 301=30, written 102=20. [Older Procedure]