LWBK615-exam[346-364].

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Comprehensive Examination

Directions: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by
answers or by completions of the statement. Select the ONE lettered answer or completion that
is BEST in each case.

1. Which of the following statements 4. The centroacinar cells of the pancreas

concerning ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis secrete
is true? (A) an alkaline enzyme-poor fluid.
(A) RNA synthesis does not require deoxyri- (B) pancreatic digestive enzymes.
bonucleic acid to act as a template. (C) secretin.
(B) Syntheses of ribosomal RNA, messenger (D) cholecystokinin.
RNA, and transfer RNA are all catalyzed (E) glucagon.
by the same RNA polymerase.
(C) To yield messenger ribonucleoproteins, 5. The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex
introns are excised, whereas exons are synthesizes and secretes
spliced together. (A) mineralocorticoids.
(D) Protein moieties are removed from (B) glucagon.
messenger ribonucleoproteins within (C) epinephrine.
the nucleolus, yielding functional mes- (D) aldosterone.
senger RNAs to exit via the nuclear (E) glucocorticoids.
pores.
(E) The start codon for RNA synthesis is UAG. 6. Which of the following statements about
bony joints is true?
2. Which of the following factors is primarily
(A) Long bones are generally united by
responsible for causing osteoporosis in older
synarthroses.
women?
(B) Diarthroses are classified as synovial
(A) Decreased bone formation joints.
(B) Lack of physical exercise (C) Type A cells of the synovial membrane
(C) Diminished estrogen secretion secrete synovial fluid.
(D) Calcium deficiency (D) Type B cells of the synovial membrane
(E) Increased bone formation are phagocytic.
(E) Synarthroses are usually surrounded by
3. Which of the following bases that make a two-layered capsule.
up deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic
acid (RNA) is unique to RNA? 7. All of the following characteristics can be
(A) Thymine used to distinguish neutrophils and
(B) Adenine basophils histologically except one. Which
(C) Cytosine one is the exception?
(D) Guanine (A) Size of specific granules
(E) Uracil (B) Shape of the nucleus
(C) Number of azurophilic granules
(D) The presence or absence of peroxidase
(E) The presence of mitochondria

346
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8. A long-time user of chewing tobacco
noticed several whitish, thick, painless
patches on the lining of his cheeks. The
most probable diagnosis is
(A) aphthous ulcers.
(B) adenocarcinoma.
(C) keloids.
(D) oral leukoplakia.
(E) epidermolysis bullosa.
9. Primordial follicles of the ovary possess
(A) a layer of cuboidal follicular cells.
(B) an oocyte arrested in prophase of
meiosis I.
(C) an oocyte arrested in metaphase of
meiosis II.
(D) well-defined thecae interna and externa.
(E) a thick zona pellucida.
10. All of the following statements regarding
the membranous labyrinth of the inner
ear are true except for one. Which is that
exception?
(A) It contains the saccule and utricle.
(B) Maculae contain neuroepithelial cells,
which possess numerous stereocilia and
a single kinocilium.
(C) Cristae ampullares in the semicircular
canals detect angular acceleration of the
head.
(D) The otolithic membrane contains small
calcified particles.
(E) It contains the vestibular membrane.
11. Which of the following statements con-
cerning euchromatin is true?
(A) It constitutes about 90% of the
chromatin.
(B) It appears as basophilic clumps of
nucleoprotein when seen under the light
microscope.
(C) It is concentrated near the periphery of
the nucleus.
(D) It is transcriptionally active.
(E) It is transcriptionally inactive.
12. Intercalated disks function in which one
of the following?
(A) End-to-end attachments of smooth
muscle cells
(B) Intercellular movement of large proteins
(C) Ionic coupling of cardiac muscle cells
(D) Storage of Ca2
(E) Release of neurotransmitters
Comprehensive Examination 347
13. Release of thyroid hormones from the
follicular cells of the thyroid gland depends
on thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH
stimulation involves
(A) binding of TSH to receptors on the
apical plasma membrane.
(B) formation of apical microvilli.
(C) exocytosis of colloid droplets.
(D) change in cell shape from flattened to
columnar.
(E) secretion of lysosomes from the basal
cell surface.
14. Which one of the following statements
about the development of the tooth crown is
true?
(A) The enamel organ is derived from
ectomesenchyme (neural crest).
(B) The dental papilla is derived from the
epithelium.
(C) The four-layer enamel organ appears
during the cap stage.
(D) Dentin and enamel are formed during
the appositional stage.
(E) Cementum is formed at the same time
as enamel.
15. Which one of the following statements
concerning liver sinusoids is true?
(A) Their lining includes Ito cells (fat-storing
cells).
(B) They receive bile from the hepatocytes.
(C) They are lined by nonfenestrated
endothelial cells.
(D) The space of Disse is located between
sinusoidal cells and hepatocytes.
(E) Sinusoids convey blood from the central
vein to the portal vein.
16. A young college student had nausea,
vomiting, visual disorders, and muscular
paralysis after eating canned tuna fish. The
probable diagnosis is botulism, caused by
ingestion of the Clostridium botulinum toxin.
The physiological effect of this toxin is to
(A) inactivate acetylcholinesterase.
(B) bind to and thus inactivate acetylcholine
receptors at myoneural junctions.
(C) prevent release of calcium ions from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum, thus inhibiting
muscle contraction.
(D) inhibit release of acetylcholine from
presynaptic membranes.
(E) inhibit hydrolysis of adenosine triphos-
phate during the contraction cycle.
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348 BRS Cell Biology and Histology

17. Which of the following statements about 21. Which one of the following components
nucleosomes is true? is present in muscular arteries but absent
(A) Histones form the nucleosome core from elastic arteries?
around which the double helix deoxyri- (A) Fenestrated membranes
bonucleic acid is wound. (B) Vasa vasorum
(B) Nucleosomes without histones form the (C) Factor VIII
structural unit of the chromosome. (D) A thick, complete internal elastic lamina
(C) Nucleosomes are composed of (E) Smooth muscle cells
ribonucleic acid (RNA) molecules and
two copies each of four different histones. 22. Which one of the following statements
(D) Histone H1 forms the core of the concerning the pancreas is true?
nucleosome. (A) Islets of Langerhans secrete enzymes.
(E) Nucleosomes are linked together with (B) It possesses mucous acinar cells.
RNA. (C) The endocrine pancreas has more
-cells than -cells.
18. A high school student complains (D) Its -cells secrete insulin.
of fatigue and a sore throat. She has (E) Its -cells secrete amylase.
swollen, tender lymph nodes and a fever.
Blood test results show an increased white 23. Which one of the following stimulates
blood cell count with many atypical the production of hydrochloric acid in the
lymphocytes; the number and appearance stomach?
of the erythrocytes are normal. This student
(A) Somatostatin
is likely to have
(B) Gastrin
(A) AIDS. (C) Secretin
(B) pernicious anemia. (D) Cholecystokinin
(C) infectious mononucleosis. (E) Urogastrone
(D) Hodgkin disease.
(E) factor VIII deficiency. 24. A deficiency or an excess of which of the
following vitamins results in short stature?
19. Which one of the following statements
about the gallbladder is true? (A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(A) The gallbladder dilutes bile.
(C) Vitamin D
(B) Bile enters the gallbladder via the com-
(D) Vitamin K
mon bile duct.
(E) Vitamin B
(C) Bile leaves the gallbladder via the cystic
duct. 25. The intercellular spaces in the stratum
(D) The gallbladder is lined by a simple spinosum of the epidermis contain lipid-
squamous epithelium. containing sheets that are impermeable to
(E) Secretin stimulates the wall of the water. This material is released from
gallbladder to contract, forcing bile from
(A) keratohyalin granules.
its lumen.
(B) Langerhans cells.
20. Which one of the following statements (C) membrane-coating granules.
concerning mitochondria is true? (D) sebaceous glands.
(E) melanosomes.
(A) They change from the orthodox to the
condensed form in response to the uncou- 26. Which of the following statements con-
pling of oxidation from phosphorylation. cerning basophilic erythroblasts is true?
(B) They are unable to divide.
(A) The nucleus has a fine chromatin
(C) They possess the enzymes of the Krebs
network.
cycle in their cristae.
(B) The nucleus is in the process of being
(D) They contain elementary particles in
extruded.
their matrix.
(C) The cytoplasm contains specific granules.
(E) They do not contain deoxyribonucleic
(D) The cytoplasm is pink and reveals a
acid.
dense reticulum.
(E) The nucleus is bilobed.
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Comprehensive Examination 349

27. The ileum includes which of the follow- 32. Which of the following properties is
ing structures? exhibited in all three types of cartilage?
(A) Rugae (A) It is involved in bone formation.
(B) Peyer patches (B) It possesses type II collagen.
(C) Brunner glands (C) It possesses type I collagen.
(D) Parietal cells (D) It grows interstitially and appositionally.
(E) Chief cells (E) It has an identifiable perichondrium.

28. A 25-year-old woman complains about a 33. Which of the following is a receptor for
frequently recurring painful lesion on her fine touch?
upper lip that exudes a clear fluid. She prob-
(A) Pacinian corpuscle
ably has
(B) Crista ampullaris
(A) oral leukoplakia. (C) Ruffini ending
(B) herpetic stomatitis. (D) Krause end bulb
(C) aphthous ulcer. (E) Meissner corpuscle
(D) bullous pemphigoid.
(E) malignant melanoma. 34. A premature infant has labored breath-
ing, which is eventually alleviated by admin-
29. Which of the following statements istration of glucocorticoids. The most proba-
concerning the functions of the skin is ble diagnosis is
true?
(A) immotile cilia syndrome.
(A) Infrared radiation, necessary for synthe- (B) emphysema.
sis of vitamin D, is absorbed by the skin. (C) hyaline membrane disease.
(B) The skin provides no protection against (D) asthma.
desiccation. (E) chronic bronchitis.
(C) The skin contains temperature receptors
and plays a role in regulating body tem- 35. Which of the following statements con-
perature. cerning the cribriform plate is true?
(D) Melanin is synthesized by melanocytes,
(A) It is the inner layer of the alveolar bone.
which are located in the dermis.
(B) It lacks Sharpey fibers.
(E) Sunscreen with a sun protection factor
(C) It is also known as the spongiosa.
rating of 15 or higher protects the skin
(D) It is composed of cancellous bone.
from harmful effects caused by ultravio-
(E) Normally it is fused with cementum
let light.
36. Which one of the following substances is
30. A person with glomerulonephritis will
synthesized in the pituitary gland?
have which of the following signs or
symptoms? (A) Oxytocin
(B) Antidiuretic hormone
(A) Hypotonic urine
(C) Somatotropin
(B) Polyuria
(D) Neurophysin
(C) Proteinuria
(E) Vasopressin
(D) Dehydration
(E) Polydipsia
37. Which one of the following is true in breast
cancer cells that involve the BRCA1 gene?
31. Stratified squamous keratinized epithe-
lium is always present in the (A) Mutated cells are unable to divide
because of increased expression of the
(A) rectum.
BRCA1 gene.
(B) esophagus.
(B) Mutated cells fail to reach the G1-S
(C) pyloric stomach.
checkpoint.
(D) jejunum.
(C) Mutated cells have an abnormal number
(E) anus.
of endosomes.
(D) Mutated cells lose their G2-M cell cycle
checkpoint.
(E) Mutated cells become haploid due to the
interaction of the BRCA1 and p53 genes.
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350 BRS Cell Biology and Histology

The following clinical consideration is the
basis of questions 38 to 40.
A 42-year-old man arrives in the emergency
department with a rash over much of his face,
hands, and arms. He states that he was gar-
dening and pulled out a number of weeds.
On questioning the patient, the physician
realized that the patient inadvertently came
in contact with poison ivy.
38. Which of the following cells is responsi-
ble for the release of the pharmacological
agents that caused the rash?
(A) Diffuse neuroendocrine system cells
(B) Myofibroblasts
(C) Mast cells
(D) Pericytes
(E) Plasma cells
42. Lisa is small and thin in stature. She
spends her days indoors and rarely eats
dairy products. When she became pregnant
at 25 years of age, she had severe lower back
and leg pain and tenderness when pressure
was applied over bony regions of her body.
Radiographs revealed excessive amounts of
poorly mineralized osteoid in both femurs.
Beneficial treatment of her condition
involved high doses of vitamin D, calcium,
and phosphorus, a regimen that continued
after successful delivery of her baby. Which
of the following describes Lisa’s disease?
(A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Osteopetrosis
(E) Osteopenia

39. Which of the following is a secondary 43. Michael had visual problems within a
mediator produced by the cell in question 38? day after being hit in the head with a ball
(A) Histamine during a soccer game. He saw large floaters
(B) Chondroitin sulfate and noticed that a dark film was blocking
(C) Neutral protease part of the vision in his right eye. An exami-
(D) Bradykinin nation by an ophthalmologist revealed that
(E) Aryl sulfatase he had a detached retina, and emergency
surgery was done to save the vision in that
40. Which of the following white blood cells eye. Which of the following retinal layers
can also participate in the reaction of this were separated from one another to cause
patient to poison ivy? Michael’s condition?
(A) T cells (A) Layer 1 from layer 2
(B) B cells (B) Layer 2 from layer 3
(C) Neutrophils (C) Layer 3 from layer 4
(D) Basophils (D) Layer 5 from layer 6
(E) Eosinophils (E) Layer 6 from layer 7

41. A 26-year-old woman goes to the dentist 44. Blood coagulation entails a cascade of
because of a toothache. On examination, the reactions that occur in two interrelated
dentist notes that the patient has a carious pathways, the extrinsic and intrinsic. All of
lesion that involves not only the enamel but the following are associated with the
also the dentin and the cementum of the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation
tooth. Which of these substances cannot except
repair itself?
(A) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
(A) Dentin (B) platelet aggregation.
(B) Enamel (C) release of tissue thromboplastin.
(C) Cementum (D) von Willebrand factor.
(D) Dentin and cementum (E) calcium.
(E) Dentin, cementum, and enamel
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Comprehensive Examination 351

45. A scientist spent a summer in a remote 49. Which of the following is a multi-
region of Africa, where he studied exotic functional protein that attaches
plants. On returning to the United States, chondrocytes to type II collagen?
he developed a cough and fever that would (A) Laminin
not go away. Laboratory tests revealed that (B) Plasma fibronectin
he had contracted a roundworm, Ascaris (C) Osteonectin
lumbricoides. Which of the following cells (D) Matrix fibronectin
would be expected to be significantly (E) Chondronectin
elevated in a differential count of his
blood? 50. Which of the following cells in the
(A) Erythrocytes connective tissue is an antibody-
(B) Lymphocytes manufacturing cell?
(C) Monocytes (A) Pericytes
(D) Eosinophils (B) Macrophages
(E) Neutrophils (C) T lymphocytes
(D) Plasma cells
46. A 45-year-old musician who played (E) Mast cells
guitar for 26 years in a rock band noticed
he was having difficulty hearing. An 51. Principal phagocytes of connective
otolaryngologist confirmed his loss of tissue are the
hearing and associated it with prolonged
(A) pericytes.
exposure to loud sounds. Which of the
(B) macrophages.
following structures would show degenera-
(C) T lymphocytes.
tive changes that would account for this
(D) plasma cells.
man’s hearing loss?
(E) mast cells.
(A) The epithelium lining the inner portion
of the tympanic membrane 52. Cells in the connective tissue that can
(B) Hair cells in the ampullae of the semicir- bind immunoglobulin E antibodies and
cular ducts mediate immediate hypersensitivity
(C) The auditory (eustachian) tube extend- reactions are
ing to the middle ear cavity
(A) pericytes.
(D) Hair cells of the organ of Corti
(B) macrophages.
(E) Ossicles in the middle ear
(C) T lymphocytes.
(D) plasma cells.
47. Which of the following is a protein circu-
(E) mast cells.
lating in the blood that functions in wound
healing?
53. Connective tissue cells responsible for
(A) Chondronectin initiating cell-mediated immune responses
(B) Plasma fibronectin are
(C) Osteonectin
(A) pericytes.
(D) Matrix fibronectin
(B) macrophages.
(E) Laminin
(C) T lymphocytes.
(D) plasma cells.
48. Which of the following is an adhesive
(E) mast cells.
glycoprotein that forms fibrils in the
extracellular matrix?
54. Pluripotential cells located primarily
(A) Chondronectin along capillaries in the connective tissue are
(B) Plasma fibronectin
(A) pericytes.
(C) Osteonectin
(B) macrophages.
(D) Matrix fibronectin
(C) T lymphocytes.
(E) Laminin
(D) plasma cells.
(E) mast cells.
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352 BRS Cell Biology and Histology

55. Which of the following functions in acti- 61. Which of the following is a surface
vation of secondary messenger systems? marker on T helper cells?
(A) Phospholipid (A) CD4
(B) Glycocalyx (B) CD8
(C) Carrier protein (C) Interleukin 1
(D) Band 3 protein (D) Interleukin 2
(E) G protein (E) Perforin

56. Which of the following is primarily 62. Which of the following mediates lysis of
responsible for establishing the potential tumor cells?
difference across the plasma membrane? (A) CD4
(A) K leak channel (B) CD8
(B) Glycocalyx (C) Interleukin 1
(C) Carrier protein (D) Interleukin 2
(D) Band 3 protein (E) Perforin
(E) G protein
63. Which of the following is released by
57. Which of the following is an macrophages and stimulates activated T
amphipathic molecule? helper cells?
(A) Phospholipid (A) CD4
(B) Glycocalyx (B) CD8
(C) Carrier protein (C) Interleukin 1
(D) Band 3 protein (D) Interleukin 2
(E) G protein (E) Interferon-

58. Which of the following is a 64. Which of the following stimulates activa-
carbohydrate-containing covering tion of natural killer cells?
associated with the outer leaflet of the (A) CD4
plasma membrane? (B) Interferon-
(A) Phospholipid (C) Interleukin 1
(B) Glycocalyx (D) Interleukin 2
(C) Carrier protein (E) Perforin
(D) Band 3 protein
(E) G protein 65. Identify the cells that replicate their
deoxyribonucleic acid during the S phase of
59. Which of the following functions in the cell cycle and undergo meiosis.
antiport transport? (A) Sertoli cells
(A) Phospholipid (B) Primary spermatocytes
(B) Glycocalyx (C) Secondary spermatocytes
(C) Carrier protein (D) Interstitial cells of Leydig
(D) Band 3 protein (E) Spermatids
(E) G protein
66. Identify the cells that form a temporary
60. Which of the following is a surface cylinder of microtubules called the
marker on T killer cells (CTL)? manchette.
(A) CD4 (A) Sertoli cells
(B) CD8 (B) Primary spermatocytes
(C) Interleukin 1 (C) Secondary spermatocytes
(D) Interleukin 2 (D) Interstitial cells of Leydig
(E) Perforin (E) Spermatids
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Comprehensive Examination 353

67. Identify the cells that possess receptors 73. Which of the following organelles
for luteinizing hormone (LH) and produce contains adenosine triphosphate synthase?
testosterone in response to binding of LH. (A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(A) Sertoli cells (B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Primary spermatocytes (C) Mitochondrion
(C) Secondary spermatocytes (D) Annulate lamellae
(D) Interstitial cells of Leydig (E) Lysosome
(E) Spermatids
74. Which of the following stimulates
68. Identify the cells that are responsible for secretion of pepsinogen?
formation of the blood-testis barrier. (A) Gastrin
(A) Sertoli cells (B) Somatostatin
(B) Primary spermatocytes (C) Motilin
(C) Secondary spermatocytes (D) Pepsinogen
(D) Interstitial cells of Leydig (E) Lysozyme
(E) Spermatids
75. Which of the following is produced by
69. Identify the cells that synthesize Brunner glands and inhibits hydrochloric
androgen-binding protein when stimulated acid secretion by parietal cells?
by follicle-stimulating hormone. (A) Gastrin
(A) Sertoli cells (B) Somatostatin
(B) Primary spermatocytes (C) Urogastrone
(C) Secondary spermatocytes (D) Pepsinogen
(D) Interstitial cells of Leydig (E) Lysozyme
(E) Spermatids
76. Which of the following functions as an
70. Which of the following organelles antibacterial agent?
possesses mixed-function oxidases that (A) Gastrin
detoxify phenobarbital and other drugs? (B) Somatostatin
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (C) Motilin
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (D) Pepsinogen
(C) Mitochondrion (E) Lysozyme
(D) Annulate lamella
(E) Lysosome 77. Which of the following stimulates
contraction of smooth muscle in the wall of
71. Which of the following organelles the digestive tract?
contains ribophorins? (A) Gastrin
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (B) Somatostatin
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (C) Motilin
(C) Mitochondrion (D) Pepsinogen
(D) Polyribosome (E) Lysozyme
(E) Lysosome
78. Which of the following inhibits secretion
72. Which of the following is the site where by nearby enteroendocrine cells?
degradation of foreign material ingested by (A) Gastrin
the cell takes place? (B) Somatostatin
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (C) Motilin
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (D) Pepsinogen
(C) Mitochondrion (E) Lysozyme
(D) Annulate lamellae
(E) Lysosome
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354 BRS Cell Biology and Histology

79. Which of the following is involved in 85. Which of the following binds Ca2?
forming cross-links between adjacent (A) Troponin C
tropocollagen molecules? (B) Globular head (S1 fragment) of myosin
(A) Lysine (C) Myoglobin
(B) Desmosine (D) Actin
(C) Hydroxyproline (E) Tropomodulin
(D) Arginine
(E) Proline 86. Which of the following is a rare form of
skin cancer that may be fatal?
80. Which of the following cross-links elastin (A) Epidermolysis bullosa
molecules to form an extensive network? (B) Basal cell carcinoma
(A) Lysine (C) Malignant melanoma
(B) Fibrillin (D) Psoriasis
(C) Hydroxyproline (E) Warts
(D) Arginine
(E) Proline 87. Which of the following is a hereditary
skin disease characterized by blister forma-
81. Inadequate amounts of iodine in the diet tion after minor trauma?
leads to which one of the following (A) Epidermolysis bullosa
conditions? (B) Basal cell carcinoma
(A) Simple goiter (C) Malignant melanoma
(B) Exophthalmic goiter (D) Psoriasis
(C) Graves disease (E) Warts
(D) Addison disease
(E) Hyperparathyroidism 88. Which of the following regions of the res-
piratory system would concern a patient
82. Which of the following conditions is with an adenoid?
associated with the destruction of the adre- (A) Trachea
nal cortex? (B) Nasopharynx
(A) Simple goiter (C) Terminal bronchiole
(B) Exophthalmic goiter (D) Alveolar duct
(C) Graves disease (E) Intrapulmonary bronchi
(D) Addison disease
(E) Hyperparathyroidism 89. Which of the following possesses
C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage?
83. Which of the following hydrolyzes (A) Trachea
adenosine triphosphate? (B) Nasopharynx
(A) Troponin C (C) Terminal bronchiole
(B) Globular head (S1 fragment) of myosin (D) Alveolar duct
(C) Myoglobin (E) Intrapulmonary bronchi
(D) Actin
(E) Tropomodulin 90. Which of the following contains smooth
muscle at the openings into alveoli?
84. Which of the following binds oxygen? (A) Trachea
(A) Troponin C (B) Nasopharynx
(B) Globular head (S1 fragment) of myosin (C) Terminal bronchiole
(C) Myoglobin (D) Alveolar duct
(D) Actin (E) Intrapulmonary bronchi
(E) Tropomodulin
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Comprehensive Examination 355

91. Which of the following is lined by an 96. Which of the following facilitates the
epithelium containing ciliated cells and absorption of vitamin B12?
Clara cells? (A) Pepsin
(A) Trachea (B) Enzyme associated with the glycocalyx
(B) Nasopharynx of the intestinal striated border
(C) Terminal bronchiole (C) Lipase
(D) Alveolar duct (D) Chylomicron
(E) Intrapulmonary bronchi (E) Gastric intrinsic factor

92. Which of the following is associated with 97. Which of the following functions in the
rupture of the oviduct and hemorrhaging digestion of carbohydrates?
into the peritoneal cavity? (A) Pepsin
(A) Endometriosis (B) Enzyme associated with the glycocalyx
(B) Cervical cancer of the intestinal striated border
(C) Ectopic tubal pregnancy (C) Lipase
(D) Breast cancer (D) Chylomicron
(E) Teratomas (E) Gastric intrinsic factor

93. Which of the following may be classified 98. Which of the following functions in the
as lobular carcinoma? digestion of proteins?
(A) Endometriosis (A) Pepsin
(B) Cervical cancer (B) Enzyme associated with the glycocalyx
(C) Ectopic tubal pregnancy of the intestinal striated border
(D) Breast cancer (C) Lipase
(E) Teratomas (D) Chylomicron
(E) Gastric intrinsic factor
94. Which of the following may be detected
by a Papanicolaou smear? 99. Which of the following functions in the
(A) Endometriosis transport of triglycerides into lacteals?
(B) Cervical cancer (A) Pepsin
(C) Ectopic tubal pregnancy (B) Enzyme associated with the glycocalyx
(D) Breast cancer of the intestinal striated border
(E) Teratomas (C) Lipase
(D) Chylomicron
95. Which of the following commonly results (E) Gastric intrinsic factor
in hemorrhaging into the peritoneal cavity
dependent on the stage of the menstrual 100. Which of the following is manufactured
cycle? and released by parietal cells?
(A) Endometriosis (A) Pepsin
(B) Cervical cancer (B) Enzyme associated with the glycocalyx
(C) Ectopic tubal pregnancy of the intestinal striated border
(D) Breast cancer (C) Lipase
(E) Teratomas (D) Chylomicron
(E) Gastric intrinsic factor