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41 Years’
CHAPTERWISE TOPICWISE
SOLVED PAPERS
2019-1979

IITJEE
(JEE Main & Advanced)

Chemistry
Ranjeet Shahi

Arihant Prakashan (Series), Meerut

CONTENTS

1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 1-21 19. Extraction of Metals 262-273

2. Atomic Structure 22-38 20. Qualitative Analysis 274-285

3. Periodic Classification and 21. Organic Chemistry Basics 286-309

Periodic Properties 39-44
22. Hydrocarbons 310-326
4. Chemical Bonding 45-62
23. Alkyl Halides 327-339
5. States of Matter 63-78
24. Alcohols and Ethers 340-352
6. Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 79-102
25. Aldehydes and Ketones 353-371
7. Thermodynamics and
Thermochemistry 103-122 26. Carboxylic Acids and
their Derivatives 372-387
8. Solid State 123-131
27. Aliphatic Compounds
9. Solutions and Colligative Properties 132-146 Containing Nitrogen 388-397

10. Electrochemistry 147-167 28. Benzene and Alkyl Benzene 398-412

11. Chemical Kinetics 168-184 29. Aromatic Compounds

Containing Nitrogen 413-426
12. Nuclear Chemistry 185-187
30. Aryl Halides and Phenols 427-438
13. Surface Chemistry 188-193
31. Aromatic Aldehydes, Ketones
14. s-block Elements 194-203 and Acids 439-452
15. p-block Elements-I 204-212 32. Biomolecules and Chemistry
16. p-block Elements-II 213-232 in Everyday Life 453-468

17. Transition and 33. Environmental Chemistry 469-472

Inner-Transition Elements 233-240 Ÿ JEE Advanced Solved Paper 2019 1-14
18. Coordination Compounds 241-261
1
Some Basic Concepts
of Chemistry
6. The percentage composition of carbon by mole in methane is
Topic 1 Mole Concept (2019 Main, 8 April II)
(a) 75% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 80%
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option)
7. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in 18 g of H 2O. Mole fraction of
1. 5 moles of AB2 weight 125 ´ 10-3 kg and 10 moles of A2 B2
NaOH in solution and molality (in mol kg- 1 ) of the solution
weight 300 ´ 10-3 kg. The molar mass of A ( M A ) and molar
respectively are (2019 Main, 12 Jan II)
mass of B ( M B ) in kg mol -1 are (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) 0.2, 11.11 (b) 0.167, 22.20
(a) M A = 10 ´ 10-3 and M B = 5 ´ 10-3 (c) 0.2, 22.20 (d) 0.167, 11.11
(b) M A = 50 ´ 10-3 and M B = 25 ´ 10-3 8. The volume strength of 1 M H 2O2 is
-3 -3
(c) M A = 25 ´ 10 and M B = 50 ´ 10 (Molar mass of H 2O2 = 34 g mol- 1 ) (2019 Main, 12 Jan II)
(d) M A = 5 ´ 10-3 and M B = 10 ´ 10-3 (a) 16.8 (b) 22.4 (c) 11.35 (d) 5.6
2. The minimum amount of O2 ( g ) consumed per gram of 9. The amount of sugar (C12H 22O11 ) required to prepare 2 L of
reactant is for the reaction (Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, its 0.1 M aqueous solution is (2019 Main, 10 Jan II)
O =16, Mg = 24, P =31, C =12, H =1) (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) 17.1 g (b) 68.4 g (c) 136.8 g (d) 34.2 g
(a) C3H 8 ( g ) + 5O2 ( g ) ¾® 3CO2 ( g ) + 4H 2O( l ) 10. For the following reaction, the mass of water produced from
(b) P4 ( s ) + 5O2 ( g ) ¾® P4O10 ( s ) 445 g of C57 H110 O6 is :
(c) 4Fe( s ) + 3O2 ( g ) ¾® 2Fe2O3 ( s ) 2C57 H110 O6 ( s ) + 163O2 ( g ) ® 114CO2 ( g ) + 110 H2 O ( l )
(d) 2Mg( s ) + O2 ( g ) ¾® 2MgO( s ) (2019 Main, 9 Jan II)

3. At 300 K and 1 atmospheric pressure, (a) 490 g (b) 495 g (c) 445 g (d) 890 g
10 mL of a hydrocarbon required 55 mL of O2 for complete 11. A solution of sodium sulphate contains 92 g of Na + ions per
combustion and 40 mL of CO2 is formed. The formula of the kilogram of water. The molality of Na + ions in that solution
hydrocarbon is (2019 Main, 10 April I) in mol kg-1 is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I)
(a) C4H7Cl (b) C4H 6 (c) C4H10 (d) C4H 8
(a) 16 (b) 4 (c) 132 (d) 8
4. 10 mL of 1 mM surfactant solution forms a monolayer
12. The most abundant elements by mass in the body of a healthy
covering 0.24 cm 2 on a polar substrate. If the polar head is human adult are oxygen (61.4%), carbon (22.9%), hydrogen
approximated as a cube, what is its edge length? (10.0 %), and nitrogen (2.6%). The weight which a 75 kg
(2019 Main, 9 April II)
person would gain if all 1 H atoms are replaced by 2 H atoms is
(a) 2.0 pm (b) 0.1 nm (c) 1.0 pm (d) 2.0 nm (2017 JEE Main)
5. For a reaction, (a) 15 kg (b) 37.5 kg
N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ¾® 2NH 3 ( g ), identify dihydrogen (H 2 ) (c) 7.5 kg (d) 10 kg
as a limiting reagent in the following reaction mixtures. 13. 1 g of a carbonate (M 2 CO3 ) on treatment with excess HCl
(2019 Main, 9 April I)
produces 0.01186 mole of CO2 . The molar mass of M 2 CO3
(a) 56 g of N 2 + 10 g of H 2 (b) 35 g of N 2 + 8 g of H 2 in g mol -1 is (2017 JEE Main)
(c) 14 g of N 2 + 4 g of H 2 (d) 28 g of N 2 + 6 g of H 2 (a) 1186 (b) 84.3 (c) 118.6 (d) 11.86
 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 7

solution is neutralised with Na 2 CO3 , acidified with dilute
acetic acid and treated with excess KI. The liberated iodine
requires 11.3 mL of 0.05 M Na 2 S2 O3 solution for complete
reduction. Find out the mole ratio of Cu 2+ to C2 O2-4 in the
compound. Write down the balanced redox reactions
involved in the above titrations. (1991, 5M)
43. A mixture of H2 C2 O4 (oxalic acid) and NaHC2 O4 weighing
2.02 g was dissolved in water and the solution made up to one
litre. Ten millilitres of the solution required 3.0 mL of 0.1 N
sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralisation. In
another experiment, 10.0 mL of the same solution, in hot
dilute sulphuric acid medium, required 4.0 mL of 0.1 N
potassium permanganate solution for complete reaction.
Calculate the amount of H2 C2 O4 and NaHC2 O4 in the
mixture. (1990, 5M)
44. An organic compound X on analysis gives 24.24 per cent
carbon and 4.04 per cent hydrogen. Further, sodium extract
of 1.0 g of X gives 2.90 g of silver chloride with acidified
silver nitrate solution. The compound X may be represented
by two isomeric structures Y and Z. Y on treatment with
aqueous potassium hydroxide solution gives a dihydroxy
compound while Z on similar treatment gives ethanal. Find
out the molecular formula of X and gives the structure
of Y and Z. (1989, 5M)
45. An equal volume of a reducing agent is titrated separately
with 1 M KMnO4 in acid, neutral and alkaline medium. The
volumes of KMnO4 required are 20 mL in acid, 33.3 mL in
neutral and 100 mL in alkaline media. Find out the oxidation
state of manganese in each reduction product. Give the
balanced equations for all the three half reaction. Find out the
volume of 1M K 2 Cr2 O7 consumed, if the same volume of the
reducing agent is titrated in acid medium. (1989, 5M)
46. A sample of hydrazine sulphate ( N2 H 6 SO4 ) was dissolved in
100 mL of water, 10 mL of this solution was reacted with
excess of ferric chloride solution and warmed to complete
the reaction. Ferrous ion formed was estimated and it,
required 20 mL of M/50 potassium permanganate solution.
Estimate the amount of hydrazine sulphate in one litre of the
solution.
Reaction 4Fe3+ + N2 H4 ¾® N2 + 4Fe2+ + 4H+
MnO-4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H+ ¾® Mn 2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2 O
(1988, 3M)
47. 5 mL of 8 N nitric acid, 4.8 mL of 5 N hydrochloric acid and
a certain volume of 17 M sulphuric acid are mixed together
and made up to 2 L. 30 mL of this acid mixture exactly
neutralise 42.9 mL of sodium carbonate solution containing
one gram of Na 2 CO3 × 10H2 O in 100 mL of water. Calculate
the amount in gram of the sulphate ions in solution.
(1985, 4M)
48. 2.68 ´ 10-3 moles of a solution containing an ion A n+ require
1.61 ´ 10-3 moles of MnO-4 for the oxidation of A n+ to A O-3
in acidic medium. What is the value of n ? (1984, 2M)
49. 4.08 g of a mixture of BaO and unknown carbonate MCO3
was heated strongly. The residue weighed 3.64 g. This was
dissolved in 100 mL of 1 N HCl. The excess acid required
16 mL of 2.5 N NaOH solution for complete neutralisation.
Identify the metal M. (1983, 4M)

Answers
Topic 1 55. (i) 37.92, (ii) 0.065, (iii) 7.73m 56. (a) 0.6, (b) 24
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 58. (i) 0.0179 g, (ii) 10.6 % 59. (0.437) 61. 20 %
5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) Topic 2
9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c) 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a)
13. (b) 14. (*) 15. (d) 16. (d) 5. (d) 6. (*) 7. (b) 8. (c)
17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a, b, d)
33. (6.47kg) 34. (126 mg) 35. (495 g) 36. (4.14 g) 25. (2992) 26. (b) 27. 7/3 28. (5)
37. (0.4) 38. (6.023´10 24 ) 39. C-12 isotope 40. 29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (1008 g) 33. (8.096 mL)
(9)
34. (0.062 M) 35. (1.334 V) 39. (85%) 41. (1.04 ´ 10 4 )
41. (8) 42. (8 mL) 43. (2) 44. (5 ´ 10 -19 m 2 )
42. (1:2) 45. (16.67 mL) 46. (6.5gL -1) 47. (6.5376 g)
45. (55.56 mol L-1) 46. (70.91 ´ 10 6g) 47.(4.3 ´ 10 -3) 50. (10.42)
48. (2) 49. (Ca)
51. (1.7 g) 52. (55.55 L) 53. (9.9 ´ 10 -3)
2
Atomic Structure

Topic 1 Preliminary Developments and Bohr’s Model

Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 5. Which of the graphs shown below does not represent the
1. Which one of the following about an electron occupying the relationship between incident light and the electron ejected
1s-orbital in a hydrogen atom is incorrect? (The Bohr radius from metal surface? (2019 Main, 10 Jan I)

is represented by a0 ) (2019 Main, 9 April II)

K.E. of K.E. of
(a) The electron can be found at a distance 2a0 from the ess ess
nucleus.
(b) The magnitude of the potential energy is double that of
its kinetic energy on an average. (a) (b)
(c) The probability density of finding the electron is 0 0
maximum at the nucleus. Energy of light Intensity of light
(d) The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is
at a distance a0 from the nucleus. Number K.E. of
of ess ess
2. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron ejected from a
metal surface after the irradiation of light having wavelength
l, then for 1.5 p momentum of the photoelectron, the (c) (d)
wavelength of the light should be 0 0
(Assume kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be very Frequency of light Frequency of light
high in comparison to work function) (2019 Main, 8 April II)
4 3 6. A stream of electrons from a heated filament was passed
(a) l (b) l between two charged plates kept at a potential difference V
9 4
esu. If e and m are charge and mass of an electron,
2 1
(c) l (d) l respectively, then the value of h/ l (where, l is wavelength
3 2 associated with electron wave) is given by (2016 Main)
3. What is the work function of the metal, if the light of (a) 2 meV (b) meV
wavelength 4000 Å generates photoelectron of velocity
6 ´ 105 ms -1 from it? (c) 2meV (d) meV

(Mass of electron = 9 ´ 10-31 kg 7. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the nuclear

Velocity of light = 3 ´ 108 ms -1 model of the atom, used a beam of (2002, 3M)

Planck’s constant = 6.626 ´ 10 -34

Js (a) b-particles, which impinged on a metal foil and got
-19 absorbed
Charge of electron = 1.6 ´ 10 JeV-1 ) (2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(b) g-rays, which impinged on a metal foil and got
(a) 4.0 eV (b) 2.1 eV scattered
(c) 0.9 eV (d) 3.1 eV
(c) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got
4. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The scattered
energy of second excited state of He+ ion in eV is (d) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got
(2019 Main, 10 Jan II)
scattered
(a) -54.4 (b) -3.4
(c) -6.04 (d) -27.2
 Atomic Structure 31

8. According to Rutherford’s model, there is a heavily positively

charged nucleus and negatively charged electrons occupies space
KE around it in order to maintain electro-neutrality.
0 9. Radius of a nucleus is in the order of 10-13 cm, a fact.
E0 E
10. Bohr’s model is applicable to one-electron system only.
11. Neutron has no charge, hence e/ m is zero for neutron. Next,
Slope = ± 1, intercept = - E0 a-particle (He2+ ) has very high mass compared to proton and
electron, therefore very small e/ m ratio. Proton and electron
So, option (a) is correct.
have same charge (magnitude) but former is heavier, hence has
(ii) KE of ejected electrons does not depend on the intensity of
smaller value of e/ m.
incident light.
e
: n<a < p<e
KE m
12. The negligibly small size of nucleus compared to the size of
atom was first established in Rutherford’s experiment.
13. The most important findings of Rutherford’s experiment is
0 discovery of nucleus.
Intensity of light
14. Energy of electron in H-atom is determined by the expression:
So, option (b) is correct. 13.6
(iii) When, number of ejected electrons is plotted with frequency En = - eV where, n =1, 2, 3, ....
n2
of light, we get 13.6
In excited states, E2 = - = - 3.4 eV
4
Number 13.6
E3 = - = - 1.51 eV etc.
of e–’s 9
15. Nucleus is composed of neutrons and protons.
0
Frequency of light (n)
16. The isotopes of hydrogen are 1 H2 and 1H3.

So, option (c) is also correct. 17. Alpha particles passes mostly undeflected when sent through
(iv) KE = hn - hn 0 thin metal foil mainly, because
(i) it is much heavier than electrons.
(ii) most part of atom is empty space.
KE 18. Many elements have several isotopes. For such elements,
0 n0 n atomic mass is average of the atomic masses of different
isotopes, which is usually non-integral.
1 æ Ze2 ö
19. A. Vn = - ç
ç r ÷
÷
4 pe0 è ø
Slope = + h, intercept = - hn 0. So, option (d) is not correct.
6. Plan As you can see in options, energy term is mentioned hence, we 1 æ Ze2 ö
Kn = ç ÷
have to find out relation between h / l and energy. For this, we 8pe0 ç r ÷
è ø
shall use de-Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy term in eV.
h Vn
de-Broglie wavelength for an electron (l ) = Þ = - 2 ¾ (r )
p Kn
h Ze2
Þ p= …(i) B. En = - µ r -1
l 8pe0r
Kinetic energy of an electron = eV Þ x = - 1 ¾ (q )
p2 h
As we know that, KE = C. Angular momentum = l (l + 1) = 0 in 1s-orbital
2m 2p ¾ ( p).
p2 a0n2 1
\ eV = or p = 2 meV …(ii) D. rn = Þ µ Z ¾ (s)
2m Z rn
h
From equations (i) and (ii), we get = 2 meV 20. Photons have quantised energy.
l
7. Rutherford used a-particle (He 2+
nuclei) in his experiment. 10-3
21. Mass of one H-atom = kg = 1.66 ´ 10-27 kg
6.023 ´ 1023
3
Periodic Classification and
Periodic Properties

Topic 1 History and Periodic Classification

Objective Question I (Only one correct option) (c) the first ionisation energies of elements along a period do not
vary in a regular manner with increase in atomic number
1. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119
(d) for transition elements the d-subshells are filled with electrons
would be (2019 Main, 8 April II)
monotonically with increase in atomic number
(a) unh (b) uue
(c) uun (d) une Objective Question II
2. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will be an/a (One or more than one correct option)
(2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(a) transition metal (b) inner-transition metal 4. The statements that is/are true for the long form of the
(c) alkaline earth metal (d) alkali metal periodic table is/are (1988, 1M)
(a) it reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the order of
3. The statement that is not correct for the periodic sub-energy level s, p, d and f
classification of elements, is (1992, 1M)
(b) it helps to predict the stable valency states of the elements
(a) the properties of elements are the periodic functions of their
(c) it reflects tends in physical and chemical properties of the
atomic numbers
elements
(b) non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic
(d) it helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bond between any
elements
two elements

Topic 2 Periodic Properties

Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 4. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al and S is
(2019 Main, 11 Jan I)
1. The group number, number of valence electrons and valency
(a) C < S < Al < Cs (b) C < S < Cs < Al
of an element with atomic number 15, respectively, are
(2019 Main, 12 April I) (c) S < C < Cs < Al (d) S < C < Al < Cs
(a) 16, 5 and 2 (b) 15, 5 and 3 5. In general, the properties that decrease and increase down a
(c) 16, 6 and 3 (d) 15, 6 and 2 group in the periodic table, respectively are
(2019 Main, 9 Jan I)
2. The element having greatest difference between its first and
(a) electronegativity and atomic radius
second ionisation energy, is (2019 Main, 9 April I)
(b) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy
(a) Ca (b) Sc
(c) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity
(c) Ba (d) K
(d) atomic radius and electronegativity
3. The correct option with respect to the Pauling
electronegativity values of the elements is 6. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3- ,O2- and F- respectively are
(2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (2015 Main)

(a) P > S (b) Si < Al (a) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (b) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
(c) Te > Se (d) Ga < Ge (c) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (d) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
40 Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties

7. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates 19. The first ionisation potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the
has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy? order (1988, 1M)
(a) CaSO4 (b) BeSO4 (2015 Main) (a) Na < Mg >Al < Si (b) Na > Mg > Al >Si
(c) BaSO4 (d) SrSO4 (c) Na < Mg <Al >Si (d) Na > Mg > Al <Si
8. Which among the following is the most reactive? 20. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in
(a) Cl 2 (b) Br2 (2015 Main) the order (1987, 1M)
(c) I2 (d) ICl (a) C, N, Si, P (b) N, Si, C, P
9. Which one has the highest boiling point? (c) Si, P, C, N (d) P, Si, N, C
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Kr (d) Xe 21. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in Angstrom units are
10. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of respectively given by (1987, 1M)
electron gain enthalpy of Na + will be (2013 Main) (a) 0.72, 1.60 (b) 1.60, 1.60
(a) - 2.55 eV (b) - 5.1 eV (c) 0.72, 0.72 (d) None of these
(c) - 10.2 eV (d) + 2.55 eV 22. The first ionisation potential in electron volts of nitrogen and
11. Which of the following represents the correct order of oxygen atoms are respectively given by (1987, 1M)

increasing first ionisation enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar? (a) 14.6, 13.6 (b) 13.6, 14.6
(2013 Main) (c) 13.6, 13.6 (d) 14.6, 14.6
(a) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (b) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar 23. The hydration energy of Mg 2+ is larger than that of
(c) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (d) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar (1984, 1M)
12. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following. (a) Al 3+ (b) Na + (c) Be2+ (d) Mg3+
(a) Li + (b) Be- (2002, 3M) 24. The element with the highest first ionisation potential is
(c) B- (d) C - (1982, 1M)
(a) boron (b) carbon
13. The set representing the correct order of first ionisation
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen
potential is (2001, 1M)
25. The correct order of second ionisation potential of carbon,
(a) K > Na > Li (b) Be > Mg > Ca nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is (1981, 1M)
(c) B > C > N (d) Ge > Si > C (a) C > N > O > F (b) O > N > F > C
(c) O > F > N > C (d) F > O > N > C
14. The correct order of radii is (2000, 1M)
(a) N < Be < B (b) F - < O2- < N3- Objective Questions II
(c) Na < Li < K (d) Fe3+ < Fe 2+ < Fe4+ (One or more than one correct option)
15. The incorrect statement among the following. (1997(C), 1M) 26. The option(s) with only amphoteric oxides is(are)(2017 Adv.)
(a) The first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first (a) NO, B2O3 , PbO, SnO2 (b) Cr2O3 , CrO, SnO, PbO
ionisation potential of Mg (c) Cr2O3 , BeO, SnO, SnO2 (d) ZnO, Al 2O3 , PbO, PbO2
(b) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the
27. Ionic radii of (1999, 3M)
second ionisation potential of Na
(a) Ti 4+ < Mn 7 + (b) 35
Cl - < 37
Cl -
(c) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first
ionisation potential of Mg (c) K + > Cl - (d) P 3+ > P 5+
(d) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than third
28. The first ionisation potential of nitrogen and oxygen atoms
ionisation potential of Na
are related as follows. (1989, 1M)
16. Which of the following has the maximum number of (a) The ionisation potential of oxygen is less than the ionisation
unpaired electrons ? (1996, 1M) potential of nitrogen
(a) Mg2+ (b) Ti 3+ (b) The ionisation potential of nitrogen is greater than the
(c) V 3+ (d) Fe2+ ionisation potential of oxygen
(c) The two ionisation potential values are comparable
17. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic (d) The difference between the two ionisation potential is too large
configurations are given below), the one having the highest
ionisation energy is (1990, 1M) 29. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water whereas barium sulphate
2
(a) [Ne] 3s 3 p 1 2
(b) [Ne] 3s 3 p 3 is sparingly soluble because (1989, 1M)
2 2 10 2 3
(a) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice
(c) [Ne] 3s 3 p (d) [Ar] 3d 4s 4 p energy
18. Which one of the following is the smallest in size? (b) the lattice energy of barium sulphate is more than its hydration
(1989, 1M) energy
(a) N3- (b) O2- (c) the lattice energy has no role to play in solubility
(c) F - (d) Na + (d) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice
energy
 Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties 41

Assertion and Reason 37. On Mulliken scale, the average of ionisation potential and
electron affinity is known as ................ (1985, 1M)
Read the following questions and answer as per the
direction given below : 38. The energy released when an electron is added to a neutral
(a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is gaseous atom is called …… . (1982, 1M)
the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is True/False
not the correct explanation of Statement I. 39. The basic nature of the hydroxides of group 13 (III B)
(c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false. decreases progressively down the group. (1993, 1M)
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
40. The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl, Br is
30. Statement I Nitrogen and oxygen are the main F > Cl > Br. (1993, 1M)
components in the atmosphere but these do not react to
41. In group IA of alkali metals, the ionisation potential decreases
form oxides of nitrogen.
down the group. Therefore, lithium is a poor reducing agent.
Statement II The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen
(1987, 1M)
requires high temperature. (2015 Main)

31. Statement I Pb 4+ compounds are stronger oxidising 42. The softness of group IA metals increases down the group with
4+ increasing atomic number. (1986, 1M)
agents than Sn compounds.
Statement II The higher oxidation states for the group 14
elements are more stable for the heavier members of the
Subjective Questions
group due to ‘inert pair effect’. (2008, 3M) 43. Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing radii
32. Statement I Band gap in germanium is small. Li + , Mg 2+ , K + , Al 3+. (1997, 1M)
Statement II The energy spread of each germanium 44. Compare qualitatively the first and second ionisation
atomic energy level is infinitesimally small. (2007, 3M) potentials of copper and zinc. Explain the observation.
33. Statement I The first ionisation energy of Be is greater (1996, 2M
than that of B. 45. Arrange the following as stated :
Statement II 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s. “Increasing order of ionic size’’ N3– ,Na + , F- , O2 - , Mg 2+
(2000, (S), 1M)
(1991, 1M)
34. Statement I F-atom has a less negative electron affinity 46. Explain the following :
than Cl-atom.
Statement II Additional electrons are repelled more “The first ionisation energy of carbon atom is greater than that
effectively by 3 p-electrons in Cl-atom than by 2 p-electrons of boron atom whereas, the reverse is true for the second
in F-atom. (1998, 2M)
ionisation energy.’’ (1989, 2M)

47. Arrange the following in the order of their increasing size:

Fill in the Blanks Cl - , S2 - , Ca 2+ , Ar (1986, 1M)
4+
35. Compounds that formally contain Pb are easily reduced 48. Arrange the following in order of their
2+
to Pb . The stability of the lower oxidation state is due to (i) decreasing ionic size Mg 2+ , O2 - , Na + ,F-
…… . (1997, 1M)
(ii) increasing first ionisation energy Mg, Al, Si, Na
36. Ca 2+ has a smaller ionic radius than K + because it has
(iii) increasing bond length F2 , N2 , Cl 2 , O2 (1985, 3M)
............ (1993, 1M

Answers
Topic 1 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c)
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b,c,d) 25. (c) 26. (a,b) 27. (d) 28. (a,b,c)
29. (a,b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c)
Topic 2
33. (c) 34. (c)
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a)
35. (inert pair effect)
5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d)
36. (higher effective nuclear charge)
9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b)
37. (electronegativity) 38. (electron affinity)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d)
17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c) 39. F 40. F 41. F 42. T
4
Chemical Bonding

Topic 1 Preliminary Concepts of Electrovalent and

Covalent Bonding
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 7. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in
1. The isoelectronic set of ions is (2019 Main, 10 April I) CaC2 are (1996, 1M)
- + +
(a) F , Li , Na and Mg 2+ (a) one sigma ( s ) and one pi ( p ) bonds
(b) one sigma ( s ) and two pi ( p ) bonds
(b) N3 - , Li + , Mg 2+ and O2 - (c) one sigma ( s ) and one half pi ( p ) bonds
(c) Li + , Na + , O2 - and F- (d) one sigma ( s ) bond
8. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is (1989, 1M)
(d) N3 - , O2 - , F- and Na +
(a) CH2 Cl 2 (b) BF3 (c) NF3 (d) ClO2
2. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no covalent
bond(s)? 9. Element X is strongly electropositive and element Y is
KCl, PH3 , O2 , B2 H6 , H2 SO4 (2018 Main) strongly electronegative. Both are univalent. The compound
(a) KCl, B2 H6 , PH3 (b) KCl, H2 SO4 formed would be (1980, 1M)
+ - - +
(c) KCl (d) KCl, B2 H6 (a) X Y (b) X Y (c) X -- Y (d) X ® Y
3. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the 10. Which of the following compound is covalent? (1980, 1M)
inverse cube of distance between the molecules is (2015 Main) (a) H2 (b) CaO
(a) ion-ion interaction (b) ion-dipole interaction (c) KCl (d) Na 2 S
(c) London force (d) hydrogen bond 11. The total number of electrons that take part in forming the
4. The nodal plane in the p-bond of ethene is located in bonds in N2 is (1980, 1M)
(a) the molecular plane (2002, 3M) (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 10
(b) a plane parallel to the molecular plane 12. The compound which contains both ionic and covalent bonds
(c) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which is (1979, 1M)
bisects the carbon-carbon s-bond at right angle (a) CH4 (b) H2 (c) KCN (d) KCl
(d) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which
contains the carbon-carbon s-bond
Objective Questions II
5. Amongst H2 O, H2 S, H2 Se and H2 Te, the one with the highest
boiling point is (2000, 1M) (One or more than one correct option)
(a) H2 O because of hydrogen bonding 13. Dipole moment is shown by (1986, 1M)
(b) H2 Te because of higher molecular weight (a) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene (b) cis-1, 2-dichloroethene
(c) H2 S because of hydrogen bonding (c) trans-1, 2-dichloroethene (d) trans-1, 2-dichloro-2- pentene
(d) H2 Se because of lower molecular weight
6. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing Numerical Value
dipole moment, toluene (I), m-dichlorobenzene (II), 14. Among the species given below, the total number of
o-dichlorobenzene (III), p-dichlorobenzene (IV) (1996, 1M) diamagnetic species is____
(a) I < IV < II < III (b) IV < I < II < III H atom, NO2 monomer, O-2 (superoxide), dimeric sulphur in
(c) IV < I < III < II (d) IV < II < I < III vapour phase, Mn 3 O4 ,( NH4 )2 [ FeCl 4 ], ( NH4 )2 [ NiCl 4 ],
K 2 MnO4 , K 2 CrO4 (2018 Adv.)
7
Thermodynamics and
Thermochemistry
Topic 1 Thermodynamics
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) (a) Cyclic process : q =- W
1. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a (b) Adiabatic process : DU = - W
constant external pressure of 1 bar. The work done in kJ is (c) Isochoric process : DU = q
(2019 Main, 12 April I) (d) Isothermal process : q = - W
(a) - 9.0 (b) + 10.0 (c) - 0.9 (d) - 2.0 8. For silver, C p ( J K -1 mol -1 ) = 23 + 0.01 T. If the
2. The difference between DH and DU ( DH - DU ), when the temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to
combustion of one mole of heptane (l) is carried out at a 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of DH will be close to
temperature T, is equal to (2019 Main, 10 April II) (2019 Main, 8 April I)
(a) - 4 RT (b) 3 RT (c) 4 RT (d) - 3 RT (a) 62 kJ (b) 16 kJ
(c) 21 kJ (d) 13 kJ
3. A process will be spontaneous at all temperature if
(2019 Main, 10 April I) 9. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which of the
(a) DH > 0 and DS < 0 (b) DH < 0 and DS > 0 following plots does not correctly describe the relation
(c) DH < 0 and DS < 0 (d) DH > 0 and DS > 0 between various thermodynamic quantities?
(2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
4. During compression of a spring the work done is 10 kJ and 2
kJ escaped to the surroundings as heat. The change in
internal energy, DU (in kJ) is (2019 Main, 9 April II) Cp Cv
(a) (b)
(a) 8 (b) -12 (c) 12 (d) -8
5. Among the following the set of parameters that represents p T
path functions, is (2019 Main, 9 April I)
(A) q + W (B) q (C) W (D) H - TS (c) U (d) Cv
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D) (d) (B) and (C) T V
6. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to undergo -
O
reversible compression till its temperature becomes 200 K. 10. The standard electrode potential E and its temperature
-
æ dE O ö
If CV = 28 JK -1 mol -1 , calculate DU and DpV for this coefficient ç ÷ for a cell are 2V and - 5 ´ 10-4 VK -1 at
ç dT ÷
process. ( R = 8.0 JK -1 mol-1 ) (2019 Main, 8 April II) è ø
(a) DU = 2.8 kJ; D( pV ) = 0.8 kJ 300 K respectively. The cell reaction is
(b) DU = 14 J; D( pV ) = 0.8 J Zn( s ) + Cu2 + ( aq ) ® Zn2 + ( aq ) + Cu( s )
(c) DU = 14 kJ; D( pV ) = 4 kJ -
The standard reaction enthalpy (Dr H O ) at 300 K in kJ mol -1
(d) DU = 14 kJ; D( pV ) = 18 kJ
is, [Use, R = 8 JK -1 mol-1 and F = 96,000 C mol-1 ]
7. Which one of the following equations does not correctly
(2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given
(a) - 412.8 (b) - 384.0
processes involving an ideal gas ? (Assume non-expansion
work is zero) (2019 Main, 8 April I)
(c) 206.4 (d) 192.0
8
Solid State

Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 6. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly at the
1. The ratio of number of atoms present in a simple cubic, body centre of the edge of a body centred cubic unit cell is
centered cubic and face centered cubic structure are, (Edge length is represented by ‘a’) (2019 Main, 11 Jan II)
respectively. (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) 0.134 a (b) 0.027 a (c) 0.047 a (d) 0.067 a
(a) 8 : 1 : 6 (b) 1 : 2 : 4 7. A solid having density of 9 ´ 103 kgm -3 forms face centred
(c) 4 : 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 2 : 3 cubic crystals of edge length 200 2 pm. What is the molar
2. An element has a face-centred cubic (fcc) structure with a cell mass of the solid?
edge of a. The distance between the centres of two nearest [Avogadro constant = 6 ´ 1023 mol-1 , p = 3]
tetrahedral voids in the lattice is (2019 Main, 12 April I) (2019 Main, 11 Jan I)
a 3 (a) 0.03050 kg mol-1 (b) 0.4320 kg mol-1
(a) 2a (b) a (c) (d) a
2 2 (c) 0.0432 kg mol-1 (d) 0.0216 kg mol-1
3. Consider the bcc unit cells of the solids 1 and 2 with the 8. A compound of formula A2B3 has the hcp lattice. Which
position of atoms as shown below. The radius of atom B is atom forms the hcp lattice and what fraction of tetrahedral
twice that of atom A. The unit cell edge length is 50% more is voids is occupied by the other atoms ? (2019 Main, 10 Jan II)
solid 2 than in 1. What is the approximate packing efficiency 2
(a) hcp lattice- A, tetrahedral voids-B
in solid 2? (2019 Main, 8 April II) 3
1
A A A A (b) hcp lattice-A, tetrahedral voids-B
3
A 1
A A A (c) hcp lattice-B, tetrahedral voids-A
B 3
A 2
A A A (d) hcp lattice-B, tetrahedral voids-A
A 3
A A A A 9. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths
Solid 1 Solid 2 ( a ¹ b ¹ c ) and all axial angles different from 90°?
(2019 Main, 10 Jan I)
(a) 65% (b) 90% (a) Hexagonal (b) Monoclinic
(c) 75% (d) 45% (c) Tetragonal (d) Triclinic
4. The statement that is incorrect about the interstitial 10. At 100°C, copper (Cu) has FCC unit cell structure with cell
compounds is (2019 Main, 8 April II)
edge length of x Å. What is the approximate density of Cu (in g
(a) they are very hard
cm -3 ) at this temperature?
(b) they have metallic conductivity
[Atomic mass of Cu = 63.55 u] (2019 Main, 9 Jan II)
(c) they have high melting points
211 205
(d) they are chemically reactive (a) 3 (b) 3
x x
5. Element ‘B ’ forms ccp structure and ‘A ’ occupies half of the 105 422
octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the (c) 3 (d) 3
x x
tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is
(2019 Main, 8 April I) 11. The one that is extensively used as a piezoelectric material
(a) A2BO4 (b) AB2O4 is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I)
(c) A2B2O (d) A4B2 O (a) quartz (b) tridymite
(c) amorphous silica (d) mica
 Hints & Solutions
Topic 1 Solution and Vapour Pressure pgas = partial pressure of the gas above its solution with a liquid
(solvent) say water.
of Liquid Solutions
cgas = mole fraction of the gas (solute) in the solution.
c H 2 O = mole fraction of water (solvent).
1. Mass of solute (w2 ) ´ 1000
Key Idea Molality ( m) =
Molar mass of solute (M 2 ) ´
mass of solvent (w1 )
w2 1000 pgas pgas
m= ´ KH
M2 w1 KH
1000
and also, m = n2 ´
n1 ´ M1
cH2O=0 cH2O=0
X solvent = 0.8 (Given) It means that nsolvent (n1 ) = 0.8 and
cgas=1 cgas=0
nsolute (n2 ) = 0.2
1000 1000
Using formula m = n2 ´ = 0.2 ´ = 13.88 mol kg -1
n1 ´ M 1 0.8 ´ 18 [ i.e. pgas = K H ] Higher the value of K H, higher
will be the partial pressure of the gas ( pgas ), at a given
2. Key Idea Molality is defined as number of moles of solute temperature. The plot of pgas vs c H2O gives a (-ve) slope.
per kg of solvent. pgas = K H - K H ´ c H2O
w2 1000 Comparing the above equation with the equation of straight line
m = ´
Mw2 w1 y = mx + c
w2 = mass of solute, Mw2 = molecular mass of solute Slope = - K H , intercept = K H
w1 = mass of solvent. So, (i) Higher the value of K H, more (-ve) will be the slope and
it is for z (K H = 40 K bar )
The molality of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI (ii) Higher the value of K H, higher with the value of intercept,
can be calculated by following formula. i.e. partial pressure and it is also for z.
w ´ 1000
m= 2 5. (d) According to Dalton’s law of partial pressure
Mw2 ´ w1
ptotal = pA + pB
20% aqueous solution of KI means that 20 gm of KI is present in
= pA° c A + pB° c B …(i)
80 gm solvent.
20 1000 Given, pAº = 400 mm Hg, pBº = 600 mm Hg
m= ´ = 1. 506 » 1. 51mol/kg
166 80 c B = 0.5, c A + c B = 1
\ c A = 0.5
3. Key Idea For a solution of volatile liquids the partial vapour
pressure of each component of the solution is directly On substituting the given values in Eq. (i). We get,
proportional to its mole fraction present in solution. This is ptotal = 400 ´ 0.5 + 600 ´ 0.5 = 500 mm Hg
known as Raoult’s law. Mole fraction of A in vapour phase,
Liquid M and N form an ideal solution. Vapour pressures of p pAº c A 0.5 ´ 400
YA = A = = = 0.4
pure liquids M and N are 450 and 700 mm Hg respectively. ptotal ptotal 500
\ pºN > pºM Mole of B in vapour phase,
So, by using Raoult’s law YA + YB = 1
yN > xN …(i) YB = 1 - 0. 4 = 0.6
and xM > yM …(ii)
6. For ideal solution,
Multiplying (i) and (ii) we get
p = x ¢A p°A + x ¢B p°B
yN xM > yM xN
xM yM Q x ¢A = 0.4, x ¢B = 0.6
\ > p°A = 7 ´ 103 Pa, p°B = 12 ´ 103 Pa
xN yN
Thus, correct relation is (a). On substituting the given values in Eq. (i),
we get
4. According to Henry’s law (at constant temperature) p = 0.4 ´ 7 ´ 103 + 0.6 ´ 12 ´ 103
pgas = K H ´ cgas (solute) = K H ´ [1 - c H 2 O (solvent) ]
= 10 ´ 103 Pa = 1 ´ 104 Pa
pgas = K H - K H c H 2 O
10
Electrochemistry
Topic 1 Electrochemical Cells 5. Consider the following reduction processes:
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) Zn 2+ + 2e- ¾
¾® Zn (s); E °= - 0.76 V

1. Given, Ca 2+ + 2e- ¾
¾® Ca (s); E °= - 2.87 V

Co 3 + + e- ¾® Co 2 + ; E ° = + 181
. V Mg2+ + 2e- ¾
¾® Mg(s); E °= - 2.36 V

Pb 4 + + 2e- ¾® Pb 2 + ; E ° = + 167
. V Ni2+ + 2e- ¾
¾® Ni(s); E °= - 0.25 V
Ce4 + + e- ¾® Ce3 + ; E ° = + 161
. V The reducing power of the metals increases in the order
3+ - (2019 Main, 10 Jan I)
Bi + 3e ¾® Bi; E ° = + 0.20 V
(a) Zn < Mg < Ni < Ca (b) Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
Oxidising power of the species will increase in the order (c) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni (d) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni
(2019 Main, 12 April I)
4+ 4+ 3+ 3+
6. The anodic half-cell of lead-acid battery is recharged using
(a) Ce < Pb < Bi < Co electricity of 0.05 Faraday. The amount of PbSO4
(b) Bi 3 + < Ce4 + < Pb 4 + < Co 3 + electrolysed in g during the process is (Molar mass of
(c) Co 3 + < Ce4 + < Bi 3 + < Pb 4 + PbSO4 = 303g mol -1 ) (2019 Main, 9 Jan I)
(d) Co 3 + < Pb 4 + < Ce4 + < Bi 3 + (a) 11.4 (b) 7.6 (c) 15.2 (d) 22.8
2. A solution of Ni(NO3 )2 is electrolysed between platinum 7. How long (approximate) should water be electrolysed by
electrodes using 0.1 Faraday electricity. How many mole of passing through 100 amperes current so that the oxygen
Ni will be deposited at the cathode? (2019 Main, 9 April II) released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane?
(Atomic weight of B = 10.8 m) (2018 Main)
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.15 (d) 0.05
(a) 6.4 hours (b) 0.8 hours (c) 3.2 hours (d) 1.6 hours
3. Calculate the standard cell potential (in V) of the cell in
which following reaction takes place °
8. Given, ECl -
° 3+
= 1.36 V, ECr = - 0.74 V
2 /Cl /Cr
Fe2+ ( aq ) + Ag+ ( aq ) ¾® Fe3 + ( aq ) + Ag( s ) ° 2 - 3 + = 1.33 V, E ° -
ECr = 1.51 V
O /Cr
2 7 MnO / Mn 2 + 4
Given that,
Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is
E °Ag + / Ag = x V (2017 Main)
E °Fe 2+ / Fe = y V (a) Cr (b) Mn 2+

E °Fe3 + / Fe = z V (2019 Main, 8 April II) 3+

(c) Cr (d) Cl -
(a) x + 2 y - 3 z (b) x - y 9. For the following electrochemical cell at 298 K,
(c) x + y - z (d) x - z
Pt ( s ) | H2 ( g , 1bar ) | H+ ( aq , 1 M)
4. Given, that EOs2 / H 2O = +1.23V;
| | M 4 + ( aq ), M 2 + ( aq ) | Pt ( s )
E sS O 2- / SO 2- = 2.05V; [ M ( aq )] 2+
2 8 4 Ecell = 0.092 V when = 10x
s [ M 4 + ( aq )]
EBr / Br s
= +1.09V,
2 RT
s Given : E °M 4+ / M 2+ = 0.151 V; 2.303 = 0.059 V
EAu 3+ / Au = +1.4V F
The value of x is (2016 Adv.)
The strongest oxidising agent is (2019 Main, 8 April I)
(a) - 2 (b) - 1
(a) Au 3+ (b) O2 (c) S2 O2-
8 (d) Br2 (c) 1 (d) 2
11
Chemical Kinetics
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 5. Consider the given plot of enthalpy of the following reaction
1. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by the between A and B. A + B ¾® C+D
decomposition of N2 O5 in CCl 4 as per the equation, Identify the incorrect statement. (2019 Main, 9 April II)

2N2 O5 ( g ) ¾® 4NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) 20
The initial concentration of N2 O5 is 3.00 mol L-1 and it is
Enthalpy 15
2.75 mol L -1 after 30 minutes. The rate of formation of NO2 (kJ mol–1)10
D
is (2019 Main, 12 April II)
-3 -1 -1 -2 -1 -1 5
(a) 4167
. ´ 10 mol L min (b) 1667
. ´ 10 mol L min A+B
-3 -1 -1 -3 -1
C
(c) 8.333 ´ 10 mol L min (d) 2.083 ´ 10 mol L min -1
Reaction
coordinate
2. In the following reaction; xA ® yB
é d[ A ]ù é d[B ]ù (a) D is kinetically stable product.
log 10 ê- ú = log 10 ê ú + 0.3010 (b) Formation of A and B from C has highest enthalpy of activation.
ë dt û ë dt û
(c) C is the thermodynamically stable product.
A and B respectively can be (2019 Main, 12 April I)
(d) Activation enthalpy to form C is 5 kJ mol -1 less than that to
(a) n-butane and iso-butane (b) C2H2 and C6 H6
form D.
(c) C2H4 and C4 H8 (d) N2O4 and NO2
6. The given plots represent the variation of the concentration
3. For the reaction of H 2 with I2 , the rate constant is
of a reaction R with time for two different reactions (i) and
2.5 ´ 10- 4 dm3 mol- 1 s- 1 at 327ºC and 10. dm 3 mol- 1 s- 1 (ii). The respective orders of the reactions are
at 527ºC. The activation energy for the reaction, in (2019 Main, 9 April I)
kJ mol- 1 is (R = 8.314 JK - 1 mol- 1 ) (2019 Main, 10 April II) (i) (ii)
(a) 59 (b) 72 (c) 150 (d) 166
In [R] [R]
4. A bacterial infection in an internal wound grows as
N ¢ ( t ) = N0 exp ( t ), where the time t is in hours. A dose of
antibiotic, taken orally, needs 1 hour to reach the wound. time time
Once it reaches there, the bacterial population goes down as
dN N (a) 1, 1 (b) 0, 2
= - 5N 2 . What will be the plot of 0 vs t after 1 hour ? (c) 0, 1 (d) 1, 0
dt N
(2019 Main, 10 April I) k1 k2
7. For a reaction scheme, A ¾® B ¾® C , if the rate of
formation of B is set to be zero then the concentration of B is
N0 N given by (2019 Main, 8 April II)
(a) (b) 0
N N æk ö
(a) k1k2[ A ] (b) çç 1 ÷÷[ A ]
t(h) t(h) è k2 ø
(c) (k1 - k2 )[ A ] (d) (k1 + k2 )[ A ]
N0 N0 8. For the reaction, 2 A + B ® C , the values of initial rate at
(c) (d)
N N different reactant concentrations are given in the table below.
The rate law for the reaction is (2019 Main, 8 April I)
t(h) t(h)
12
Nuclear Chemistry
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) Objective Questions II
1. Bombardment of aluminium by a-particle leads to its artificial (One or more than one correct option)
disintegration in two ways, (i) and (ii) as shown. Products X , Y 9. A plot of the number of neutrons (n) against the number of
and Z respectively, are (2011)
protons (p) of stable nuclei exhibits upward deviation from
27 (ii) 30 linearity for atomic number, Z > 20. For an unstable nucleus
13Al 15P +Y
having n/p ratio less than 1, the possible mode(s) of decay is
(i) (are) (2016 Adv.)
(a) b - - decay (b - emission) (b) orbital or K-electron capture
30 30 (c) neutron emission (d) b + -decay (positron emission)
14Si +X 14Si +Z
10. In the nuclear transmutation, 94 Be + X ¾¾® 84 Be + Y
(a) proton, neutron, positron (b) neutron, positron, proton X and Y are (2013 Adv.)
(c) proton, positron, neutron (d) positron, proton, neutron (a) (g , n) (b) ( p, D) (c) (n, D) (d) (g , p)
23
2. A positron is emitted from The ratio of the atomic mass
11 Na. 11. Decrease in atomic number is observed during (1998, 2M)
and atomic number of the resulting nuclide is (2007, 3M) (a) alpha emission (b) beta emission
(a) 22/10 (b) 22/11 (c) 23/10 (d) 23/12 (c) positron emission (d) electron capture
23
3. Na is the more stable isotope of Na. Find out the process by 12. The nuclear reactions accompanied with emission of neutron(s)
which 24
11 Na can undergo radioactive decay. (2003, 1M) are (1988, 1 M)
(a) b - -emission (b) a-emission (a) 27 4 30
(b) 12 1 13
13 Al + 2He ¾® 15P 6 C + 1H ¾® 7N
(c) b + -emission (d) K-electron capture 30 30 0 241 4 244
(c) 15 P ¾® 14Si + 1e (d) 96 Cm + 2He ¾® 97Bk + 01e
139
4. The number of neutrons accompanying the formation of 54 Xe
and 94
38 Sr from the absorption of a slow neutron by
235
92 U, Assertion and Reason
followed by nuclear fission is (1999, 2M)
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3 Read the following questions and answer as per the direction
27 29 given below:
5. 13 Al is a stable isotope. 13 Al is expected to decay by
(a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is
(a) a-emission (b) b-emission (1996, 1M)
the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) positron emission (d) proton emission
(b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is
6. The radiation from a naturally occurring radioactive substance, not the correct explanation of Statement I
as seen after deflection by a magnet in one direction, are
(c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false
(1984, 1M)
(a) definitely alpha rays (b) definitely beta rays (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true
(c) both alpha and beta rays (d) either alpha rays or beta rays 13. Statement I The plot of atomic number ( y-axis) versus number
of neutrons (x-axis) for stable nuclei shows a curvature towards
7. An isotope of Ge76
32 is (1984, 1M) x-axis from the line of 45° slope as the atomic number is
(a) Ge77
32 (b) As77
33 (c) Se77
34 (d) Se78
34 increased.
8. If uranium (mass number 238 and atomic number 92) emits an Statement II Proton-proton electrostatic repulsions begin to
a-particle, the product has mass number and atomic number overcome attractive forces involving protons and neutrons and
(1981, 1 M) neutrons in heavier nuclides. (2008)

(a) 236 and 92 (b) 234 and 90 14. Statement I Nuclide 30 40

13 Al is less stable than 20 Ca.
(c) 238 and 90 (d) 236 and 90 Statement II Nuclides having odd number of protons and
neutrons are generally unstable. (1998)
13
Surface Chemistry
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) (a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
1. Among the following, the incorrect statement about colloids (b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
is (2019 Main, 12 April II) (c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(a) They can scatter light (d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(b) They are larger than small molecules and have high molar mass 6. The number of water molecule(s) not coordinated to copper
(c) The osmotic pressure of a colloidal solution is of higher order ion directly in CuSO4 × 5H 2O, is (2019 Main, 9 April I)
than the true solution at the same concentration (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4
(d) The range of diameters of colloidal particles is between 1 and
1000 nm 7. The aerosol is a kind of colloid in which (2019 Main, 9 April I)
(a) gas is dispersed in liquid (b) gas is dispersed in solid
2. Peptisation is a (2019 Main, 12 April I) (c) liquid is dispersed in water (d) solid is dispersed in gas
(a) process of bringing colloidal molecule into solution
8. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm.
(b) process of converting precipitate into colloidal solution
x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent.
(c) process of converting a colloidal solution into precipitate
x x
(d) process of converting soluble particles to form colloidal solution The plot of log versus log p is shown in the given graph.
m m
3. The correct option among the following is is proportional to (2019 Main, 8 April I)
(2019 Main, 10 April II)
(a) colloidal medicines are more effective, because they have
small surface area.
(b) brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster if the viscosity x
log — 2
of the solution is very high. m
(c) addition of alum to water makes it unfit for drinking. 3
(d) colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by
electrophoresis. log p
4. A gas undergoes physical adsorption on a surface and (a) p 2/3
(b) p 3/ 2
(c) p3 (d) p2
follows the given Freundlich adsorption isotherm equation
x 9. Among the following, the false statement is
= Kp 0. 5 (2019 Main, 12 Jan II)
m (a) Tyndall effect can be used to distinguish between a colloidal
Adsorption of the gas increases with (2019 Main, 10 April I) solution and a true solution
(a) increase in p and increase in T (b) It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified
(b) increase in p and decrease in T sand carrying charge opposite to the one on clouds from an
(c) decrease in p and decrease in T aeroplane
(d) decrease in p and increase in T (c) Lyophilic sol can be coagulated by adding an electrolyte
5. Match the catalysts Column I with products Column II. (d) Latex is a colloidal solution of rubber particles which are
(2019 Main, 9 April I) positively charged
10. Given, Gas : H2 , CH4 , CO2 , SO2
Column I (Catalyst) Column II (Product)
(A) V2O5 (i) Polyethlyene Critical temperature/K 33 190 304 630
On the basis of data given above, predict which of the
(B) TiCl 4 / Al(Me)3 (ii) Ethanal
following gases shows least adsorption on a definite amount
(C) PbCl 2 (iii) H2SO4 of charcoal? (2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(D) Iron oxide (iv) NH3 (a) CH4 (b) SO2 (c) CO2 (d) H2
14
s-Block Elements
I. They activate many enzymes.
Topic 1 Group I Elements II. They participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP.
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option)
III. Along with sodium ions, they are responsible for the
1. The temporary hardness of a water sample is due to transmission of nerve signals.
compound X . Boiling this sample converts X to compound (a) I, and III only (b) I, II and III
Y . X and Y , respectively, are (2019 Main, 12 April II) (c) I and II only (d) III only
(a) Mg(HCO3 )2 and Mg(OH)2
(b) Ca(HCO3 )2 and Ca(OH)2
8. A metal on combustion in excess air forms X . X upon
(c) Mg(HCO3 )2 and MgCO3 hydrolysis with water yields H2 O2 and O2 along with another
(d) Ca(HCO3 )2 and CaO product. The metal is (2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(a) Li (b) Mg (c) Rb (d) Na
2. The incorrect statement is (2019 Main, 12 April II)
(a) lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals. 9. The hardness of a water sample (in terms of equivalents of
(b) lithium is least reactive with water among the alkali metals. CaCO3 ) containing is
(c) LiNO3 decomposes on heating to give LiNO2 and O2. (Molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol -1 ) (2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(d) LiCl crystallise from aqueous solution as LiCl × 2H2O. (a) 100 ppm (b) 10 ppm (c) 50 ppm (d) 90 ppm
3. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment with both 10. The hydride that is not electron deficient is
acid as well as base is (2019 Main, 12 April I) (2019 Main, 11 Jan II)
(a) magnesium (b) mercury (a) AlH3 (b) B2H6 (c) SiH4 (d) GaH3
(c) zinc (d) iron 11. The correct statements among (a) to (d) regarding H2 as a
4. The correct statements among (a) to (d) are: fuel are : (2019 Main, 11 Jan I)
(2019 Main, 8 April II)
1. Saline hydrides produce H2 gas when reacted with H2O. I. It produces less pollutants than petrol.
2. Reaction of LiAlH4 with BF3 leads to B2H6. II. A cylinder of compressed dihydrogen weights ~ 30 times
3. PH3 and CH4 are electron rich and electron precise more than a petrol tank producing the same amount of
hydrides, respectively. energy.
4. HF and CH4 are called as molecular hydrides. III. Dihydrogen is stored in tanks of metal alloys like NaNi 5 .
(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) (1), (2) and (3) only IV. On combustion, values of energy released per gram of
(c) (3) and (4) only (d) (1), (3) and (4) only liquid dihydrogen and LPG are 50 and 142 kJ,
5. The strength of 11.2 volume solution of H 2O2 is [Given that respectively.
(a) I, II and III only (b) II, III and IV only
molar mass of (c) II and IV only (d) I and III only
H = 1 g mol -1 and O = 16 g mol -1 ] (2019 Main, 8 April II) 12. NaH is an example of (2019 Main, 11 Jan I)
(a) 1.7% (b) 34% (c) 13.6% (d) 3.4% (a) metallic hydride (b) electron-rich hydride
6. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions (c) saline hydride (d) molecular hydride
is (2019 Main, 8 April I) 13. Sodium metal on dissolution in liquid ammonia gives a deep
(a) Li + > Na + > K + > Cs+ > Rb+ blue solution due to the formation of (2019 Main, 10 Jan II)
(b) Na + > Li + > K + > Rb+ > Cs+ (a) sodium ammonia complex (b) sodium ion-ammonia complex
(c) sodamide (d) ammoniated electrons
(c) Na + > Li + > K + > Cs+ > Rb+
(d) Li + > Na + > K + > Rb+ > Cs+ 14. The total number of isotopes of hydrogen and number of
radioactive isotopes among them, respectively, are
7. The correct statement(s) among I to III with respect to (2019 Main, 10 Jan I)
potassium ions that are abundant within the cell fluids is/are (a) 2 and 1 (b) 3 and 2 (c) 2 and 0 (d) 3 and 1
(2019 Main, 12 Jan II)
16
p-Block Elements-II

Topic 1 Elements and Compounds of Group 15 and 16

Objective Questions I (Only one correct option)
1. The correct statement among the following is 8. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas by the
(2019 Main, 12 April I) thermal decomposition is (2018 Main)
(a) (SiH3 )3 N is planar and less basic than (CH3 )3 N. (a) Ba(N3 )2 (b) (NH4 )2 Cr2O7
(b) (SiH3 )3 N is pyramidal and more basic than (CH3 )3N. (c) NH4NO2 (d) (NH4 )2 SO4
(c) (SiH3 )3 N is pyramidal and less basic than (CH3 )3 N. 9. The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in
(d) (SiH3 )3 N is planar and more basic than (CH3 )3 N. H3 PO2 , H3 PO4 , H3 PO3 and H4 P2 O6 is (2017 Adv.)

2. The number of pentagons in C60 and trigons (triangles) in (a) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6
white phosphorus, respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 April II) (b) H3PO4 > H4P2O6 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
(a) 20 and 3 (b) 12 and 4 (c) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 > H3PO4
(c) 20 and 4 (d) 12 and 3 (d) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4 > H4P2O6
3. The oxoacid of sulphur that does not contain bond between 10. The species in which the N-atom is in a state of
sulphur atoms is (2019 Main 10 April I) sp hybridisation is (2016 Main)
(a) H2S2O3 (b) H2S2O4 (a) NO-2 (b) NO-3
(c) H2S2O7 (d) H2S4O6 (c) NO2 (d) NO+2
4. The correct order of the oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, 11. The pair in which phosphorus atoms have a formal oxidation
NO2 , NO2 and N2 O3 is (2019 Main, 9 April I)
state of +3 is (2016 Main)
(a) NO2 < NO < N2O3 < N2O (b) N2O < NO < N2O3 < NO2 (a) pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
(c) O2 < N2O3 < NO < N2O (d) N2O < N2O3 < NO < NO2 (b) orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
5. The pair that contains two P¾ H bonds in each of the (c) pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids
oxoacids is (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (d) orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids
(a) H4P2O5 and H4P2O6 (b) H3PO3 and H3PO2 12. The product formed in the reaction of SOCl 2 with white
(c) H4P2O5 and H3PO3 (d) H3PO2 and H4P2O5
phosphorus is (2014 Adv.)
6. When the first electron gain enthalpy (De g H ) of oxygen is (a) PCl 3 (b) SO2Cl 2
(c) SCl 2 (d) POCl 3
- 141 kJ/ mol, its second electron gain enthalpy is
(2019 Main, 9 Jan II) 13. Which of the following properties is not shown by NO?
(a) a positive value (a) It is paramagnetic in liquid state (2014 Main)
(b) a more negative value than the first (b) It is a neutral oxide
(c) almost the same as that of the first (c) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
(d) negative, but less negative than the first (d) Its bond order is 2.5
7. Good reducing nature of H3 PO2 is attributed to the presence 14. Concentrated nitric acid upon long standing, turns
of (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) yellow-brown due to the formation of (2013 Main)
(a) two P¾ H bonds (b) one P¾ H bond (a) NO (b) NO2
(c) two P¾ OH bonds (d) one P ¾ OH bond (c) N 2O (d) N 2O4
17
Transition and
Inner-Transition Elements
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) KOH, O2
9 A ¾4¾ ¾¾ ¾® 2B + 2H 2O
(Green)
1. Thermal decomposition of a Mn compound (X ) at 513 K
4 HCl
results in compound (Y ), MnO2 and a gaseous product. MnO2 3B ¾ ¾¾® 2C + MnO2 + 2H 2O
reacts with NaCl and concentrated H2 SO4 to give a pungent (Purple)

gas Z. X , Y and Z, respectively, are (2019 Main, 12 April II) 2C ¾H¾

2O, KI
¾¾® 2 A + 2KOH + D
(a) K 3MnO4 , K 2MnO4 and Cl 2 (b) K 2MnO4 , KMnO4 and SO2
(c) KMnO4 , K 2MnO4 and Cl 2 (d) K 2MnO4 , KMnO4 and Cl 2 In the above sequence of reactions, A and D, respectively, are
(2019 Main, 11 Jan II)
2. The pair that has similar atomic radii is
(a) KI and KMnO4 (b) MnO2 and KIO3
(a) Mn and Re (b) Ti and Hf
(c) KI and K2MnO4 (d) KIO3 and MnO2
(c) Sc and Ni (d) Mo and W
10. The element that usually does not show variable oxidation
3. The correct order of the first ionisation enthalpies is
states is (2019 Main, 11 Jan I)
(2019 Main, 10 April II)
(a) Sc (b) Cu (c) Ti (d) V
(a) Mn < Ti < Zn < Ni (b) Ti < Mn < Zn < Ni
st
(c) Zn < Ni < Mn < Ti (d) Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn 11. The 71 electron of an element X with an atomic number of 71
4. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and enters into the orbital (2019 Main, 10 Jan II)

plutonium, respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 April II)

(a) 4 f (b) 6p (c) 5d (d) 6s
(a) 7 and 6 (b) 6 and 7 12. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series
(c) 6 and 4 (d) 4 and 6 of elements by and large means (2019 Main, 10 Jan I)
2+
5. Consider the hydrated ions of Ti , V , Ti 2+ 3+
and Sc . The 3+ (a) increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii
(b) decrease in both atomic and ionic radii
correct order of their spin-only magnetic moment is
(c) increase in both atomic and ionic radii
(2019 Main, 10 April I)
(d) decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii
3+ 3+ 2+ 2+
(a) Sc < Ti < Ti < V (b) Sc < Ti 3+ < V2+ < Ti 2+
3+
13. The transition element having least enthalpy of atomisation
(c) Ti 3+ < Ti 2+ < Sc3+ < V2+ (d) V2+ < Ti 2+ < Ti 3+ < Sc3+
is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II)
6. The maximum number of possible oxidation states of (a) Zn (b) V (c) Fe (d) Cu
actinoides are shown by (2019 Main, 9 April II)
14. In the following reactions, ZnO is respectively acting as a/an
(a) berkelium, (Bk) and californium (Cf) (2017 Main)
(b) nobelium (No) and lawrencium (Lr) (i) ZnO + Na 2O ¾® Na 2 ZnO2
(c) actinium (Ac) and thorium (Th) (ii) ZnO + CO2 ¾® ZnCO3
(d) neptunium (Np) and plutonium (Pu) (a) base and acid (b) base and base
7. The lanthanide ion that would show colour is (c) acid and acid (d) acid and base
(2019 Main, 8 April I) 15. Sodium salt of an organic acid ‘X ’ produces effervescence
3+ 3+
(a) Gd (b) Sm with conc. H2SO 4. ‘X ’ reacts with the acidified aqueous
(c) La 3+ (d) Lu3+ CaCl2 solution to give a white precipitate which
8. The correct order of atomic radii is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) decolourises acidic solution of KMnO 4. ‘X ’ is (2017 Main)
(a) Ho > N > Eu > Ce (b) N > Ce > Eu > Ho (a) C6H5COONa (b) HCOONa
(c) Eu > Ce > Ho > N (d) Ce > Eu > Ho > N (c) CH3COONa (d) Na 2C2O4
18
Coordination Compounds
Topic 1 Nomenclature and Isomerism of Coordination Compounds
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 6. The total number of isomers for a square planar complex
1. The coordination numbers of Co and Al in [CoCl(en)2 ]Cl and [M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(NO 2 )] is (2019 Main, 10 Jan I)
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 4 (d) 8
K 3 [Al(C2 O4 )3 ], respectively, are (en = ethane-1, 2-diamine)
(2019 Main, 12 April II) 7. The oxidation states of Cr, in [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Cl 3 , [Cr(C6 H6 )2 ],
(a) 5 and 3 (b) 3 and 3 (c) 6 and 6 (d) 5 and 6 and K 2 [Cr(CN)2 (O)2 (O2 )(NH3 )] respectively are
2. The species that can have a trans-isomer is (en = ethane -1, (2018 Main)
2-diamine, ox = oxalate) (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) +3, +4 and +6 (b) +3, +2 and +4
(a) [Pt(en)Cl 2 ] (b) [Cr(en)2 (ox)]+ (c) +3, 0 and +6 (d) +3, 0 and +4

(c) [Pt(en)2 Cl 2 ]2+ (d) [Zn(en)Cl 2 ] 8. Consider the following reaction and statements :
[Co(NH3 ) 4Br2 ]+ + Br - ¾® [Co(NH3 )3 Br3 ] + NH3
3. The maximum possible denticities of a ligand given below
towards a common transition and inner-transition metal ion, I. Two isomers are produces if the reactant complex ion is
respectively, are (2019 Main, 9 April II) a cis-isomer.
sooc coos II. Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is
a trans-isomer.
N N N
sooc
coos coos III. Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion
is a trans-isomer.
(a) 8 and 8 (b) 8 and 6 (c) 6 and 6 (d) 6 and 8 IV. Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion
4. The one that will show optical activity is (en = ethane-1, is a cis-isomer.
2-diamine) (2019 Main, 9 April I) The correct statements are (2018 Main)
A A (a) (I) and (II) (b) (I) and (III)
A B B B (c) (III) and (IV) (d) (II) and (IV)
(a) M (b) M
9. Which one of the following complexes shows optical
B A B B
isomerism? (2016 Main )
B A (a) cis [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]Cl (b) trans [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]Cl
A A (c) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl (d) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl 3 ]
A
(c) M en (d) en M en
10. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for square
B planar [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH3 )(NH2 OH)]+ is (py = pyridine).
(2015 Main)
B A (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
5. The following ligand is 11. Which of the following complex species is not expected to
NEt2 exhibit optical isomerism? (2013 Main)
N (a) [Co(en)3 ]3+ (b) [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]+
(c) [Co (NH3 )3Cl 3 ] (d) [Co(en)(NH3 )Cl 2 ]+
O– –
O 12. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex
[Co (H2 O)4 (NH3 )2 ]Cl 3 is (2012)
(2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) tetraaquadiaminecobalt (III) chloride
(a) hexadentate (b) tetradentate (b) tetraaquadiamminecobalt (III) chloride
(c) bidentate (d) tridentate
19
Extraction of Metals
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) (a) Only the reason is correct.
1. The correct statement is (b) Both the assertion and reason are correct explanation for the
assertion.
(a) leaching of bauxite using concentrated NaOH solution gives
sodium aluminate and sodium silicate. (2019 Main, 12 April II) (c) Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the
correct explanation for the assertion.
(b) the hall-heroult process is used for the production of
aluminium and iron. (d) Only the assertion is correct.
(c) pig iron is obtained from cast iron. 7. The ore that contains the metal in the form of fluoride is
(d) the blistered appearance of copper during the metallurgical (2019 Main, 9 April I)
process is due to the evolution of CO2. (a) magnetite (b) sphalerite (c) malachite (d) cryolite

2. The idea of froth floatation method came from a person X and 8. The Mond process is used for the (2019 Main, 8 April II)

this method is related to the process Y of ores. X and Y , (a) purification of Ni (b) extraction of Mo
respectively, are (2019 Main, 12 April I) (c) purification of Zr and Ti (d) extraction of Zn
(a) fisher woman and concentration 9. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the
(b) washer woman and concentration feasibility of its (2019 Main, 8 April I)
(c) fisher man and reduction (a) electrolysis (b) zone refining
(d) washer man and reduction (c) vapour phase refining (d) thermal reduction
3. The correct statement is (2019 Main, 10 April II) 10. The pair that does not require calcination is
(a) zone refining process is used for the refining of titanium. (2019 Main, 12 Jan II)
(b) zincite is a carbonate ore. (a) ZnO and MgO (b) ZnO and Fe2O3 × xH2O
(c) sodium cyanide cannot be used in the metallurgy of silver. (c) ZnCO3 and CaO (d) Fe2O3 and CaCO3 × MgCO3
(d) aniline is a froth stabiliser. 11. In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at the
4. Match the refining methods Column I with metals Column II. cathode. The cathode is made out of (2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(a) platinum (b) carbon
Column I Column II (c) pure aluminium (d) copper
(Refining Methods) (Metals)
12. The reaction that does not define calcination is
I. Liquation (A) Zr D
(a) Fe2O3 × XH2O ¾® Fe2O3 + XH2O (2019 Main, 11 Jan II)
II. Zone refining (B) Ni D
(b) ZnCO3 ¾® ZnO + CO2
III. Mond process (C) Sn D
(c) CaCO3 × MgCO3 ¾® CaO + MgO + 2CO2
IV. van Arkel method (D) Ga
D
(d) 2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾® 2Cu2O + 2SO2
(2019 Main, 10 April I)
(a) I- (C) ; II-(D); III-(B) ; IV-(A) 13. Match the ores ( Column A ) with the metals (Column B).
(b) I- (B) ; II-(C); III-(D) ; IV-(A)
(c) I- (C) ; II-(A); III-(B) ; IV-(D) Column A Column B
(d) I- (B) ; II-(D); III-(A) ; IV-(C) Ores Metals
5. The one that is not a carbonate ore is (2019 Main, 9 April II) A. Siderite P. Zinc
(a) siderite (b) calamine (c) malachite (d) bauxite B. Kaolinite Q. Copper
6. Assertion For the extraction of iron, haematite ore is used. C. Malachite R. Iron
Reason Heamatite is a carbonate ore of iron. D. Calamine S. Aluminium
(2019 Main, 9 April II)
(2019 Main, 11 Jan I)
29
Aromatic Compounds
Containing Nitrogen
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 3. Which of the following is not a correct method of the
preparation of benzylamine from cyanobenzene?
1. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with aniline in the (a) H 2 / Ni (2019 Main, 10 April II)
presence of dilute hydrochloric acid gives (2019 Main, 12 April II)
(b) (i) HCl/ H 2O (ii) NaBH 4
(c) (i) LiAlH 4 (ii) H3O+
(a) —NH2
(d) (i) SnCl2 + HCl(gas) (ii) NaBH 4
4. Aniline dissolved in dil. HCl is reacted with sodium nitrite
(b) —N==N — at 0°C. This solution was added dropwise to a solution
containing equimolar mixture of aniline and phenol in
H2N dil.HCl. The structure of the major product is
(2019 Main, 9 April I)
(c) —N==N— —NH2
(a) N N NH2

(d) —N==N—NH—
(b) N N O

2. The increasing order of the pK b of the following compound is N N

(c) OH
F
S
(A) (d) N N NH
N N

CH3O H H
S
5. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
(B)
NH2
N N (i) CHCl3/KOH
(ii) Pd/C/H2
O2N H H
S
(C) CN O (2019 Main, 8 April II)
N N
H H
NCH3 NCH3
H H
H 3C (a) (b)
S
(D)
N N CN O CN OH
H H (2019 Main, 12 April I) H H
NCHCl2 NCH3
(a) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)
(c) (d)
(b) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B)
(c) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
(d) (B) < (D) < (C) < (A) CN OH H 2N OH
462 Biomolecules and Chemistry in Everyday Life

18. NH2 H O H O
Cystine HO S COOH C1 C1
C S
H C2 OH HO C2 H
O NH2
COOH HO C3 H H C3 OH
Cysteine
HS
NH2 H C4 OH HO C4 H
NH2 Cytosine
O
N H C5 OH HO C5 H
Methionine S C
H 3C OH ,
O N 6CH2OH 6CH2OH
NH2 H D-glucose L-glucose

Thiol group (SH) is present in cysteine. So, b-L glucopyranose is formed as

H H
19. Vitamin B and C are water soluble while vitamin A,D,E and 5 5
O H O
K are fat soluble or water insoluble. HO 6 CH OH HO H
2 6
CH2OH
4 1C O 4 1
20. Quinoline is an alkaloid, it is not present in DNA. DNA has H OH H OH OH
H H H
four nitrogen bases in adenine, guanine, cytosine and
3 2 3 2
thymine. OH H OH H
21. 18 ATPs are involved in the formation of 1 glucose molecule b-L-glucopyranose
as shown in the reaction below : The a-L-glucopyranose has configurational change at C1 only and
6CO2 + 12NADPH + 18 ATP ¾® looks like
C6 H12 O6 + 12NADP + 18 ADP H
O
22. Here, the — OH of hemiacetal group is equatorial therefore, it HO CH2OH HO Configuration at
this carbon atom
1
is a b-pyranose of an aldohexose. H H OH H is opposite in a
and b-forms
23. The six-membered cyclic ether is known as pyranose while
OH H
the five membered cyclic ether is known as furanose. Hence,
a-L-glucopyranose
ring (a) is a pyranose and it has ether linkage at a-position
that is known as a-glycosidic linkage in carbohydrate
27. If there is inversion of specific rotation from (+ ) to (-), then invert
chemistry.
sugar is formed.
24. “a” and “b” cyclic hemiacetals of D-glucose having (a ) C12H22O11 + H2O ¾® Glucose
(+) Maltose D(+)
difference in configuration at C-1 only are called anomers. 52 °
140°
25. Both glucose and fructose are reducing sugars, reduces (b) C12H22O11 + H2O ¾® Glucose + Fructose
(+) Sucrose D(+) L(-)
Tollen’s reagent to metallic silver. + 66 ° 52 ° -92 °
-40 ° for 2 moles mixture
26. (d) A pyranose ring is a 6 membered ring having 5 carbon -20 ° for 1 mole mixture
atoms and one oxygen atom. In glucose, it is formed by the There is formation of invert sugar. Thus, correct.
reaction between >C=O group at position 1 and —OH group (c) Specific rotation of invert sugar is -20 ° per mole. Thus,
at 5th carbon atom. In general reaction between >C=O group correct.
and —C—OH looks like (d) Br2 water is a weak oxidising agent. It oxidises ¾ CHO to
¾ COOH. ¾ CH2OH group is not affected.
OH COOH CHO COOH
C O+ C OH C
O C ½ ½ Br water
½
(CHOH)4 ¬¾¾3¾ (CHOH)4 ¾¾¾® (CHOH)4
HNO 2

Carbonyl Alcoholic Hemiacetal or

group group Hemiketal ½ ½ ½
COOH CH2OH CH2OH
The product formed in called hemiacetal Saccharic acid Gluconic acid
(one of the products)
(if>C=O group belongs to an aldehyde) or hemiketal (if
>C=O group belongs to a ketone). L- glucose has the mirror HNO3 (a strong oxidising agent) oxidises invert sugar to
image configuration of D-glucose i.e., saccharic acid. Thus, incorrect.
33
Environmental Chemistry
Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 9. Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a
human being to protect our environment?
1. The primary pollutant that leads to photochemical smog is (2019 Main, 8 April I)
(2019 Main, 12 April II)
(a) Restricting the use of vehicles
(a) acrolein (b) nitrogen oxides
(b) Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities
(c) ozone (d) sulphur dioxide
(c) Setting up compost tin in gardens
2. The correct set of species responsible for the photochemical (d) Using plastic bags
smog is (2019 Main, 12 April I)
10. The upper stratosphere consisting of the ozone layer
(a) N2 , NO2 and hydrocarbons
protects us from the sun’s radiation that falls in the
(b) CO2 , NO2 , SO2 and hydrocarbons
wavelength region of (2019 Main, 12 Jan II)
(c) NO, NO2 , O3 and hydrocarbons
(a) 600 - 750 nm (b) 400 - 550 nm
(d) N2 , O2 , O3 and hydrocarbons (c) 0.8 - 15
. nm (d) 200 - 315 nm
3. Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is (2019 Main, 10 April II) 11. The compound that is not a common component of
(a) acid rain (b) oxidising smog photochemical smog is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II)
(c) fog (d) reducing smog
(a) CF2Cl 2 (b) H3 C ¾ C ¾ OONO2
4. The regions of the atmosphere, where clouds form and ½½
O
where we live, respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 April I)
(a) stratosphere and stratosphere (c) CH2 == CHCHO (d) O3
(b) troposphere and troposphere 12. Water samples with BOD values of 4 ppm and 18 ppm,
(c) troposphere and stratosphere respectively, are (2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(d) stratosphere and troposphere (a) clean and clean
5. The layer of atmosphere between 10 km to 50 km above the (b) highly polluted and clean
sea level is called as (2019 Main, 9 April II) (c) highly polluted and highly polluted
(a) stratosphere (b) mesosphere (d) clean and highly polluted
(c) thermosphere (d) troposphere
13. The molecule that has minimum/no role in the formation of
6. Excessive release of CO2 into the atmosphere results in photochemical smog, is (2019 Main, 12 Jan I)
(2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) N2 (b) CH2 == O
(a) formation of smog (b) depletion of ozone (c) NO (d) O3
(c) polar vortex (d) global warming
14. Taj Mahal is being slowly disfigured and discoloured. This
7. The maximum prescribed concentration of copper in is primarily due to (2019 Main, 11 Jan II)
drinking water is (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) water pollution (b) soil pollution
(a) 5 ppm (b) 0.5 ppm (c) global warming (d) acid rain
(c) 0.05 ppm (d) 3 ppm
15. The higher concentration of which gas in air can cause
8. Assertion (A) Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper stiffness of flower buds? (2019 Main, 11 Jan II)
stratosphere. (a) SO2 (b) CO
Reason (R) Ozone holes increase the amount of UV (c) CO2 (d) NO2
radiation reaching the earth. (2019 Main, 8 April I) 16. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), an eye irritant is produced by
(a) Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(2019 Main, 11 Jan I)
(b) Assertion and Reason are both correct and the Reason is the (a) organic waste
correct explanation for the Assertion. (b) acid rain
(c) Assertion and Reason are correct, but the Reason is not the (c) classical smog
explanation for the Assertion. (d) photochemical smog
(d) Assertion is false, but the Reason is correct.
472 Environmental Chemistry
The concentration range of dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold water sample of water. Clean water or drinking water has a BOD value
reaches upto 10 ppm, but that in normal water (at room < 5 ppm.
temperature) is within 5 ppm. So, water filled with A, BOD = 10 ppm is polluted and water
18. CH4 is not present in the stratosphere and also it cannot diffuse filled with B, BOD = 20 ppm, is also polluted. But, B is more
polluted than A.
or escape into the stratosphere like freon-12 (CF2Cl2) from the
atmosphere. 20. In clean air, rain water picks up some acidic oxides like CO 2 and
In the stratosphere, ozone layer depletion take place mainly by SO 2 (obtained from volcanic eruptions). These substance make
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) like CF2Cl2 and the mechanism of the rain slightly acidic (pH = 5.6 - 6).
ozone layer depletion can be shown as:
· · 21. According to EEC (European Environment Commission),
hn
(i) CF2Cl2(g ) ¾¾® C l(g ) + C F2Cl(g ) [Option, (d)] excess of NO -3 (> 50 ppm) in drinking water may lead to
· methemoglobinemia (‘Blue baby syndrome’). It also may cause
(ii) C l(g) + O3 (g ) ¾® ClO· (g ) + O2 stomach-cancer.
(iii) ClO· (g ) + O(g ) ¾® Cl· (g ) + O2 (g ) [Option (b)] 22. For drinking water, the maximum recommended levels of some
·
metals, set by European Environment Commission (EEC) is
(iv) C l(g ) + H2O(g ) ¾® HOCl(g ) + H· (g )
[Present in the
stratosphere] Metal Max. concentration in ppm
· Zn 5
hn
(v) HOCl(g ) ¾¾® OH(g ) + Cl· (g ) [Option (c)]
Mn 0.05
Þ One Cl· can destroy or deplete 105 O3 molecules.
Fe 0.2
As (i) reaction is involved in the formation of photochemical
smog, not in ozone layer depletion. So option (a) is correct. Cu 3

19. BOD is defined as the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to As the concentration of Mn in the given water sample is more
break down the organic matter present in a certain volume of a than the recommended concentration. Thus, it makes water
unsuitable for drinking.
 JEE ADVANCED
Solved Paper 2019
Paper 1
Section 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)
l This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
l Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
l For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
l Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : + 3 If ONLY the correct options is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen. (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : - 1 In all other cases.

1. The correct order of acid strength of the following 4. Molar conductivity (L m) of aqueous solution of sodium
carboxylic acids is stearate, which behaves as a strong electrolyte, is
O recorded at varying concentrations (C) of sodium
O OH stearate. Which one of the following plots provides the
I H II H correct representation of micelle formation in the
OH H solution?
O
III MeO IV H3C OH (critical micelle concentration (CMC) is marked with
OH an arrow in the figures)
O
(a) III > II > I > IV
(b) I > II > III > IV Lm
Lm CMC
(c) II > I > IV > III
(d) I > III > II > IV (a) (b)
CMC
2. The green colour produced in the borax bead test of a
chromium (III) salt is due to
(a) Cr 2 O 3 (b) CrB ÖC ÖC
(c) Cr(BO 2 )3 (d) Cr2 (B 4O 7 )3
3. Calamine, malachite, magnetite and cryolite,
respectively, are CMC
Lm Lm CMC
(a) ZnCO 3 , CuCO 3 , Fe 2O 3 , Na 3 AlF6 (c) (d)
(b) ZnSO 4 , CuCO 3 , Fe 2O 3 , AlF3
(c) ZnSO 4 , Cu(OH)2 , Fe 3O 4 , Na 3 AlF6
(d) ZnCO 3 , CuCO 3 × Cu(OH)2 , Fe 3O 4 , Na 3 AlF6
ÖC ÖC
14 JEE Advanced Solved Paper 2019
O O R, R isomer O
(5) (6) R, S isomer = 3 isomer
* * , S, S isomer C OMe
(i) LiAlH4
(2-chiral carbon) (IV) CH2OH
C OMe
Total number of isomers of cyclic ether with molecular CH2 ( Q)
formula, C4 H 8 O are 10. CH2OH
O
15. (a) (III) Kinetic energy of the electron in nth orbit, (ii) conc. H2SO4
Z2 + H2 O
Dehydration
K.E. = + 136 . ´ 2 O
n (R)
1
or K.E. µ 2 or K.E. µ n-2 Hence, correct match of IV is Q, R.
n
Hence, correct matching from list-I and list II on the basis of
From list-II, correct match is (III P).
given option is (IV), Q, R.
(IV) Potential energy of the electron in the nth orbit,
18. (a) O
Z2
P.E. = - 2 ´ 136. ´ 2
n CH2 C H
1 CN
P.E. µ 2 (I) (i) DIBAL–H
n O (ii) Dil. HCl OH
P.E. µ n-2 CH
O OH
From List II, correct match is (IV P). –H2O

Hence, correct matching from list-I and list-II on the basis of O

given option is (III, P).
CH2OH (iii) NaBH4 CH
16. (c) (I) Radius of the nth orbit, (reduction) H
(Q ) CH2 OH C
n2
r = 0.529 ´
Z O
Here, r µ n2 (iv) Conc. H2SO4
(dehydration)
From list-II, correct match is (I, T) O
(II) Angular momentum of the electron, (R)
nh Hence, correct match of (I) are (Q, R)
mvr = or mvr µ n
2p
O
From list-II, correct match (II, S)
Hence, correct matching from list-I and list-II on the basis of CH2 C H
(i) O3, (ii) Zn + H2O
given option is (I, T). (II) (Ozonolysis)
17. (b) COOH COOH
(S) (P)
(III) Cl (i) KCN CN
Nucleophilic (iii) NaBH4
substitution reaction
C OCH3 (Cl– replaces by CN– ion) C OCH3
(iv) Conc. H2SO4 CH2 OH
O O –H2O
O
C OH
CH3OH + COOH
(ii) H3O+ O
D (U) O
LiAlH4

C OH (Complete hydrolysis
(T ) Hence, correct match of II is (P , S ,U).
of —CN give —COOH
O and ester also get hydrolysed
into —COOH and alcohol ) Hence, correct matching from list-I and list-II on the basis of
CH2 CH2 OH given option is (II), P , S , U.
(iv) conc. H2SO4
H 2O +
D O
(Q) CH2 OH
(R)
Hence, correct match of (III) are T , Q, R.