ZOOM INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

Senior Secondary :: (Affiliated to CBSE, Delhi)

QUESTION BANK (1st Part)
(Session: – 2023-2024)
Class: – XII
Subject: – Biology (Code: –044)

Section–A
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs): (1 mark each)
1. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into
a) Endosperm b) Embryo c) Embryo-sac d) Ovule
2. Which of the following is like autogamy, but requires pollinators?
a) Geitonogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Apogamy d) Xenogamy
3. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by.
i. Seminal vesicle ii. Prostate gland iii. Urethra iv. Bulbourethral gland
a) i and ii b) i, ii and iv c) ii, iii and iv d) i and iv
4. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around:
a) 5 – 8 days of the menstrual cycle b) 11 – 17 days of the menstrual cycle
c) 18 – 23 days of the menstrual cycle d) 24 – 28 days of the menstrual cycle
5. Which of the following contains the actual genetic part of a sperm?
a) Whole of its b) Tail c) Middle piece d) Head
6. During the development of embryo, which of the following occurs first?
a) Differentiation of organ b) Differentiation of tissue
c) Differentiation of organ system d) Differentiation of cells
7. In the development of the human body, the ectoderm is responsible for the formation of
a) lens of the eye b) nervous system c) sweat glands d) all of these
8. Intense lactation in mothers acts as a natural contraceptive due to
a) Suppression of gonadotropins b) Hypersecretion of gonadotropins
c) Suppression of gametic transport d) Suppression of fertilization
9. An IUD recommended to promote the cervix hostility to the sperms is:
a) CuT b) Multiload 375 c) LNG-20 d) Cu 7
10. Identify the disease which is not a sexually transmitted disease:
a) Gonorrhoea b) Syphilis c) Amoebiasis d) Chlamydiasis
11. The autosomal disorder in humans is
a) Colour blindness b) Thalassemia c) Haemophilia d) Turner‟s syndrome
12. The cause of Klinefelter‟s syndrome in humans is:
a) Absence of Y-chromosome b) Absence of X-chromosome
c) Extra copy of an autosome d) Extra copy of an X-chromosome
13. Select the incorrect pair:
a) Polygenic inheritance: Haemophilia b) Linkage: Drosophila
c) Incomplete dominance: Antirrhinum d) Pleiotropy: Phenylketonuria
14. According to Mendel the nature of the unit factors that control the expression of traits were:
a) Stable b) Blending c) Stable and discrete d) Discrete
15. The number of different type of gametes that would be produced from a parent with genotype
AABBCc is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
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16. A DNA molecule is 160 base pairs long. If it has 20% adenine, how many cytosine bases are
present in this DNA molecule?
a) 48 b) 64 c) 96 d) 192
17. Choose the chromosome in humans that possesses least number of genes.
a) 21 b) Autosome c) X-chromosome d) Y-chromosome
18. In a bacterium where RNA polymerase binds to the promoter on a transcription unit during
transcription, it
a) Terminates the process b) Helps removes introns
c) Initiates the process d) Inactivates the exons
19. The correct feature of double helical structure of DNA as given by Watson and Crick is:
a) Right-handed helix, pitch is 3.4 nm b) Left-handed helix, pitch is 3.8nm
c) Right-handed helix, pitch is 3.8nm d) Left-handed helix, pitch is 3.4 nm
20. If E. coli were allowed to grow in the culture medium for 80 minutes by Matthew Meselson
and Franklin Stahl in their experiments, the proportion of light and hybrid density DNA
molecule would have been:
a) 87.5% of light density DNA and 12.5% of hybrid density DNA
b) 75.0% of light density DNA and 25% of hybrid density DNA
c) 50% of light density DNA and 50% of hybrid density DNA
d) 12.5% of light density DNA and 87.5% of hybrid density DNA
21. A person with sickle cell anaemia is
a) More prone to malaria b) More prone to typhoid
c) Less prone to malaria d) Less prone to typhoid
22. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further
infection is
a) Serotonin b) Colostrum c) Interferon d) Histamine
23. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified
a) Primary response b) Anamnestic response
c) Humoral immune response d) Immunity
24. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The
component causing this could be
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curamin d) Catechin
25. The common cold is caused by
a) Rhino viruses b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Salmonella typhimurium d) Plasmodium vivax
26. The first cellular form of life evolved
a) In air b) On land c) In water environment d) In deep soil
27. The hypothesis that “Life originated from non-living organic pre-existing molecules” was
proposed by
a) Oparin and Haldane b) Louis Pasteur c) S.L. Miller d) Hugo de Vries
28. The theory of evolution supported by the experiment conducted by Louis Pasteur is
a) Spontaneous generation theory b) Life comes only from pre-existing life
c) Abiogenesis of life d) Big bang theory
29. The factor that leads to founder effect in a population is
a) Genetic drift b) Natural selection
c) Genetic recombination d) Mutation
30. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by
a) Alfred Russel b) Ernst Haeckel
c) Karl Ernst Von Baer d) Charles Darwin

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31. Egg apparatus consists of
a) Egg and antipodals b) Polar nuclei
c) Egg d) Egg and synergids

32. A secondary sexual character is

a) Breast b) Ovary
c) Thyroid d) Pituitary

33. Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are

a) High fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate and a very young age distribution.
b) High infant mortality rate, low fertility, uneven population growth and very young age
distribution.
c) High mortality, high density, uneven population growth and a very old age distribution.
d) High fertility, rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and very young
age distribution.

34. Mendel‟s Law apply only when

a) Characters are linked
b) Parents are pure breeding
c) F1 monohybrid ratio shows two types of individuals
d) First pair contrasting character is dependent upon other pairs

35. During DNA replication the two strands separate by

a) DNA polymerase b) Topoisomerase
c) Unwindase d) Gyrase

36. Analogous structure are

a) Anatomically different but performing similar functions
b) Anatomically similar but performing different functions
c) Anatomically similar and functioning similarly
d) Anatomically different and functioning differently

Assertion Reasoning type questions: (1 mark each)

Question No. 1 to 14 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion: Several embryos are found on pressing the seed of citrus.

Reason: Citrus shows polyembryony due to apomixis.
Ans. a)
2. Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four megaspores.
Reason: Megaspore mother cell and megaspore are both haploid.
Ans. c)
3. Assertion: Urethra in human male act as a urinogenital canal.
Reason: Urethra carries only urine while sperms are carried by vasa deferentia only.
Ans. c)
4. Assertion: The region outside the seminiferous tubule is called interstitial spaces, which
contain Leydig‟s cells.
Reason: Leydig‟s cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgen.
Ans. b)

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5. Assertion: Very often persons suffering from STDs do not go for timely detection and proper
treatment.
Reason: Absence or less significant symptoms in the early stages of STDs and the social
stigma attached to the disease.
Ans. a)
6. Assertion: ZIFT is practised where oviducts are normal.
Reason: ET is practised in case of blockage of oviducts.
Ans. b)
7. Assertion: Accumulation of phenylalanine in the brain results in the mental retardation in
phenylketonuria.
Reason: The affected person lacks phenylalanine which is therefore not converted to
tyrosine.
Ans. c)
8. Assertion: XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of male heterogamety.
Reason: In birds, male heterogamety is observed as males produce two different types of
gametes.
Ans. c)
9. Assertion: Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are non-functional.
Reason: Methyl guanosine triphosphate is attached to 5 -end of mRNA.
Ans. b)
10. Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation may not even develop beyond the zygote stage.
Reason: All types of gene mutations are not lethal.
Ans. b)
11. Assertion: Ganja is obtained from Cannabis sativa/ hemp plant.
Reason: It is hallucinogenic, alters perception, causes illusion, and damages cardiovascular
system.
Ans. b)
12. Assertion: Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid organs.
Reason: It is the organs, to which matured lymphocytes migrate, interact with antigens, and
then proliferate to become effector cells.
Ans. c)
13. Assertion: Human ancestors never used their tails so that tail expression gene has
disappeared in them.
Reason: Lamarck‟s theory of evolution is popularly called theory of inheritance of acquired
characters.
Ans. d)
14. Assertion: Comparative biochemistry provides strong evidence in favour of common ancestry
of living beings.
Reason: Genetic code is universal.
Ans. b)
Section–B
Short Answer (SA) type questions: (2 marks each)
1. These pictures show the gynoecium of (a) Papaver and (b) Michelia flowers. Write the
difference in the structure of their ovaries.

(a) (b)
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 Ans. The gynoecium of Papaver is multicarpellary and syncarpous (pistils are fused
together); the ovary can be unilocular to multilocular. The gynoecium of Michelia is
multicarpellary and apocarpus (pistils are free) and the ovary are always unilocular.
2. A bilobed, dithecous anther has 100 microspore mother cells per microsporangium. How
many male gametophytes this anther can produce?
Ans. An anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia.
Each microsporangium has 100 microspore mother cells, so total number of microspores
mother cells in anther = 4 × 100 = 400 microspore mother cells. Meiosis in each microspore
mother cell produces 4 male gametes, so 400 cells will produce = 4 × 400 = 1600 male
gametes.
3. Name the male accessory glands in humans and write their functions.
Ans. Paired seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands (paired). Functions-
Secretions constitute the seminal plasma, which is rich in fructose/calcium and certain
enzymes, lubrication of penis.
4. Mention the relationship between concentration of luteinizing hormone and maintenance of
endometrium in the human uterus.
Ans. LH surge formation of corpus luteum progesterone, maintain the growth of
endometrium.
5. Explain the significance of meiocytes in a diploid organism.
Ans. Meiocytes are specialized cells present in sexually reproducing organisms. They
undergo meiotic division to produce male and female gametes that carry only one set of
chromosomes and thus help in maintaining the chromosomal number of the organism.
6. What is the significance of epididymis in male fertility?
Ans. Epididymis is a tightly coiled tube that holds the testicles in place. It helps sperm in
attaining maturity, acquiring increased motility, and fertilising capacity. It also stores sperms
for a short period before entering the vas deferens.
7. a) Mention the problems that are taken care of by Reproduction and Child Health Care
programme.
b) What is amniocentesis and why there is a statutory ban on it?
Ans. a) Uncontrolled population growth, social evils like sex abuse, sex related crimes, STDs.
b) Foetal sex determination tests based on chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid, to
study chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus.
Banned to illegally check female foeticide.
8. List the four major causes of increasing population in our country that you would like to speak
on your fellow students.
Ans. 1. The rapid decline in the death rate.
2. The decline in maternal mortality rate.
3. The decline in infant mortality rate (IMR).
4. Increase in the number of people in reproductive age.

9. Explain co-dominance with the help of one example.

Ans. Co-dominance is a form of dominance wherein the alleles of a gene pair in a
heterozygous condition are fully expressed. This results in offspring with a phenotype that is
neither dominant nor recessive. A typical example showing co-dominance is the ABO blood
group system. For instance, a person having A allele and B allele will have a blood type AB
because both the A and B alleles are codominant with each other. Here neither of the two A
or B allele is completely recessive or completely dominant.
10. What happens when chromatids fail to segregate during cell division cycle? Explain your
answer with an example.

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 Ans. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss
of chromosome called aneuploidy- Down‟s syndrome results in the gain or extra copy of
chromosome 21 or Turner‟s syndrome results due to loss of one of the X- chromosomes in
human female.
11. Name the scientists and write how did they explain Mendel‟s laws after the chromosomes
were discovered?
Ans. Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
This theory states that individual genes are found at specific locations on chromosomes, and
that the behaviour of chromosomes during meiosis can explain why genes are inherited
according to Mendel's laws.
12. State the Mendelian principle which can be derived from a dihybrid cross and not from
monohybrid cross.
Ans. Law of Independent Assortment states that in a dihybrid cross (cross containing two
traits) each trait separates independently of each other without mixing. The two traits remain
independent of each other.
In gene interaction, this law is violated and genes at different loci interfere with each other.

13. Carefully examine structures A and B of pentose sugar given below. Which one of the two is
more reactive? Give reasons.

Ans. A is more reactive. 2 -OH group present in the pentose sugar makes it more labile/
catalytic and easily degradable.
14. A small stretch of DNA that codes for a polypeptide is given below
3'--- --- --- --- CAT CAT AGA TGA AAC--- --- --- --- 5'
a) Which type of mutation could have occurred in each type resulting in the following
mistakes during replication of the above original sequence?
i. 3 … … … …CAT CAT AGA TGA ATC… … …5
ii. 3 … … … …CAT ATA GAT GAA AC… … … 5
b) How many amino acids will be translated in each of the above two cases?
Ans. a) i. point mutation/ single base substitution
ii. point mutation/ single base deletion
b) i. 4 amino acids ii. 4 amino acids

15. Fill in the blanks provided

Amino acid Phe Val
DNA Code in Gene AAA CAC
Codon in mRNA (i) (ii)
Anticodon in tRNA (iii) (iv)
Ans. (i)UUU (ii)GUG (iii)AAA (iv)CAC
16. A polypeptide consists of 14 different amino acids.
a) How many base pairs must be there in the processed mRNA that codes for this polypeptide?
b) How many different types of tRNA are needed for the synthesis of this polypeptide?
Ans. a) A polypeptide containing 14 different amino acid = 14x3=42 base pairs.
b) 14 different types of RNA are needed for the synthesis of polypeptide.

17. Differentiate between opioids and cannabinoids based on them

a) Specific receptor site in human body.
b) Mode of action in human body.
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 Ans.
Opioids Cannabinoids
a) Specific receptor site in Receptors of opioids are Receptors are in the brain only.
human body. in the GI tract and CNS.

b) Mode of action in Act as depressant and Affects the cardiovascular

human body. slows down the body system of the body.
functions.
18. List two diseases that spread through inhaling droplets or aerosols. Write one prominent
symptom for each one of them.
Ans. Diseases that spread through inhaling droplets or aerosols are Diphtheria and common
cold.
Symptoms of Diphtheria- Sore throat and swollen lymph nodes.
Symptoms of common cold- Nasal congestion and sneezing.
19. Name one air-borne and a water borne disease in humans. List one specific symptom for
each one of them.
Ans. Tuberculosis. Symptom- pain and difficulty in breathing/coughing.
Typhoid. Symptom- loose motion and watery stool.
20. Differentiate between the roles of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in generating immune
responses.
Ans. Role of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in the immune response:
(a) B-cells (B-lymphocytes) and T-cells (T lymphocytes) comprising the immune system are
produced in the bone marrow. T-cells differentiate in the thymus.
(b) B-lymphocytes produce antibodies in response to foreign substances (antigens) such as
pathogens and pollen. Antibodies are immunoglobulins. They are specific for each antigen.
There is more than one antibody for an antigen. Antibodies bind antigens but do not destroy
them. This is attacked through other mechanisms. Allergens which are weak antigens cause
allergy.
(c) T-cells respond to pathogens by producing three types of cells: killer T-cells, helper T-cell and
suppressor T-cells. T lymphocytes either help B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies or kill the
pathogen directly (killer T-cells). Both B- and T-cells produce memory cells when stimulated.
These have long lives and form the basis of acquired immunity.
21. a) Name the source plant of heroin drug. How is it obtained from the plant?
b) Write the effects of heroin on the human body.
Ans. a) Papaver somniferum/ Poppy plant. Extracted from latex of the plant/acetylation of
morphine.
b) Depressant, slows down body function.
22. With the help of an algebraic expression, how did Hardy-Weinberg explain that in each
population the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is supposed to remain the same
through generation.
Ans. Hardy-Weinberg equation states that the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is
constant. The gene pool remains constant. The total sum of allelic frequencies is 1.
Let the individual frequencies be p, q of alleles A and a respectively.
Then the frequency of AA is square of p. Similarly, for aa it is square of q and for Aa it is
2pq. Hence p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. It is the binomial expansion for (p+q)2 = 1. Any change in this
equation signifies evolution.
23. How would the gene flow or genetic drift affect the population in which either of them
happens to take place?
Ans. If gene migration happens multiple times, it is known as Gene flow.

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 If the same change occurs by chance, it is called Genetic drift. Gene flow and genetic drift
affect the population by charging the allelic frequency in both the old and new populations
that become a different species.
24. Write the technical term that describes each one of the following statements with reference to
their evolution:
a) Microbes developing resistance to antibiotics in a much lesser time scale.
b) Resemblance of varieties of placental mammals to corresponding marsupials in Australia.
Ans. a) Evolution by anthropogenic action i.e., by human activities.
b) Adaptive radiation (convergent evolution).
25. Is sweet potato analogous or homologous to potato tuber? Give reasons to support your
answer.
Ans. Analogous, sweet potato-root modification, potato tubers - stem modification. They are
structurally different but both are functionally similar, as they both store food.

Section–C
Long Answer (LA-I) type questions: (3 marks each)
1. Explain three different modes of pollination that occur in a chasmogamous flower.
Ans. (i) Autogamy- It is a type of self-pollination where the transfer of pollen grains from the
anther to the stigma takes place within the same flower.
(ii) Geitonogamy- Geitonogamy is the type of self-pollinations where the transfer of pollen
grains from the anther to the stigma takes place between different flowers in the same plant.
(iii) Xenogamy-Xenogamy is the cross-pollination where the pollen grain transfer occurs
across the flowers of two different plants. In other words, the transfer of pollen from the
anther of one plant to the stigma of another plant.
2. Explain double fertilization in an angiosperm.
Ans. It is a characteristic feature of flowering plants. In this process, out of the two sperm
nuclei, one sperm nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus to form an embryo (syngamy) and
other fuses with the secondary nucleus to form an endosperm (triple fusion). Because two
kinds of fusion- syngamy and triple fusion- take place, the process is known as double
fertilization.
3. Where are the following structures present in a male gametophyte of an angiosperm?
Mention the function of each one of them. a) Germ pore b) Sporopollenin c) Generative cell
Ans. a) Germ pore- Pollen grain exine, site from where pollen tube emerges.
b) Sporopollenin- Exine of pollen grains protects the pollen grains from high temperature/
strong acids and alkali/enzymes/adverse conditions.
c) Generative cell- Pollen grains, give rise to two male gametes.
4. Name the stage of the human embryo at which it gets implanted. Explain the process of
implantation.
Ans. The embryo gets implanted at blastocyst stage. The trophoblast gets attached to the
endometrium uterine wall of mother by a process called implantation and the inner mass of
cells gets differentiated as embryo. After attachment the uterine cells divide rapidly and cover
the blastocyst. As a result, the blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the uterus.
5. Study the transverse section of human ovary given below and answer the questions that
follow:

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a) Name the hormone that helps in the growth of ABC.
b) Name the hormone secreted by A and B.
c) State the role of hormone produced by D.
Ans. a) FSH and LH.
b) Estrogen.
c) Maintenance of uterine endometrium.
6. Draw a labelled diagram to show interrelationship of four necessary ducts in a human male
reproductive system.
Ans. The male accessory ducts (vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, and rete testis)
serve to store spermatozoa and to transport them outside urethra during ejaculation.

Fig: The male accessory ducts

7. Explain the events in a normal woman during her menstrual cycle on the following days:
a) Pituitary hormone levels from 8 to 12 days.
b) Uterine events from 13 to 15 days.
c) Ovarian events from 16 to 23 days.
Ans. a) FSH and LH levels- low.
b) Endometrium is highly vascularised, proliferative phase of uterine lining.
c) Formation of corpus luteum, secretion of progesterone.
8. a) Explain the mode of action of Cu++ releasing IUDs as a good contraceptive. How is
hormone releasing IUD different from it?
b) Why is „Saheli‟ a preferred contraceptive by women (any two reasons)?
Ans. a) The copper IUD's primary mechanism of action is to prevent fertilization. Copper acts
as a spermicide within the uterus. The presence of copper increases the levels of copper
ions, prostaglandins, and white blood cells within the uterine and tubal fluids. Intra-Uterine
Device is inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through the vagina. These Intra
Uterine Devices are presently available as the non-mediated IUDs, copper-releasing IUDs
(CuT) and the hormone-releasing IUDs. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the
uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of
sperms. The hormone-releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for
implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
b) 1. The use of “Saheli” pills inhibits the processes of ovulation as well as implantation.
2. Women can prevent an untimely or unplanned pregnancy when they use these pills.
9. Write three basic facts that are highlighted in Mendel‟s law of Dominance.
Ans. The three basic facts that are highlighted in Mendel's Law of Dominance are:
(i) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
(ii) Factors occur only in pairs.

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 (iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair would dominate (dominant) the other
member of the pair (recessive).
10. When Morgan conducted dihybrid cross on Drosophila like Mendel did with pea plants, the
ratios deviated significantly from that Mendel‟s F2 ratio. Write the explanation, Morgan and his
group gave to the observations they obtained from their experiment.
Ans. When two genes in a dihybrid cross were located on the same chromosome they did
not segregate independently. The proportion of parental gene combinations were much
higher than non-parental combinations / recombinants. Physical association of two genes
was termed linkage.

11. Work out monohybrid cross up to F1 by taking a suitable example to show the following
phenotypes. (i) F1 represents only one of the parents. (ii) F1 with both the parental
characteristics.
Ans.

(ii) In Humans - Inheritance of blood

12. Certain phenotypes in human population are spread over a gradient and reflect the
contribution of more than two genes. Mention the term used for the type of inheritance?
Describe it with the help of an example in human population.
Ans. Polygenic inheritance
• If we assume skin colour is controlled by three genes A, B, C
• Dominant forms (A, B, C) are responsible for dark skin colour and recessive form (a, b, c)
for light skin colour.
• The genotype with all dominant alleles (AABBCC) will be darkest skin colour and with
recessive alleles will be lightest skin colour (aabbcc).
• The genotypes (AaBbCc) will be of intermediate skin colour i.e., with three dominant alleles
and three recessive alleles.
13. a) What do „Y‟ and „B‟ stand for in „YAC‟ and „BAC‟ used in HGP. Mention their role in the
project.
b) Write the percentage of the total human genome that codes for proteins and the
percentage of discovered genes whose functions are known as observed during HGP.
c) Expand „SNPs‟ identified by scientists in HGP.
Ans. a) In Human Genome Project (HGP), „YAC‟ Y stands for Yeast and in „BAC‟ B stands
for bacteria. These are used as a vector for cloning foreign DNA.

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 b) The percentage of the total human genome that codes for proteins are less than 2%. The
percentage of discovered genes whose functions are known is more than 50%.
c) „SNPs‟ stands for Single Nucleotide Polymorphism in HGP.
14. a) Mention two events in which DNA is unzipped.
b) Predict the consequences when both the template and the coding strands of DNA
segment participate in transcription process?
Ans. a) Replication and Transcription.
b) If both the stands take part in transcription, one segment of DNA would be coding for two
different proteins which will complicate the genetic information machinery. Two RNA
molecules will be produced, complementary to each other, hence form a double-stranded
RNA.
15. Explain the post transcriptional modifications the hn-RNA undergoes in eukaryotic cell.
Ans. a) Splicing, Introns are removed exons are joined.
b) Capping, Methyl guanosine triphosphate, is added to the 5 end of hn RNA.
c) Tailing, Polyadenylate residues are added to 3 - end in a template independent manner.
16. In a typical nucleus, some regions of chromatin are stained light and others dark. Explain why
is it so and what is its significance?
Ans. Euchromatin is lightly stained, diffused but narrow fibrous part of chromatin. It is normal
chromatin which possesses active genes. It is transcriptionally active. During nuclear division
it replicates normally. It is formed through loose spiralization of nucleosome strands.
Heterochromatin is darkly stained granular part of chromatin and is formed by solenoid type
of coiling of nucleosomes. Transcription does not occur in it. Active genes are absent in it.
17. A doctor prescribed morphine as a sedative and pain killer to your cousin who had
undergone a surgery. Even after recovery, he indiscriminately took the medicines and later
craved for the same. What do you conclude about his condition? What measures will you
suggest to him to overcome this problem? Briefly explain any two.
Ans. Drug dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and
unpleasant withdrawal syndrome if the regular dose of drugs is abruptly discontinued,
because of perceived benefits, drugs are frequently used repeatedly from which the person
may not be able to get out.
Measures:(any 2)
 Education and counselling-to face problems and stresses/to channelize the energy into
healthy pursuits like reading, music, yoga, and other extracurricular activities.
 Seeking help from parents-to guide the person appropriately and immediately.
 Seeking professional and medical help-to help the person to get rid of the problem completely
with sufficient efforts and will power.
18. Explain the following with reference to drug/alcohol abuse:
a) Addiction b) dependence and c) withdrawal syndrome
Ans. a) Addiction - frequent use of drug/ alcohol leads to increase in level of tolerance of
receptors present in our body, thus making these receptors respond to only higher doses of
drugs.
b) Dependence - Due to inherent addictive nature / its psychological attachment to drugs /
alcohol and are unable to live without them.
c) Withdrawal syndrome - When a person is taking drugs / alcohol regulatory and the intake
of drugs is abruptly discontinued it leads to various characteristic symptoms.
19. The outline structure of a drug is given below:
a) Which group of drugs does this represent?
b) What are the modes of consumption of these drugs?
c) Name the organ of the body which is affected by the consumption of this drug.

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 Ans. a) Cannabinoids.
b) By smoking or oral ingestion.
c) Cannabinoids generally affect the cardiovascular system of the body.
20. a) Write the scientific names of the causative agent a vector of malaria, and write its
symptoms.
b) Name any two diseases spread by Aedes sp.
Ans. a) Plasmodium vivax, P. malaria and P. falciparum are causative agents of malaria.
Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector of malaria. Symptoms include chill and high fever
recurring every three to four days.
b) Dengue, Chikungunya.

21.

a) State the hypothesis which S.L. Miller tried to prove in the laboratory with the help of the
set up given above.
b) Name the organic compound observed by him in the liquid water at the end of his
experiment.
c) A scientist simulated a similar set up and added CH4, NH3 and water vapour at 800℃.
Mention the important component that is missing in his experiment?
Ans. a) Chemical evolution – First form of life originated from pre-existing non-living organic
molecules.
b) Amino acids.
c) H2.
22. Refer the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) Explain the process by which Tasmanian wolf evolved.

b) Name the process that has resulted in evolution of wolf and Tasmanian wolf.
c) Compare and contrast the two animals shown.
Ans. a) Adaptive radiation - The process of evolution of different species in each
geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography
(habitats).
b) Convergent evolution.
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 c) Wolf is a placental mammal, whereas Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial mammal.
23. Describe the experiment that helped Louis Pasteur to dismiss the theory of spontaneous
generation of life.
Ans. Two pre sterilised flasks with killed yeast, one sealed, other open to air, differential
growth of life in two flasks/life was found
only in open flask. The following diagram
can be considered in lieu of above
explanation life comes from pre-existing life
(it came from air entering the flask)/proved
the theory of biogenesis.

Experiment of Louis Pasteur:

(i) He took two pre-sterilised flasks containing nutrient broth killed Yeast.
(ii) One flask was left open and the other was sealed.
(iii) After sometime, the flask which was left open showed new live organisms while in air tight
flask no new life originated.
(iv) Appearance of life even after sterilisation concluded that life in the flask arose form pre-
existing life, thus it discarded the theory of spontaneous origin of life.
24. According to Darwinian theory of natural selection, the rate of appearance of new forms is
linked to the life cycle or the life span of an organism. Explain with the help of an example.
Ans. The variations, indirectly the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle
or the life span. The individuals which have a short lifespan will show a high degree of
variation over a fixed period (even days in case of microbes) in comparison to the individuals
with a long-life cycle of life span. In the case of microbes, which could multiply and become
millions of individuals within hours and in due course of time, this variant population outgrows
the others and appears as a new species within few days. The same event in fish or fowl
would take millions of years as the life span of these animals are in years.
25. Compare and contrast the theories of evolution proposed by Darwin and Hugo De Vries.
Ans.

S.No. Darwin’s Theory of Natural De Vries Theory of Mutation

Selection
1. Minor variations cause evolution. Mutation causes evolution.
2. Darwinian variations are small and Mutations are random and directionless.
directional.
3. Evolution is gradual. Sudden mutations cause evolution.

Section–D
Case-Based type questions: (4 marks each)
1. A typical anther is bilobed. It is a tetragonal structure consisting of four microsporangia.
These microsporangia form pollen sac which on maturity gets filled with pollen grains. Pollen
grains represents the male gametophytes, their cell wall is very hard. Pollen grains of many
species cause severe allergies which cause various diseases in human beings.
a) Name a species which is a major cause of pollen allergy in India. Mention the symptoms
caused by it.
b) What is the study of pollen grain known as?
c) Mention the location of prominent pollen grain aperture. Mention its function.
OR
Name the wall layers of microsporangium. Mention the function of the innermost layer.
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Ans. a) Parthenium which is also known as carrot grass, is a major cause of pollen allergy in India.
It may lead to allergic respiratory problems, contact dermatitis, etc in animals and humans.
b) Study of pollen grains is called palynology.
c) Exine is the outer most layer of pollen, made up of sporopollenin. The prominent pollen grain
aperture called germ pore, through which pollen tube ooze out.
OR
The epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum. The tapetum nourishes the developing
pollen grains.

2. Female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries, a duct system, uterus, cervix, and
vagina. Ovary is the primary female sex organ.
a) What is the lower narrow end of uterus called?
b) In human females where the ova are produced?
c) Name the peritoneal covering of the ovary. Mention the layers of the uterus as well.
OR
Name the female sex hormones which are responsible for development of secondary female sex
characters.
Ans. a) Cervix
b) Ovary
c) Mesovarium. Peritoneum, myometrium, endometrium are the layers of the uterus.
OR
Oestrogen, progesterone.

3. In surgical methods of contraception, the ducts conducting gametes are blocked by cutting
and tying their end cuts.
a) Name the technique used in case of male and female.
OR
Mention the significance of injectable contraceptives.
b) Describe the above-mentioned technique of surgical methods.
c) Mention the side effects of these techniques.
Ans. a) Vasectomy and Tubectomy.
OR
Injectable contraceptives are progestin preparations which are taken as injections at intervals of 1-
3 months for effective contraception.
b) Vasectomy –The two vasa deferentia are cut and the cut ends are tied.
Tubectomy- The two oviducts are cut and the cut ends are tied.
c) Nausea, abdominal pain, breakthrough bleeding, irregular menstrual bleeding and even breast
cancer.
4. When experiments on peas were repeated using other traits in other plants, it was found that
sometimes the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents and was in
between the two.
a) What was the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation, when heterozygous (Rr) plant was selfed?
b) Which plant shows incomplete inheritance?
c) What was the genotype and the phenotype of F1 generation, when homozygous dominant plant
(RR) and homozygous recessive plants(rr) were crossed?
OR
When does incomplete dominance occurs?
Ans. a) 1:2:1
b) Antirrhinum sp.
c) Genotype-Rr, phenotype-pink
OR
Incomplete dominance occurs when phenotype of both alleles is partially expressed.
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5. RNA was the first genetic material. There is now enough evidence to suggest that essential life
process evolved around RNA.
a) Name the more reactive nucleic acid.
b) Give one evidence suggesting that RNA used to be the genetic material rather than DNA.
c) Give two examples of RNA acting as a catalyst.
OR
“DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that makes it more stable.” What is the
chemical modification referred here?
Ans. a) RNA is more reactive, due to the presence of 2 -OH.
b) The RNA is more ancient that DNA. The major life processes machinery evolved around DNA.
c) tRNA and rRNA
OR
DNA contains deoxy ribose sugar and thymine base.

6. The data below shows the concentration of nicotine smoked by a smoker taking 10 puffs/
minute.

a) With reference to the above graph explain the concentration of nicotine in blood at 10 minutes.
b) How will this affect the concentration of carbon monoxide and haem bound oxygen at 10 minutes?
c) How does cigarette smoking result in high blood pressure and increase in heart rate?
OR
How does cigarette smoking result in lung cancer and emphysema?
Ans. a) Concentration of nicotine is maximum at 10 minutes/ conc. of nicotine increases steadily
in the blood to reach 45mg/cm3.
b) The Concentration of CO will increase resulting in reduced concentration of haem bound oxygen.
c) Nicotine results in stimulating the adrenal gland which results in release of adrenaline / nor -
adrenaline in the blood resulting in increase of blood pressure and heart rate.
OR
Chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke are the major cause of lung cancer.
The cigarette smoke irritates the air passages of the lungs causing them to produce mucus which
causes cough resulting in enlarging air spaces/ reduce surface area/lose their elasticity (any point
can be mentioned) thus difficulty in breathing causing emphysema.
7. A species is distributed over a wide region. The residents of edges of this population have
acclimatised to the climatic conditions of the areas.
a) What type of natural selection operates at the edges of the population?
b) What does a species have with a wide range of distribution?
c) How do bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics being developed one after the other?
OR
What does artificial selection produce in large numbers?
Ans. a) Disruptive selection
b) Ecotypes.
c) By forming preadaptation present in few members. Formation of new colony from the few
resistant forms. Develop enzymes to metabolise the antibiotics.
OR
Breeds, varieties, and cultivars.
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 Section–E
Long Answer-II (LA-II) type questions: (5 marks each)
1. Where does the process of megasporogenesis start in an angiosperm? Describe the process up
to the formation of embryo sac.
Ans. Nucleus/Ovules.
A single MMC/ megaspore mother cell differentiates in the micropylar region of the nucleus, MMC
undergoes meiosis, to produce
four (haploid) megaspores, one
of the megaspores functional,
the nucleus of functional
megaspore undergoes free
nuclear division, to form 2
nucleate- 4 nucleate-8 nucleate
embryo sac, cell wall formation
occurs in six of 8 nuclei, two
polar nuclei occur in the large
central cell to form 8 nucleate
and 7 celled embryo- sac.

2. a) Where does microsporogenesis occur in an angiosperm? Describe the process of

microsporogenesis.
b) Draw a labelled diagram of the two-celled male gametophyte of an angiosperm. How is the
three-celled male gametophyte different from it?
Ans. a) The process of formation of microspores or pollen grains from microspore or pollen
mother cell (MMC or PMC) by meiosis is called microsporogenesis. It takes place in pollen sacs or
microsporangia of each anther lobe. The cells of sporogenous tissue of microsporangium
functions as potential MMC/PMC in the anther. They undergo meiosis and as a result form four
microspores or pollen grains arranged in tetrads. The pollen grains separate from the tetrads and
give rise to two celled male gametophytes while still in situ. In most angiosperms, the pollen is
released from the anther at two celled stages while in some at 3 – celled stage as the generative
cell divides to form 2 male gametes.
b) Structure of 2 celled gametophytes:

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Difference between 2- celled gametophyte and 3-celled gametophyte:
In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at the 2- celled stage. In others, the
generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes before pollen grains are
shed (3-celled stage).
3. Trace the events from copulation to zygote formation in a human female.
Ans. i) During copulation (coitus) semen is released by the penis into the vagina (insemination).
ii) The motile sperms swim rapidly, pass through the cervix, enter the uterus, and finally reach the
ampullary region of the fallopian tube.
iii) The ovum released by the ovary is also transported to the ampullary region where fertilization
takes place.
iv) Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region. This is the reason why not all copulations lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
v) The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation.
vi) During fertilisation, a sperm encounters the zona pellucida layer of the ovum and induces
changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms. Thus, it ensures that only one
sperm can fertilise an ovum.
vii) The secretions of the acrosome help the sperm enter the cytoplasm of the ovum through the
zona pellucida and the plasma membrane.
viii) This induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte.
ix) The second meiotic division is also unequal and results in the formation of a second polar body
and a haploid ovum (ootid).
x) Soon the haploid nucleus of the sperms and that of the ovum fuse together to form a diploid
zygote.

4.

a) Identify the parts labelled 1,2,3 in the diagram given.

b) Draw a labelled diagram of a human blastocyst.
c) What is parturition and how is it induced at the end of pregnancy in a human female?
Ans. a) 1. Placenta villi 2. Umbilical cord 3. Embryo.
b) Human blastocyst

c) Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy causes delivery of the foetus by the
process known as parturition. It is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals
originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which induces uterine contractions
known as foetal ejection reflex. This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary which
acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions, that in turn stimulates further
secretion of oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex continues causing stronger contractions which leads
to the expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal known as parturition.
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5. a) List any two reasons other than physical and congenital disorders for causing infertility in
couples.
b) Explain how IVF as a technique helped childless couples in having children.
c) Compare GIFT with ICSI.
Ans. a) Reasons for infertility
(i) Sexually transmitted infections
(ii) Steroid drug abuse
b) IVF – Fertilization outside the body in test tube is called invitro fertilization. In such a method,
ova are collected from female and sperms are collected from male. Both sperm and ovum are
fused in stimulated conditions in laboratory to form a zygote. Zygote or embryo up to 8 celled
stages are transferred into fallopian tube known as ZIFT whereas embryo more than 8 celled
stage are transferred into uterus called IUT.
c)
GIFT ICSI

1. In vivo fertilization occurs. 1. In vitro fertilization occurs.

2. Sperms naturally reach up to ovum and
penetrate with ovum.
3. Usually used when female can provide
suitable environment but cannot produce
viable ova.
2. Sperms are injected within ovum
artificially by microneedle.
3. Usually used when male partner suffers
from low production of sperms or non-motile
sperm production.

6. a) Write the scientific name of the organism Thomas Hunt Morgan and his colleagues worked
with for their experiments the correlation between linkage and recombination with respect to genes
as studied by them.
b) How did Sturtevant explain gene mapping while working with Morgan?
Ans. a) Thomas Hunt Morgan and his colleagues worked with Drosophila melanogaster for their
experiments.
They observed that the proportion of parental gene combinations were much higher than the non-
parental type in two genes in a dihybrid cross which are situated on the same chromosome.
Morgan attributed this due to the physical association or linkage of the two genes and coined the
term linkage to describe this physical association of genes on a chromosome and the term
recombination to describe the generation of non-parental gene combinations. Even when genes
were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were very tightly linked (showed very low
recombination) while others were loosely linked (showed higher recombination).
b) While working with Morgan, Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and „mapped‟
their position on the chromosome, thus explaining gene mapping.

7. A normal couple has a colour-blind child, whereas a child suffering from thalassemia is born to
normal parents. Compare the pattern of inheritance of these two traits in the said cases. State the
reasons how is it possible.
Ans. This is because colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder whereas thalassemia is
an autosome linked recessive. Colour blindness: Red-green colour blindness means that a
person cannot distinguish shades of red and green (usually blue-green), but their ability to see is
normal. There are no serious complications; however, those affected may not be considered for
certain occupations involving transportation or the Armed Forces where colour recognition is
required. Males are affected more often than females, because the gene is located on the X
chromosome.

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Thalassemia: Thalassemia is an autosomal recessively inherited disorder transmitted to the
offspring when both the parents are heterozygous or careers for the disease Alpha Thalassemia is
controlled by two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 located on chromosome 16 beta
Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB located on chromosome 11.

8. a) Write any two different levels at which regulation of gene expression could be exerted in
eukaryotes.
b) Give a labelled schematic representation of “lac operon” in its “Switched off” position.
Ans. a) Transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript).
1) Processing level (regulation of splicing).
2) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm.
3) Translational level.
b) “Lac operon” in its “Switched off” position.

9. a) A DNA segment has a total of 1000 nucleotides, out of which 240 of them are adenine
containing nucleotides. How many pyrimidines bases this DNA segment possess?
b) Draw a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of DNA segment to support your answer.
Ans. a) A = T, A = 240 hence, T = 240
A + T = 240 + 240 = 480
so, G + C = 1000 - 480 = 520 G = C,
so, C = 520/2 = 260
so, pyrimidines = C + T = 260 + 240 = 500
Purine A and G always pair with T and C respectively.
A/G = T/C = 1 (Chargaff rule).

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b)

10. a) How and at what stage does Plasmodium enter a human body?
b) With the help of a flow chart only shows the stages of asexual reproduction in the life cycle of
the parasite in the infected human.
c) Why does the victim show symptoms of high fever?
Ans. a) Sporozoite stage enters human body along with saliva of female Anopheles mosquito as it
bites to suck blood.
b) Asexual phases of the life history of plasmodium in the body of a human:

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c) When the parasite attacks red blood cells, it leads to its rupture with the release of haemozoin,
which is a toxin. As the haemozoin is released into blood, symptoms (high fever) of malaria
appear.
11. A youth in his twenties met with an accident and succumbed to the injuries. His parents agreed
to donate his organs. List any two essential clinical steps to be undertaken before any organ
transplant. Why is the transplant rejected sometimes? What views would you share with your
health club members to promote organ donation?
Ans. Organ transplantation involves the removal of damaged/injured tissues or organs from the
body of a person and their substitution by similar tissues/organs from a donor. Tissue matching,
blood group matching are essential clinical steps before undertaking any graft/transplant.
Transplantation may result in the rejection of transplanted organs as the immune system
recognises the protein in the transplanted tissue or organs as foreign and initiates cellular
immunity. We should raise and promote awareness about organ donation, about need of organ
and tissue donors. There are lakhs of people waiting for organ donation and many people die daily
while waiting for transplant. Organs and tissues from one donor can save up to 40-50% lives. So,
we should encourage and get registered for organ donation to save many lives.
12. Name the cells HIV attacks first, when it enters a human body. How does this virus replicate
further to cause immunodeficiency in the body?
Ans. The HIV virus attacks the macrophages first in human body. The further replication of virus
causes immuno deficiency in the following way
 RNA is replicated to form viral DNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
 Viral DNA gets incorporated into the host cell‟s DNA and directs the infected cells to produce
viruses.
 Macrophages continue to produce virus particles and function as HIV factories.
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 The virus particles enter helper T-lymphocytes in the blood, where they continue to replicate
and produce viral progenies.
 The number of helper T-lymphocytes progressively decreases in the body of the infected
person.
 With the decrease in number of T-cells, the immunity also decreases. The person is unable to
produce any immune response even against common bacteria like Mycobacterium, parasites
like Toxoplasma, viruses, and fungi.
13. a) How do the observations made during moth collection in pre- and post – industrialised era in
England support evolution by natural selection?
b) Explain the phenomenon that is well represented by Darwin‟s finches other than natural
selection.
Ans. a) Industrial melanism:
▪ In England, before industrialisation, white-winged moths were more in number than dark-winged
moths.
▪ But after industrialisation, dark-winged moths became more in number than white winged moths.
▪ This is because during industrialisation, the tree trunks covered by white lichens became dark
due to deposition of dust and coal particles.
▪ As a result, white-winged moths could be easily picked up by predators from the dark background
and dark-winged moths survived.
b) The process of evolution of different species in each geographical area starting from a point,
radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive radiation. Finches evolved in the
same island from original seed eating features. Many other altered beaks arose enabling them to
became insectivorous and vegetarian finches.

14. We are told that evolution is a continuing phenomenon for all living beings. Are human beings
also evolving?
Ans. Some scientists have been studying this aspect of human evolution and have come with
interesting observations that suggest evolution is indeed taking place in modern humans. Some of
the observations are as follows:
Human evolution has accelerated since the discovery of farming about 10,000 years ago. There is
a substantial genetic difference between hunter-gatherers and current humans.
The human reproductive period has prolonged than it was 10,000 years ago. Earlier, the average
life expectancy of human beings was about 30 years which is now more than double.
Lactase persistence into adulthood is another sign of human evolution. All other mammals develop
lactose intolerance because young ones are weaned away from mother's milk after a certain age.
Unlike humans; other mammals do not have the facility to consume other mammal milk. But
human beings consume milk throughout their life because they get it from domesticated animals.
Humans have also developed resistance to many infectious diseases. This is another sign of
evolution.
However, the evolution of modern humans cannot happen through geographical isolation because
modern means of transport have blurred geographical boundaries. But evolution can happen
because of genetic drift.

15. a) Rearrange the following in the correct order of their appearance on earth between two
million years and 40,000 years back.
Neanderthals, Australopithecus, Homo erectus, and Homo habilis.
b) Which one of the above
i) had the largest brain size.
ii) ate fruits.
c) State what does the study of fossils indicate.
d) Rearrange the following group of plants according to their evolution from Palaeozoic to
Cenozoic periods.
Rhynia; Arborescent lycopods; Conifers; Dicotyledons.
Ans. a) The correct sequence of their appearance is Australopithecus → Neanderthals→ Homo
erectus→ Homo habilis.
22
b) i) The brain sizes were as follows:
1. Neanderthals - 1400 cc
2. Australopithecus - 466 cc
3. Homo erectus - 900 cc
4. Homo habilis - 650−800 cc
So, Neanderthals had the largest brain size.
ii) Two million years ago, Australopithecus probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence
shows they hunted with stone weapons and ate fruits.
c) They are evidence of evolution and they represent extinct. The life forms varied over time and
certain life forms were restricted to certain geological time spans.
d) Rhynia ⇒Arborescent Lycopods ⇒ Conifers ⇒ Dicotyledon.

*****

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