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Important Instructions :
The test is of 90 minutes duration and test contains 100 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
ZOOLOGY
Q. 5. Complete stoppage of heart beat is termed as :
Section A
(a) Heart attack (b) Heart block
Q. 1. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner (c) Cardiac arrest (d) Heart failure
walls of blood vessels is :
Q. 6. 70 to 80 percent of electrolytes and water are
(a) Cuboidal epithelium reabsorbed in
(b) Columnar epithelium
(a) Distal convoluted tubule
(c) Ciliated epithelium
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) Squamous epithelium
Q. 2. Transition state structure of the substrate formed (c) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle
during an enzymatic reaction is : (d) Descending limb of Loop of Henle
(a) Permanent but unstable Q. 7. ATPase enzyme required for muscle contraction
(b) Transient but unstable is located in
(c) Permanent and stable (a) Tropomyosin (b) Myosin
(d) Transient but stable (c) Calmodulin (d) Troponin
Q. 3. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice
Q. 8. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained
which is poured into the duodenum in humans is :
in the rod type of photoreceptor cells of the
(a) Trypsinogen (b) Chymotrypsin human eye is a derivative of :
(c) Trypsin (d) Enterokinase
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1
Q. 4. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
human blood even after its uptake by the body
tissues. This O2 Q. 9. Which of the following statements is correct in
relation to the endocrine system?
(a) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues.
(a) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural
(b) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise.
regulation of the hypothalamus.
(c) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(b) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract,
(d) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation
heart, kidney and liver do not produce any
at 90%.
hormones.
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-1 63
(c) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the 5’_____________GAATTC_______________3’
body in trace amount that act as intercellular 3’_____________CTTAAG_______________5’
messenger are known as hormones.
What is so special shown in it?
(d) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are
(a) Replication completed
produced by the pituitary gland.
(b) Deletion mutation
Q. 10. Which one of the following kinds of animals are
triploblastic ? (c) Start codon at the 5’ end
(a) Corals (b) Flatworms (d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(c) Sponges (d) Ctenophores Q. 20. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
Q. 11. Monocondylic skull is absent in : which contain insecticidal protein. This protein :
(a) Penguin (b) Snake (a) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the
(c) Pigeon (d) Camel insect pest ultimately killing it.
Q. 12. The body cells in cockroach discharge their (b) Is coded by several genes including the gene
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in cry.
the form of : (c) Is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Ammonia insect pest.
(c) Potassium urate (d) Urea (d) Does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is
Q. 13. Which of these is not an important component of itself resistance to its toxin.
initiation of parturition in humans? Q. 21. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by
(a) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio malonate which closely resembles the substrate
(b) Synthesis of prostaglandins succinate in structure, would :
(c) Release of oxytocin (a) Increase Vmax without affecting Km
(d) Release of Prolactin (b) Decrease Km without affecting Vmax
Q. 14. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is (c) Increase Km without affecting Vmax
controlled by circulating levels of :
(d) Decrease both Vmax and Km
(a) Estrogen and inhibin
Q. 22. The hormone that stimulates Brunner’s glands
(b) Progesterone only
to release mucus is
(c) Progesterone and inhibin
(a) Secretin (b) Enterocrinin
(d) Estrogen and progesterone
(c) Enterogastrone (d) Duocrinin
Q. 15. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :
Q. 23. Asthma may be attributed to :
(a) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(a) Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs.
(b) Uterus is removed surgically.
(b) Inflammation of trachea.
(c) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed
and tied up. (c) Accumulation of fluid in lungs.
(d) Ovaries are removed surgically. (d) Bacterial infection of the lungs.
Q. 16. Flying squirrel and flying phalanger represent Q. 24. Match the items given in Column I with those
the phenomenon of : in Column II and select the correct option given
(a) Adaptive radiation (b) Convergent evolution below :
(c) Divergent evolution (d) Divergent Column I Column II
radiation (A) Tricuspid valve (i) Between left
Q. 17. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying : atrium and left
ventricle
(a) B-lymphocytes
(B) Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right
(b) leucocytes ventricle and
(c) Helper T-lymphocytes pulmonary artery
(d) Thrombocytes (C) Semilunar valve (iii) Between right
atrium and right
Q. 18. Which of the following is not an edible fresh
ventricle
water fish?
A B C
(a) Clarius batrachus (b) Labeo calbasu
(a) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) Anguilla sp (d) Catla catla (b) (i) (iii) (ii)
Q. 19. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA (c) (iii) (i) (ii)
strand giving the base sequence on the opposite (d) (ii) (iii) (i)
strands?
64 Oswaal NEET (UG) Solved Papers Chapterwise & Topicwise BIOLOGY
Q. 25. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a special Q. 33. The tendency of population to remain in genetic
sensitive region formed by cellular modification equilibrium may be disturbed by :
of : (a) Random mating
(a) Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent (b) Lack of migration
arteriole.
(c) Lack of mutations
(b) Distal convoluted tubule and afferent
(d) Lack of random mating
arteriole.
Q. 34. Coca alkaloid obtained from Erythroxylum sp.
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule and efferent
arteriole. (a) Acts as an analgesic.
(d) Distal convoluted tubule and efferent (b) Interferes with the transport of dopamine.
arteriole. (c) Is taken by oral ingestion.
Q. 26. During the propagation of a nerve impulse the (d) Acts as depressant to slow down body
action potential results from the movement of : Functions.
(a) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to Q. 35. The chronological order of human evolution
intracellular Fluid. from early to the recent is :
(b) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular
(a) Australopithecus ® Ramapithecus ® Homo
fluid.
habilis ® Homo erectus
(c) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid. (b) Ramapithecus ® Australopithecus ® Homo
habilis ® Homo erectus
(d) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular
fluid. (c) Ramapithecus ® Homohabilis ® Australopithecus
® Homo erectus
Q. 27. Which one of the following hormones though
synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by (d) Australopithecus ® Homo habilis ®
the master gland? Ramapithecus ® Homo erectus
(a) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
Section B
(b) Antidiuretic hormone
(c) Luteinizing hormone Q. 36. Which biomolecule is correctly characterised ?
(d) Prolactin (a) Lecithin – phosphorylated glyceride found in
cell membrane.
Q. 28. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are : (b) Palmitic acid – unsaturated fatty acid with 18
carbon atoms.
(a) T-DNA (b) BAC vectors
(c) Adenylic acid – adenosine with glucose
(c) Expression vector (d) T/C cloning vector phosphate molecule.
Q. 29. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are : (d) Alanine amino acid – contains an amino acid
(a) Long fibre and resistance to aphids. and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
(b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to Q. 37. The factor that may decrease the process of
beetle pests. oxygenation is
(c) High yield and production of toxic protein (a) Increase in blood circulation
crystals which kill dipteran pests.
(b) Macrocytic anaemia
(d) High yield and resistance to bollworms.
(c) Increase in blood volume
Q. 30. Human egg is (d) Increase in haemoglobin levels
(a) Mesolecithal (b) Microlecithal
Q. 38. If one kidney is removed what will be the
(c) Alecithal (d) Megalecithal immediate effect?
Q. 31. The permissible use of the technique (a) The person will die due to lack of urine
amniocentesis is for : formation
(a) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus. (b) Uraemia and death
(b) Artificial insemination. (c) Death due to poisoning
(c) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a (d) The person may survive
surrogate mother.
Q. 39. Pseudounipolar neuron is found in :
(d) Detecting any genetic abnormality.
(a) Organ of Corti
Q. 32. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
(b) Cerebral cortex
intra uterine device :
(c) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
(a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG 20
(d) Both dorsal root and ventral root ganglia of
(c) Cervical cap (d) Vault
spinal cord
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-1 65
Q. 40. In which one of the following, the genus Q. 44. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used :
name, its two characters and its phylum are not (a) As selectable markers
correctly matched, whereas the remaining three
are correct ? (b) To select healthy vectors
(c) As sequences from where replication starts
Two (d) To keep the culture free of infection
Genus Phylum
c haracters
Q. 45. The first clinical gene therapy was given for
(a) Sycon (a) Pore bearing Porifera treating :
(b) Canal system (a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Periplaneta (a) Jointed ap- Arthropoda (b) Chicken pox
pendages (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(b) Chitinous (d) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
exoskeleton Q. 46. Which of the following animals is not viviparous ?
(c) Pila (a) Body seg- Mollusca (a) Whale (b) Flying fox (Bat)
mented (c) Elephant (d) Platypus
(b) Mouth with
Q. 47. Gametocytes of Plasmodium are unable to
Radula
develop further in man because of :
(d) Asterias (a) Spiny Echinodermata (a) pH of the blood
skinned
(b) High temperature of humans
(d) Water vascu-
lar system (c) Presence of haemoglobin
(d) Low temperature of humans
Q. 41. What external changes are visible after the last
Q. 48. Obturator foramen is present in
moult of a cockroach nymph?
(a) Between right and left atria
(a) Mandibles become harder
(b) Anal cerci develops (b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Both fore and hind wings develop (c) Between third and fourth ventricles of brain
(d) Labium develops (d) Occipital bone of cranium
Q. 42. Cu ions released from copper. Q. 49. If both the ovaries are removed surgically, the
(a) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation level of which hormone is decreased in blood?
(b) Increase phagocytosis of sperms (a) Gonadotropin (b) Oxytocin
(c) Suppress sperm motility (c) Prolactin (d) Estrogen
(d) Prevent ovulation Q. 50. Variation in gene frequencies within population
Q. 43. Super-ovulation and embryo transplantation are can occur by chance rather than by natural
meant for improving : selection. This is referred to as :
(a) Livestock (b) Plants (a) Genetic flow (b) Genetic drift
(c) Random mating (d) Genetic load
(c) Human race (d) Poultry
BOTANY
C. Root cap
Section A
D. Zone of elongation
Q. 51. NADP reductase enzyme is located on (a) C B D A (b) B C D A
___A______ Breakdown of proton gradient leads (c) A B C D (d) A D B C
to release of _____B____
Q. 53. Endosperm is absent in the seeds of
(a) A: Stroma lamellae, B: energy
(a) Coconut (b) Orchids
(b) A: Grana lamellae, B: electrons
(c) Maize (d) Castor
(c) A: Grana lamellae, B: energy
Q. 54. Match the following columns and select the
(d) A: Stroma lamellae, B: electrons correct option.
Q. 52. Rearrange the following zones of root from A. IAA i. Herring sperm DNA
root tip to base :
B. ABA ii. Bolting
A. Root hair zone
C. Ethylene iii. Stomatal closure
B. Zone of meristematic activity
66 Oswaal NEET (UG) Solved Papers Chapterwise & Topicwise BIOLOGY
1 a b c d 6 a b c d 11 a b c d 16 a b c d 21 a b c d 26 a b c d
2 a b c d 7 a b c d 12 a b c d 17 a b c d 22 a b c d 27 a b c d
3 a b c d 8 a b c d 13 a b c d 18 a b c d 23 a b c d 28 a b c d
4 a b c d 9 a b c d 14 a b c d 19 a b c d 24 a b c d 29 a b c d
5 a b c d 10 a b c d 15 a b c d 20 a b c d 25 a b c d 30 a b c d
31 a b c d 36 a b c d 41 a b c d 46 a b c d 51 a b c d 56 a b c d
32 a b c d 37 a b c d 42 a b c d 47 a b c d 52 a b c d 57 a b c d
33 a b c d 38 a b c d 43 a b c d 48 a b c d 53 a b c d 58 a b c d
34 a b c d 39 a b c d 44 a b c d 49 a b c d 54 a b c d 59 a b c d
35 a b c d 40 a b c d 45 a b c d 50 a b c d 55 a b c d 60 a b c d
61 a b c d 66 a b c d 71 a b c d 76 a b c d 81 a b c d 86 a b c d
62 a b c d 67 a b c d 72 a b c d 77 a b c d 82 a b c d 87 a b c d
63 a b c d 68 a b c d 73 a b c d 78 a b c d 83 a b c d 88 a b c d
64 a b c d 69 a b c d 74 a b c d 79 a b c d 84 a b c d 89 a b c d
65 a b c d 70 a b c d 75 a b c d 80 a b c d 85 a b c d 90 a b c d
91 a b c d 96 a b c d
92 a b c d 97 a b c d
93 a b c d 98 a b c d
94 a b c d 99 a b c d
95 a b c d 100 a b c d
70 Oswaal NEET (UG) Solved Papers Chapterwise & Topicwise BIOLOGY
ANSWER KEY
ZOOLOGY BOTANY
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (a)
5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c)
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (a)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (c)
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (b)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (d)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (a)
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (b) 79. (c) 80. (c) 81. (b) 82. (b)
33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (c) 86. (c)
37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (a) 91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (b)
45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (c)
49. (d) 50. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b)
For elaborate
Solutions