Test Bank For Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition Marjorie Kelly Cowan Heidi Smith

Test Bank for Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical Approach, 3rd Edition, Marjorie Kelly Co
Test Bank for Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical

Approach, 3rd Edition, Marjorie Kelly Cowan Heidi
Smith
To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:

https://testbankbell.com/download/test-bank-for-microbiology-fundamentals-a-clinical-
approach-3rd-edition-marjorie-kelly-cowan-heidi-smith/
Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical Approach, 3e (Cowan)
Chapter 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth
1) Microorganisms require large quantities of ________ for use in cell structure and metabolism.
A) elements
B) macronutrients
C) water
D) growth factors
E) trace elements
Answer: B
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Nutrition
Bloom's: 01. Remember
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment
depends on its metabolic characteristics.
2) Microorganisms require small quantities of ________ for enzyme function and maintenance of
protein structure.
A) carbon
B) macronutrients
C) water
D) growth factors
E) trace elements
Answer: E
Section: 06.01
1
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill
3) What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A) CO2
B) CH4
C) H2O
D) Glucose
E) NH3
Answer: C
Section: 06.01
4) Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from ________.

A) inorganic compounds
B) minerals
C) water
D) organic compounds
E) salts
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
5) Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?

A) Copper
B) Carbon
C) Hydrogen
D) Nitrogen
E) Oxygen
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
2
6) An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is ________.
A) iron
B) zinc
C) calcium
D) magnesium
E) potassium
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 02. Understand
7) An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and
ribosomes is ________.
A) iron
B) zinc
C) calcium
D) magnesium
E) potassium
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
8) The term autotroph refers to an organism that ________.

A) uses CO2 for its carbon source
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C) gets energy from sunlight
D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E) does not need a carbon source
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic
diversity (e.g. nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).
3
9) The term photoheterotroph refers to an organism that ________.
B) utilizes inorganic compounds for its carbon needs
D) gets energy by metabolizing organic matter of dead organisms
Answer: C
Section: 06.01
10) Calcium is required for bacteria because it ________.

A) stabilizes the cell wall
B) stabilizes the ribosomes
C) stabilizes the nucleoid
D) maintains cellular pH
E) makes strong bones
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
11) An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs would be called a(n) ________.
A) heterotroph
B) autotroph
C) chemoheterotroph
D) saprobe
E) halotroph
Answer: B
Section: 06.01
4
12) The term photoautotroph refers to an organism that ________.
A) is a decomposer
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
Answer: C
Section: 06.01
13) The term chemoheterotroph refers to an organism that ________.

B) must obtain inorganic compounds for its energy source
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
14) Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called ________.
A) saprobes
B) parasites
C) autotrophs
D) lithoautotrophs
E) phototrophs
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems
diversity (e.g. nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).; 05.03
Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.
5
15) Archaea, as a group, are not pathogens. This is because ________.
A) they evolved without mammals
B) mammals evolved special defenses against them
C) mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements
D) they are outcompeted by natural flora
E) None of the choices are correct
Answer: C
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Ecology; Environmental Influences
16) Aerobic respiration is an example of ________.

A) photosynthesis
B) methanoheterophy
C) photoheterotrophy
D) chemoheterotrophy
E) photoautotrophy
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
diversity (e.g. nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).; 03.02 The
metabolic abilities of a cell determine how it interacts with other cells and its environment (e.g.
quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
17) Organisms called ________ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.
A) mesophiles
B) thermophiles
C) commensals
D) parasites
E) halophiles
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Ecology
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways; Module 05 Systems
depends on its metabolic characteristics.; 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, interact with
both human and non-human hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.
6
18) The term obligate refers to ________.
A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
B) existing in a very narrow niche
C) using chemicals for energy production
D) using light for energy production
E) using oxygen for metabolism
Answer: B
Section: 06.02
Topic: Environmental Influences
19) The term facultative refers to ________.

A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
B) existing in a very narrow niche
C) using chemicals for energy production
D) using light for energy production
E) using oxygen for metabolism
Answer: A
Section: 06.02
20) The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is called ________.
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
Answer: B
Section: 06.01
Topic: Cellular Transport
ASM Objective: 03.02 The metabolic abilities of a cell determine how it interacts with other cells
and its environment (e.g. quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
7
21) Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called ________.
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
22) The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable
membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called
________.
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
Answer: C
Section: 06.01
23) The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable
membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called ________.
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
8
24) The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and
engulfing it is called ________.
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
E) endocytosis
Answer: E
Section: 06.01
25) Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would ________.
A) be in a hypotonic solution
B) gain water
C) be in an isotonic solution
D) shrivel
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
Topic: Environmental Influences; Cellular Transport
Bloom's: 03. Apply
26) Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?

A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Diffusion
C) Endocytosis
D) Osmosis
Answer: C
Section: 06.01
9
27) Nutrient absorption is mediated by the ________.
A) cell wall
B) peptidoglycan layer
C) proteins in the periplasmic space
D) cell membrane
E) nuclear membrane
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
28) Facilitated diffusion is limited by ________.

A) substrate concentration
B) carrier proteins in the membrane
C) size of the pores in the membrane
D) osmotic pressure
E) the size of the cell
Answer: B
Section: 06.01
29) When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is
specifically termed ________.
A) pinocytosis
B) phagocytosis
C) facilitated transport
D) facilitated diffusion
E) exocytosis
Answer: B
Section: 06.01
10
30) In ________ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
A) hypertonic
B) hypotonic
C) isotonic
D) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Section: 06.01
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function
ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics,
immunity and phage infection.
31) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench
top, on the shelf of a 37°C incubator, and on the shelf of a 50°C incubator. After incubation, there
was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, very slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at
refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?
A) Halophile
B) Mesophile
C) Anaerobe
D) Psychrophile
E) Capnophile
Answer: D
Section: 06.02
Bloom's: 03. Apply
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways; Module 07 Scientific Thinking
depends on its metabolic characteristics.; 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze
and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods, and apply these methods to
analogous situations.
11
32) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar,
and in a candle jar. After incubation, there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and
anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a(n)
________.
A) obligate aerobe
B) obligate anaerobe
C) facultative anaerobe
D) microaerophile
E) capnophile
Answer: C
Section: 06.02
Bloom's: 03. Apply
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways; Module 07 Scientific Thinking
depends on its metabolic characteristics.; 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze
and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods, and apply these methods to
analogous situations.
33) An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 25° C is
called a(n) ________.
A) extremophile
B) thermophile
C) psychrophile
D) psychrotroph
E) thermoduric
Answer: D
Section: 06.02
12
34) An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called a(n) ________.
A) extremophile
B) thermophile
C) psychrophile
D) psychrotroph
E) thermoduric
Answer: B
Section: 06.02
35) Human pathogens fall into the group termed ________.

A) psychrophiles
B) thermophiles
C) halophiles
D) mesophiles
E) acidophiles
Answer: D
Section: 06.02
36) All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except
________.
A) psychrophiles
B) anaerobes
C) facultative anaerobes
D) mesophiles
E) capnophiles
Answer: A
Section: 06.02
13
37) A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to
live in an environment with ________.
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) high salt
D) temperatures above 37°C
E) high acidity
Answer: B
Section: 06.02
38) A microaerophile ________.

A) grows best in an anaerobic jar
B) grows with or without oxygen
C) needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen
D) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
E) None of the choices are correct
Answer: D
Section: 06.02
39) The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, ________.
A) catalase and hydrogen peroxidases
B) superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidases
C) superoxide dismutase and catalase
D) catalase and oxidase
E) superoxide dismutase and oxidase
Answer: C
Section: 06.02
14
40) An organism that does not use oxygen in its metabolic pathways but can survive in its presence
is a(n) ________.
A) aerotolerant anaerobe
B) obligate aerobe
D) microaerophile
E) obligate anaerobe
Answer: A
Section: 06.02
41) An organism that respires using oxygen when it is present but can switch to an alternative
anaerobic pathways when it is absent is a(n) ________.
B) obligate aerobe
D) microaerophile
Answer: C
Section: 06.02
42) An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n) ________.

B) obligate aerobe
D) microaerophile
Answer: E
Section: 06.02
15
43) An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n) ________.
B) obligate aerobe
D) microaerophile
Answer: B
Section: 06.02
44) What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?

A) Blood agar
B) Thioglycollate
C) Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine
D) Sodium chloride
Answer: B
Section: 06.02
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills
ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based,
molecular and serological).
45) A halophile would grow best in ________.

A) acid pools
B) freshwater ponds
C) hot geyser springs
D) arid, desert soil
E) salt lakes
Answer: E
Section: 06.02
16
46) A barophile would grow best in ________.
A) acid pools
B) the deep oceans
C) hot geyser springs
D) arid, desert soil
E) salt lakes
Answer: B
Section: 06.02
47) The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K for the body
to use would best be termed a ________ relationship.
A) parasitic
B) saprobic
C) commensal
D) mutualistic
Answer: D
Section: 06.02
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, interact with both human and
non-human hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.
48) The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ________.

A) symbiosis
B) satellitism
C) antibiosis
D) mutualism
E) synergism
Answer: C
Section: 06.02
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each
other.
17
49) When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called ________.
A) symbiosis
B) satellitism
C) antibiosis
D) mutualism
E) synergism
Answer: E
Section: 06.02
other.
50) When microbes are in a close nutritional relationship, and one benefits but the other is not
harmed, it is called ________.
A) symbiosis
B) satellitism
C) commensalism
D) mutualism
E) synergism
Answer: C
Section: 06.02
other.
51) The time interval going from a single bacterial parent cell to two new daughter cells is called
the ________.
A) binary fission
B) growth curve
C) generation time
D) death phase
E) culture time
Answer: C
Section: 06.03
Topic: Microbial Growth
18
52) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of cell division equals the rate of cell
death is the ________.
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) telophase
Answer: C
Section: 06.03
53) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their
new environment, metabolizing but not growing, is the ________.
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) prophase
Answer: A
Section: 06.03
54) The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the
________.
A) lag phase
B) exponential (log) phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) prophase
Answer: B
Section: 06.03
19
55) In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an
agar surface and incubated. Each ________ represents one ________ from the sample.
A) cell; cell
B) cell; colony
C) colony; cell
D) species; colony
E) generation; cell
Answer: C
Section: 06.03
ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example,
direct count, viable plate count and spectrophotometric methods).
56) When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size, and differentiate
between dead and live cells, a ________ is used.
A) Coulter counter
B) flow cytometer
C) SEM
D) methylene dye indicator
Answer: B
Section: 06.03
57) Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.01
20
58) Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human
body conditions.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.02
and its environment (e.g. quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).; 05.01
Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.
59) Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.01
60) Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.01
61) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.01
21
62) Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.01
63) Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.01
64) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement of
molecules across the plasma membrane.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.01
65) In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor
benefited.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.02
non-human hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.
22
66) Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 environment.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.02
depends on its metabolic characteristics.; 03.02 The metabolic abilities of a cell determine how it
interacts with other cells and its environment (e.g. quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen
transformations).
67) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.02
depends on its metabolic characteristics.; 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often
unique, metabolic diversity (e.g. nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic
photosynthesis).
68) Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.03
69) The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is
principally governed by the generation time of the inoculated species.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.03
23
70) Binary fission results in four daughter cells from one parent cell.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.03
71) After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.03
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of
replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
72) A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.03
73) The degree of turbidity in a culture correlates to the amount of cell growth.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.03
24
74) The direct cell count, using a cytometer, can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.03
75) A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 06.03
76) Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than free (planktonic) bacteria.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 06.02
non-human hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.; 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in
bio-film communities.
77) Atoms and molecules are in constant, random motion. Movement of any molecule along its
concentration gradient is termed ________, and movement of water in the same manner, across a
selectively permeable membrane, is called ________.
A) diffusion; osmosis
B) osmosis; diffusion
C) hypertonic; hypotonic
D) isotonic; hypertonic
E) isotonic; osmosis
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
25
78) For a physician, treating a biofilm infection in a patient poses a significant challenge compared
to treating an infection with planktonic bacteria. This is due to the fact that ________.
A) the biofilm likely contains several different species of bacteria living in a thick, extracellular
matrix that cannot be treated by routine antibiotic therapy
B) planktonic bacteria and biofilm bacteria activate the same genes
C) despite being a thick layer, the pH remains constant throughout the biofilm making the deep
layers hard to penetrate
D) planktonic bacteria secrete quorum-sensing proteins that interfere with the actions of the
antibiotic
Answer: A
Section: 06.02
Bloom's: 04. Analyze
79) Organisms in a biofilm differ from planktonic bacteria in that ________.

A) biofilms typically contain multiple species of bacteria living in a complex, whereas planktonic
bacteria are single, free-floating organisms
B) organisms in a biofilm secrete quorum-sensing chemicals to monitor the population; planktonic
bacteria do not produce these chemicals
C) an organism in a biofilm will activate different genes compared to a planktonic organism of the
same genus and species
D) organisms in a biofilm secrete extracellular materials to keep them anchored to a surface; these
substances are not produced by free-floating bacteria
E) All of the choices reflect differences between biofilms and planktonic bacteria
Answer: E
Section: 06.02
26
80) Which of the following reflects the stages of binary fission in the correct order?
A) Replication of the chromosome, formation of central protein band, septum divides daughter
cells
B) Replication of the chromosome, septum divides daughter cells, formation of central protein
band
C) Septum divides daughter cells, replication of the chromosome, formation of central protein
band
D) Formation of central protein band, septum divides daughter cells, replication of the
chromosome
E) Septum divides daughter cells, formation of central protein band, replication of the
chromosome
Answer: A
Section: 06.03
81) If a parent cell divides through 8 generations, how many cells will result?
A) 8
B) 64
C) 128
D) 256
E) 100,000,000
Answer: D
Section: 06.03
27
82) At 12:35 pm, 20 Salmonella enteritidis cells were present in the remains of a Caesar salad at a
picnic. 5 hours later, the picnic organizer ate the rest of the salad at home. S. enteritidis divides
every 20 minutes; how many cells (Nt) were consumed if Nt = N(2n)?
A) 655,360 cells
B) 100 cells
C) 327,680 cells
D) 1,000,000 cells
E) 1 x 1015 cells
Answer: A
Explanation: In 5 hours, the Salmonella went through 15 generations (5hrs x 60min =
300min/20min/generation) so (20) (215) = 20 x 32,768 = 655,360
Section: 06.03
83) Performing a standard plate count experiment for Bacillus cereus would allow a
microbiologist to ________.
A) generate a population growth curve for that particular organism
B) generate a population growth curve for any organism
C) calculate the number of cells in the initial inoculum
D) count the number of cells per colony
Answer: A
Section: 06.03
Bloom's: 03. Apply
28
84) At time = 0, 200 ml of broth receives an initial inoculum of bacteria. 0.1 ml of the bacterial
culture is taken from the culture at repeated intervals, diluted in liquid agar and spread on a plate
containing solid media. After incubation, the plate from time = 420 min yields 62 colonies from
the 0.1 ml sample. The total estimated number of cells in the flask at t = 420 min is ________.
A) 124,000
B) 12,400
C) 62
D) 26,040
Answer: A
Explanation: 62 cells per 0.1 ml = 620 cells per 1 ml x 200 ml = 124,000 cells in the flask.
Section: 06.03
NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question: Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the
questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.
A 24-year-old male arrives at the emergency department via air transport after sustaining a fall
while rock climbing. The patient is unresponsive with sluggishly reactive pupils upon arrival. His
right arm and bilateral lower extremities have obvious fractures. He was intubated by EMS and
requires mechanical ventilation. A CT scan reveals multiple head bleeds and intracranial swelling
with a midline shift. The patient is rushed to surgery with the plan to relieve the pressure of the
intracranial swelling.
85) The physician orders administration of an intravenous osmotic diuretic as the patient is en
route to surgery. As the RN, you are familiar with the action of the drug, which increases the
osmolality of the blood. Which of the following do you anticipate as the physiologic response to
the administration of this medication?
A) Decreased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume
B) Decreased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume
C) Increased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume
D) Increased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
29
86) The RN administers the osmotic diuretic as ordered. Which of the following responses by the
patient would indicate the therapeutic effectiveness of the drug?
A) No response to painful stimuli
B) Minimal response to painful stimuli
C) Withdrawal to painful stimuli
D) Spontaneous movement
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
87) Following the patient's surgical procedure, he is admitted to the neurological intensive care
unit. Interventions are implemented to decrease intracranial pressure, including the administration
of intravenous hypertonic saline. Which of the following do you anticipate as the therapeutic
response to the administration of this medication?
A) Decreased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume
B) Decreased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume
C) Increased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume
D) Increased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
88) The RN prepares to administer hypertonic saline. Which of the following solutions would you
expect the physician to order to produce the desired physiologic effect in the patient?
A) 0.45% sodium chloride
B) 0.9% sodium chloride
C) 0.9% sodium chloride with dextrose
D) 3% sodium chloride
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
30
89) Because a hypertonic environment forces water to move out of a cell, it is said to have high
osmotic ________.
A) pressure
B) diffusion
C) tension
D) leverage
Answer: A
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
90) The generation time for Enterobacter aerogenes during the exponential growth phase is 30
minutes. If a single E. aerogenes cell begins dividing during this phase, how many cells would be
present if counted after 5 hours?
A) 10 cells
B) 30 cells
C) 512 cells
D) 1024 cells
E) 1 x 1010 cells
Answer: D
Explanation: 5 hours x 60 minutes/hour = 300 minutes/30 minutes/generation = 10
generations. 210 = 1024
Section: 06.03
31
An 85-year-old female in a long-term care facility is prescribed verapamil for blood pressure
management twice daily. The medication is classified as a calcium channel blocker.
91) The RN is familiar with the action of calcium channel blockers. By inhibiting the passage of
calcium through ion channels, the drug targets which of the following processes?
A) Diffusion
B) Active transport
C) Passive transport
D) Osmosis
Answer: C
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
92) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers?
A) Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle
B) Relaxation of venous smooth muscle
C) Relaxation of venous smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction
D) Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
32
93) Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport?
A) Involves the movement of water
B) Does not require the input of energy
C) Involves the movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of low
concentration
D) Involves the use of carrier proteins
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
94) Prior to administration of verapamil, which of the following is most important to assess?
A) Pupillary light reflex
B) Blood oxygen levels
C) Level of consciousness
D) Vital signs
Answer: D
Section: 06.01
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways; Module 08 Microbiology Skills
ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency
procedures.
95) Prior to administration of the scheduled morning dose of verapamil, the patient's blood
pressure is found to be low. What is the most appropriate action by the RN?
A) Administer the medication as ordered
B) Administer the medication and notify the physician
C) Reassess the blood pressure in 30 minutes
D) Administer a double dose of verapamil for the scheduled evening dose
Answer: C
Section: 06.01
Bloom's: 03. Apply
ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency
procedures.
33
The hospital infectious disease team is involved with the study of a healthcare-associated infection
that has spread to 10% of inpatients. The infected patients are exhibiting symptoms of severe
abdominal cramping, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The RN on the infectious disease team
provides education to staff regarding the pattern of bacterial growth and methods of infection
control.
96) The period of growth between inoculation and when the cells adjust to their environment and
begin growth at their maximum rate is called the ________.
A) lag phase
B) exponential growth phase
C) stationary growth phase
D) death phase
Answer: A
Section: 06.03
Bloom's: 03. Apply
97) Which of the following is a characteristic of the death phase of bacterial growth?
A) The patient is experiencing the most severe stage of infection.
B) The cells are not reproducing.
C) The population of cells is rapidly increasing.
D) The population of cells is slowly increasing.
Answer: B
Section: 06.03
Bloom's: 03. Apply
34
Test Bank for Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical Approach, 3rd Edition, Marjorie Kelly Co
98) The most rapid increase in bacterial growth occurs during which of the following stages?
A) Lag phase
B) Exponential growth phase
C) Stationary growth phase
D) Death phase
Answer: B
Section: 06.03
Bloom's: 03. Apply
99) The RN educates the staff about the importance of timely symptom recognition and treatment
of the infection. Which of the following statements by a hospital provider demonstrates a proper
understanding of antimicrobial agents?
A) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials in the lag phase of bacterial growth.
B) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials in the exponential growth phase.
C) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials during the stationary growth phase.
D) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials during the death phase of bacterial
growth.
Answer: B
Section: 06.03
Bloom's: 03. Apply
depends on its metabolic characteristics.; 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled
by physical, chemical, mechanical, and biological methods.
100) During which stages of bacterial growth is an infected patient most at risk of spreading the
organism to others?
A) Lag phase and exponential growth phase
B) Exponential growth phase and stationary growth phase
C) Stationary growth phase and death phase
D) Lag phase, stationary growth phase, and death phase
Answer: B
Section: 06.03
Bloom's: 03. Apply
depends on its metabolic characteristics.; 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, interact with
both human and non-human hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.
35
Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Test Bank For Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition Marjorie Kelly Cowan Heidi Smith

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test Bank For Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition Marjorie Kelly Cowan Heidi Smith

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test Bank for Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical Approach, 3rd Edition, Marjorie Kelly Co

Test Bank for Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical

To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

4) Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from ________.

5) Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?

8) The term autotroph refers to an organism that ________.

10) Calcium is required for bacteria because it ________.

13) The term chemoheterotroph refers to an organism that ________.

16) Aerobic respiration is an example of ________.

19) The term facultative refers to ________.

26) Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?

28) Facilitated diffusion is limited by ________.

35) Human pathogens fall into the group termed ________.

38) A microaerophile ________.

42) An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n) ________.

44) What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?

45) A halophile would grow best in ________.

48) The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ________.

59) Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.

60) Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy.

61) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.

68) Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.

71) After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.

72) A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.

79) Organisms in a biofilm differ from planktonic bacteria in that ________.

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

You might also like