❑

Score: ❑
Mary Chiles College
SY: 2020 – 2021
Midterm Examination in Microbiology and Parasitology – Set A
Name: ____Mielchris A. Morcillos____________________________ Course/Section: ________________
Date: ____________

I. Read each item carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. If the correct answer is not among the given choices,
choose d and supply the correct answer.

_____1. The following are cellular organisms, EXCEPT:

a. bacteria c. viruses
b. fungi d. protozoa
_____2. The type of microscope used in the visualization of spirochetes is the ___________.
a. phase-contrast microscope c. fluorescent microscope
b. bright field microscope d. darkfield microscope
_____3. The part of the microscope that is composed of lenses that focus light on the object:
a. objective lenses c. ocular lens
b. condenser d. diaphragm
_____4. The scientist who discovered the vaccine for smallpox:
a. Edward Jenner c. Alexander Fleming
b. Robert Koch d. Louis Pasteur
_____5. The type of microscope used to study the physiology of the cell:
a. scanned-probe microscope
b. confocal microscope
c. differential interference contrast microscope
d. electron microscope
_____6. The discovery of the cell by this scientist heralded the study of the Cell Theory:
a. Robert Hooke c. John Tyndall
b. Paul Ehrlich d. Robert Koch
_____7. The part of the microscope that regulates the amount of light coming through the dispenser is the
___________.
a. iris diaphragm c. adjustment knobs
b. objective lenses d. eyepiece
_____8. Which of the following stains is not a differential stain?
a. Gram stain c. simple stain
b. acid-fast stain d. none of the above
_____9. This reagent enhances the absorption of the primary stain in Gram staining:
a. crystal violet c. Gram’s iodine
b. 95% alcohol d. saffranin

_____10. Responsible for the acid-fastness of Mycobacteria:

a. peptidoglycan c. LPS
b. mycolic acid d. muramic acid
_____11. The method of acid-fast staining that involves steam-bathing the organisms with carbolfuchsin:
a. Ziehl-Neelsen method c. both
b. Kinyoun method d. neither
_____12. Which of the following bacteria is Gram-negative?
a. Staphylococcus c. Bacillus
b. Corynebacterium d. Neisseria
_____13. The stain used to demonstrate bacterial spores:
a. Dyer stain c. Fisher-Conn stain
b. Dorner stain d. Hiss stain
_____14. The type of culture media that contains one or more substances that encourage the growth of only one
organism by inhibiting the growth of other organisms:
a. enriched media c. differential media
b. selective media d. nutrient agar
_____15. The reagent used as the counterstain in the Kinyoun method of acid-fast staining:
a. saffranin c. malachite green
b. methylene blue d. carbolfuchsin
For nos. 16 – 21 match the following properties with the type of cell to which they belong in.

_____16. reproduce by binary fission

a. eukaryotic cell b. prokaryotic cell

_____17. has larger ribosomes

a. eukaryotic cell b. prokaryotic cell

_____18. DNA associated with histones

a. eukaryotic cell b. prokaryotic cell

_____19. no mitochondria
a. eukaryotic cell b. prokaryotic cell

_____20. has true nucleus and nuclear membrane

a. eukaryotic cell b. prokaryotic cell

_____21. exemplified by bacteria

a. eukaryotic cell b. prokaryotic cell

For nos. 22 – 30 Match the following features with the corresponding organisms:

_____22. the outer covering is peptidoglycan

a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____23. have characteristics similar to plants

a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____24. acellular
a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae
_____25. the outer covering is glucan
a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____26. has no ribosomes

a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____27. has no mitochondria

a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____28. possess only one type of nucleic acid

a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____29. capable of photosynthesis

a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____30. obligate intracellular parasite

a. bacteria b. viruses c. fungi d. protozoa e. algae

_____31. Coiled bacteria are known as ___________.

a. cocci c. spirochetes
b. bacilli d. coccobacilli
_____32. A glycocalyx strongly adherent to the cell wall is referred to as ___________.
a. slime layer c. cell membrane
b. capsule d. outer membrane
_____33. A component of the outer membrane found only in Gram-negative bacteria:
a. LPS c. mycolic acid
b. teichoic acid d. muramic acid
_____34. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the cytoplasmic membrane?
a. carrier for enzymes
b. involved in selective permeability
c. plays an important role in active transport of molecules
d. all of the above
_____35. Having flagella at both ends of the bacterium:
a. lophotrichous c. amphitrichous
b. monotrichous d. peritrichous
_____36. Which of the following structures function for adherence of the bacteria to the host cell?
a. pilus c. fimbria
b. cell wall d. all of the above

_____37. The bacterial structure that provides rigid support and gives shape to the bacteria:
a. cell membrane c. cell wall
b. capsule d. outer membrane
_____38. The component of the bacterial endospore that makes it resistant to heat and drying:
a. dipicolinic acid c. muramic acid
b. teichoic acid d. mycolic acid
_____39. Structure that serves as the organ for motility of spirochetes:
a. fimbria c. flaggelum
b. axial filament d. mesosomes
_____40. Essential in the synthesis of bacterial proteins:
a. nucleoid c. ribosomes
b. inclusions d. mesosomes
_____41. Also known as murein sacculus:
a. cell membrane c. cell wall
b. capsule d. outer membrane
_____42. True regarding the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria:
a. simpler than Gram-positive bacteria
b. contains teichoic acid
c. has monolayered peptidoglycan
d. all of the above
_____43. A tuft of flagella on one end of the bacterium is referred to as ___________.
a. monotrichous flagella c. lophotrichous flagella
b. amphitrichous flagella d. peritrichous flagella
_____44. Structure associated with endotoxin production:
a. dipicolinic acid c. mycolic acid
b. teichoic acid d. LPS
_____45. Structure responsible for the evasion of phagocytosis:
a. pilus c. fimbria
b. cell wall d. capsule

_____46, Which of the following is/are characteristic/s of the bacterial cell wall?
a. composed mainly of chitin
b. site of action of beta-lactam antibiotics
c. functions for osmosis
d. all of the above
_____47. Cell wall component responsible for the acid-fastness of Mycobacterium:
a. mycolic acid c. teichoic acid
b. muramic acid d. LPS
_____48. Plays an important role in conjugation:
a. fimbriae c. flagella
b. sex pilus d. axial filaments
_____49. Contains genetic material:
a. ribosomes c. nucleoid
b. sex pilus d. fimbriae
_____50. The main component of the bacterial cell wall:
a. chitin c. peptidoglycan
b. mycolic acid d. teichoic acid
_____51. Microorganisms that utilize inorganic compounds like carbon dioxide as their sole source of carbon:
a. heterotrophs c. chemotrophs
b. autotrophs d. phototrophs
_____52. Contributes to the resistance of bacterial endospores:
a. iron c. calcium
b. magnesium d. potassium
_____53. Organisms that can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen are referred to as ___________.
a. aerobes c. facultative
b. anaerobes d. obligate
_____54. The most medically important bacteria are ___________.
a. chemoorganotrophs c. neutrophilic
b. mesophilic d. all of the above
_____55. Bacteria that require an optimum temperature of 10-20 °C are known as ___________.
a. thermophiles c. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles d. halophiles
_____56. Microorganisms that require high salt concentration for growth:
a. halophiles c. neutrophiles
b. osmophiles d. mesophiles

_____57. Necessary for the synthesis of cellular materials like protein and nucleic acids:
a. nitrogen c. phosphorus
b. sulfur d. all of the above
_____58. Anaerobes lack these enzymes, which explains their anaerobiosis:
a. peroxidase c. catalase
b. dismutase d. all of the above
_____59. Heat-loving organisms are referred to as ___________.
a. thermophiles c. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles d. osmophiles
_____60. At what pH do most medically important bacteria grow best in?
a. 4-6 c. 8-9
b. 6.7 to 7.5 d. none of the above
For nos. 61 to 65, match each description with the corresponding phase of bacterial growth.
_____61. There is increase in size of the bacteria but no increase in number.
a. lag phase b. exponential phase c. stationary phase d. decline phase
_____62. The generation time of the bacteria can now be determined.
a. lag phase b. exponential phase c. stationary phase d. decline phase
_____63. Sporulation occurs during this period.
a. lag phase b. exponential phase c. stationary phase d. decline phase
_____64. Nutrients are depleted and toxic wastes accumulate.
a. lag phase b. exponential phase c. stationary phase d. decline phase
_____65. The period of adjustment for the bacteria in a new environment.
a. lag phase b. exponential phase c. stationary phase d. decline phase
_____66. The process by which most microbial forms in non-living objects are destroyed without necessarily
destroying saprophytes and bacterial spores:
a. sterilization c. antisepsis
b. disinfection d. lyophilization
_____67. An agent that kills bacteria:
a. bactericidal c. bacteremia
b. bacteriostatic d. none of the above
_____68. This form of heat is preferred because of its more rapid killing action:
a. moist heat c. both
b. dry heat d. neither
_____69. This method is used to sterilize instruments, surgical bandages, media and other contaminated
materials:
a. boiling c. pasteurization
b. autoclaving d. tyndallization
_____70. This process involves heating the material at 60-65°C, followed by rapid cooling:
a. boiling c. pasteurization
b. autoclaving d. tyndallization

_____71. The mechanism of action of this method is depriving the organism of moisture:
a. tyndallization c. filtration
b. dessication d. radiation
_____72. This method is used in preserving microorganisms:
a. freezing c. lyophilization
b. freeze-drying d. all of the above
_____73. This method involves disruption of the H-bonds in bacterial DNA, causing formation of thymine
dimers and frameshift mutations:
a. ultraviolet lights c. gamma rays
b. ionizing radiation d. x-rays
_____74. Considered the best antiseptic:
a. mercurial c. alcohol
b. hydrogen peroxide d. iodine
_____75. Which of the following is correct regarding ethylene oxide?
a. used in gaseous sterilization
b. more potent than glutaraldehyde
c. sporicidal
d. all of the above
_____76. Used in food preservation:
a. osmotic pressure c. both
b. dessication d. neither
_____77. Which of the following is correct regarding ionizing radiation?
a. involves formation of pyrimidine dimers in the bacterial DNA
b. involves formation of free radicals
c. less mutagenic than ultraviolet light
d. has less penetrating ability than ultraviolet light
_____78. This agent is used in preserving specimens and in the preparation of vaccines:
a. chlorine c. formaldehyde
b. iodine d. alcohol
_____79. This agent is used in the treatment of water:
a. quarternary ammonium compounds
b. chlorine
c. mercurials
d. cresols

_____80. This agent is used as a standard in the evaluation of new chemical agents:
a. phenol c. cresols
b. alcohol d. acetone
For nos. 81 to 90, Match the following antibiotics with their mechanism of action.
Match the following antibiotics with their mechanism of action.
_____81. Amoxicillin
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
Match the following antibiotics with their mechanism of action.
_____82. isoniazid
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
Match the following antibiotics with their mechanism of action.
_____83. rifampicin
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
_____84. gentamycin
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
_____85. polymixin
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
_____86. chloramphenicol
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
_____87. quinolones
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
_____88. trimethoprim
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
_____89. cephalosporins
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor
_____90. Metronidazole
a. cell wall inhibitor
b. alters cell membrane
c. inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
d. inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
e. inhibits DNA synthesis
f. inhibits RNA synthesis
g. competitive inhibitor