METEOROLOGY Removed

Total 1291
Questions
METEOROLOGY
THE ATMOSPHERE - Composition, extent, vertical division
Question The troposphere is the:
Choices Answers Correct

A part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere
B part of the atmosphere below the tropopause B
C boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere
D boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere
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Question What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called:

A Tropopause A
B Ionosphere
C Stratosphere
D Atmosphere
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Question The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on:

A relative humidity
B air temperature B
C stability of air
D dew point
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Question The tropopause is a level at which:

A vertical currents are strongest
B water vapour content is greatest
C pressure remains constant
D temperature ceases to fall with increasing height D
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Question The tropopause is lower;

A south of the equator than north of it
METEOROLOGY
Question The tropopause is lower;
B in summer than winter in moderate latitudes

C over the North pole than over the equator C
D over the equator than over the South Pole
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Question What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere?

A 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest other gases A
B 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
C 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
D 50% oxygen, 40$ nitrogen and the rest other gases
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Question In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?

A Troposphere A
B Tropopause
C Stratosphere
D Stratopause
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Question The thickness of the troposphere varies with:

A latitude A
B longitude
C rotation of the earth
D the wind
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Question Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause:

A increases and its temperature increases
B decreases and its temperature increases B
C increases and its temperature decreases
METEOROLOGY
Question Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause:
D decreases and its temperature decreases

Ref All
Question In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from:

A 85 to more than 200 km
B 0 to 11 km
C 50 to 85 km
D 11 to 50 km D
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Question Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?

A Troposphere A
B Lower stratosphere
C Upper stratosphere
D Ionosphere
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Question Which one of the following statement applies to the tropopause?

A It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
B It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
C It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
D It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere D
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Question The average height of the tropopause at 50oN is about:

A 14 km
B 8 km
C 11 km C
D 16 km
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question The troposphere:

A has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles A
B contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
C is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
D reaches the same height at all latitudes
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Question How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?

A It remains constant throughout the year
B It remains constant from north to south
C It increases from south to north
D It decreases from south to north D
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Question What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?

A 40 km
B 8 km
C 11km
D 16 km D
Ref All
Question Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the
tropics?
A The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown A
B The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart
C The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important
D Tropopause information are of no value
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Question What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

A -25oC
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
B -75oC B
C -55oC
D -35oC
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Question Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first:

A 5 km A
B 3 km
C 8 km
D 11 km
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Question What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand point?

A Hydrogen
B Water vapour B
C Nitrogen
D Oxygen
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Question The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of:

A 16 km and -40oC over the poles
B 16 km and -75oC over the equator B
C 8 km and -40oC over the equator
D 8 km and -75oC over the poles
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Question The troposphere is:

A deepest over the equator A
B deepest over the poles
C the same depth all over the earth
METEOROLOGY
THE ATMOSPHERE - Temperature
Question The troposphere is:
D shallowest over the poles in summer

Ref All
Question In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere between mean sea level and
a height of 5500m is:
A 25%
B 1%
C 50% C
D 99%
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Question Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct?

A The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal
B The temperature remains constant above and below the tropopause
C The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the poles
D The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause D
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Question Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?

A The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80oC over the Poles and approximately -
40oC over the equator
B Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs
C in the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the Poles than over the
equator
D The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable D
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Question Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

A It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions A
B It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
C It is highest in middle latitudes
METEOROLOGY
Question Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
D There is no significant difference with change of latitude

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Question Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following contribute the most?

A Absorption and evaporation
B Solar radiation and conduction
C Absorption and vaporisation
D Convection and condensation D
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Question An outside air temperature of -35oC is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature
deviation from the ISA at this level?
A 5oC colder than ISA
B 10oC warmer than ISA
C 5oC warmer than ISA
D 10oC colder than ISA D
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Question A layer can be:

A unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable
B stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air
C unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air
D stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air D
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Question At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48oC; according to the tropopause chart,
the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
A -56.5oC
B -50oC
C -54oC C
D -58oC
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate:

A exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
B exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate B
C is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
D is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate
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Question A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of:

A the passage of cold front
B nocturnal radiation B
C advection fog
D cumulus clouds
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Question An inversion is a layer of air which is:

A absolutely unstable
B absolutely stable B
C conditionally unstable
D conditionally stable
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Question An inversion is:

A an increase of temperature with height A
B an increase of pressure with height
C a decrease of pressure with height
D a decrease of temperature with height
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Question When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the

A stability increases in the layer A
METEOROLOGY
Question When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
B stability decreases in the layer

C wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
D wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
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Question Advection is:

A the same as convection
B vertical motion of air
C the same as subsidence
D horizontal motion of air D
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Question The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere:

A has a fixed value of 2oC/1000 ft
B has a fixed value of 1oC/100m
C has a fixed value of 0.65oC/100m
D varies with time D
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Question In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature:

A decreases with altitude
B is almost constant B
C increases with altitude
D increases at first and decreases afterward
Ref All
Question An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:

A increases with height at a constant rate
B increases with height
C decreases with height at a constant rate
METEOROLOGY
Question An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:
D remains constant with height D

Ref All
Question Which of the following is a common result of subsidence?

A Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes
B CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large sea
C Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation
D An inversion over a large area with haze, mist D
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Question An air mass is called stable when:

A the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears A
B the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height
C the pressure in a given area is constant
D the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents
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Question What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?

A Subsidence
B Inversion B
C Adiabatic
D Advection
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Question The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of:

A 0.5oC/100m
B 2oC/1000 ft
C 0.65oC/100m
D 1oC/100m D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question How would you characterise an air temperature of 15oC at the 700 hPa level over western Europe?

A Within +/-5oC of ISA
B High
C Low C
D 20oC below standard
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Question In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15oC and the temperature at 1000m/AGL is 13oC.
This layer of air is:
A unstable
B stable B
C a layer of heavy turbulence
D conditionally unstable
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Question The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100m in the International Standard Atmosphere is:

A 0.65oC A
B 1oC
C 0.5oC
D variable
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Question The radiation of the sun heats:

A the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present
B the air in the troposphere directly
C the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
D the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere D
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Question From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?

A Surface temperature
METEOROLOGY
Question From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?
B Environmental lapse rate B

C Dry adiabatic lapse rate
D Pressure at the surface
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Question What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?

A Stability A
B Instability
C Clear ice
D Area of active storms
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Question Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:

A winter in the afternoon
B winter during the night and early morning
C summer during the night and early morning
D summer in the afternoon D
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Question The dry adiabatic lapse rate:

A has a constant fixed value A
B is greater in summer than in winter
C is greater during the night than during the day
D has a variable value
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Question The temperature at FL 160 is -22oC. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate
is applied?
A -4oC
B -8oC B
C 0oC
METEOROLOGY
is applied?
D +4oC
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is applied:
A -9oC
B -18oC
C -6oC C
D -15oC
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Question The temperature at FL 80 is +6oC. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is
applied?
A +2oC
B -6oC
C 0oC
D -4oC D
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Question The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:

A clear and winds are strong
B clear and winds are weak B
C overcast and winds are weak
D overcast and winds are strong
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Question On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately:

A at the moment the sun rises
B half an hour before sunrise
C half an hour after sunrise C
D one hour before sunrise
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METEOROLOGY
Question The temperature at FL 110 is -5oC. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is
applied?
A -3oC
B +3oC
C 0oC
D +7oC D
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Question The 0o isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6oC?

A FL 110
B FL 20
C FL 100
D FL 80 D
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Question A temperature of 15oC is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature
gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500
Choices metres above sea level?
Answers Correct
A +4oC
B +2oC B
C 0oC
D -2oC
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Question The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in:

A cumulus
B freezing fog
C stratus
D cirrus D
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Question Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature under shelter is 3oC. The sky is covered
by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the
Choices night of January 3rd to January 4th should be:
Answers Correct
METEOROLOGY
Question Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature under shelter is 3oC. The sky is covered
by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the
night of January 3rd to January 4th should be:
A slightly above +3oC
B significantly below 0oC
C slightly below +3oC C
D significantly above +3oC
Ref All
Question Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion?

A Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds A
B Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
C The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air
D Heating of the air by subsidence
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Question How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?

A increases
B At first it increases and higher up it decreases
C Remains constant
D Decreases D
Ref All

A High A
B Within +/- 5oC of ISA
C Low
D Very low
Ref All

A High
METEOROLOGY
B Low
C Very high
D Within +/- 5oC of ISA D
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Question An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature:

A increases with height more than 1oC/100m,
B decreases with height more than 1oC/100m
C increases with height C
D remains constant with height
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Question A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft¿s rate
of climb drops to zero. This can be due to:
A low relative humidity
B a very strong temperature inversion B
C sand/dust in the engines
D very pronounced downdrafts
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Question In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2oC per 100m increase in altitude. This
temperature change is called:
A environmental lapse rate A
B saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C dry adiabatic lapse rate
D normal lapse rate
Ref All
Question In the disturbed temperate regions:

A winters are generally mild
B the weather is mainly governed by travelling frontal depressions B
C the wet season is normally from May to September
METEOROLOGY
Question In the disturbed temperate regions:
D the surface winds are moderate westerlies

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Question Horizontal differences in the mean temperature of a layer are caused by:

A insulation
B advection
C differential heating of the earth¿s surface C
D change of air mass
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Question Which of the following statements concerning the thermal wind component (TWC) is true?

A TWC decreases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases
B TWC increases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases B
C the greater the TWC, the greater the reduction in the upper wind
D the greater the TWC, the greater the surface wind
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Question Which one of the following describes normal conditions?

A Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere A
B Temperature increases with height in the troposphere
C Temperature decreases with height in the stratosphere
D Temperature decreases at a similar rate in the troposphere as in the stratosphere
Ref All
Question For international aviation meteorological purposes, temperature is measured in degrees:

A Fahrenheit
B Celsius B
C Absolute
D Kelvin
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question If the depth of the troposphere increases, the temperature at the tropopause must:

A decrease A
B stay the same
C increase
D impossible to say
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Question Air at T = +16oC and DP = +4oC is forced from sea level over a 10,000 ft mountain range and descends back to
sea level on the other side. If the leeward condensation level is observed to be 8,000 ft what will be the
Choices final temperature?
Answers Correct
A 18oC
B 20oC
C 22oC C
D 24oC
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Question A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains
unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel:
A decreases 0.65oC per 100m
B remains constant
C decreases 1oC per 100m C
D becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
Ref All
Question Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is

A greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate A
B less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
D greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate
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Question According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere:

METEOROLOGY
Question According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere:
A decreases with altitude

B is almost constant B
C increases with altitude
D increases at first and decreases afterward
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Question For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the

A environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic A
lapse rate
B environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry
adiabatic lapse rate
C environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic
lapse rate
D dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than
environmental lapse rate
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Question In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic
lapse rate but les than dry adiabatic lapse rate ¿ the air mass is described as being
A conditionally unstable A
B stable
C unstable
D absolutely unstable
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Question The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is:

A 2.5oC/1000 ft
B 3oC/1000 ft
C 6.5oC/1000 ft
D 2oC/1000 ft D
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Question What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?
METEOROLOGY
Question What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

A -20oC
B -15oC
C -25oC C
D -30oC
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Question What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?

A Positions with the same air pressure at a given level A
B Positions with the same temperature at a given level
C Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
D Positions with the same relative pressure heights
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Question In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100m increase in height:

A is greater at higher levels than at lower levels
B remains constant at all levels
C is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels C
D is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL
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Question An isohypse (contour):

A indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm
B is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
C is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
D indicates the true altitude of a pressure level D
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Question The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:

A QNE
METEOROLOGY
Question The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:
B QFE
C QNH
D QFF D
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Question Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?

A It is higher in winter than in summer
B It decreases with height B
C It is higher at night than during the day
D It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m
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Question Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal:

A QFE
B QFF B
C QNE
D QNH
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Question What is approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5,500m?

A 15m (50 ft) A
B 8m (27 ft)
C 32m (105 ft)
D 64m (210 ft)
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Question The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:

A at height of observatory
B at a determined density altitude
C reduced to sea level C
METEOROLOGY
Question The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:
D at flight level
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Question Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems?

A 25o ¿ 35o
B 10o ¿ 15o
C 55o - 75o C
D 35o - 55o
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Question Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of
270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct?
A If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true altitude is A
increasing
B If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true altitude is
increasing
C If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 20 degrees, then true altitude is
increasing
D If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true altitude is
increasing
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Question At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:

A lower than at the same height in a column of cold air
B higher than at the same height in a column of cold air B
C the same irrespective of the temperature
D depends on the relative humidity
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Question Which of the following statements is true?

A High contour values are equivalent to high pressure A
B Low contour values are equivalent to high pressures
METEOROLOGY
C High contour values are equivalent to low pressure

D There is no direct relationship between contour values and pressure
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Question When flying towards high contour values an aircraft will experience:

A headwind
B tailwind
C port drift C
D starboard drift
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Question Contour heights are:

A true heights AGL
B true heights AMSL B
C indicated heights above 1013.25 mb
D do not indicate heights at all
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Question When flying from high to low contour values, which of the following is incorrect?

A the true height of the aircraft will be falling
B the pressure altimeter will indicate a constant value
C the indicated height of the aircraft will be constant
D the indicated height of the aircraft will only be true if 1013.25 mb is set D
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Question You are making a long distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising altitude for the whole flight.
Towards the end of your flight, you have descended. What may be the reason for this?
A you are approaching a region of high pressure
B you are approaching a region of low pressure B
C standard pressure has dropped
D temperature has increased
METEOROLOGY
Question You are making a long distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising altitude for the whole flight.
Towards the end of your flight, you have descended. What may be the reason for this?
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Question Select the correct statement regarding the wind direction in connection with the high and low pressure
systems in the Northern Hemisphere:
A the winds blow counter clockwise around a high and clockwise in a low
B the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows
C the winds blow clockwise in a high and counter clockwise in a low C
D the winds blow counter clockwise in both highs and lows
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Question If you fly across the isobars towards a region of high pressure in the Northern Hemisphere you will:

A drift to the right
B drift to the left B
C experience no drift but experience a headwind
D experience no drift but experience a tailwind
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Question According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure determined from a certain
pressure value. Which is this value?
A 1013.25 hPa A
B 1025.13 hPa
C Actual QFE
D Actual QNH
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Question If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure difference of 100 hPa, the
distance between the pressure surfaces will change if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of
Choices air change. In which of the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure interact to
shorten the distance as much as possible?
Answers Correct
A The temperature increases and pressure increases
B The temperature decreases and pressure increases B
C The temperature increases and pressure decreases
D The temperature decreases and pressure decreases
METEOROLOGY
Question If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure difference of 100 hPa, the
distance between the pressure surfaces will change if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of
air change. In which of the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure interact to
shorten the distance as much as possible?
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Question Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as:

A Isotherms
B Isopleths
C Isobars C
D Isotachs
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Question A pressure difference of 10 hPa close to the ground corresponds to a height difference of:

A about 50m
B about 150m
C about 300ft C
D about 30ft
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Question A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:

A reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in density
B maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure
C maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volume
D reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume D
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Question The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC higher
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A 1016 hPa
B More than 1016 hPa B
C Less than 1016 hPa
D It is not possible to give a definitive answer
METEOROLOGY
Question The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC higher
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Question Which of the following statements is correct?

A Cumulus clouds and a good viability are normally observed in a warm sector in winter
B Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm sector in autumn
C Normally atmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front, the air temperature C
rises
D At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed
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Question Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude?

A When the altimeter has no position error
B At sea level when the temperature is 0oC
C At standard temperature C
D When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa
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Question At FL 180, the air temperature is -35oC. The air density at this level is:

A unable to be determined without knowing the QNH
B greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180 B
C less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
D equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
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Question What happens if density altitude is 3000 ft at an airport whose elevation is 1000 ft?

A Take off and landing performance will be unaffected
B The altimeter will indicate 3000 ft when the aircraft is on the ground
C Take off and landing performance will be about the same as for an airport with an elevation of C
3000 ft
D Indicated speed at 50 kt on take off and landing will be higher than in a standard atmosphere
METEOROLOGY
Question What happens if density altitude is 3000 ft at an airport whose elevation is 1000 ft?
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Question With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increases with increasing:

A relative humidity
B air pressure B
C stability
D temperature
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Question The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:

A -44.7oC
B -273oC
C -58.5oC C
D -100oC
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Question A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is
applicable?
A FL 180 A
B FL 160
C FL 100
D FL 390
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applicable?
A FL 100 A
B FL 180
C FL 300
D FL 390
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METEOROLOGY
Question The temperature at 10000 ft in the International Standard Atmosphere is:

A -20oC
B 0oC
C -5oC C
D -35oC
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Question If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2oC, at what altitude will the freezing level
be?
A FL 110 A
B FL 130
C FL 150
D FL 90
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applicable?
A FL 300
B FL 100
C FL 50 C
D FL 390
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Question If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15oC warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the
outside temperature likely to be?
A -30oC A
B -45oC
C -60oC
D -15oC
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Question In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is:

A 1oC per 100m
METEOROLOGY
Question In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is:
B 0.65oC per 100m B

C 0.5oC per 100m
D 0.6oC per 100m
Ref All
Question What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere?

A 2oC per 1000m
B 4.5oC per 1000m
C 3oC per 1000m
D 6.5oC per 1000m D
Ref All
Question A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable?
A FL 50
B FL 300
C FL 100
D FL 390 D
Ref All
applicable?
A FL 100
B FL 390
C FL 300 C
D FL 50
Ref All
A +15oC
B +5oC B
C -10oC
METEOROLOGY
D -15oC
Ref All
Question Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

A At MSL temperature is 15oC and pressure is 1013.25 hPa A
B At MSL temperature is 15oC and the decrease in temperature with height is 1oC per 100m
C At MSL temperature is 10oC and the decrease in temperature with height is 1oC Ref: all
Ref All
Question Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
is:
A -44.7oC
B -273oC
C -56.5oC C
D -100oC
Ref All
Question The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of:

A 2oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft after which it will remain constant to 104987 ft
B 1.98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then rise at 0.3oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft when it
will remain constant
C 1,98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft after which it remains constant to 65617 ft C
D 2oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then increase at 0.3oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft
Ref All
Question A vertical spacing of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold
air advection (ISA -15oC), what would the true vertical separation be?
A More than 1000 ft
B It remains 1000 ft
C Less than 1000 ft C
D Without QNH information, it cannot be determined
Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R.
METEOROLOGY
Question You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet
above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10oC warmer than ISA. Your
Choices altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the
altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?
Answers Correct
A 12210 feet
B 11520 feet B
C 11250 feet
D 11790 feet
Question You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the
aviation chart, 15000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15oC warmer than the
Choices standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you
effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?
Answers Correct
A 15900 ft
B 13830 ft
C 14370 ft
D 14100 ft D
Question At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at
least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?
A In a cold low pressure region
B At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or B
equal to 1013 hPa
C At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013 hPa
D In a warm high pressure region
Question The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a
point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 ft,
Choices the reading on the altimeter on the ground will be:
Answers Correct
A 20 ft A
B 11 ft
C -10 ft
D 560 ft
METEOROLOGY
Question An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During
the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid
Choices altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit?
Answers Correct
A The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
B A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
C A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit C
D There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
Question An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summers day. The weather is fine, and there is a high
pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What
Choices reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit¿s elevation?
Answers Correct
A There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
B A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
C The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
D A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit D
Question What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?

A Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA A
B Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA
C Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
D Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
Question If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA 10oC in the lower troposphere up
to 18000 ft, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120?
A 6240 ft A
B 6000 ft
C 5900 ft
D 5760 ft
Question During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa),
the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken?
METEOROLOGY
the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken?
A None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around A
Marseille
B Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
C Re-check the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
D Compensate by heading further to the left
Question During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft
remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that:
A the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca
B the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
C the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca C
D one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this?
A One of the QNH values must be wrong
B The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca B
C The altimeter is faulty
D The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
Question You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 ft/AMSL. The air is on an average 15oC
colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2
Choices hPa) read?
Answers Correct
A 15690 ft
B 16230 ft B
C 14370 ft
D 13830 ft
Question You are flying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5600 ft. Airport elevation = 2785 ft. The
altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value of 993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are
Choices crossing the airport at a height above ground of:(standard pressure setting = 1013 hPa, 1 hPa = 30 ft)
Answers Correct
METEOROLOGY
Question You are flying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5600 ft. Airport elevation = 2785 ft. The
altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value of 993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are
crossing the airport at a height above ground of:(standard pressure setting = 1013 hPa, 1 hPa = 30 ft)
A 5000 ft
B 5600 ft
C 2815 ft C
D 2215 ft
Question Your pressure altimeter is set at 1000 hPa. You have been cleared to join the traffic circuit at 2600 ft
and received current QNH = 1010 hPa. You join the circuit at 2600 ft but forget to reset your altimeter.
Choices Other aircraft with correct altimeter settings indicating 2600 ft in the circuit will, compared to you, be
flying:
Answers Correct
A 300 ft above
B 300 ft below B
C 100 ft above
D 100 ft below
Question An aircraft is flying at FL 75 over point A where the QNH is 1013 hPa, enroute to B where the QNH is 979
hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa equals 30 ft and that point B is 823 metres AMSL the terrain clearance over B is:
A 6480 ft
B 4280 ft
C 3780 ft C
D 5680 ft
Question An aircraft is to fly at an indicated altitude of 5000 ft from X (elevation 850 ft, QNH 984 hPA) to Y
(elevation 2300 ft QNH 1024 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa = 30
Choices ft, the height of the aircraft over X and Y will be:
Answers Correct
A 5000 ft; 3900 ft
B 4150 ft; 3900 ft B
C 4150 ft; 1500 ft
D 5000 ft; 1500 ft
Question An aeroplane flies at flight level 40.
Elevation of the aerodrome: 990 ft
QNH 976 hPa
METEOROLOGY
Question An aeroplane flies at flight level 40.
Elevation of the aerodrome: 990 ft
Choices QNH 976 hPa
The tower clears the pilot to fly at 3000 ft QNH
Which of the following statements is correct?
Answers Correct
A Only a small change of altitude is necessary A
B The aeroplane has to climb about 1000 ft
C The aeroplane has to descend about 1000 ft
D The aeroplane has to descend about 2000 ft
Question An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 ft from A (360 ft/AMSL QNH 986 hPa) to B (690
ft/AMSL QNH 1011 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the
Choices height of the aircraft above the surface is:
Answers Correct
A 4815 ft
B 3135 ft
C 4485 ft C
D 5175 ft
Answers Correct
A 4854 ft
B 6796 ft
C 6146 ft C
D 7446 ft
ft/ALMSL QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 1012 hPa, the
Answers Correct
A 4625 ft A
B 6515 ft
C 5555 ft
D 5225 ft
METEOROLOGY
Choices height of the aircraft above the surface:
Answers Correct
A 6204 ft
B 4824 ft B
C 6876 ft
D 6474 ft
Question Given:
Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa
Choices Altimeter reading: 5000 ft
Outside air temperature at 5000 ft: +5oC
QFE: 958 hPa
QNH: 983 hPa
What is the true height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?

Answers Correct
A 4325 ft
B 4190 ft
C 3515 ft C
D 4865 ft
Question You are flying over the sea at FL 250 and measure an outside temperature of 50oC. The pressure at sea level
is 10213 hPa. What is your approximate true altitude calculated using normal vertical change in temperature
Choices with increase in height?
Answers Correct
A 23770 ft/AMSL A
B 26230 ft/AMSL
C 26770 ft/AMSL
D 23230 ft/AMSL
Question (Refer to figure 050-14)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The
altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
A The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
B The true altitude will be higher at A than at B B
C Wind speed at A is higher than at B
METEOROLOGY
D Wind speed at A and at B is the same
Ref ATPL AND H
A Wind speed at B is higher than at A
B The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
C Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A
D The true altitude will be higher at B than at A D
Ref ATPL AND H
A Wind speed at B is higher than at A
B The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
C Wind speed at A and at B is the same
D The true altitude will be higher at B than at A D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 ft. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is:

A 942 hPa A
B 967 hPa
C 961 hPa
D 948 hPa
Ref All
Question An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude
reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level?
A It will increase
B It will decrease B
C It will remain the same
D It will not be affected
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question The QNH level at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC
lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
A Less than 1009 hPa
B 1009 hPa
C More than 1009 hPa C
Ref All
Question An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to
the local QNH, the reading will be approximately:
A 7650 ft A
B 8600 ft
C 8350 ft
D 8000 ft
Ref All
Question The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is
10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B Less than 1030 hPa
C 1030 hPa
D More than 1030 hPa D
Ref All
Question An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013
hPa. The altimeter will indicate:
A 1200 ft
B 1375 ft B
C 1105 ft
D 1280 ft
Ref All
Question The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL.
Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000 (-12) 18000 (-11), 16000 (-10), 14000 (-10), 12000 (-6),
Choices 10000 (-2), 8000 (+2), 6000 (+6), 4000 (+12), 2000 (+15), surface (+15).
Answers Correct
METEOROLOGY
Question The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL.
Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000 (-12) 18000 (-11), 16000 (-10), 14000 (-10), 12000 (-6),
10000 (-2), 8000 (+2), 6000 (+6), 4000 (+12), 2000 (+15), surface (+15).
A The layer between 16000 and 18000 ft is absolutely unstable
B The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 ft
C The temperature at 10000 ft is in agreement with the temperature in the International Standard
Atmosphere
D Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be D
higher than the indicated altitude
Ref All
Question An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa.
What will it indicate?
A 1080 ft A
B 700 ft
C 380 ft
D 0 ft
Ref All
Question You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ft. What is the temperature deviation from that
of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013.2 hPa)?
A ISA + 12oC
B ISA +/- 0oC
C ISA +20oC
D ISA -20oC D
Ref All
Question The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if:

A the outside air temperature is standard for that height
B standard atmospheric conditions occur B
C the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
D the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually
flown?
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually
flown?
A Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude
B Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
C Air temperature higher than standard C
D Air temperature lower than standard
Ref All
Question What pressure is defined as QFE?

A The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
B The pressure of the altimeter
C The pressure at field elevation C
D The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
Ref All
Question During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transiktion altitude. If the local
QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?
B It will increase
C It will remain the same
D It will decrease D
Ref All
Question An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the
following is correct concerning its true altitude?=
A It remains constant
B It increases
C It decreases C
D Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question cannot be answered
Ref All
Question In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?

A Elevation and the temperature at the airfield
B Temperature at the airfield
METEOROLOGY
Question In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
C Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL

D Elevation of the airfield D
Ref All
Question If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?

A 1005 hPa
B 995 hPa
C 1000 hPa C
D 1025 hPa
Ref All
Question You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40oC and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What
is the true altitude?
A 20660 feet
B 19310 feet B
C 21740 feet
D 18260 feet
Ref All
Question The QNH at an airfield located 6 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not
available. What is the QFF?
C More than 1022 hPa
D 1022 hPa D
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?

A QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
B QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
C QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 ft (488m) C
D QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
Ref All
Question Which statement is true?

A QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL
B QNH cannot be 1013.25 hPa
C QNH is lower than 1013.25 at any time
D QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.5 hPa D
Ref All
Question When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates:

A zero while landing
B elevation while landing B
C elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere
D zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere
Ref All
Question The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is
10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
A More than 1018 hPa A
C 1018 hPa
Ref All
Question QNH is defined as:

A The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere
B The pressure at MSL, obtained using the actual conditions
C QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
D QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question The QNH is equal to the QFE if:

A T actual < T standard
B T actual = T standard
C T actual > T standard
D the elevation = 0 D
Ref All
Question The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15oC below FL 100.
What is the true altitude of FL 100?
A 9740 ft
B 10160 ft
C 8640 ft C
D 11460 ft
Ref All
Question An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A It is colder than ISA
B There is insufficient information to make any assumption B
C It is warmer than ISA
D Its average temperature is the same as ISA
Ref All
Question The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC lower
B More than 1016 hPa
C 1016 hPa
D Less than 1016 hPa D
Ref All
Question In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known?

A Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
METEOROLOGY
Question In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known?
B Temperature at the airfield

C Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D Elevation of the airfield D
Ref All
Question After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 ft.
The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
A 1015 hPa
B 1028 hPa B
C 1013 hPa
D 998 hPa
Ref All
Question An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa.
What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
B Its average temperature is about ISA
C It is colder than ISA
D It is warmer than ISA D
Ref All
Question Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight
over mountains could be dangerous?
A Cold high
B Warm depression
C Cold low C
D Warm high
Ref All
Question An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences
no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that:
A the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
B the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
C the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille C
METEOROLOGY
Question An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences
no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that:
D one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
Ref All
Question During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What
information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A Its average temperature is the same as ISA
B It is colder than ISA B
C It is warmer than ISA
D There is insufficient information to make any assumption
Ref All
Question For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield
is:
A 120 metres
B 600 metres
C 540 metres
D 160 metres D
Ref All
Question If the QFE at Locarnho (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?

A 1015 hPa
B 1000 hPa
C 1005 hPa C
D 1010 hPa
Ref All
Question If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?

A 985 hPa
B 1025 hPa B
C 990 hPa
D 1035 hPa
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft. Should this altimeter be adjusted to
the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be:
A 2922 ft
B 3006 ft B
C 4278 ft
D 4194 ft
Ref All
Question You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27oC and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What
is the true altitude?
A 15630 feet
B 15100 feet B
C 16370 feet
D 16910 feet
Ref All
Question At the official measuring level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at QNH for the airport,
should read:
A the elevation of the airport, but only at standard ISA temperature A
B the elevation of the airport, regardless of temperature
C zero, regardless of temperature
D zero, only at standard ISA temperature
Ref All
Question Which factors below increase density altitude for a given aerodrome:
Choices 1) Decreasing air pressure

2) Increasing air pressure
3) Decreasing temperature
4) Increasing temperature
Answers Correct
A 1, 2
B 1, 4 B
C 2, 3
D 2, 4
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest take off run, if the airports have the same QNH?

A High temperature and low airport elevation
B Low temperature and low airport elevation B
C High temperature and high airport elevation
D Low temperature and high airport elevation
Ref All
Question On the ground, an altimeter will read ___ if QFE is set and ___ if QNH is set

A airfield elevation; airfield altitude
B zero ft; airfield altitude
C zero ft; airfield height
D zero ft; airfield elevation D
Ref All
Question If flying North with easterly drift, an aircraft's altimeter will progressively:

A under-read
B over-read B
C remain correct
D impossible to say - it depends on the atmospheric pressure
Ref All
Question The barometric reading of pressure must be corrected for the following errors:

A temperature, index, instrument
B index, temperature, pressure
C instrument, gravity, temperature
D instrument, temperature, pressure D
Ref All
Question An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation
3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?
A 1042
METEOROLOGY
Question An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation
3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?
B 996
C 1013
D 1030 D
Ref All
Question If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,

A the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSL
B the conditions must be as in the ISA
C the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA
D the airport must be at MSL D
Ref All
Question Pressure altitude is obtained by:

A setting the altimeter to QFF pressure
B correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA
C setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea level
D setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure D
Ref All
Question Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa pressure level?

A FL 300
B FL 390 B
C FL 100
D FL 50
Ref All

A FL 390
B FL 300 B
C FL 100
METEOROLOGY
D FL 50
Ref All

A FL 100
B FL 160
C FL 180 C
D FL 390
Ref All

A FL 300
B FL 180
C FL 100 C
D FL 390
Ref All

A FL 100
B FL 50 B
C FL 300
D FL 390
Ref All
Question You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic and there is a cross
wind from the right all the time. Your true altitude will:
A increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
B decrease
C decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route
D increase D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
WIND - Definition and measurement
Question (Refer to figure 050-71)What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?

A Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas A
B Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing conditions
C You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently
D Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is the approximate speed of a 40 knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

A 25 m/sec
B 15 m/sec
C 20 m/sec C
D 30 m/sec
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-98)What does zone A depict?

A A trough A
B A ridge
C The warm sector
D The cold front
Ref All
Question What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?

A Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
B Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
C Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
D Direction relative to true north and speed in knots D
Ref All
Question The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because:

A the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force A
METEOROLOGY
Question The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because:
B contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper air
C the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure system
D the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to
the gradient force
Ref All
Question During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anti-cyclonic conditions, the:

A surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon A
B surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
C angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoon
D wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-10) Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B?

A 2
B 3 B
C 4
D 1
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-101)On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL 300?

A Zurich-Rome A
B London-Zurich
C Zurich-Copenhagen
D Paris-Bordeaux
Ref All
Question Wind is caused by?

A Mixing of fronts
B Horizontal pressure difference B
METEOROLOGY
Question Wind is caused by?
C Earth rotation
D Surface friction
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-98)What does zone C depict?

A A trough
B A ridge
C The warm sector C
D The cold front
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-108)What wind speed do you expect over Rome at FL 340?

A 145 kt A
B 340 kt
C 95 kt
D 140 km/h
Ref All
Question What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?

A Coriolis force
B Surface friction B
C The greater density of the air at the surface
D The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
Ref All

A Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas
B Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing conditions B
C You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently
D Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds
METEOROLOGY
Ref All
Question What is the approximate speed of a 25 knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?

A 60 km/h
B 35 km/h
C 55 km/h
D 45 km/h D
Ref All
Question What prevents air from flowing directly from high pressure areas to low pressure areas?

A The pressure gradient force
B Surface friction
C Katabatic force
D Coriolis force D
Ref All
Question What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots:

A 55 kt
B 50 kt B
C 60 kt
D 70 kt
Ref All
Question The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:

A curvature of isobars A
B friction
C horizontal temperature gradients
D slope of pressure surfaces
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-98)What does zone B depict?

A A trough
B A ridge
C The warm sector
D The cold front D
Ref All
Question In an area of Converging air in low level:

A convective clouds can be dissolved
B stratified clouds can be dissolved
C clouds cannot be formed
D clouds can be formed D
Ref All
Question What relationship exists between the wind at 3,000 feet and the surface wind?

A The wind at 3,000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the A
isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker
B They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction
C The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern hemisphere
D the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern hemisphere D
Ref All

A A gale has an average speed of 33 kts or more
B A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
C A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
D The more stable the atmosphere, the less turbulence D
Ref All
Question A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of

METEOROLOGY
WIND - Primary cause of wind
Question A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of
A 10 m/sec A
B 40 m/sec
C 10 km/h
D 50 km/h
Ref All
Question In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:

A direct from high to low pressure areas
B clockwise around anti-cyclones and cyclones
C clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anti-cyclones
D clockwise around anti-cyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones D
Ref All
Question In this question the wind speed with straight isobars (vst), the wind speed around a high pressure system
(vhigh) and the wind speed around a low pressure system (vlow) in the southern hemisphere are being compared
Choices while pressure gradient and latitude are:
Answers Correct
A vst < vhigh and vst < vlow
B vst > vhigh and vst < vlow
C vst < vhigh and vst > vlow C
D vst > vhigh and vst > vlow
Ref All
Question For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be?

A greater at 60oN than at 30oN
B greater at 30oN than at 60oN B
C equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component
D the same at all latitudes north or south of 15o
Ref All
Question The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other
conditions being the same):
A always higher
METEOROLOGY
Question The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other
conditions being the same):
B higher if curvature is anti-cyclonic B
C always lower
D higher if curvature is cyclonic
Ref All
Question What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very
close together?
A Strong and parallel to the isobars
B Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars
C Strong the flowing across the isobars C
D Moderate and parallel to the isobars
Ref All
Question In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a
low pressure area at FL 100?
A Wind from the left
B Wind from the right B
C Tailwind with no drift
D Headwind with no drift
Ref All
Question Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:

A straight lines and no friction is involved A
B curved lines and no friction is involved
C straight lines and friction is involved
D curved lines and friction is involved
Ref All
Question The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the:

A centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient A
B centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
C coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient
METEOROLOGY
Question The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the:
D coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force

Ref All
Question Under anti-cyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind
is:
A less than the geostrophic wind
B greater than the geostrophic wind B
C the same as the thermal component
D proportional only to the coriolis force
Ref All
Question The greater the pressure gradient the:

A further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
B closer the isobars and the stronger the wind B
C closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
D further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
Ref All
Question Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if
any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude?
A Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered
B It increases
C It remains constant
D It decreases D
Ref All
Question When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely
to be:
A strong A
B blowing perpendicular to the isobars
C changing direction rapidly
D light
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high and low-pressure systems
that are shown on a surface weather chart?
A When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities A
are stronger
B Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars
C Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature
D When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular
clouds
Ref All
Question Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

A Pressure gradient force, coriolis force A
B Friction force, pressure gradient force, coriolis force
C Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, centrifugal force
D Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force
Ref All
Question An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for
drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure?
A To the left
B Behind
C In front C
D To the right
Ref All
Question Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?

A At the centre of a high pressure system
B At the centre of a low pressure system
C In the transition zone between two air masses C
D Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months
Ref All
Question The geostrophic wind depends on:
METEOROLOGY
Question The geostrophic wind depends on:

A density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude A
B earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
C geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
D centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
Ref All
Question The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the:

A density of the air
B horizontal pressure gradient B
C curvature of isobars
D sine of latitude
Ref All
Question Geostrophic wind:

A always increases with increasing height
B veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
C is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force C
D is directly proportional to the density of the air
Ref All
Question A pressure gradient is said to exist when:

A two columns of air have different temperatures
B surface pressure is compared at two different points on the earth's surface
C two points at the same level have a different atmospheric pressure C
D two points on the earth's surface have the same isobar passing through them
Ref All
Question The pressure gradient force acts:

A parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the Northern hemisphere)
METEOROLOGY
Question The pressure gradient force acts:
B perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind it

C perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure C
D parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure
Ref All
Question The wind, which blows when the gradient and geostrophic forces are in balance, is:

A the gradient wind
B the coriolis wind
C the geostrophic wind C
D the surface
Ref All
Question A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the following conditions:

A straight and parallel isobars, unchanging pressure field, no friction A
B uniformly curved isobars, constant pressure field, 2000 ft wind
C circular isobars, slack pressure gradient, no friction
D parallel isobars, constant pressure field, no friction
Ref All
Question For a given latitude, which of the following statements is true:

A Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects its speed and direction
B Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects speed but not direction
C Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects direction but not speed C
D none of the above since the geostrophic force is only an apparent force
Ref All
Question With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?

A The geostrophic force decreases near the poles A
B The geostrophic force is non-existent at the equator
C The geostrophic force varies in direct proportion to the wind speed
METEOROLOGY
Question With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?
D The pressure gradient force is a maximum at the poles

Ref All
Question The gradient wind:

A blows across the isobars when there is a surface pressure gradient
B is the 2000 ft geostrophic wind
C is the surface wind affected by friction
D blows parallel to curved isobars due to a combination of the pressure gradient force, D
geostrophic force and cyclostrophic force
Ref All
Question The effect of curved isobars on geostrophic wind speed correction is:

A greater at high latitudes
B greater at low altitudes
C less at high latitudes C
D no effect
Ref All
Question The gradient wind is:

A less that the geostrophic wind around a low A
B more than the geostrophic wind around a low
C less that the geostrophic wind around a high
D none of the above
Ref All
Question In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:

A back and decrease A
B veer and decrease
C back and increase
D veer and increase
METEOROLOGY
Question In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is untrue?

A At night the surface wind is lighter in speed and more inclined towards low pressure
B Over land, the surface wind is backed by 15o to the isobars and is 2/3 geostrophic speed B
C The steeper the pressure gradient, the less marked the nocturnal effect
D At night, the wind can be geostrophic down to 1000 ft or less
Ref All
Question For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50oN and 30oN the gradient wind speed
will be least at latitude:
A 30oN in an anti-cyclone
B 50oN in an anti-cyclone
C 30oN with a cyclonic circulation
D 50oN with a cyclonic circulation D
Ref All
Question When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface
wind to:
A back and increase
B back and decrease B
C veer and decrease
D veer and increase
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-48)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone U
is in area of:
A SW trade winds
B travelling depressions
C NE trade winds C
D sub-tropical high pressure
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-100)Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt-Rome at FL 170:

A 200/50 kt
B 230/40 kt B
C 060/50 kt
D 030/35 kt
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-48)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone Y
is an area of:
A SE trade winds
B NE trade winds
C travelling low pressure systems C
D sub-tropical high pressure systems
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-107)What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL 290:

A 360/80 kt A
B 030/70 kt
C 190/75 kt
D 340/90 kt
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-107)What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?

A -55oC
B -51oC
C -63oC
D -47oC D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone T
is an area of:
A NE trade winds
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone T
is an area of:
B SE trade winds
C travelling low pressure systems C
D sub-tropical high pressure systems
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of:

A equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical convergence zone over central
Australia
B Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia
and Antarctica
C disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting
in strong winds, low cloud and rain
D sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent D
zone of disturbed temperate low pressure
Ref All
Question Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the sub-tropical high pressure belt?

A 55o - 75o
B 10o - 15o
C 35o - 55o
D 25o - 35o D
Ref All
Question In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10oN and 20oN the prevailing winds are:

A NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
B NE trade winds B
C SE trade winds
D SW winds throughout the whole year
Ref All
Question The average slope of a cold front is in the order of:

METEOROLOGY
WIND - Turbulence
Question The average slope of a cold front is in the order of:
A 1:150
B 1:250
C 1:500
D 1:80 D
Ref All
Question You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the
following statements is correct?
A If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude A
B If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
C If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude
D If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude
Ref All
Question Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface wind in relation to the air
pressure in the Northern hemisphere?
A The wind over land blows parallel to the isobars
B The wind around a high pressure blows clockwise and slants across the isobars towards higher
pressure
C The wind blows counter-clockwise around a low and slants across the isobars towards lower C
pressure
D The wind blows counter-clockwise around a high and clockwise around a low
Ref All
Question During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the:

A wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
B surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
C angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the mid-afternoon
D surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid-afternoon D
Ref All
Question Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?

METEOROLOGY
WIND - Turbulence
Question Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
A Altocumulus lenticularis A
B Stratocumulus
C Cirrocumulus
D Nimbostratus
Ref All
Question Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?There may be moderate
changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
Choices Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0g at the aircraft's
centre of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and
walking are difficult.
Answers Correct
A Severe
B Light
C Moderate C
D Violent
Ref All
Question What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the
summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
A Moderate turbulence in NS cloud
B Severe turbulence in CB cloud B
C Light turbulence in CB cloud
D Light turbulence in ST cloud
Ref All
Question On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced:

A immediately after sunset
B during the early afternoon B
C during early morning hours before sunshine
D about mid-morning
Ref All
Question Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:
METEOROLOGY
WIND - Variation of wind with height
Question Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:

A a high risk of thunderstorms
B poor visibility at surface
C smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
D turbulence at and below the cloud level D
Ref All
Question If a strong wind perpendicular to a ridge decreases or reverses in direction at medium and high levels the
likely result is:
A travelling rotors with very severe turbulence A
B stationary rotors with very severe turbulence
C stationary rotors with light turbulence
D travelling rotors with light turbulence
Ref All
Question If Paris reports a wind of 08010 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a
height of 2000 feet above the ground?
A 11020 kt A
B 08015 kt
C 05020 kt
D 08005 kt
Ref All
Question You are flying at 2500 ft/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level
directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude,
Choices northern hemisphere)?
Answers Correct
A South
B South-southwest
C Southwest
D South-southeast D
Ref All
Question In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure
area because:
METEOROLOGY
Question In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure
area because:
A turbulence is formed and pressure decreases
B the pressure gradient increases
C turbulence is formed and pressure increases
D wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases D
Ref All
Question In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows:

A from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
B counter-clockwise around, and towards the centre of, a low pressure area B
C clockwise around, and away from the centre of a low pressure area
D counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area
Ref All
Question In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by:

A the imbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the coriolis force
B centripetal forces
C frictional forces C
D the curvature of the isobars
Ref All
A 16020 kt
B 22030 kt B
C 25025 kt
D 22010 kt
Ref All
Question At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the
tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind:
A veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
B backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
METEOROLOGY
Question At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the
tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind:
C veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer C
D backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
Ref All
Question In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24 over the sea the
surface wind would approximate:
A 340/20 A
B 030/20
C 240/28
D 030/28
Ref All
Question The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anti-cyclone because the:

A centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
B centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient B
C effect of coriolis is added to friction
D coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
Ref All
A 30025 kt
B 23030 kt
C 33025 kt C
D 27020 kt
Ref All
height of 2000 feet above the ground:
A 14020 kt
B 16030 kt
C 19040 kt C
D 17015 kt
METEOROLOGY
height of 2000 feet above the ground:
Ref All
Question Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 ft AGL are south westerly while most of the surface winds are
southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions?
A A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes
B Stronger coriolis force at the surface
C The influence of warm air at the lower altitude
D Friction between the wind and the surface D
Ref All
Question An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast.
When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final
Choices approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?
Answers Correct
A Tail wind
B Head wind
C Crosswind from the left C
D Crosswind from the right
Ref All
Question During a descent from 2000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage) the wind
normally:
A veers and decreases
B backs and decreases B
C veers and increases
D backs and increases
Ref All
Question The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on:

A wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
B roughness of surface, temperature, local time
C temperature, local time environmental lapse rate
D stability, wind speed, roughness of surface D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere
where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant?
A There is a cross wind from the right
B There is a cross wind from the left
C There is no cross wind C
D Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question cannot be answered
Ref All
Question An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly
away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from?
A From the left and slightly on the tail
B From the right and slightly on the nose
C From the right and slightly on the tail
D From the left and slightly on the nose D
Ref All
Question In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows:

A during the day up from the valley
B at night up from the valley
C during the day down from the mountains
D at night down from the mountains D
Ref All
Question In a land and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:

A during the day and is stronger than the sea breeze
B during the night and is weaker than the sea breeze B
C during the day and is weaker than the sea breeze
D during the night and is stronger than the sea breeze
Ref All
Question Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

A It blows from land to water A
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following is true of a land breeze?
B It blows from water to land

C It blows by day
D It blows only at noon
Ref All
Question Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:

A backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
B veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
C backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface C
D veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
Ref All
Question A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby
airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?
A Parallel to the coastline
B Land to sea
C Variable
D Sea to land D
Ref All
Question In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 ft/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area,
will find the wind blowing from:
A about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead
B right and behind
C left and behind C
D directly ahead
Ref All
Question The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the:

A valley during daylight hours
B mountain at night
C mountain during daylight hours C
METEOROLOGY
Question The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the:
D valley during daylight as much as at night

Ref All
Question The sea breeze is a wind from the sea:

A blowing at night in mid latitudes
B that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
C occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime C
D occurring only in mid latitudes and in day time
Ref All
Question When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will
experience wind:
A continually from land to water
B from the water in daytime and from the land at night B
C continually from water to the land
D from the land in day time and from the water at night
Ref All
Question An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast.
When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind effect should be anticipated on final
Choices approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?
Answers Correct
A Cross wind from the left
B Cross wind from the right B
C Tailwind
D Headwind
Ref All
Question A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:

A down the slope during the night A
B up the slope during the day
C down the slope during the day
D up the slope during the night
METEOROLOGY
Question A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:
Ref All
Question In the northern hemisphere with an anti-cyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 ft over the
sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be:
A 075/12
B 060/18
C 060/12
D 045/12 D
Ref All
Question The normal maximum height of the sea breeze in mid altitudes is approximately:

A 5000 ft
B 200 ft
C 500 - 1000 ft C
D 50 ft
Ref All
Question A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region
during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?
A Land to sea
B Sea to land B
C Variable
D Parallel to the coastline
Ref All
Question Sea breezes are most likely to occur when:

A slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures A
B a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist
C a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies at night exist
D a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23oS) at FL 350
in July?
A A polar front jet stream followed by a sub-tropical jet stream and later, a second polar front
jet stream
B A sub-tropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream
C A polar front jet stream followed by one or two sub-tropical jet streams C
D One sub-tropical jet stream
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?

A 70 kt
B 50 kt
C 60 kt C
D 100 kt
Ref ATPL AND H
Question In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

A About 12000 ft above the core
B The warm air side of the core
C Exactly in the centre of the core
D The cold air side of the core D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19oN - 73oE) to Bangkok
(13oN - 100oE). What wind conditions can you expect?
A A – Light winds diagonal to the route
B B – Head winds B
C C – Tail winds
D D – Strong northerly winds
Ref ATPL AND H
Question While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 ft below its core) and OAT is
decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
METEOROLOGY
Question While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 ft below its core) and OAT is
decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
A A head wind
B Cross wind from the right B
C Cross wind from the left
D A tail wind
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?

A Just below the cold air tropopause
B In the cold air mass
C Just above the warm air tropopause
D In the warm air mass D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?

A Equatorial jet stream/arctic jet stream
B Equatorial jet stream/polar front jet stream
C Arctic jet stream/sub-tropical jet stream
D Sub-tropical jet stream/polar front jet stream D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced:

A A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
B A curved jet stream near a deep trough B
C A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
D A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
Ref ATPL AND H
Question A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
wind profile (Northern hemisphere)
Choices
900 hPa 220/20 kt 800 hPa 220/25 kt
700 hPa 230/35 kt 500 hPa 260/60 kt
400 hPa 280/85 kt 300 hPa 300/100 kt
METEOROLOGY
Question A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
wind profile (Northern hemisphere)
900 hPa 220/20 kt 800 hPa 220/25 kt

700 hPa 230/35 kt 500 hPa 260/60 kt
400 hPa 280/85 kt 300 hPa 300/100 kt
250 hPa 310/120 kt 200 hPa 310/80 kt
Which system is the jet stream associated with:

Answers Correct
A With an easterly wave
B With a cold front
C With a ITCZ
D With a warm front D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question At approximately what altitude is the sub-tropical jet stream found over Europe?

A FL 500
B FL 200
C FL 300
D FL 400 D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?

A The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region
B The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low over
Iceland
C The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front C
D Strong winds in the upper atmosphere
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?

A 50000 ft
B 20000 ft
C 40000 ft
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
D 30000 ft D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which area of a polar front jet steam in the northern hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence?

A Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core A
B Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core
C In the core of the jet stream
D Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct?

A It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core
B It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
C It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient, the slope of the pressure C
surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum
D It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams?

A Horizontal dimension
B Vertical dimensions
C Wind direction C
D Wind speed
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?

A 30,000 ft
B 20,000 ft B
C 40,000 ft
D 50,000 ft
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
Ref ATPL AND H

Question You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a
strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes.
A You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no
temperature difference between the two air masses
B This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core B
C Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the instruments
tested
D This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature differences
are possible at these heights
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?

A The arctic jet stream
B The polar night jet stream
C The equatorial jet stream
D The sub-tropical jet stream D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction. There is, however, an
important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered?
A In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean
B In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa B
C In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern
Spain
D Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high
Ref ATPL AND H
Question On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere.
This means that:
A above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
B the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
C below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
METEOROLOGY
Question On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere.
This means that:
D the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-39)What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B)?

A Polar front jet stream
B Equatorial jet stream
C Sub-tropical jet stream C
D Arctic jet stream
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?

A At about 5500 metres altitude
B Just below the tropopause B
C Close to the ground
D In the stratosphere
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?

A The arctic jet stream
B The polar front jet stream B
C The sub-tropical jet stream
D The equatorial jet stream
Ref ATPL AND H
Question An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would
the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?
A It first increases, then decreases
B It increases
C It decreases C
D It remains constant
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves
towards the:
A south and speed decreases
B north and speed decreases
C south and speed increases C
D north and speed increases
Ref ATPL AND H
Question An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 ft below its core at right angles. While
crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is:
A head wind
B from the left
C tail wind
D from the right D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section?

A 1/1
B 1/10
C 1/1000
D 1/100 D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be worldwide regarded as:

A possible but a very rare phenomenon A
B not possible
C a common occurrence
D not unusual in polar regions
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?

A In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
B In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur B
C In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
D In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
Ref ATPL AND H
Question In January, a mean sub-tropical jet appears at:

A 30oS
B 30oN B
C 60oS
D 50oS
Ref ATPL AND H
Question A jet stream is:

A a band of strong winds only found near thunderstorms
B a broad band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross section
C a narrow band of strong winds only found near fronts
D a narrow band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross section D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question The normal maximum speeds of the Polar Front Jet are in the region of:

A 150 kt in January/135 kt in July A
B 150 kt in July/135 kt in January
C 150 kt in July/50 kt in January
D 135 kt in July/135 kt in January
Ref ATPL AND H
Question At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually strongest?

A October
B January
C There is no annual variation
METEOROLOGY
Question At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually strongest?
D July D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Isotechs are lines joining equal:

A wind speed lapse rates
B sea level pressures
C horizontal wind speed gradients
D wind speeds D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located in the:

A polar air above the tropopause
B tropical air above the tropopause
C tropical air below the tropopause C
D polar air below the tropopause
Ref ATPL AND H
Question The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the:

A tropical air above the tropical tropopause
B polar air above the tropopause
C polar air below the tropopause
D tropical air below the tropopause D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What is necessary for the development of a polar front jet stream?

A An unstable atmosphere up to great heights
B Strong vertical temperature gradients
C A uniform pressure pattern
D Strong horizontal temperature gradients D
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-39)What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A)?

A Tropical jet stream A
B Polar front jet stream
C Arctic jet stream
D Sub-tropical jet stream
Ref ATPL AND H
Question An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern
hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced?
A It decreases A
B It increases
C It stays the same
D It decreases and then increases
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found:

A Just above the warm air tropopause
B In the polar air mass
C In the tropical air mass C
D Just below the cold air tropopause
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-11)In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?

A 1
B 2
C 3 C
D 3
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Standing waves are likely when:

A wind speeds are uniform with height
METEOROLOGY
Question Standing waves are likely when:
B the atmosphere is uniformly stable

C the wind direction is at 45o to the ridge of the hills
D none of the above D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is:

A altocumulus lenticularis A
B cirrostratus
C cirrus
D cumulus mediocris
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-42)Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?

A In Central Europe A
B Over the North Sea
C In the Mediterranean Sea
D Over the Baltics
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figue 050-42)What does this picture depict?

A A westerly wave over Central Europe A
B A high pressure area over Central Europe
C South foehn
D North foehn
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-44)Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Zurich airport?

A TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT +SHSN W002=
B TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OV3015=
C TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 C
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-44)Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Zurich airport?
D TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-43)Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?

A In Central Europe
B Over Scandinavia B
C In the Mediterranean Sea
D Over the Baltics
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Relative humidity:

A is not affected by temperature changes of the air
B is not affected when air is ascending or descending
C changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant C
D does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant
Ref All
Question The dew point temperature:

A cannot be equal to the air temperature
B is always lower than the air temperature
C is always higher than the air temperature
D can be equal to the air temperature D
Ref All
Question Relative humidity:

A is higher in cool air than in warm air
B is higher in warm air than in cool air
C increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant C
D decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Relative humidity depends on:

A temperature of the air only
B moisture content and pressure of the air
C moisture content of the air only
D moisture content and temperature of the air D
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?

A It can be used to estimate the air mass - relative humidity even if the air temperature is
unknown
B It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
C It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass - relative humidity
D It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass D
Ref All
Question During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12oC and a dew point of +5oC were measured. What
temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation?
A It must decrease to +6oC
B It must decrease by 5oC
C It must decrease to +5oC C
D It must decrease to +7oC
Ref All
Question Dew point is defined as:

A the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the
absorption of latent heat
B the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
C the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity
D the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure D
Ref All
Question Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:
METEOROLOGY
Question Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:

A dew point and air temperature
B water vapour weight and dry air weight
C water vapour weight and humid air volume
D actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content D
Ref All
Question When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?

A It increases up to 100%, then remains stable
B It increases
C It remains constant
D It decreases D
Ref All
Question The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced
by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
A It is not influenced by changing water vapour
B It increases with increasing water vapour B
C It decreases with increasing water vapour
D It is only influenced by temperature
Ref All
Question Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?

A Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100 A
B Ratio between air temperature and dew point temperature X 100
C Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
D Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
Ref All
Question How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?

A When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point remains constant
METEOROLOGY
B When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew point decreases
C When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point increases
D When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point remains constant D
Ref All
Question The dew point temperature:

A can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant
B can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant B
C cannot be equal to the air temperature
D cannot be lower than the air temperature
Ref All
Question The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:

A dew point
B relative humidity
C stability of the air
D air temperature D
Ref All
Question The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in:

A air with low temperature
B moist air
C air with high temperature
D dry air D
Ref All
Question What does dew point mean?

A The temperature at which ice melts
B The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation B
C The freezing level (danger of icing)
METEOROLOGY
Question What does dew point mean?
D The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same
Ref All
Question How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature changes?

A It increases with increasing temperature
B It is not influenced by temperature changes
C It decreases with increasing temperature C
D It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour
Ref All
Question In a high relative humidity condition, which of the following sets of conditions is true?

A High evaporation rate; reduced latent heat absorption; small wet/dry bulb difference
B Increased latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate; large wet/dry bulb difference
C Small wet/dry bulb difference; high evaporation rate; increased latent heat absorption
D Small wet/dry bulb difference; reduced latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate D
Ref All
Question What is true for the water vapour distribution in the layer between the surface and the 500 hPa pressure
surface in the trade wind belt?
A The lower part is relatively dry and the upper part is relatively moist
B The whole layer is relatively dry
C The whole layer is relatively moist
D The lower part is relatively moist and the upper part is relatively dry D
Ref All
Question Super-cooled droplets can occur in:

A clouds but not in precipitation
B clouds, fog and precipitation B
C precipitation but not in clouds
D clouds but not in fog
METEOROLOGY
Question The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:

A super cooling
B sublimation B
C super saturation
D radiation cooling
Question In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

A Liquid to gas
B Solid to liquid
C Solid to gas
D Gas to liquid D
Question When water evaporates into unsaturated air:

A relative humidity is decreased
B heat is released
C relative humidity is not changed
D heat is absorbed D
Question A super cooled droplet is:

A a water droplet that is mainly frozen
B a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing B
C a small particle of water at a temperature below 50oC
D a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
Question Super cooled droplets can be encountered:

A only in winter at high altitude
METEOROLOGY
Question Super cooled droplets can be encountered:
B in winter only in high clouds

C only in winter above 10,000 ft
D at any time of the year D
Question Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:

A relative humidity reaches 98%
B water vapour is present
C water vapour condenses C
D temperature and dew point are nearly equal
Question A super cooled droplet is one that:

A is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air
B has frozen to become an ice pellet
C has a shell of ice with water inside it
D remains liquid at a below freezing temperature D
Question How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft?

A Only through un-burnt fuel in the exhaust gases
B Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing
tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air
C Through water vapour released during fuel combustion C
D In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases
Question Super cooled droplets are always:

A large and at a temperature below freezing
B small and at a temperature below freezing
METEOROLOGY
Question Super cooled droplets are always:
C at a temperature below freezing C

D at a temperature below -60oC
Question Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

A Solid direct to liquid
B Solid direct to vapour B
C Liquid direct to solid
D Liquid direct to vapour
Question What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 ft?

A 1.5oC
B 2.0oC
C 3.0oC C
D 3.5oC
Question If the surface temperature is 15oC, then the temperature at 10000 ft in a current of ascending unsaturated
air is:
A 5oC
B 0oC
C -15oC C
D -5oC
Question A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original
level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
A Lower than the starting temperature
B Higher than the starting temperature
C The same as the starting temperature C
D It depends upon the QFE
METEOROLOGY
Question A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original
level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
Question A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes?

A Specific humidity
B Absolute humidity
C Mixing ratio
D Relatie humidity D
Question A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by:

A expanding it adiabatically A
B raising the temperature
C lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant
D compressing it adiabatically
Question The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is:

A 0.65oC
B 2oC
C 1oC C
D 0.5oC
Question The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air
because:
A water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
B moist air is heavier than dry air
C water vapour does not cool as rapidly as dry air
D heat is released during the condensation process D
METEOROLOGY
Question If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at:

A the same rate as if the air mass were dry
B a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat B
C a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat
D a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat
Question Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?

A Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels
B Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels B
C Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100m
D Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100m
Question The stability in a layer is increasing if:

A warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
B warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part B
C warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
D cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
Question A layer in which the temperature increases with height is:

A conditionally unstable
B absolutely unstable
C absolutely stable C
D neutral
Question Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?

A The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65oC/100m
METEOROLOGY
Question Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?
B The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65oC/100m

C The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
D The environmental lapse rate is less than 1oC/100m D
Question In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1oC. This
layer can be described as being:
A conditionally stable
B absolutely stable
D absolutely unstable D
Question An inversion is:

A an absolutely stable layer A
B a conditionally unstable layer
C an unstable layer
D a layer that can be either stable or unstable
Question Rising air cools because:

A it becomes more moist
B surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
C it expands C
D it contracts
Question If in a 100m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10oC and at the top of the layer is
8oC then this layer is:
A absolutely unstable A
B absolutely stable
METEOROLOGY
Question If in a 100m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10oC and at the top of the layer is
8oC then this layer is:
D neutral
Question A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by:

A lowering the parcel to a lower level
B lifting the parcel to a higher level B
C moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature
D moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature
Question A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is:

A neutral
B unstable
C absolutely stable C
Question During an adiabatic process heat is:

A neither added nor lost
B added
C lost C
D added but the result is an overall loss
Question A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is:

A between 1oC per 100m and 0.65oC per 100m
B more than 1oC per 100m B
C 0.65oC per 100m
D less than 0.65oC per 100m
METEOROLOGY
Question The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by:

A temperature and dew point at the surface A
B temperature at surface and air pressure
C wind and dew point at the surface
D wet adiabatic lapse rate and dew point at the surface
Question The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the
atmosphere is approximately:
A 1.5oC
B 1oC
C 0.6oC C
D 0.35oC
Question A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1oC per 100m is:

B absolutely stable
C neutral for dry air C
Question What is the final temperature of unsaturated surface air at 12oC, which rises to 6000 ft?

A +30oC
B +18oC
C +30oC
D -06oC D
Question The average value of the ELR is:

A 1.5oC / 1000 ft
METEOROLOGY
Question The average value of the ELR is:
B 2.0oC / 1000 ft B
C 3.0oC / 1000 ft
D It varies daily
Question An ELR of 2.9oC per 1000 ft, is by definition:

A stable
B conditionally stable
C unstable
D conditionally unstable D
Question (Refer to figure 050-41)What can be said about this weather situation?

A Air mass thunderstorms may develop during summertime A
B Strong gradient winds may occur over Central Europe
C Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of the Alps
D No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-41)What does this picture depict?

A A westerly wave over Central Europe
B A high pressure area over Central Europe
C Uniform pressure pattern C
D North foehn
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?

A Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind A
B Unstable air
C Convection during the day
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
D The release of latent heat

Ref ATPL A, CPL H AND ATPL H
Question What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage?

A Convection process
B Sinking
C Lifting C
D Radiation
Question Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?

A Frontal lifting within stable layers
B Radiation
C Subsidence
D Convection D
Question A cumulonimbus cloud at mid latitudes in summer contains:

A only water droplets
B ice crystals, water droplets and super cooled water droplets B
C only ice crystals
D ice crystals and water droplets but never super cooled water droplets
Question What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?

A Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; light to moderate rime ice
B Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; nil icing
C Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; light to moderate icing
D Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; nil icing D
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels?

A CB A
B AC
C ST
D C1
Question Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?

A Stratus
B Nimbostratus B
C Altocumulus
D Cirrus
Question Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?

A ST, AS A
B CU, CB
C NS, CU
D CB, CC
Question Fall-streaks or virga are:

A water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground A
B strong down draughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
C gusts associated with a well developed Bora
D strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
Question Convective clouds are formed:

A in stable atmosphere
METEOROLOGY
Question Convective clouds are formed:
B in unstable atmosphere B
C in summer during the day only
D in mid latitudes only
Question (Refer to figure 050-02)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus
capillatus?
A D A
B A
C B
D C
Question Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of:

A the presence of a low level inversion
B instability in the atmosphere B
C the presence of warm air aloft
D poor surface visibility
Question In an unstable layer thee are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the:

A air pressure at the surface
B wind direction
C thickness of the unstable layer C
D pressure at different levels
Question What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds?

A Super cooled water droplets
B Ice crystals B
C Water droplets
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds?
D Water vapour
Question What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

A Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice
B Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain
C Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice C
D Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice
Question The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:

A presence of valley winds
B risk or orographic thunderstorms
C development of thermal lows
D presence of mountain waves D
Question In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?

A Within cloud of any type
B Below the freezing level in clear airC- In clear air above the freezing level
C In Nimbostratus cloud C
Question Cumulus clouds are an indication for:

A stability
B up and downdrafts B
C the approach of a cold front
D the approach of a warm front
METEOROLOGY
Question The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates:

A stability in the higher troposphere
B strong convection at low height
C instability in the middle troposphere C
D subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
Question The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of:

A severe instability
B anabatic winds
C katabatic winds
D lee waves D
Question Clouds will mainly consist of super cooled water droplets when the temperature is:

A between -5oC and -30oC
B between 0oC and -15oC B
C between -30oC and -40oC
D below -40oC
Question Lenticular clouds in mountainous areas indicate:

A unstable air
B turbulence B
C an inversion
D light variable winds
Question Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?

A Jet streams
METEOROLOGY
Question Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?
B Mountain waves B
C Stratospheric inversions
D Areas of high level clear air turbulence
Question (Refer to figure 050-66)The cloud most likely to be experienced in square 1E is:

A CS
B C1 B
C AS
D CB
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-34)The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is:

A AS A
B CU
C CB
D CS
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-34)The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is:

A NS A
B AC
C AS
D CB
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-34)During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is:

A ST
B AC
C CB C
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-34)During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is:
D CS
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-34)The cloud type most applicable to most of square 3B is:

A SC A
B CS
C AS
D NS
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-58)The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is:

A CS A
B CB
C NS
D SC
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-58)The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is:

A CS
B AS B
C CB
D CU
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-58)The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is:

A ST
B CS
C CB C
D SC
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-02)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus astellanus?

A A
B B
C C C
D D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-01)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus astellanus?

A 1
B 2
C 3 C
D 4
Ref ATPL AND H
Question What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform
appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline
Choices is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
Answers Correct
A Stratus A
B Altostratus
C Nimbostratus
D Cirrostratus
Ref All
Question Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?

A C1, CC
B SC, NS
C AS, AC C
D CS, ST
Ref All
Question Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?

METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
A ST, CS
B CU, CB B
C SC, NS
D C1, SC
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-02)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?

A B
B D
C A
D C D
Ref All
Question Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

A ST
B CS
C AS C
D SC
Ref All
Question Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?

A SC
B C1 B
C AS
D CU
Ref All
Question Which of the following are medium level clouds?

A Altostratus and altocumulus A
B Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following are medium level clouds?
C Cumulonimbus
D All convective clouds
Ref All
Question A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform
SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be
Choices expected?
Answers Correct
A 7000 - 15000 ft above ground
B 100 - 1500 ft above ground
C 1500 - 7000 ft above ground C
D 15000 - 25000 ft above ground
Ref All
Question Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from:

A 500 to 1000 ft
B 1000 to 2000 ft
C the surface to 6500 ft C
D 100 to 200 ft
Ref All
Question Altostratus clouds are classified as:

A convective clouds
B low level clouds
C high level clouds
D medium level clouds D
Ref All
Question Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?

A ST A
B CS
C AS
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?
D CC
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-03)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
lenticularis?
A 2 A
B 1
C 4
D 3
Ref All
Question A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform
CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be
Choices expected?
Answers Correct
A 15000 - 35000 ft above the terrain A
B 7000 - 15000 ft above the terrain
C 1500 - 7000 ft above the terrain
D 100 - 1500 ft above the terrain
Ref All
Question A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a
uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this
Choices cloud to be expected?
Answers Correct
A 1500 - 7000 ft above the terrain
B 100 - 1500 ft above the terrain
C 7000 - 15000 ft above the terrain C
D 15000 - 25000 ft above the terrain
Ref All
Question Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?

A Cumulonimbus A
B Cirrostratus
C Altocumulus
D Altostratus
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
Ref All
Question Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types Stratus and Nimbostratus?

A Neither cloud type may give precipitation
B Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may give rain showers
C Stratus may give rain showers and Nimbostratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains
D Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may give continuously D
falling rain or snow
Ref All
Question Altostratus (AS) and Nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you distinguish between them?

A The cloud base is higher in AS and precipitation, if any, is light A
B Precipitation falls from AS but not from NS
C Steady precipitation from AS
D The sun can be seen through NS
Ref All
Question Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall?

A Altostratus
B Nimbostratus B
C Cirrostratus
D Cumulonimbus
Ref All
Question A cumulus congestus is:

A a remnant of a CB
B a cumulus that is of great vertical extent B
C a cumulus with little vertical development
D a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispensed by:

A adiabatic cooling due to subsidence
B absorption of long waved solar radiation in the stratus layer
C the release of latent heat due to precipitation
D insulation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level D
Ref All
Question About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with well defined
contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright
Choices white. Their base, relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150. These
clouds are:
Answers Correct
A Altocumulus castellanus
B broken Cumulus humilis
C towering Cumulus C
D Stratocumulus
Ref All
Question After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can the base of these clouds become
higher during the day?
A Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point temperature at the initial
condensation level becomes smaller
B The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a warm air mass
C Because the stability increases
D Because the surface temperature increases D
Ref All
Question Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large pebbles or rollers,
together or not, and always clear of the ground are:
A Altostratus
B Stratus
C Stratocumulus C
D Nimbostratus
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions is most likely to lea to the formation of advection fog?
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following conditions is most likely to lea to the formation of advection fog?

A Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
B Moist warm air moving over a cold surface B
C Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
D Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
Ref All
Question Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?

A Dry, warm air passing over warm ground
B Heat loss from the ground on clear nights B
C The passage of fronts
D Cold air passing over warm ground
Ref All
Question Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?

A Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
B Moist air over land during clear night with little wind B
C Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
D Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
Ref All
Question What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

A 2000 ft
B 500 ft B
C 5000 ft
D 10000 ft
Ref All
Question Frontal fog is most likely to occur:

A in winter in the early morning
METEOROLOGY
Question Frontal fog is most likely to occur:
B in rear of a warm front

C in summer in the early morning
D in advance of a warm front D
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?

A Warm air moving over cold water
B Cold air moving over warm water B
C The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
D The coastal region of the sea cools at night
Ref All
Question At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?

A At sunset
B Shortly after sunrise B
C Late evening
D Shortly after midnight
Ref All
Question The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:

A above 15 kt
B between 10 and 15 kt
C between 5 and 10 kt
D below 5 kt D
Ref All
Question When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?

A When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air
B When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air B
C When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air
METEOROLOGY
Question When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
D When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air
Ref All
Question Freezing fog consists of:

A frozen water droplets
B super cooled water droplets B
C frozen minute snow flakes
D ice crystals
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?

A It forms slowly and disappears rapidly
B It forms at night or the early morning
C It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically
D It can be formed suddenly by day or night D
Ref All
Question What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?

A Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills A
B High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
C Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
D Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range
Ref All
Question The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dew point, is likely to
produce:
A a cold front
B radiation fog B
C advection fog
D good clear weather
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to
be:
A unlimited visibility
B clear and cool
C high scattered clouds
D fog or low cloud D
Ref All
Question What wind conditions, occurring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an airport where the
temperature is 15oC and the dew point is 14oC?
A Westerly, 10 kt variable
B Northerly, 10 kt
C Calm C
D Easterly, 10 kt
Ref All
Question The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:

A increasing surface wind speed A
B an increasingly stable atmosphere
C surface cooling
D a low level temperature inversion
Ref All
Question Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?

A A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air
mass
B A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
C Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
D A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground D
Ref All
Question Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:

METEOROLOGY
Question Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:
A that is stable
B with warm mass properties
C that is absolutely stable
D with cold mass properties D
Ref All
Question Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15oC and dew point of 12oC blows at 10
knots over a sea surface having temperature of 5oC?
A Radiation fog
B Advection fog B
C Steam fog
D Frontal fog
Ref All
Question Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?

A Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air A
B Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air
C Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air
D Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air
Ref All
Question Advection fog can be formed when:

A cold moist air flows over warmer water
B cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
C warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
D warm moist air flows over a colder surface D
Ref All
Question Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?

A Very dry air
B Little or no cloud B
METEOROLOGY
Question Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
C Strong surface winds

D Very low temperatures
Ref All
Question What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind
conditions?
A Radiation A
B Advection
C Steam
D Orographic
Ref All
Question Which one of the following statements regarding the meteorological horizontal visibility is the correct one?

A If the visibility varies in different directions, the visibility in the worst direction is
reported
B If the visibility varies in different directions, an average value of around the horizon is
reported
C The visibility is improved when darkness falls, because you distinguish a point of light more
easily than an unlighted mark
D Fog (FG) is used to describe visibility less than 1000 m except when qualified by MI, BC, PR or D
VC
Ref All
Question For (FG) is defined as being a:

A visibility of < 1,000m due to any precipitation in the atmosphere
B visibility of < = 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere
C visibility of < 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere C
D visibility of < 1,000m due to solid or liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere
Ref All
Question Mist (BR) is defined as being:

A reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence of water droplets in
the atmosphere
METEOROLOGY
Question Mist (BR) is defined as being:
B reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or liquid particles in the
atmosphere
C reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or liquid particles in the
atmosphere
D reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence of water droplets in D
the atmosphere
Ref All
Question According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the presence of solid particles
(lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
A < 5,000 m
B < = 5,000m B
C > 5,000m
D > = 5,000m
Ref All
Question Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are:

A high relative humidity, no cloud
B high relative humidity, little or no cloud
C high relative humidity, little or no cloud, a strong sea breeze
D high relative humidity, little or no cloud, little wind (2-8 kts or calm) D
Ref All

A Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind
B Radiation fog only forms in valleys (the katabatic effect)
C Radiation fog only forms when the air is very dry and there is an inversion
D Radiation fog cannot form over the sea D
Ref All
Question Radiation fog can be dispersed by:

A insulation
METEOROLOGY
Question Radiation fog can be dispersed by:
B strong winds
C replacement of moist air by drier air
D all of the above D
Ref All
Question Advection fog is caused by:

A dry air over a cold surface
B cold air over a warm moist surface
C air, cooler by at least 10oC, moving over a moist surface C
D none of the above
Ref All
Question Sea fog:

A is formed by advection
B can form a persist with moderate or even strong wind
C is cleared by change of air mass or less commonly by an increase in wind strength
Ref All
Question Advection fog is most likely to form when:

A cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kt
B cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
C a mild moist air stream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is less than 10 kt C
D warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15
kt
Ref All
Question Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:

A frontal fog
B advection fog
METEOROLOGY
Question Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
C no fog at all
D steaming fog D
Ref All
Question As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is formed. Which statement is
true?
A Layers of alto cumulus will develop caused by increasing wind speed
B Low stratus will develop caused by radiation in combination with low geostrophic wind speed
C Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speed C
D Stratocumulus will develop caused by insulation
Ref All
Question Frontal fog can be formed by:

A cooling at night
B condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling
C condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation C
D evaporation of moisture at the surface
Ref All
Question If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind speed from 5 kt to 13 kt will
most likely:
A disperse the fog immediately
B change the radiation fog to advection fog
C have no effect
D cause the fog to lift and become low stratus D
Ref All
Question In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
B A warm moist air mass on the windward side of the mountains
C An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter C
D Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions
METEOROLOGY
Question In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
Ref All
Question Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:

A low pressure systems over sea
B high pressure systems over land B
C high pressure systems over sea
D low pressure systems over land
Ref All
Question The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if

A air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another A
B the wind is strong
C the sky is overcast
D the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate
Ref All
Question What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog?

A Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by
evaporation over the sea
B Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea
C Radiation for forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to day time cooling
D Radiation for forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when D
warm humid air flows over a cold surface
Ref All
Question What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in spring time?

A Radiation fog
B Frontal fog
C Advection fog C
D Steaming fog
METEOROLOGY
Question What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in spring time?
Ref All
Question Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG?

A A layer of 5 feet deep A
B A layer of 10 feet deep
C A layer of 15 feet deep
D A layer of 20 feet deep
Ref All
Question Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with
thunderstorm?
A Convection
B Ground radiation B
C Convergence
D Orographic lift
Ref All
Question Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?

A Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater than 15 kt
B Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area
C A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in excess of 30 kt
D A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kt D
Ref All
Question Which statement is correct?

A Fog can be super cooled and can also contain ice crystals A
B Mist and haze consist of water droplets
C Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics
D Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?

A Advection fog
B Radiation fog B
C Arctic smoke
D Frontal fog
Ref All
Question Which is true of advection fog?

A It can appear suddenly by day or by night A
B It develops slowly and clears fast
C It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled
D It usually forms by night and clears by day
Ref All
Question The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

A freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude A
B a cold front has passed
C there are thunderstorms in the area
D a warm front has passed
Ref All
Question Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?

A Hail
B Moderate rain with large drops
C Heavy rain with large drops
D Drizzle D
Ref All
Question How does freezing rain develop?

A Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
METEOROLOGY
Question How does freezing rain develop?
B Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0oC B

C Through melting of sleet grains
D Through melting of ice crystals
Ref All
Question The widest precipitation zone occurs usually:

A ahead of a warm front A
B ahead of a cold front
C in rear of a cold front
D in rear of a warm front
Ref All
Question Freezing precipitation occurs:

A only in the precipitation of a warm front
B only in the precipitation of a cold front
C mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle C
D mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
Ref All
Question What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

A CS
B NS
C CB C
D AC
Ref All
Question With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated?

A CC
B AS
C ST
METEOROLOGY
Question With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated?
D CB D
Ref All
Question From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?

A Stratus A
B Altostratus
C Cumulus
D Cirrostratus
Ref All
Question Freezing rain occurs when:

A snow falls into an above freezing layer of air
B ice pellets melt
C water vapour first turns into water droplets
D rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0oC D
Ref All
Question With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated?

A CB A
B AS
C SC
D NS
Ref All
Question Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?

A Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0oC A
B Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0oC
C Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm
D An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0oC through which rain is falling
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months?

A NS, CC
B CB, ST
C SC, AS C
D AS, NS
Ref All
Question What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?

A Nimbostratus
B Cumulus and altostratus
C Altostratus and stratus
D Cumulus and cumulonimbus D
Ref All
Question Large hail stones:

A only occur in thunderstorms of mid latitudes
B are typically associated with severe thunderstorms B
C are entirely composed of clear ice
D only occur in frontal thunderstorms
Ref All
Question Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from:

A clouds containing only ice crystals
B stratified clouds
C cirro-type clouds
D convective clouds D
Ref All
Question What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?

A Nimbostratus
METEOROLOGY
Question What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?
B Towering cumulus and altostratus

C Altostratus and stratus
D Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus D
Ref All
Question Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation?

A SC
B CS
C NS C
D ST
Ref All
Question With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?

A Stratocumulus
B Cumulonimbus B
C Nimbostratus
D Stratus
Ref All
Question With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation most commonly associated?

A CB
B ST B
C CC
D CU
Ref All
Question With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most commonly associated?

A NS A
B AC
C SC
METEOROLOGY
Question With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most commonly associated?
D ST
Ref All
Question The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most
likely alternatives for NS cloud:
A Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and A
severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
B Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe
C Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe
D Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
Ref All
Question Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from:

A stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
B convective clouds with little or no turbulence
C stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence C
D convective clouds with moderate turbulence
Ref All
Question Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation?

A C1 A
B AS
C CB
D NS
Ref All
Question Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?

A Heavy rain
B Drizzle
C Hail
D Snow D
METEOROLOGY
Question Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?
Ref All
Question Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced below CB clouds situated:

A over the sea in middle latitudes
B over the sea near the equator
C in continental interiors near the equator
D in continental interiors in middle latitudes D
Ref All
Question Super cooled droplets can occur in:

A clouds, fog and precipitation A
B clouds but not in precipitation
C precipitation but not in clouds
D clouds but not in fog
Ref All
Question Where does polar continental air originate?

A The region of the Baltic sea
B Areas of arctic water
C Siberian landmass C
D The region of Greenland
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-47)What is the classification of the air mass affecting North-Western parts of France
at 0600 UTC?
A Tropical continental
B Polar maritime
C Polar continental
D Tropical maritime D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question An air mass is unstable when:

A temperature increases with height
B temperature and humidity are not constant
C pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
D an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height D
Ref All
Question What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in
the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia?
A The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North Russian air A
B The North Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores
C The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North Russian air
D The North Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores
Ref All
Question In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?

A Arctic maritime air
B Polar maritime air
C Tropical continental air
D Polar continental air D
Ref All
Question An air mass is stable when:

A pressure is constant
B temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears C
D the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
Ref All
Question Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?

A The Azores region
METEOROLOGY
Question Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
B Southern Italy
C Southern France
D The southern Balkan region and the Near East D
Ref All
Question In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?

A Baltic Sea
B Region of British Isles
C East of Greenland C
D Black Sea
Ref All
Question A stable humid warm air mass slowly over rides a cold one. Which one of the following weather types may
originate from this condition?
A The formation of thunder storms
B Warm front dissipation
C The forming of a warm front C
D The forming of a cold front
Ref All
Question Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone between two air masses?

A an unstable low pressure
B radiation fog
C a frontal low pressure C
D a ridge of high pressure
Ref All
Question A stationary front is a front in which:

A there are never frontal clouds
B there is no difference in temperature between the two air masses
C there is no wind on both sides of the front
METEOROLOGY
Question A stationary front is a front in which:
D there is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front D

Ref All
Question Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterised by:

A fog, poor visibility and layered clouds A
B strong winds, cumulus clouds, good visibility
C uniform temperature, good visibility
D Continuous rain and freezing temperature
Ref All
Question An air mass acquires its basic properties

A by widespread thunderstorms
B by the influence of jet streams
C by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristics C
D in the westerlies of the mid latitudes
Ref All
Question An air mass is stable when

A lifted air returns to its original level A
B temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C pressure is constant
D the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
Ref All
Question An air mass is unstable when

A pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
B temperature and humidity are not constant
C an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height C
D temperature increases with height
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question An air mass is:

A an extensive body of air within which the temperature and humidity in horizontal planes are A
practically uniform
B a large body of air with temperature and humidity constant in the vertical
C a body of air with a volume of not more than thousand cubic kilometres
D a large body of air within which the temperature and humidity is uniform in horizontal and
vertical planes
Ref All
Question An unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of clouds can be expected?

A Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversion
B Stratiform clouds with considerable turbulence
C Layer like clouds with little vertical development
D Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence D
Ref All
Question An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by

A stratiform cloud
B cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation B
C Continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud
D poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels
Ref All

A When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point remains constant A
B When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew point decreases
C When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew point increases
D When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point remain constant
Ref All
Question Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?

A Addition of water vapour in the lower layer
B Cooling by the underlying surface B
C Warming of the air mass from below
D Advection of colder air aloft
Ref All
Question What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km behind a
quickly moving cold front?
A Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers A
B Showers and thunderstorms
C Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS
D 9 octas CS, AS without precipitation
Ref All
Question In a warm front occlusion:

A the warm front becomes a front aloft
B the warm front overtakes the cold front
C the warm air is lifted C
D the cold air is lifted
Ref All
Question Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?

A C1, CS
B ST with drizzle B
C Fair weather CU
D CU, CB
Ref All
Question Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer?

A Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer?
B Mainly layered clouds

C Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
D Mainly towering clouds D
Ref All
Question Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind:

A in the warm sector A
B in front of the warm front
C behind the cold front
D at the apex of the wave
Ref All
Question If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000
feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest?
A 9000 feet
B 12000 feet B
C 5000 feet
D 3000 feet
Ref All
Question How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion?

A The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air mass A
is above ground level
B The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm air mass is
above ground level
C The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is above
ground level
D The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is
above ground level
Ref All
Question Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?
A The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
B The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
C The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front C
D The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
Ref All
Question In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:160450Z 23015KT 3000 + RA SCT008
SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG =160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =160850Z 25006KT
Choices 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG =161250Z 23012KT
CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS =161650Z
24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005
NOSIG =What do you conclude based on these observations?
Answers Correct
A A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon
B A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoon B
C C – A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon
D D – Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front at
medium to low level?
A Severe thunderstorms at low altitude
B Low cloud base and poor visibility B
C Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground
D High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms
Ref All
Question Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?

A Ahead of the front
B Behind the front B
C At the surface position of the front
D At the junction of the occlusion
Ref All
Question What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
METEOROLOGY
Question What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?

A Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin
B At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front B
C At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB
D At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS
Ref All
Question What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when temperatures
close to the ground are below 0oC, and freezing rain starts to fall?
A Cold occlusions
B Warm fronts, warm occlusions B
C High level cold fronts
D Cold fronts
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-09)Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross
section to be expected?
A Track B-C
B Track B-D B
C Track A-D
D Track A-E
Ref All
Question What type of front/occlusion usually moves the fastest?

A Cold front A
B Warm front
C Cold occlusion
D Warm occlusion
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-47)This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which
of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
A TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN 018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-47)This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which
of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
B TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 ¿RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN 020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA B
BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
C TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB
BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100=
D TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216
34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
Ref All
Question During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: Nimbostratus,
Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to encounter?
A Strong, gusty winds
B Decreasing temperatures B
C A strong down draught
D Increasing temperatures
Ref All
Question In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:

A behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitude A
B in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude
C behind is colder than the cold air in front
D behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude
Ref All
Question An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is
moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes to the South of the observer. For this
Choices observer the wind direction is:
Answers Correct
A continuously veering
B continuously backing B
C initially backing, then veering
D initially veering, then backing
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-103)Where might we find the warmest air?

METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-103)Where might we find the warmest air?
A B A
B C
C A
D D
Ref All
Question What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold
front is passing?
A It will first increase then decrease A
B It will remain unchanged
C It will first decrease then increase
D It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Ref All
Question What characterises a stationary front?

A The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
B The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
C The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
D The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold D
front and those of a warm and very active front
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-08)Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross section shown on
the left?
A Track B-A
B Track C-A
C Track D-A C
D Track B-C
Ref All
Question When do cold occlusions occur more frequently in Europe?

A Summer A
METEOROLOGY
Question When do cold occlusions occur more frequently in Europe?
B Winter
C Autumn and winter
D Winter and spring
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-104)What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?

A Approximately constant pressure
B A drop in pressure
C Irregular fluctuations
D A rise in pressure D
Ref All
Question The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

A 1/50
B 1/150 B
C 1/300
D 1/500
Ref All
Question What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?

A Cold air slides over a warm air mass
B Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
C Cold air pushes under a warm air mass C
D Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
Ref All
Question What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?

A A low on lee side of a mountain
B A cold air pool
C Polar front low C
METEOROLOGY
Question What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
D Heat low
Ref All
Question At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally, at their
most southerly position?
A Autumn
B Summer
C Spring
D Winter D
Ref All
Question What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during the
summer?
A Very good (greater than 50 km)
B Very poor (less than 1 km)
C Good (greater than 10 km)
D Moderate (several km) D
Ref All
Question On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching:

A QFE increases and QNH decreases
B QFE and QNH increase
C QFE and QNH decrease C
D QFE decreases and QNH increases
Ref All
Question In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?

A In the direction of the warm sector isobars A
B In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front
C In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase
D In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question How do air masses move at a warm front?

A Cold air over rides a warm air mass
B Warm air over rides a cold air mass B
C Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
D Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-11)Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal
wave have moved?
A Position 4
B Position 3 B
C Position 1
D Position 2
Ref All
Question What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the
summer?
A BKN CU and CB
B Fair weather CU
C Sky clear
D ST with drizzle D
Ref All
Question What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period
following the passage of an active cold front?
A It will have increased
C It will have decreased C
D It will show a small increase or decrease
Ref All
Question In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?

A Ahead of a warm front in the winter A
METEOROLOGY
Question In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?
B Ahead of a cold front in the winter

C Behind a warm front in the summer
D Ahead of a cold front in the summer
Ref All
Question In which main direction does a polar front depression move?

A Along the front towards the east A
B Along the front towards the west
C Across the front towards the north
D Across the front towards the south
Ref All
Question The polar front is the boundary between:

A maritime polar aid and continental polar air
B arctic air and polar air
C arctic air and tropical air
D polar air and tropical air D
Ref All
Question What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass over rides a cold air mass?

A Cumulus
B Nimbostratus B
C Altostratus
D Cumulonimbus
Ref All
Question What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an
active cold front passes?
A It will be decreasing
C It will be increasing C
METEOROLOGY
Question What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an
active cold front passes?
D It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-10)Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight
line A-B?
A 1
B 3 B
C 2
D 4
Ref All
Question Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if:

A the cold air is convectively stable
B the cold air is convectively unstable
C the warm air is convectively unstable C
D the warm air is convectively stable
Ref All
Question Read this description:After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for
the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low
Choices ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit warmer.Which of these weather phenomena is
being described?
Answers Correct
A A warm front A
B A blizzard
C Weather at the back of a cold front
D A cold front
Ref All
Question A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect?

A Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the
rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front
B Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours
C Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12
METEOROLOGY
Question A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect?
D Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops D
for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a
couple of hours
Ref All
Question After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will
you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?
A A decrease in head wind
B A backing in the wind direction
C An increase in tail wind
D A veering in the wind direction D
Ref All
Question The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the:

A saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
B saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating B
C reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds
D warm air moving over a cold surface
Ref All
Question What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?

A Showers associated with thunderstorms A
B Freezing rain
C Light to moderate continuous rain
D Drizzle
Ref All
Question A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

A in an air mass with cold mass properties
B behind of a stationary front
C ahead of a cold front C
METEOROLOGY
Question A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:
D at an occluded front
Ref All
Question Ahead of a warm front:

A winds back and increase with height
B wind back slightly but veer on passage and increase with height B
C winds veer and decrease with height
D winds back and decrease with height
Ref All
Question Jets are very rare near occluded front because:

A the air is too cold across the fronts
B the air is too warm across the fronts
C there is not enough pressure difference across the fronts
D there is not enough temperature difference across the fronts D
Ref All
Question The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:

A Tropical front
B Cold front
C Warm front
D Polar front D
Ref All
Question If cold air is being replaced by warm air, the boundary between the air masses is called:

A a warm front A
B a cold front
C a polar front
D an arctic front
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which one of the following alternatives indicates how an occluded front is generated?

A warm air supersedes cold air
B cold air wedges under warm air
C a cold front overtakes a warm front and the warm air between the fronts is lifted C
D a cold front is halted and becomes almost stationary
Ref All
Question When flying through a cold front in the summer, the following flying weather may be expected:

A towering clouds with showery precipitation A
B horizontally extended clouds with drizzle
C horizontally extended clouds with even tops and bases
D towering clouds without turbulence
Ref All
Question The passage of a cold front over a meteorological station will result in:

A a steady fall in pressure and a backing of the surface wind
B a steady rise in pressure and a veering of the surface wind B
C a steady fall in pressure and a veering of the surface wind
D a steady rise in pressure and a backing of the surface wind
Ref All
Question The mean position of the polar front in the North Atlantic is:

A from Florida to SW UK in July
B from Florida to North of the UK in January
C from north of UK to Newfoundland in July
D from SW UK to Newfoundland in January D
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-113)The diagram of the system in annex represents a

A cold occlusion
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-113)The diagram of the system in annex represents a
B warm occlusion B
C warm front
D cold front
Ref All
Question A gust front is:

A normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm B
C characterised by heavy lightning
D another name for a cold front
Ref All
Question A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the
depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind:
A backs A
B veers
C initially veers, then backs
D initially backs, then veers
Ref All
Question An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:

A the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead
B the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead B
C the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air
D the cold air ahead is lifted
Ref All
Question An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:

A at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher
altitude
B ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude
METEOROLOGY
Question An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:
C at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead
D at the rear of the occlusion is less cold that the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher D
altitude
Ref All
Question At a cold front:

A warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under it A
B warm air is compressed as cold air rises over it
C temperature rises owing to increased pressure
D fog will form from the interaction of cold and warm air
Ref All
Question At a station at the surface the significant weather with a warm front will come:

A after the warm sector has passed
B only at the same time as the front passes
C after the front has passed
D mostly before the front passes D
Ref All
Question During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers. This statement is:

A not true
B only true for the passage of a cold front
C only true for the passage of a warm front
D true D
Ref All
Question In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:

A the approach of a warm occlusion A
B backing winds with increasing heights
C increasing probability for showers
METEOROLOGY
Question In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:
D the formation of advection fog

Ref All
Question The air mass in the warm sector of a polar front is:

A arctic air
B polar air
C tropical air C
D equatorial air
Ref All
Question The arctic front is the boundary between:

A arctic air and tropical air
B polar air and tropical air
C cold polar air and less cold polar air
D polar air and arctic air D
Ref All
Question The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus, and altostratus.
The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is
Choices lowering as Nimbostratus arrives. These phenomena:
Answers Correct
A warm front A
B cold front
C trade wind front
D sea breeze front
Ref All
Question The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport; cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus.
This is typical for:
A the passage of a squall line
B the passage of a cold front
C anti-cyclonic weather
D the passage of a warm front D
METEOROLOGY
Question The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport; cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus.
This is typical for:
Ref All
Question The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus and there is moderate continuous rain. The area of the
system in which you are at this moment is:
A behind the cold front
B the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the occlusion B
C the warm sector
D the high pressure area
Ref All
Question The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in advance and just
after the passage are respectively
A arctic smoke and frontal fog
B advection fog and radiation fog
C frontal fog and advection fog C
D advection fog and steaming fog
Ref All
Question The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front depression is normally lower in
winter than in summer is that
A converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
B the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter
C the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows
D the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter D
Ref All
Question The slope and speed of a warm front compared to the slope and speed of a cold front is in general:

A smaller and slower A
B greater and faster
C greater and slower
D smaller and faster
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question When a front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity:

A strengthens upwind of the mountains A
B decreases when it reaches the mountains
C is not disturbed by the mountains
D ceases immediately
Ref All
Question Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely to be found in relation to
the cold and warm fronts of a depression?
A 30 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm front
B Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front
C Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front
D 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm front D
Ref All
Question Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal depression in the northern hemisphere
is correct?
A The precipitation zone of the cold front is in general wider than the precipitation zone of the
warm front
B The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead of and behind the cold B
front
C While occluding the warm front always becomes a front aloft
D The wind backs more at the warm front than at the cold front
Ref All
Question Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?

A The warm front overtakes the cold front
B The cold front becomes a front aloft
C The warm front becomes a front aloft
D Both fronts become fronts aloft D
Ref All
Question In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic
region between 30oN and 65oN and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
METEOROLOGY
Question In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic
region between 30oN and 65oN and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
A Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada
B Greenland, Azores, NE Canada
C Iceland, SW USA, Azores
D Azores, SE USA, SW Europe D
Ref All
Question Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main
pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN. During winter the predominant
Choices mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over:
Answers Correct
A USA
B Iceland/Greenland B
C Siberia
D Azores
Ref All
Question Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN together with the adjacent land areas during
winter, the normal disposition of the main anti-cyclones at the surface is:
A Azores, Siberia A
B Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
C NE Canada, Iceland
D Greenland, Iberian peninsula
Ref All
Question Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the adjacent land areas during mid summer,
the predominant pressure systems are:
A weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
B Scandinavian high and Azores high
C Azores high and weak low over NE Canada C
D Azores low and Icelandic high
Ref All
Question In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of
a stationary high pressure zone?
METEOROLOGY
Question In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of
a stationary high pressure zone?
A NS
B TS, SH
C CB, TS
D Calm winds, haze D
Ref All
Question If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a:

A cold low
B warm high B
C cold high
D warm low
Ref All
Question The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by:

A convection
B subsidence B
C a decrease in temperature
D a decrease in pressure
Ref All
Question Subsidence is:

A vertically upwards motion of air
B horizontal motion of air
C vertically downwards motion of air C
D the same as convection
Ref All
Question The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes
is called:
A subsidence inversion A
B friction inversion
METEOROLOGY
Question The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes
is called:
C radiation inversion
D trade wind inversion
Ref All
Question A blocking anti-cyclone on the northern hemisphere is:

A a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN A
B quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone
C situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions
D a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
Ref All
Question What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region overland in the winter?

A Thunderstorms
B A tendency for fog and low ST B
C NS with continuous rain
D The possibility of snow showers
Ref All
Question What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?

A Instability
B Rising air
C Sinking air C
D Divergence at higher levels
Ref All
Question Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:

A reaches warmer layers
B is heated by compression B
C is heated by expansion
D loses water vapour
METEOROLOGY
Question Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:
Ref All
Question What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?

A Convection
B Convergence
C Advection
D Subsidence D
Ref All
Question Polar air moving south will become:

A increasingly stable
B increasingly unstable B
D it depends on the humidity
Ref All
Question A blocking anti-cyclone in the northern hemisphere is:

A quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone
B a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN B
C situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions
D a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
Ref All
Question During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast
airfield in Southern England reports a surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is
Choices aligned in an east/west direction. During:
Answers Correct
A back to NW and strengthen by mid afternoon
B become southerly to south westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon
C increase from the north by mid morning becoming calm towards evening
D veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon
D a D
METEOROLOGY
Question During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast
airfield in Southern England reports a surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is
aligned in an east/west direction. During:
Ref All
Question When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country) with an anti-cyclone on the
left and a depression on the right, the wind will be:
A from the right
B from the left
C a head wind C
D a tail wind
Ref All
Question You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area. An anti-cyclone is ahead of
you and a depression is behind you. The wind affecting you, will be:
A from your right A
B from your left
C from ahead
D from behind
Ref All
Question Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?

A It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense A
B It tends to move round the primary in an anti-cyclonic sense
C It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
D It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
Ref All
Question What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?

A Divergence with lifting
B Divergence with descending air
C Convergence with lifting C
D Convergence with descending air
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced
is:
A strong wind shear, convection and snow showers A
B light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
C strong wind with subsidence at low levels
D strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
Ref All
Question How do you recognise a cold air pool?

A A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a low pressure area
B As a high pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)
C As a low pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart) C
D A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a high pressure area
Ref All
Question What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?

A Nothing (CAVOK)
B Strong westerly winds
C Fine weather CU
D Showers and thunderstorms D
Ref All
Question A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of:

A divergence and subsidence
B convergence and widespread ascent B
C divergence and widespread ascent
D convergence and subsidence
Ref All
Question Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal depression because of:

A surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the
METEOROLOGY
Question Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal depression because of:
B surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression
C surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the C
depression
D surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
depression
Ref All
Question Which is true of a typical non-frontal thermal depression?

A It forms over the ocean in summer
B It forms over land in summer B
C It forms over the ocean in winter
D It forms over land in winter
Ref All
Question A cold air pool:

A occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of
cold north westerly air stream
B develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents
stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association
with occluded systems
C normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
D is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and D
may show little or no sign on a surface chart
Ref All
Question Cold air pools:

A only occur in winter
B can easily be recognised on synoptic surface charts
C only occur at mid-latitudes
D are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving
storm?
A NS spread over a large area
B Frequent SC
C Excessive accumulation of CU
D Dense C1 D
Question What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area?

A West in the earlier stages and later turning north east A
B East then south
C West deep into the USA
D West in the earlier stages and later turning south east
Question What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?

A The equatorial jet stream
B Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and sub- tropical high pressure
belt
C Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes
D Latent heat released from condensing water vapour D
Question During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?

A January until April
B October until January
C July until November C
D April until July
Question On which coast of North America is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?

METEOROLOGY
Question On which coast of North America is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
A NE coast
B W coast
C N coast
D SE coast D
Question When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of
Australia?
A December to April A
B May to July
C August to October
D Not experienced at Darwin
Question During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?

A All seasons
B Winter
C Winter and spring
D Summer and autumn D
Question Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the south-east Pacific and the south Atlantic because:

A there is no coriolis force present
B of the low water temperature B
C of the strong southeast wind
D the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere
Question Why to tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans?

A Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
B Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive wind shear with increase of height
METEOROLOGY
Question Why to tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans?
C Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds long sea passage C
D Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
Question What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Caribbean area?

A West in the earlier stages and later south east
B East
C West deep into the US
D West in the earlier stages and later north east D
Question The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is:

A the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
B the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south east coastline of the USA
C the south western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Reunion
D the north west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese coastline D
Question (Refer to figure 050-18)The arrows labelled U represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur
mainly from:
A January to March and are called willy willies
B July to October and are called typhoons B
C May to July and are called cyclones
D December to April and are called tornadoes
Question Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?

A From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings A
B They intensify rapidly after landfall
C The diameter is 50-500m
D Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
METEOROLOGY
Question Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?

Question At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?

A January to May
B September to January
C July to November C
D May to July
Question Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?

A Anywhere in the eye
B In the wall of clouds around the eye B
C In the centre of the eye
D About 600 km away from the eye
Question (Refer to figure 050-18)The arrows labelled S represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which
occur mainly from:
A December to April and are called cyclones
B May to November and are called cyclones B
C May to November and are called hurricanes
D December to April and are called typhoons
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figue 050-18)The arrows labelled R represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which
occur mainly from:
A June to October and are called typhoons
B December to April and are called tornadoes
C December to April and are called cyclones C
D June to October and are called hurricanes
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question The reason for the fact that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that:

A the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows
B the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter
C the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter C
D converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
Question What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region?

A Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest
intensity is in July
B Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the year
C Rain showers, hail showers and thunder storms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest C
during two periods: April-May and October- November
D Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January
Question At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?

A 50oN A
B 10oN
C 30oN
D 80oN
Question Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60oN during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is
approximately:
A 37000 ft
B 56000 ft
C 29000 ft C
D 20000 ft
Question Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50oN during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is
approximately
METEOROLOGY
Question Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50oN during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is
approximately
A 23000 ft
B 31000 ft B
C 43000 ft
D 54000 ft
Question Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN, the mean position of the polar front during
summer extends from:
A Florida to SW England
B Newfoundland to N Scotland B
C NE Canada to Iceland
D Greenland to Spain
Question What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent?

A North easterly winds bringing dry and hazy air A
B South westerly winds carrying warm and humid air
C North westerly winds bringing dry and hazy air
D South easterly winds carrying warm and humid air
Question Which one of the following statements regarding the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?

A The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year
B Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ
C The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream
D Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ D
Question The inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects:

A western Africa, at a latitude of 25oN in July
METEOROLOGY
Question The inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects:
B western Africa between 10o and 20oN and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July B
C the Atlantic ocean, between latitudes of 10oN and 30oN depending on the time of year
D western Africa, where it is situated between the 10oN and 30oN parallels, depending on the time
of the year
Question Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?

A SE trade winds and NE trade winds A
B SW monsoon and NW monsoon
C SW monsoon and NW trade winds
D NW monsoon and SW trade winds
Question Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?

A They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents
B They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans B
C They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
D They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents
Question Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the:

A SW monsoon
B NE monsoon B
C NW monsoon
D SE monsoon
Question In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?

A In October
B In June B
METEOROLOGY
Question In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
C In December
D In March
Question An easterly wave is a:

A wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of A
its trough
B wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe
convective activity ahead of its trough
C small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective
activity ahead of its trough
D disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east
to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
Question (Refer to figure 050-21)What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July?

A Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan
B Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system
C Generally clear skies NW trade winds
D Wet and thundery due to the proximity of inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) D
Question Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West
Africa?
A It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5oS in January
B It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15o 20oN in July B
C It oscillates during the year between 10oN and 10oS
D It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10oN
Question What name is given to the low level wind system between the sub-tropical high pressure belt and the
equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?
A Doldrums
METEOROLOGY
Question What name is given to the low level wind system between the sub-tropical high pressure belt and the
equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?
B Westerly winds
C Monsoon
D Trade winds D
Question Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the

A NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
B SW monsoon B
C passage of frontal system generated in the south Indian ocean
D high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the Persian Gulf
Question What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?

A Thunderstorms and rain A
B Continuous rain
C Clear skies
D Frontal weather
Question During July flights from Bangkok (13oN 100oE) to Karachi (25oN 67oE) experience an average tailwind
component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average head wind of 50
Choices kt. What is the reason for this difference?
Answers Correct
A The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream
B The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable conditions
C The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions
D The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system D
Question Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the:

A NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
B SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January
METEOROLOGY
Question Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the:
C SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January C

D SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
Question Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered?

A At the latitudes of Algeria
B Near the Canary Islands
C At the latitudes of Gibraltar
D In the vicinity of Dakar D
Question From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?

A N
B NE
C SW
D SE D
Question When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

A March to May and October to November A
B December to February and July to October
C March to May and August to October
D April to July and December to February
Question The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in:

A September, October, November A
B July, August, September
C December, January, February
D February, March, April
METEOROLOGY
Question The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in:

Question What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?

A Fog
B Stratus clouds and drizzle
C Sandstorms
D Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain D
Question In which of the following bands of latitude is the inter-tropical convergence zone most likely to be
encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
A 8o 12oS
B 3o 8oS
C 0o 7oN C
D 7o 12oN
Question Which of the following best describes the inter-tropical convergence zone?

A The zone where the Harmattan meets the north easterly trade winds over Africa
B The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere B
C The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics
D The zone where the west winds meet the sub-tropical high pressure belt
Question What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of
precipitation?
A Indian, maritime tropical air mass
B South east trade wind
C South west monsoon C
D Winter monsoon
METEOROLOGY
Question In January, mean high pressure areas are usually present over:

A the Aleutians, Australia, South America
B the Azores, Siberia, the South Pacific B
C the South Pacific, the Azores, Australia
D Greenland, Siberia, North West Australia
Question Which of the following statements concerning the ITCZ is correct?

A In the southern summer it is normally positioned entirely south of the equator
B Its furthest displacement from the equator is normally about 45oS
C It is normally fed with converging northern and southern trade winds
D Its associated weather is invariably strong convergence and heavy cumuliform cloud D
Question The Doldrums are:

A another name for the sub-tropical anti-cyclones
B cold between weak fronts encountered in low latitudes
C weak inter-tropical convergence zones C
D associated with light and variable monsoon winds
Question During the approach to Bombay (19oN 73oE) on the west coast of India, you are listening to the ATIS on 15
July at 0700 T. Which of the following reports is most likely?
A 25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG = A
B 05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000 =
C 02005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG =
D 30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR =
Question On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows:

A the whole year from the North East
METEOROLOGY
Question On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows:
B for six months from the North West and for six months from the South East
C for six months from the North East and for six months from the South West C
D the whole year from the South East
Question Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur?

A Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic Ocean at 20oS
B India, Arabic Sea, Atlantic Ocean at 2oS
C Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian Ocean East of Madagascar C
D Caribbean Sea, Indian Ocean at 20oS, Pacific Ocean at 2oN
Question Where do the trade winds blow?

A At the equator
B Between the horse latitudes and the mid latitudes
C Between the horse latitudes and the equatorial highs
D Between the horse latitudes and the doldrums D
Question (Refer to figure 050-48)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds
are applicable to zone:
A U A
B T
C V
D W
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-61)Considering the sector from 10oN to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January
the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be:
A westerlies in excess of 60 kt
B easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kt
C light easterlies C
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-61)Considering the sector from 10oN to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January
the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be:
D westerlies at 40 kt
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-18)The arrows labelled t represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which
occur mainly from:
A June to October and are called cyclones A
B December to April and are called hurricanes
C June to October and are called tornadoes
D June to October and are called hurricanes
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-19)Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30oE to 50oE, the upper winds
in January above FL 300 are most likely to be:
A a sub-tropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt A
B a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
C variable in direction and less than 30 kt
D light easterlies
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figue 050-61)Which is true of Nairobi (Kenya)?

A There are two wet seasons A
B Apart from the wet season(s) it is cloud and rain free
C There is one wet season
D In July it is frequently affected by clear skies and northerly winds from North Africa
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-20)The typical weather conditions affecting the Darwin area during July are:

A NE monsoon continuous heavy rain but little thunder storm activity
B dry season mainly SE winds visibility reduced by dust and haze B
C NW monsoon very wet proximity of the inter-tropical convergence zone causes widespread
thunderstorm activity
D mainly clear skies advection fog drifting inland with the typical NE wind
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-20)The typical weather conditions affecting the Darwin area during July are:
Ref ATPL AND H

Question (Refer to figure 050-07)Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? (spacing of the
isobars: 5 hPa)
A Uniform pressure pattern A
B Cutting wind
C West wind condition
D Warm south and condition (Foehn)
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-43)Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?

A Westerly wind
B Warm southerly wind
C High pressure C
D Easterly wind
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-42)Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central
Europe?
A Westerly waves A
B Uniform pressure pattern
C Cutting wind
D Easterly waves
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone is
an area of:
A NE trade winds
B travelling low pressure systems
C sub-tropical high pressure systems C
D the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question A cold pool:

A normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
B develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents
stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association
with occluded systems
C is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and C
may show little or no sign on a surface chart
D occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of
cold north westerly air stream
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements concerning the inter-tropical convergence zone is true?

A There are frequent occurrences of CB A
B It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in
January
C It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
D It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity
Ref All
Question With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication of the aneroid
altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes?
A Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small A
B Increase rapidly
C Show strong fluctuations
D Decrease rapidly
Ref All

A In winter the Savannah climatic region is governed by the equatorial rains
B Trade wind seldom extend much above 5000 feet
C The outflow of air from the Siberian high over northern China and Japan is initially north C
westerly
D The easterly jet stream normally appears at the 200 mb level
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by:

A a radiation inversion
B a layer of unstable air
C a temperature inversion C
D the tropopause
Ref All
Question The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are respectively:

A 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 30000 feet
B 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 18000 feet B
C 1000 nautical miles, 5000 to 8000 feet, 30000 feet
D 200 nautical miles, 5 nautical miles, 18000 feet
Ref All
Question Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct?

A Their eye can be well observed by weather satellite A
B They intensify after landfall
C They move towards the equator
D They move with a speed of at least 60 kt
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-41)?Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely
to apply?
A Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe
B Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe B
C Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps
D Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-56)Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a:

A warm southerly dust bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-56)Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a:
B SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African coast south of
15oN
C NE wind affecting north west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dust C
D localised depression giving squally winds
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-60)Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the
tropopause during January is approximately:
A 56000 ft A
B 43000 ft
C 36000 ft
D 29000 ft
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-99)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds
are applicable to zone:
A t
B w B
C u
D v
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-20)Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the
zone of:
A sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent
zone of westerly waves
B Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia
and Antarctica
C disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting
in strong winds, low cloud and rain
D equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical convergence zone over central D
Australia
Ref ATPL AND H
Question The Chinook is a:

METEOROLOGY
Question The Chinook is a:
A warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains A
B very cold wind with blowing snow
C down slope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes
D warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
Ref All
Question What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe?

A Bora
B Foehn
C Mistral C
D Typhoon
Ref All
Question Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south
(Foehn)?
A Good visibility, turbulence A
B Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence
C Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing
D Icing, huge mass of clouds
Ref All
Question A dry sand and dust laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is
known as a:
A Scirocco
B Harmattan B
C Pampero
D Khamsin
Ref All
Question For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?

A Sand up to FL 150
B Thunderstorms
METEOROLOGY
Question For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
C Dust and poor visibility C

D Hail
Ref All
Question What are the characteristics of the Bora?

A It is a warm and moist, south westerly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that
usually carries precipitation
B It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter fro a north westerly direction in the
Mediterranean
C It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a table and downwards to the C
Adriatic
D It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust
Ref All
Question Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?

A The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south A
B The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north
C Frontal zones
D Occlusions
Ref All
Question What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south?

A Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps
B Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
C Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps
D Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps D
Ref All
Question The Foehn wind is a:

A warm anabatic wind
B cold fall wind
METEOROLOGY
C warm fall wind C

D cold anabatic wind
Ref All
Question What is characteristic of the pamperos?

A Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
B Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
C A marked advance of cold arctic air in Northern America
D A marked advance of cold air in South America D
Ref All
Question What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during
the winter and spring called?
A Mistral
B Ghibli
C Bora C
D Scirocco
Ref All
Question What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

A Because the Earth's spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun A
B Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
C Because the Earth's orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the year
D Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year
Ref All
Question At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?

A Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox A
B Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
C Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice
D Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice
METEOROLOGY
Question At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
Ref All
Question A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is
known as a:
A Bora
B Harmattan
C Mistral
D Foehn D
Ref All
Question A Foehn wind occurs on the:

A leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the
leeward side than on the windward side
B windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
C windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow
D leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation D
from cloud
Ref All
Question What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for
instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather situation.
A Foehn A
B Mistral
C Bora
D Scirocco
Ref All
Question The Bora is a:

A A – cold katabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
B B – squally warm katabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
C C – cold katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts C
D D – cold katabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
METEOROLOGY
Question The Bora is a:
Ref All
Question Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?

A Harmatan
B Scirocco
C Chinook C
D Bora
Ref All
Question 8/8 stratus base 200 ft/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028
hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and
Choices winter?
Answers Correct
A Winter: SCT base 3,000 ft/AGL; summer OVC base 500 ft/AGL
B Winter: OVC base 500 ft/AGL; summer SCT base 3000 ft/AGL B
C Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 ft/AGL
D Winter: BKN base 2500 ft/AGL; summer BKN base 3500 ft/AGL
Ref All
Question Considering the North Atlantic between 30oN and 65oN, the mean position of the polar front during winter
extends from:
A Florida to SW England A
B Newfoundland to Iceland
C Iceland to Norway
D NE Canada to Portugal
Ref All
Question For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will usually be indicated by:

A a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and decreasing
B rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and decreases B
C rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and increasing
D rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves:

A towards the south and the speed increases A
B towards the north and the speed increases
C towards the south and the speed decreases
D towards the north and the speed decreases
Ref All
Question In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are
usually located
A below the tropopause at about 300 hPa
B above the tropopause at about 100 hPa
C below the tropopause at about 200 hPa C
D above the tropopause at about 250 hPa
Ref All
Question Over the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are:

A frequently observed, in the average 15 per year over the Indian Ocean, but never over the Bay of
Bengal
B rare, in the average one every two years
C never observed
D occasionally observed, in the average 12 per year D
Ref All
Question The air masses that are observed most frequently over western Europe are:

A polar air and equatorial air
B arctic air and polar air
C polar air and tropical air C
D arctic air and tropical air
Ref All
Question The average position of the polar front in the northern hemisphere is:

METEOROLOGY
Question The average position of the polar front in the northern hemisphere is:
A more southerly during the summer than during the winter

B more southerly during the winter than during the summer B
C located near 55oN during the whole year
D located near 65oN during the whole year
Ref All
Question The easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs:

A only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx 30000 ft
B only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45000 ft B
C during the whole year in the southern hemisphere
D during the whole year in the northern hemisphere
Ref All

A cold katabatic wind
B warm katabatic wind B
C warm anabatic wind
D cold anabatic wind
Ref All
Question The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (Gulf of Guinea) is
a:
A SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
B SW monsoon in summer and NE trade wind in winter B
C NE trade wind in summer and SE trade wind in winter
D NE monsoon in winter and SE trade wind in summer
Ref All
Question The SW monsoon starts in the month of:

A December in southern India to reach Pakistan in May
B September in Pakistan to reach southern India in November
METEOROLOGY
Question The SW monsoon starts in the month of:
C June in southern India to reach Pakistan in July C

D March in southern India to reach Pakistan end of April
Ref All
Question Tropical revolving storms are NOT formed in:

A South Indian Ocean
B Gulf of Bengal
C Waters around the Philippines
D South Atlantic Ocean D
Ref All
Question What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?

A Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps
B High pressure area over Italy
C Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean C
D High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean Sea
Ref All
Question What type of weather can usually be expected in a polar maritime air mass over Central Europe in the daytime
during summer?
A Sky clear
B Continuous rain and poor visibility
C Drizzle and low stratus
D Showers and good visibility D
Ref All
Question When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered?

A Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high
B In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean
C In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern
Spain
METEOROLOGY
Question When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered?
D In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa D
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed between summer and winter on the
North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL 400 is most correct?
A The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the summer. The latitude of the A
axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is further south in winter than in summer
B The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest speeds moves south in
winter
C The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of greatest wind speed reduces
in winter
D The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the winter. The latitude of the
axis of greatest wind speed is also further north in summer than in winter
Ref All
Question Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct?

A It is a north easterly wind over the western part of North Africa with much dust and sand
B It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may reach Europe B
C The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights. This is caused by the presence of a
trade wind inversion
D It is formed by a strong increase of air pressure over North Africa
Ref All
Question Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?

A The jet streams are easterly
B In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height B
C The wind veers at the passage of a cold front
D If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected
Ref All
Question Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europe?

A Continental tropical warm and continental polar cold
B Maritime tropical warm and maritime polar cold B
METEOROLOGY
Question Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europe?
C Maritime tropical warm and continental polar cold

D Maritime polar warm and continental tropical warm
Ref All
Question Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe?

A Tropical air
B Arctic air
C Polar air
D Equatorial air D
Ref All
Question Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems during
summer?
A 45o 75o A
B 35o 45o
C 15o 25o
D 10o 15o
Ref All
Question What is the surface visibility most likely to be in a warm sector of maritime tropical air during a summer
afternoon in western Europe?
A Very poor (less than 1 km)
B Moderate (several km) B
C Very good (greater than 50 km)
D Good (greater than 10 km)
Ref All
Question Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:

A rime ice
B clear ice B
C hoar frost
D cloudy ice
METEOROLOGY
Question Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:

Question While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powder like
contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called:
A Clear ice
B Rime ice B
C Mixed ice
D Frost
Question Freezing fog exists if fog droplets:

A are frozen
B are super cooled B
C are freezing very rapidly
D freeze when temperature falls below zero
Question At what degree of icing should ICAOs change course and/or altitude immediately instruction be followed?

A Light
B Severe B
C Moderate
D Extreme
Question Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:

A water vapour
B large super cooled water drops B
C small super cooled water drops
D snow
METEOROLOGY
Question Clear ice is dangerous because it:

A spreads out and contains many air particles
B is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
C is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
D is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces D
Question The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:

A rime ice
B hoar frost
C dry ice
D clear ice D
Question In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?

A Cirrus clouds
B Freezing rain B
C Stratus clouds
D Snow
Question At what degree of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude desirable recommendation be followed:

A Light
B Moderate B
C Severe
D Extreme
Question Clear ice forms as a result of:

A super cooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process A
METEOROLOGY
Question Clear ice forms as a result of:
B water vapour freezing to the aircraft

C ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
D super cooled droplets freezing on impact
Question Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:

A water vapour
B large super cooled water drops
C small super cooled water drops C
D snow
Question Glaze or clear ice is formed when super cooled droplets are:

A small and at a temperature just below freezing
B large and at a temperature just below freezing B
C small and freeze rapidly
D of any size at temperatures below -35oC
Question The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large super cooled drops that have a temperature of -5oC
is most likely to be:
A clear ice A
B hoar frost
C rime ice
D cloudy ice
Question At what degree of icing can ICAO (no change of course and altitude necessary) recommendation be followed?

A Moderate
B Light B
C Severe
METEOROLOGY
Question At what degree of icing can ICAO (no change of course and altitude necessary) recommendation be followed?
D Extreme
Question Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:

A water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface A
B freezing rain striking the aircraft
C droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
D small super cooled droplets striking the aircraft
Question Which one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is correct?

A A coating of clear ice forms when water vapour sublimates
B Rime ice forms when large water drops freeze
C Clear ice forms when large water drops freeze C
D Hoar frost form when small water droplets freeze
Question One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is?

A The wing construction being unable to bear the increased load
B Lift becoming too great as the aircraft becomes heavier
C The lift co-efficient increasing as the aircraft becomes heavier
D The stalling speed increasing substantially D
Question Icing on the wings of an aircraft normally causes:

A the stalling speed to increase A
B the stalling speed to decrease
C the interference drag to increase
D the interference drag to decrease
METEOROLOGY
Question A thin coating of hoar frost on the airfoil surface:

A does not affect take-off performance
B has deleterious effects on the lift of the wing B
C affects the aspect ratio of the wing
D only affects stability
Question After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you
encounter?
A Hoar frost A
B Rime ice
C Clear ice
D Smooth icing
Question An aircraft flies into super cooled rain in an area with a temperature below 0oC. The type of icing it will
most likely encounter is
A granular frost
B hoar frost
C rime ice
D clear ice D
Question What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL 100 in a thunderstorm, with the freezing
level at 7000 ft?
A Moderate to severe icing due to clear ice A
B Light icing due to rime ice
C Moderate to severe icing due to rime ice
D Light icing due to clear ice
Question What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descends rapidly from FL 320
(temp -45oC) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear air?
A Light or moderate hoar frost A
METEOROLOGY
Question What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descends rapidly from FL 320
(temp -45oC) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear air?
B Moderate opaque rime
C Nil ice
D Light opaque rime and light clear ice
Question What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL 170 in AS with the
outside air temperature at -20oC?
A Moderate hoar frost
B Severe clear
C Light rime C
D Moderate clear

A Airframe icing can occur in clear air A
B Haze is a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapour
C Mountain waves are always accompanied by rotor clouds
D Above the tropopause no turbulence occurs
Question In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

A CU
B SC
C NS
D C1 D
Ref All
Question You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25oC. Which of
the following statements is true?
A If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form
in such cloud
B Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
METEOROLOGY
Question You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25oC. Which of
the following statements is true?
C Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions C
D In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5oC
Ref All
Question In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft¿s surface?

A -20oC to -35oC
B +10oC to 0oC
C 0oC to -10oC C
D -35oC to -50oC
Ref All
Question In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

A NS
B AS
C SC
D CS D
Ref All
Question On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5oC. The freezing level Is at 3000 ft/AGL. At 4000
ft/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the
Choices clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect
icing?
Answers Correct
A Yes, between ground level and 3000 ft/AGL A
B Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 ft/AGL
C No. flights clear of cloud experience no icing
D No. absolutely no icing will occur
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions is mot likely to cause airframe icing?

A PE
B GR
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following conditions is mot likely to cause airframe icing?
C SHSN
D +FZRA D
Ref All
Question A small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely:

A freeze immediately and create rime ice A
B freeze immediately and create clear ice
C travel back over the wing, creating rime ice
D travel back over the wing, creating clear ice
Ref All
Question In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?

A Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C A
B Flying in dense cirrus clouds
C Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
D Flying in heavy drizzle
Ref All
Question Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct?

A Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C
B Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds
C A cloud consisting of both super cooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing C
D Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud
Ref All
Question Hoar frost is most likely to form when:

A flying inside convective clouds
B taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion B
C flying inside stratiform clouds
D flying in super cooled drizzle
METEOROLOGY
Question Hoar frost is most likely to form when:
Ref All
Question Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an
aircraft?
A Relative humidity inside the cloud
B Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
C Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil
D Cloud temperature and droplet size D
Ref All
Question Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through
the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small super cooled droplets. Which of the
Choices following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
Answers Correct
A Aircraft T experiences more icing than S
B Aircraft S experiences more icing than T B
C Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
D Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets
Ref All
Question A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero
degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
A Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
B Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds
C A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of C
large droplets
D Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals
Ref All
Question Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not
subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled cloud droplets?
A Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
B Altocumulus and altostratus B
C Stratus and cumulonimbus
D Altostratus and cirrocumulus
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not
subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled cloud droplets?
Ref All
Question Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile:3000 ft 15oC 6000 ft 8oC 10000 ft 1oC 14000 ft
-6oC 18000 ft -14oC 24000 ft -26oC. At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing,
Choices in cloud, greatest?
Answers Correct
A FL 80
B FL 150 B
C FL 180
D FL 220
Ref All
Question How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is unable to de-ice nor land?

A He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability A
B He descends to the warm air layer below
C He ascends to the cold air layer above
D He continues to fly at the same altitude
Ref All
Question Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?

A Close to the freezing level
B Between -20oC and -30oC
C Between -2oC and -15oC C
D Between -30oC and -40oC
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?

A It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
B It always occurs in altostratus cloud
C It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D It will not occur in clear sky conditions D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing?

A It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
C It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud C
D It will occur in clear sky conditions
Ref All
Question During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:

A rapidly and do not spread out A
B slowly and do not spread out
C slowly and spread out
D rapidly and spread out
Ref All
Question A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile:

A coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
B indicates temperatures below -40oC
C indicates temperatures above 3oC
D intersects the 0oC isotherm twice D
Ref All
Question The icing in cloud which forms over hills is likely to be more severe than in the same type of cloud over
level terrain because:
A orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the free water content of the
cloud
B increases the temperature inside the cloud by forcing the release of latent heat so causing the
air to hold more water vapour
C enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retailed in the cloud by the increased C
upward components
D adiabatic cooling lowers the freezing level and the water content of the cloud
Ref All
Question Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
METEOROLOGY
Question Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?

A Snowfall
B Mixed rain and snow
C Freezing rain C
D Ice pellets
Ref All
Question An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60. At what levels is the
probability for airframe icing the highest?
A Between FL 120 and FL 60 A
B Between FL 120 and FL 180
C Between FL 60 and Fl 20
D At FL 140
Ref All
Question For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing are:

A flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0oC, resulting in rime ice
formation
B flight into super cooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation
C flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation C
D flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear ice formation
Ref All
Question Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures:

A between 0oC and -17oC in ST
B between 0oC and -17oC in AS
C between 0oC and -23oC in large CU C
D below -40oC in CB
Ref All
Question In mature CB's the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the
following temperature range:
METEOROLOGY
Question In mature CB's the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the
following temperature range:
A -23oC to -40oC
B +5oC to 0oC
C 0oC to -23oC C
D -40oC to -60oC
Ref All
Question In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how would it normally appear?

A Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -20oC and 25oC. Appears
transparent and tends to take the shape of the surface on which it freezes
B Stratiform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -10oC and 20oC. Appears granular
and tends to accumulate forward into the air stream
C Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0oC and 15oC. Appears smooth and C
tends to spread back over an aircraft wing
D Stratiform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures well below freezing. Appears opaque and
builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge
Ref All
Question The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused by the:

A relatively slow freezing of small super cooled water droplets and ice crystals
B instantaneous freezing of small super cooled water droplets
C instantaneous freezing of large super cooled water droplets and snow crystals
D relatively slow freezing of large super cooled water droplets D
Ref All
Question The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in:

A icy clouds at high levels
B super cooled precipitation B
C unstable clouds at medium levels
D zones where the air temperature is below -15oC
Ref All
Question What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most favourable for its formation?
METEOROLOGY
Question What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most favourable for its formation?

A Milky granular appearance, forming on leading edges and accumulating forward into the air A
stream. Stratiform clouds at temperatures of -10oC to -20oC are most conducive to its formation
B Opague rough appearance, tending to spread back over an aircraft surface. Most frequently
encountered in cumuliform clouds at temperatures slightly below freezing
C Smooth appearance and builds forward from leading surfaces into a sharp edge. Most common in
cumuliform clouds at temperatures of -20oC to 25oC
D Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape of the surface on which it freezes.
Stratiform clouds and temperatures only slightly below freezing promote its formation
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing?

A It will not occur in clear sky conditions A
C It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud
Ref All
Question The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that:

A temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudes A
B a cold front has passed
C there are thunderstorms in the area
D after take-off you can climb to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing
conditions
Ref All
Question What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?

A Decrease of speed
B Change of course
C Increase of speed
D Change of flight level D
METEOROLOGY
Question All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes
passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat below or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects
Choices are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as:
Answers Correct
A severe
B extreme
C moderate C
D light
Question In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

A Exactly in the centre of the core
B On the tropical air side of the core
C On the polar air side of the core C
D About 12000 ft above the core
Question (Refer to figure 050-73)On which of the following routes would you not have to worry about oderate and/or
severe turbulence on the cruising level?
A Keflavik to Oxlo at FL 220 A
B Rome to Frankfurt at FL 320
C Beirut to Athens at FL 310
D Madrid to Zurich at FL 280
Ref ATPL AND H
Question A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide
to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?
A Increase the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currents
B Increase the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents, if aircraft performance
parameters allow
C Decrease the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currents
D Decrease the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance D
parameters allow
Ref All
Question The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence.
In what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
METEOROLOGY
Question The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence.
In what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
A The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of A
the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will
be unpleasant
B The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to
manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort
C The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing board (small scale) and will not
have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult.
The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence
D The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the
manoeuvring will not be affected essentially
Ref All
Question How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

A Large, abrupt changes in altitude or altitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control
momentarily
B Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or
attitude
C Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times C
D Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage
Ref All
Question The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the:

A intensity of the solar radiation
B height of the aircraft
C stability of the air
D intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear D
Ref All
Question An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to
severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this
Choices turbulence is by:
Answers Correct
A Climbing
B Descending B
C Turning right
METEOROLOGY
Question An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to
severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this
turbulence is by:
D Maintain FL 270
Ref All
Question The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by:

A a high pressure centre at high level
B long streaks of cirrus clouds B
C dust or haze at high level
D a constant outside air temperature
Ref All
Question Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is likely to be:

A two wavelengths down wind and just above the surface
B approximately one wavelength down wind of, and approximately level with, the top of the ridge
C just below the tropopause above the ridge
D down the lee side of the ride and along the surface D
Ref All
Question Possible severe turbulence will be encountered in mountain waves in:

A roll cloud A
B lenticular cloud
C at the crest of the mountain
D on the windward side
Ref All
Question Conditions favourable for low-level frictional turbulence are:

A strong wind, rough terrain, steep lapse rate A
B strong wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate
C light wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate
D strong wind, smooth terrain, stable lapse rate
METEOROLOGY
Question Conditions favourable for low-level frictional turbulence are:
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-70)Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you
first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?
A FL 140
B FL 160
C FL 320
D FL 220 D
Ref All
Question A layer is conditionally unstable if the air:

A becomes stable by lifting it
B is stable for satuated air and unstable for dry air
C is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air C
D is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air
Ref All
Question Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when:

A the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated just above the
turbulent layer
B the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth¿s surface
C in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is situated below C
the top of the turbulent layer
D absolute instability exists at low level
Ref All
Question The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is:

A well below the core
B close to the core on the side facing the polar air B
C on the tropical side of the core
D 5000 feet or more above the core
METEOROLOGY
Question The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is:
Ref All
Question Which statement does correspond to the definition of severe turbulence?

A Aircraft will be damaged and an emergency landing will be absolutely necessary
B Difficulty in walking, occupants feel strain against seat belts, loose objects move about
C Aircraft gets out of control and crashes
D Aircraft may be out of control for short periods occupants are forced violently against seat D
belts, loose objects are tossed about
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-27)In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low level
wind shear?
A 3B and 3C
B 3A and 3B
C 3A and 3C C
D 3B and 3D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to:

A experience little or no change in speed and direction
B change in speed but not in direction
C change in direction but not in speed
D change significantly in speed and direction D
Ref All
Question Vertical wind shear is:

A horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
B vertical variation in the vertical wind
C vertical variation in the horizontal wind C
D horizontal variation in the vertical wind
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered:

A when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms A
B in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts
C during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
D near valleys and at the windward side of mountains
Ref All
Question Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest¿.

A at the condensation level when there is a stong surface friction
B at the condensation level when there is no night radiation
C at the top of the friction layer
D at he top of a marked surface-based inversion D
Ref All
Question Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night:

A and early morning only in summer
B in unstable atmospheres
C and early morning only in winter
D in association with radiation inversions D
Ref All
Question What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

A It results in good visual conditions
B It promotes extensive vertical movement of air
C It prevents vertical wind shear
D It promotes vertical wind shear D
Ref All
Question An important characteristic of wind shear is that:

A it is encountered most frequently near mountain waves during winter months
METEOROLOGY
Question An important characteristic of wind shear is that:
B it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence

C it only occurs with jet streams
D it is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a D
jet stream or a frontal zone
Ref All
Question An additional hazard to aircraft taking-off or landing in or near a thunderstorm is:

A extra turbulence
B wind shear B
C compass error
D pilot disorientation
Ref All
Question In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most likely to occur

A on the tropical side of the core
B well below the core
C close to the core on the polar side C
D 5000 ft or more above the core
Ref All
Question Where does wind shear occur?

A At any level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind direction and/or wind A
speed
B Wind shear of any significance occurs only in connection with jet streams
C Wind shear occurs primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain waves
D Wind shear occurs only when there is a strong temperature inversion, or when the jet stream is
associated with a strong depression
Ref All

A a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height A
METEOROLOGY
B a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance

C a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal distance
D a horizontal shear of vertical wind
Ref All
Question (Refr to figure 050-72)At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and what is the
maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC?
A Position C, FL 200
B Position A, FL 200
C Position B, FL 270 C
D Position D, FL 290
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?

A Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes
B Frontal thunderstorms B
C Thermal thunderstorms
D Orographic thunderstorms
Ref All
Question Where is a squall line to be expected?

A At the surface position of a warm front
B Behind a cold front
C In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels
D In front of an active cold front D
Ref All
Question A microburst phenomenon can arise in the:

A down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage A
B up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
C down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage
METEOROLOGY
Question A microburst phenomenon can arise in the:
D up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage

Ref All
Question Which of the following statements describes a microburst?

A A high speed down burst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundings A
B A high speed down draft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
C An extremely strong wind gust associated with a troical revolving storm
D A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
Ref All
Question What is a microburst?

A A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds
B A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a high temperature than the surrounding air
C An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air D
Ref All
Question A gust front is:

A normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm B
C characterised by heavy lightning
D another name for a cold front
Ref All
Question Continuous up-draughts occur in a thunderstorm during the:

A dissipating stage
B mature stage
C initial stage C
D period in which precipitation is falling
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?

A From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450 A
B From the ground up to about FL 200
C From the ground up to about FL 100
D From the base of the clouds up to FL 200
Ref All
Question What are squall lines?

A Unusual intensive cold fronts
B Bands of intensive thunderstorms B
C The surface weather associated with upper air troughs
D The paths of tropical revolving storms
Ref All
Question The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of:

A 8 km and 5-15 minutes
B 4 km and 30-40 minutes
C 4 km and 1-5 minutes C
D 12 km and 5-10 minutes
Ref All
Question During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterised by roll clouds most likely to
occur?
A Dissipating stage
B Cumulus stage
C Mature stage C
D Cumulus stage and mature stage
Ref All
Question What are the meteorological pre-requisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes over
land?
A Low temperatures, low humidity
METEOROLOGY
Question What are the meteorological pre-requisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes over
land?
B High air pressure (>1013 hPa), high temperatures
C High temperatures, high humidity C
D Subsidence, inversion
Ref All
Question What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?

A Strong steady rain
B Thunderstorms B
C Fog
D Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels
Ref All
Question In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation?

A Stable conditions and high moisture content
B Unstable conditions and high moisture content B
C Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
D Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
Ref All
Question How long does a typical microburst last?

A About 30 minutes
B Less than 1 minute
C 1 to 2 hours
D 1 to 5 minutes D
Ref All
Question Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes?

A Occlusion thunderstorms
B Warm front thunderstorms
C Cold mass thunderstorms
METEOROLOGY
Question Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes?
D Air mass thunderstorms D

Ref All
Question In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts?

A Mid-afternoon A
B Around midnight
C Early morning
D Late morning
Ref All
Question Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring
of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a Faradays Cage, which means that struck
of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure.
The crew may get a shock
B An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will
follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused
C Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and C
temporarily lose the hearing
D Aircraft made by composite material cant conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be
struck
Ref All
Question During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised predominantly by down drafts?

A Dissipating stage A
B Cumulus stage
C Mature stage
D Anvil stage
Ref All
Question What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?

A Frequent lightning
METEOROLOGY
Question What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
B Roll cloud
C Continuous updraft C
D Rain or hail at the surface
Ref All
Question Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:

A dissipating stage
B cumulus stage
C mature stage C
D period in which precipitation is not falling
Ref All
Question In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and down drafts simultaneously?

A Dissipating stage
B Cumulus stage
C Mature stage C
D In all stages
Ref All
Question A microburst:

A is always associated with thunderstorms
B has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C has a diameter up to 4 km C
D occurs only in tropical areas
Ref All
Question The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterised by:

A rain starting at surface
B continuous down draughts
C frequent lightning
METEOROLOGY
Question The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterised by:
D continuous up draughts D
Ref All
Question The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is:

A cirrus
B stratocumulus
C cumulus
D cumulonimbus D
Ref All
Question Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indictes upper level instability which may lead to
thunderstorm development?
A Red cirrus
B AC lenticularis
C Halo
D AC castellanus D
Ref All
Question Which thunderstorms generally product the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?

A Warm front thunderstorms
B Squall line thunderstorms B
C Nocturnal air mass thunderstorms
D Daytime air mass thunderstorms
Ref All
Question Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by:

A frontal occlusion
B thermal triggering B
C frontal lifting (warm flood)
D frontal lifting (cold front)
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
B An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action B
C Water vapour and high pressure
D A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
Ref All
Question In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered?

A Sub-tropical
B Temperate
C Tropical C
D Polar
Ref All
Question Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the:

A cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
B warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse
rate
C cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
D warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate D
Ref All
Question In general terms, an intense contour low will indicate:

A quiet settled weather
B changeable weather but getting better
C heavy rain, hail and thunderstorm C
D no change to the weather
Ref All
Question Which of the following is consered to be one of the conditions necessary for thunderstorm development?

METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following is consered to be one of the conditions necessary for thunderstorm development?
A A marked temperature inversion extending well above the 0 degree isotherm

B ELR less than the DALR extending well above the 0 degree isotherm
C Instability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree isotherm C
D Stability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree isotherm
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions are necessary for thunderstorms?

A Low surface temperatures and high moisture content
B High moisture content and a trigger action B
C Instability at night
D Low upper temperatures, and a high 0 degree isotherm
Ref All
Question There are two principal types of origin of thunderstorm

A Air mass thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms A
B Air mass thunderstorms and heat thunderstorms
C Convection thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms
D Convection thunderstorms and orographic uplift thunderstorms
Ref All
Question Air mass thunderstorms are triggered off by:

A fronts and/or orographic uplift
B convection at air mass boundaries
C standing wves in the lee of hills
D convection and/or orographic uplift D
Ref All
Question Frontal thunderstorms are triggered off by:

A rising air dur to falling pressure at air mass boundaries A
B convection by intense daytime heating or cold air moving over a warm surface
METEOROLOGY
Question Frontal thunderstorms are triggered off by:
C rising air due to falling pressure or due to orographic uplift

D mass ascent over large areas of cold air moving over a warm surface
Ref All
Question A thunderstorm has the following stages in its life cycle:

A cumulus, mature or building and declining
B building, mature, declining and dissipating
C cumulus, declining and dissipating
D cumulus of building, mature and dissipating D
Ref All
Question The building stage of a thunderstorm last for approximately:

A 20 min A
B 30 min
C 20/.30 min
D 40 min
Ref All
Question In the building stage of a thunderstorm, which of the following is true?

A Only up-currents are present A
B Only down-currents are present
C Both up-currents and down-currents are present
D Up-currents and side-currents are present
Ref All
Question The mature stage of a thunderstorm lasts for approximately:

A 15 min
B 30 min
C 20/30 min C
D 40 min
METEOROLOGY
Question The mature stage of a thunderstorm lasts for approximately:
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is true with regard to a mature thunderstorm:

A both up-currents and down-currents appear concurrently A
B the cloud top assumes an anvil shape
C water droplets, hail and snow are all present
D the top of the cloud is negatively charged and the base is positively charged
Ref All
Question The final stage of a thunderstorm is reached when:

A no further electrical charge is developed
B the lower portion of the cloud dissipates
C a well developed anvil can be seen C
D all of the above
Ref All
Question The most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground are:

A lightning and hail
B heavy precipitation and surfaces squalls
C turbulence and static
Ref All
Question Which types of thunderstorm can be the most difficult to avoid?

A Mature thunderstorms because they spread over such a wide area
B Frontal thunderstorms B
C Air mass thunderstorms
D Low level thunderstorms
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forecast and detect?

A cumulus thunderstorms
B air mass thunderstorms B
C frontal thunderstorms
D cumulus thunderstorms because they are smaller
Ref All
Question If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, which is the best area to penetrate?

A The top
B The middle
C The bottom
D The sides D
Ref All
Question A Cb with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is correct?

A The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloud
B In temperatures lower than -23oC icing is still possible B
C If hail occurs, it only occurs in down drafts
D Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud
Ref All
Question A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface:

A has a diameter up to 4 km A
B has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C is always associated with thunderstorms
D occurs only in tropical areas
Ref All
Question Assuming that an initial trigger force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of
thunderstorms are:
A high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate
METEOROLOGY
Question Assuming that an initial trigger force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of
thunderstorms are:
B high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer B
C rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals
D intense surface heating, anti-cyclonic pressure system and relatively high freezing level
Ref All
Question At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging winds
are in the order of:
A 1-5 minutes and 4 km A
B 30-40 minutes and 4 km
C 5-15 minutes and 8 km
D 5-10 minutes and 12 km
Ref All
Question Convective weather phenomena include:

A heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large area
B thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog
C thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning strikes C
D hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind maximum
Ref All
Question In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms the highest?

A Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surface
B Advection of warm air over a cold land surface
C Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surface C
D Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea surface
Ref All
Question Thunderstorms are often preceded by:

A Altostratus
B Nimbostratus
C Altocumulus Castellanus C
METEOROLOGY
Question Thunderstorms are often preceded by:
D Altocumulus Lenticularis
Ref All
Question What is a down burst?

A A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air A
B A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air
C An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds
Ref All
Question What is the approximate maximum diameter of a area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused by a
microburst?
A 20 km
B 400m
C 4 km C
D 50 km
Ref All
Question Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of thunderstorms?

A Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just below the freezing
level and orographic lifting
B Environmenal lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through a great vertical B
extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process
C Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point below 0oC and
considerable surface heating
D Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing level below the cloud
base, high relative humidity and strong surface winds
Ref All
Question Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy thunderstorms?

A A cold front approaching a mountain range in the evening A
B The passage of a warm front in the morning
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy thunderstorms?
C A cold front on the leeward side of a mountain range

D A warm sector moving over a snow-covered ground
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is correct?

A The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory A
B Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft
C Lightning strikes always cause heavy damage
D Compasses and electronics are always affected
Ref All
Question Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass thunderstorms?

A Advection of cold air over a warm sea A
B Mountain waves
C Advection of warm air over a cold sea
D Low level wind shear
Ref All
Question Which statement is correct for microbursts?

A They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rain
B The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 km B
C They occur in the tropics only
D Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings
Ref All
Question With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air?

A Anvil stage
B Mature stage
C Initial stage C
D Dissipating stage
METEOROLOGY
Question With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air?
Ref All
Question The diameter of a typical tornado is:

A only a few metres
B 100 to 150 metres B
C about 2 to 6 km
D in the order of 10 km
Ref All
Question At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?

A Spring, summer A
B Summer, autumn
C Autumn, winter
D Winter
Ref All
Question With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated?

A Cumulonimbus A
B Cumulus
C Stratus
D Nimbostratus
Ref All
Question Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by:

A terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night A
B an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower levels
C gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing at the lower
levels
D compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Surface-based temperature inversions are common during:

A cloud free nights in winter when the ground is dry A
B cloud free days in summer when the ground is dry
C cloudy days in summer when the ground is wet
D cloudy days in winter when the ground is wet
Ref All
Question You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alpa, on a hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What
is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
A Morning A
B Mid day
C Afternoon
D Early evening
Ref All
Question Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stablelayer of air is forced to rise against a
mountain range?
A Inversions
B Stratified clouds B
C Showers and thunderstorms
D Areas of severe turbulence
Ref All
Question You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12oC and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 octas NS.
What type and degree of icing is most probable?
A In clouds pushed up against he mountains, moderate to severe rime ice
B In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice B
C Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice
D Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost
Ref All
Question Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves?

A Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves?
B Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at lest 30 knots blowing parallel to
the mountain ridge
C Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain
ridge
D Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain D
ridge
Ref All
Question For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge should:

A decrease or even reverse direction
B increase initially, then decrease
C increase with little change in direction
D increase and then reverse in direction D
Ref All
Question With reference to rotor streaming:

A It can occur at levels up to 80,000 ft
B It is a low level phenomenon B
C It is found at approximately the tropopause level
D It is another name for the rotor zones associated with mountain waves
Ref All
Question Mountain waves should be expected:

A when instability is high
B on the downwind side of the mountain chain B
C directly over the mountain chain
D on the upwind side of the mountain chain
Ref All
Question When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located?

A Just below the tropopause
METEOROLOGY
Question When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located?
B Just above the cap cloud

C On the windward side of the mountain range
D in the rotor zone D
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?

A The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain waves
B Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from initiating high ground,
regardless of the height of the ground
C Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with tailwind C
toward high ground
D Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with headwind
toward high ground
Ref All
Question Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain wave has been reported?

A The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountain tops
B There are always rotor clouds
C Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is an indication for the presence of moderate/severe turbulence C
at the level of these clouds
D The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountains
Ref All
Question The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are:

A wind direction parallel to the mountain range wind speed increasing with height extensive
isothermal layer between mountain crests and the tropopause
B wind diretion parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range wind speed increasing with
height intense surface heating
C wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains intense radiation
cooling at night particularly at the higher levels
D wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range wind speed 30 kt and steadily D
increasing with height an inversion just above the crest level with less stable air above and
below
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is:

A less
B the same
C greater C
D in rain below 1 km, in drizzle more than 2 km
Ref All
Question Visibility is reduced by haze when:

A a cold front just passed
B a light drizzle falls
C dust particles are trapped below an inversion C
D small water droplets are present
Ref All
Question In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when:

A the surface wind is strong and gusty
B there is a low level inversion B
C cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
D a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
Ref All
Question Below a low level inversion visibility is often:

A moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers
B very good at night
C very good in the early morning
D moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange D
Ref All
Question Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal:

A about 500 metres
METEOROLOGY
Question Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal:
B about 200 metres

C tens of metres C
D about 1000 metres
Ref All
Question In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:

A low stratus
B haze
C drizzle
D showers of rain or snow D
Ref All
Question The solid particles which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:

A atmospheric pollution, dust, ozone and moisture
B atmospheric pollution, volcanic fumes, dust and sand
C atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and spray
D atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and volcanic ash D
Ref All
Question The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:

A fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods)
B cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitation
C cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog
D cloud, fog, mist spray or precipitation D
Ref All
Question Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:

A precipitation type and duration
B precipitation duration and droplet size
C precipitation intensity and duration
METEOROLOGY
Question Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:
D precipitation intensity and type D

Ref All
Question In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is:

A low and the precipitation is showers
B good and the precipitation is steady rain
C good and the precipitation is showers C
D low and the precipitation is steady rain
Ref All
Question What conditions are necessary for vertical visibility to be reported?

A It is always reported
B Whenever the sky is obscured by fog or heavy precipitation and the height of the cloud base B
cannot be measured
C Whenever the lowest ceiling is below 1500 ft above ground
D Whenever the lowest cloud base is below 1500 ft above ground
Ref All
Question When fog is reported, the visibility is below:

A 0.8 km
B 1 km B
C 1.5 km
D 3 km
Ref All
Question When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as:

A fog A
B dust fog
C haze
D mist
METEOROLOGY
Question When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as:
Ref All
Question What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?

A To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations A
B To measure wind currents on the ground
C To help provide 14-day forecasts
D To locate precipitation zones
Ref All
Question The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this
instrument placed?
A On the roof of the weather station
B 1m above the runway
C Close to the station about 2m above the ground
D On a mast 6-10m above the runway D
Ref All
Question While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR runway 23: 400m This
information indicates the:
A portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23
in service
B meteorological visibility on runway 23
C length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of C
runway 23
D minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service
Ref All
Question What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis) and RVR in homogeneous fog?

A The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR
B The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR
C The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR C
D There is no specific relationship between the two
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis) and RVR in homogeneous fog?
Ref All
Question Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?

A Hail A
B Water vapour
C Fog
D Any cloud
Ref All
Question When is the RVR reported at most airports?

A When the RVR decreases below 2000m
B When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800m
C When the RVR decreases below 800m
D When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500m D
Ref All
Question An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of:

A cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail
B all clouds
C zones of precipitation, particularly liquid state precipitation, and also their intensity C
D stratocumulus and its vertical development
Ref All
Question Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:

A measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
B reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
C reported in TAF and METAR
D usually better than meteorological visibility D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway?

A MIFG
B FG
C HZD - +FZRA
D h D
Ref All
Question What is a SPECI?

A An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
B A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather B
conditions have been observed
C A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours
D A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-85)Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
tropopause to be located?
A FL 410
B FL 360 B
C FL 330
D FL 390
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-82)Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what
altitude will the freezinglevel above Shannon be found?
A FL 20
B FL 140
C FL 120
D FL 60 D
Ref All
Question The meaning of RVR is:

METEOROLOGY
Question The meaning of RVR is:
A cross-wind component
B runway visual range B
C meteorological visibility
D braking action
Ref All
Question Normally, temperature readings are taken at a height of ___ in a Stevenson Screen:

A 4 ft (1.25 m) A
B 4m
C 10m
D 40cm
Ref All
Question A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitting head of the electrical ___ which enables a
continuous record of wind direction and speed to be made on a moving chart.
A anemograph; anemometer
B anemometer; barograph
C anemometer; anemograph C
D barograph; anemometer
Ref All
Question The three elements in a cloud report are:

A amount, cover, height of base
B type, cover, amount
C amount, type, height of base C
D type, amount, cloud species
Ref All
Question Barometric tendency is measured on ___ and recorded on ___

A an anemometer; an aneroid barometer
B an anemograph; an anemometer
METEOROLOGY
Question Barometric tendency is measured on ___ and recorded on ___
C barograph; aneroid barometer

D aneroid barometer; barograph D
Ref All
Question LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN 010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 + RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA
BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CBWhat is the most
Choices likely visibility for landing at 1345Z?
Answers Correct
A 4,500m A
B 1,500m
C 6,000m
D 12,000m
Ref All
Question LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015TEMPO 1200 + RA OVC005FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU
OVC015TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CBWhat is the lowest cloud base
Choices you may encounter at 1345Z?
Answers Correct
A 1,000 ft
B 500 ft B
C 700 ft
D 12,000 ft
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-33)For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to position T:

A 19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004= A
B 24020KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002=
C 18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000=
D 27030KT 8000 SCT020 07/03 Q1004=
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-106)Which of the following METAR's reflect the weather conditions expected at Brussels
airport (EBBR) at 1200 UTC?
A 21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG= A
B 28010KT 9999 BKN030 22/11 Q1016 NOSIG=
C VRB03KT 8000 BKN280 19/12 Q1012 BECMG 3000 BR=
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-106)Which of the following METAR's reflect the weather conditions expected at Brussels
airport (EBBR) at 1200 UTC?
D 19022G46KT 1200+TSGR BKN003 BKN015 17/14 Q1014 BECMG NSW=
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-05)Of the four radio surroundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:

A 3 A
B 1
C 2
D 4
Ref All
Question A METAR message is valid

A at the time of observation A
B for 2 hours
C for the hour following the observation
D for 9 hours
Ref All
Question How is a ceiling defined?

A Height above ground or water of the highest layer of cloud or obscuring phenomena aloft that
covers 4 oktas or more of the sky
B Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud independent on the amount of clouds
C Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud that contributes to the overall
overcast
D Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft covering more than half D
of the sky
Ref All
Question In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively:

A BR = mist HZ = widespread dust
B BR = fog HZ = haze
C BR = mist HZ = smoke
METEOROLOGY
Question In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively:
D BR = mist HZ = haze D
Ref All
Question In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010 MPS. This means:

A Wind from 230o magnetic at 10 miles per hour
B Wind from 230o true at 10 miles per hour
C Wind from 230o magnetic at 20 knots
D Wind from 230o true at 20 knots D
Ref All
Question In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates:

A volcanic ash
B present weather within the approach area
C present weather within a range of 8 km, but not at the airport C
D present weather at the airport
Ref All
Question In the METAR code the abbreviation VCBLDU means:

A an active dust storm
B blowing dust in the vicinity B
C an active sandstorm
D an active dust and sand storm
Ref All
Question The temperature at the surface is given as +15oC and at 4000 ft it is +9oC the state of this layer is said
to be:
B conditionally unstable
C stable C
D unstable
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question The visibility transmitted in a METAR is:

A given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1500 metres
B the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360o scan at the horizon
C the lowest observed in a 360o scan from the meteorological station C
D measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the runway
Ref All
Question What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

A Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, useable runway length 1500 metres
B RVR RWY 24 right below 1500 metres
C RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metres C
D RVR RWY 24 right 1500 metres
Ref All
Question What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?

A By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts
B By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts, while also B
considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart
C By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart
D By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart
Ref All
Question What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC? KCHS 280430Z 280606
VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA
Choices OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG
Answers Correct
A 3000 feet
B 1000 feet B
C 1300 feet
D 1500 feet
Ref All
Question What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC?EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005
OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030
BECMG 2122 CAVOK
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC?EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005
Choices BECMG 2122 CAVOK
Answers Correct
A 5000 feet A
B 3000 feet
C 500 feet
D 1500 feet
Ref All
Question What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC? LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
A 10 km
B 6 NM
C 4 km
D 6 km D
Ref All
Question What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC?EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005
Choices BECMG 2122 CAVOK
Answers Correct
A 1600 metres
B 4000 metres
C 1000 metres
D 9000 metres D
Ref All
Question Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated
to CAVOK? (MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 ft, LSZH 8000 ft, LSGG 12000 ft, LFSB 6000 ft)
A LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA=
B LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 KBN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 BR= B
C LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG=
D LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG=
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH-
SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH-
SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF
A Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. A
Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
B Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
C Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area
above FL 380
D Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps
Ref All
Question Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?

A 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG= A
B 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600=
C 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500=
D 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG=
Ref All
Question While appreciating your destination aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR runway 23: 400mThis
information indicates the
A portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23
in service
B visibility on runway 23
C length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of C
runway 23
D minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service
Ref All
Question Why can the following METAR not be abbreviated to CAVOK? DLLO 121550Z 31018G30KT 9999 FEW060TCU BKN070 14/08
Q1016 TEMPO 4000 TS=
A Because the cloud base in below the highest minimum sector altitude A
B Because there are gusts reported
C Because towering cumulus are observed
D Because thunderstorms are forecast temporary for the next 2 hours
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-04)Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-04)Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:

A 1
B 2 B
C 3
D 4
Ref All
Question The radiosonde can directly measure:

A below 5 kt A
B between 10 and 15 kt
C between 5 and 10 kt
D above 15 kt
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-62)The air mass affecting position P is most likely to be:

A Maritime tropical
B Maritime polar
C Continental tropical
D Continental polar D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-63)The air mass affecting position R is most likely to be:

A Maritime tropical
B Maritime polar
C Continental polar
D Continental tropical D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-64)The weather most likely to be experienced at position S is:

A little or no cloud hazy
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-89)If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising
altitude be?
A Constantly in the troposphere
B Constantly in the stratosphere B
C First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
D In the stratosphere for part of time
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-57)The weather most likely to be experienced at position A is:

A cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to strong winds
B clear skies, good visibility in light winds
C mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to strong winds C
D radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind
Ref All
Question In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?

A 500 - 400 hPa
B 600 - 500 hPa
C 300 - 200 hPa C
D 400 - 300 hPa
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-102)On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL 180?

A Zurich-Hamburg
B Zurich-Madrid
C Hamburg-Stockholm C
D Zurich-Vienna
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-98)The cold front is indicated at position:

A A
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-98)The cold front is indicated at position:
B B B
C C
D D
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-98)The warm sector is indicated by letter:

A A
B B
C D
D C D
Ref All
Question When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest you rflight level?

A 300 hPa
B 850 hPa
C 700 hPa C
D 500 hPa
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone B?

A Col A
B Ridge of high pressure
C Depression
D Trough of low pressure
Ref All
Question If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
your flight level?
A 850 hPa
B 500 hPa
C 700 hPa
METEOROLOGY
your flight level?
D 300 hPa D
Ref All
Question What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?

A Positions with the same air density
B Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels
C Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure C
D Positions with the same wind velocity
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-105_A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing?

A 1 A
B 4
C 5
D 6
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone C?

A Ridge of high pressure A
B Col
C Trough of low pressure
D Depression
Ref All
Question Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL 300?

A 500 hPa
B 200 hPa
C 700 hPa
D 300 hPa D
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
your flight level?
A 300 hPa
B 500 hPa B
C 850 hPa
D 700 hPa
Ref All
Question On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jet stream?

A Upper air chart
B Wind/temperature chart
C Surface chart
D Significant weather chart D
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-06)What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?

A The centre of a tropopause high, where the tropopause is at FL 400 A
B The centre of a high pressure area at 400 hPa
C The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400
D The lower limit of the tropopause
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-105_A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revoving storm?

A 2 A
B 7
C 10
D 6
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone D?

A Anti-cyclone
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-45)Which of the following best describes Zone D?
B Ridge of high pressure

C Depression C
D Trough of low pressure
Ref All

A 200 hPa
B 300 hPa
C 500 hPa C
D 700 hPa
Ref All

A 700 hPa
B 300 hPa
C 500 hPa
D 200 hPa D
Ref All
Question Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level?

A Surface chart
B 500 hPa chart
C 700 hPa chart
D Significant weather chart D
Ref All

A 850 hPa
B 700 hPa B
C 500 hPa
METEOROLOGY
D 300 hPa
Ref All
Question How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?

A ISOL CB
B EMBD CB
C FREQ CB
D OCNL CB D
Ref All
Question In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?

A 300 hPa chart
B 24 hour surface forecast
C 500 hPa chart
D Significant Weather Chart D
Ref All
Question What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?

A The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart
B The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
C The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart C
D The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
Ref All
Question How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?

A The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour
B The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots
C The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots C
D The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour
Ref All
METEOROLOGY

A 850 hPa A
B 700 hPa
C 500 hPa
D 300 hPa
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 2050-71)You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels
would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
A FL 140
B FL 260 B
C FL 320
D FL 300
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-100)What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome?

A 020/50
B 050/40
C 200/40 C
D 350/40
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-44)The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on October
10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich airport?
A TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN01S TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN W002=
B TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015
C TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=
D TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 D
0100 FG W001=
Ref All
Question The upper wind and temperatue chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about:

METEOROLOGY
Question The upper wind and temperatue chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about:
A 39,000 ft
B 30,000 ft
C 32,000 ft
D 34,000 ft D
Ref All
Question When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level?

A 500 hPa
B 300 hPa
C 850 hPa C
D 700 hPa
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-82)Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich-Rome at FL 110:

A 230/10 A
B 200/30
C 040/10
D 250/20
Ref All
Question The 500 mb contour chart is equivalent to Flight Level:

A FL 300
B FL 90
C FL 50
D FL 180 D
Ref All
Question The lines on a contour chart join points at:

A equal pressure
B equal temperature
METEOROLOGY
Question The lines on a contour chart join points at:
C equal height C
D equal humidity
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-59)Considering the North Atlantic route from the Azores to Bermuda, the mean height of
the tropical tropopause during summer is approximately:
A 33,000 ft
B 39,000 ft
C 51,000 ft C
D 60,000 ft
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-61)Considering the sector Rom to 25oN on the route indicated, what mean upper winds may
be expected at FL 300 during winter?
A Easterlies at 40 kt
B Variable easterlies
C Light westerlies
D Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 kt D
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-51)The air mass affecting positon A is most likely to be:

A Continental tropical
B Maritime polar B
C Continental polar
D Maritime tropical
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-49)The air mass affecting position C is most likely to be:

A Continental tropical
B Maritime tropical B
C Maritime polar
D Continental polar
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-49)The air mass affecting position C is most likely to be:
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-50)The air mass affecting position S is most likely to be:

A Maritime polar and unstable
B Maritime tropical and stable B
C Maritime polar and stable
D Continental tropical and unstable
Ref All
Question On an upper wind and temperature chart:

A the wind increases from south to north
B the temperature is constant all over the chart
C the height is constant all over the chart
D the pressure is constant all over the chart D
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-83)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich-Lisboa at FL 200:

A -33oC A
B -30oC
C -41oC
D -49oC
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-70)In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT
area no2?
A From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate A
B From FL 240 to FL 370, light
C From below FL 130 to FL 270, light
D From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-84)On which of these routes would you have to worry about turbulence at FL 340?

A Rome - Berlin
B Zurich - Rome
C Zurich - Athens
D Shannon - Hamburg D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-86)If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you expect at
cruising altitude?
A Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
B Individual cumulonimbus B
C Scattered towering cumulus
D Scattered castellanus
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-74)Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich-London at FL 280:

A 040/80
B 250/80
C 220/60 C
D 160/90
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-46)Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT)
at around 1450 UTC?
A 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG W001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800=
B 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA=
C 21002KT 5000 HZ SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG= C
D 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG=
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-97)What is the deviation of the temperatue at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?

A 4oC warmer than ISA
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-97)What is the deviation of the temperatue at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?
B 8oC colder than ISA B

C 8oC warmer than ISA
D 29oC colder than ISA
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-36)What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC?

A 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG=
B 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA= B
C 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW=
D 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG=
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-79)Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160?

A Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers A
B 4 oktas broken cumulus
C Isolated cumulonimbus only
D 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-37)Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?

A ESSA
B LSZH B
C ENFB
D EFHK
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-71)Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream
affecting the route between Munich and London?
A 220o / 120 kt A
B 220o / 120 km/h
C 050o / 120 kt
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-71)Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream
affecting the route between Munich and London?
D 230o / 120 m/sec
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-100)Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing
level above Tunis be found?
A FL 100 A
B FL 20
C FL 180
D FL 260
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-83)Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich Hamburg at FL 240:

A 230/20 A
B 020/20
C 200/15
D 260/25
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-84)On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the
chart?
A Rome - Frankfurt
B Hamburg - Oslo B
C Tunis - Rome
D Copenhagen - Helsinki
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-77)What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius from the International Standard
Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?
A ISA -2oC
B ISA -13oC B
C ISA +13oC
D ISA +2oC
Ref ATPL AND H
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-108)Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?

A 340 kt
B 145 kt B
C 95 kt
D 140 km/h
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-81)What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva?

A -24oC A
B -20oC
C -16oC
D -28oC
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-109)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens Geneva at FL 150:

A -21oC
B -14oC B
C -11oC
D -27oC
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-90)Which of these statements is true?

A Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid
B Freezing level above Madris is higher than FL 120
C The front to the north of London is moving south
D Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-88)Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate
CAT at FL 300?
A Zurich - Athens A
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-88)Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate
CAT at FL 300?
B London - Zurich
C Zurich - Stockholm
D Madrid - Bordeaux
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-71)If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 280, what conditions can you expect
at cruising altitude?
A Out of cloud throughout the flight
B Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT
C Scattered thunderstorms
D Largely free of cloud; moderate turbulence half way along the route D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-82)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich Rome at FL 110:

A -6oC
B -12oC
C -9oC C
D +5oC
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-46)Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night?

A ENFB
B LSZH B
C EKCH
D ESSA
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Reer to figure 050-109)Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens Geneva at FL 160:

A 240/40 A
B 210/25
C 260/45
METEOROLOGY
Question (Reer to figure 050-109)Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens Geneva at FL 160:
D 050/35
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-68)What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant
weather chart?
A FL 340
B FL 220 B
C FL 160
D FL 180
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figue 050-100)What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt Rome route?

A 10oC colder than ISA
B 4oC warmer than ISA
C 4oC colder than ISA C
D 10oC warmer than ISA
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-46)On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather
situation?TAF 1322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100
Choices TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=
Answers Correct
A ESSA
B EINN B
C LSZH
D EKCH
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refr to figure 050-115)At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 1200 UTC, the sky is overcast with Stratocumulus
and Altostratus and it is raining. Using the SWC in appendix, valid at 1200 UTC, we can estimate a weather
Choices improvement for Lyon:
Answers Correct
A 1330 UTC
B 2100 UTC B
C 0300 UTC the following day
D 1215 UTC
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refr to figure 050-115)At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 1200 UTC, the sky is overcast with Stratocumulus
and Altostratus and it is raining. Using the SWC in appendix, valid at 1200 UTC, we can estimate a weather
improvement for Lyon:
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-36)At which airport, is the following weather development taking place?TAF 060600Z
060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA
Choices SCT030 OVC050=
Answers Correct
A LFPO
B EDDL B
C LOWW
D LEMD
Ref ATPL AND H
Question (Refer to figure 050-04)To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable?TAF 230900Z 231019 24014KT
6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 5020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1617
Choices 5000 SHRA BKN020
Answers Correct
A EKCH
B LFPG
C LEMD
D LOWW D
Ref ATPL AND H
Question Runway visual range can be reported in:

A a TAF
B a METAR B
C a SIGMET
D both a TA and a METAR
Ref All
Question You receive the following METAR:LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG= What will be
the RVR at 0900 UTC?
A 300 m
B The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR B
C 700 m
D 900 m
METEOROLOGY
Question You receive the following METAR:LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG= What will be
the RVR at 0900 UTC?
Ref All
Question When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?

A When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed A
B When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
C With gusts of at least 25 knots
D With gusts of at least 35 knots
Ref All
Question Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?

A 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG=
B 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000=
C 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG= C
D 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG=
Ref All
Question The follwing weather report EDDM 241332 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022
0400 FG VV001 is a:
A METAR
B 24 hour TAF
C SPECI
D 9 hour TAF D
Ref All
Question (Refr to figure 050-67)Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200?

A Moderate turbulence, moderate icing A
B Moderate turbulence, light icing
C Severe turbulence, moderate icing
D Severe turbulence, severe icing
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?

A TS
B SA
C DZ C
D SQ
Ref All
Question What is the meaning of the expression FEW?

A 2-4 oktas cloud cover
B 1-2 oktas cloud cover B
C 5-7 oktas cloud cover
D 1-3 oktas cloud cover
Ref All
Question In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formatin in the coming night the highest?

A 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR= A
B 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG=
C 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG=
D 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500=
Ref All
Question Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00
UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360o/2 kt, visibility 2000m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 ft, OVC altostratus at 8000
Choices ft, QNH 1023 hPa,Calvi: wind 040o/2 kt, visibility 3000m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT stratocumulus at
2000 ft, OVC altostratus at 9000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa. The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:
Answers Correct
A 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 2000 ft at Calvi
B 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 500 ft at Calvi
C 8000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at Calvi
D 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at Calvi D
Ref All
Question What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?

A 6 - 8 oktas
B 3 - 4 oktas
C 5 - 7 oktas C
D 8 oktas
Ref All
Question Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB
BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS=What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports:
A That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF
B That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
C That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in C
the morning
D That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest
VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
Ref All
Question What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

A kt
B kt/100 ft B
C m/100 ft
D m/sec
Ref All
Question What does the abbreviation NOSIG mean?

A No significant changes A
B No report received
C No weather related problems
D Not signed by the meteorologist
Ref All
Question A SPECI is:
METEOROLOGY
Question A SPECI is:

A an aviation routine weather report
B an aviation selected special weather report B
C a warning for special weather phenomena
D a forecast for special weather phenomena
Ref All
Question What does the term METAR signify?

A A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
B A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR
C A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half- C
hourly intervals
D A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report
Ref All
Question Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=Flight from
Choices Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam?
Answers Correct
A 5 km
B 3 km B
C 5 NM
D 6 km
Ref All
Question How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two upper air chart levels? (eg. Wind
at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are available)
A By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while also considering A
the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart
B By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts
C By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart
D By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart
Ref All
Question What is the meaning of the abbreviation SCT?
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the meaning of the abbreviation SCT?

A 1-2 oktas
B 3-4 oktas B
C 5-7 oktas
D 1-4 oktas
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd t sobs
and fcst in w part of athinai fir/mov e/inst nc =
A Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens
by 1820 UTC
B Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
C Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is C
moving east. Intensity is constant
D The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the
western part of the Athens FIR
Ref All
Question Given the following METAR:EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025
NOSIG
A Visibility is reduced by water droplets A
B There is a distinct change in RVR observed
C Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
D RVR on runway 26R is increasing
Ref All
Question ATIS information contains:

A operational information and if necessary meteorological information
B only meteorological information
C meteorological and operations information C
D only operational information
Ref All
METEOROLOGY

A FZFG
B BCFG
C SN C
D HZ
Ref All
Question Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to
CAVOK?(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
A LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG=
B LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 RA= B
C LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG=
D LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG=
Ref All
Question What does the expression Broken (BKN) mean?

A 5-7 eights of the sky is cloud covered A
B 3-4 eights of the sky is cloud covered
C 3-5 eights of the sky is cloud covered
D Nil significant cloud cover
Ref All
Question In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?

A Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome
B Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome
C Severe mountain waves C
D A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR
Ref All
Question Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR?LSZH 050820Z 16003KT
0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000=
A Meteorological visibility 1000m, RVR 400m, freezing level at 300m, variable winds, temperature
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR?LSZH 050820Z 16003KT
0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000=
B RVR for runway 16 1000m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next two hours to 2000m,
vertical visibility 300m, temperature -2oC
C RVR for runway 14 1500m meteorological visibility 400m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160o at 3 kt
D Meteorological visibility 400m, RVR for runway 16 1000m, dew point 2oC freezing fog D
Ref All
Question Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?

A 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS= A
B 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG=
C 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 M02/M04 Q1014 NOSIG=
D 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000=
Ref All
Question What is a trend forecast?

A An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
B A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours B
C A route forecast valid for 24 hours
D A routine report
Ref All
Question LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000
RA OVC010=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
A 1000 ft
B 1500 ft B
C 1500 m
D 5000 ft
Ref All
Question If CAVOK is reported then:

A no low drifting snow is present A
B no clouds are present
METEOROLOGY
Question If CAVOK is reported then:
C low level windshear has not been reported

D any CBs have a base above 5000 ft
Ref All
Question How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?

A 9 hours
B 2 hours B
C 1 hour
D 30 minutes
Ref All
Question In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you
examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid
Choices 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw ft 050 south of 53n wkn=LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500
mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc=EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for
London fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also
fcst move wkn=Which decision is correct?
Answers Correct
A You show no further interest in these reports, since they do nt concern the route to be flown
B Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250 B
C Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL
310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)
D You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would
demand too much of the passengers
Ref All
Question Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
Choices Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast?
Answers Correct
A 120o / 15 kt gusts 25 kt A
B 140o / 10 kt
C 300o / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D 250o / 20 kt
Ref All
METEOROLOGY

A +SHSN A
B VA
C BR
D MIFG
Ref All
Question Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
Choices Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?
Answers Correct
A 500m
B 250 ft
C 500 ft C
D 800 ft
Ref All
Question In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note:TEMPO TSWhat is the maximum
time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance?
A 120 minutes
B 60 minutes B
C 10 minutes
D 20 minutes
Ref All
Question A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in:

A TAF and SIGMET
B TAF and METAR
C METAR and SIGMET
D SWC and SIGMET D
Ref All
Question Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport:TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012
23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007=Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be
Choices expected at 1200 UTC?
Answers Correct
METEOROLOGY
Question Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport:TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012
23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007=Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be
expected at 1200 UTC?
A Meteorological visibility 6 kilometers, cloudbase 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
B Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feet
C Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet calm
D Meteorological visibility 2.5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots D
Ref All
Question Which of the following phenomena can product a risk of aqua planning?

A SA
B FG
C BCFG
D +RA D
Ref All
Question Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the
abbreviation VV001 mean?
A RVR greater than 100m
B RVR less than 100m
C Vertical visibility 100 ft C
D Vertical visibility 100m
Ref All
Question Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport:FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT
8000 SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest
Choices quoted visibility forecast?
Answers Correct
A 10 or more km
B 8 NM
C 10 NM
D 8 km D
Ref All
Question SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:

A heavy aircraft only
METEOROLOGY
Question SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:
B light aircraft only

C VFR operations only
D all aircraft D
Ref All
Question Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence
in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?
A The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
B The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
C The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET C
D The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning
Ref All
Question In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway?

A TAF
B SIGMET
C GAFOR
D METAR D
Ref All
Question What does the term TREND signify?

A It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
B It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals
C It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
D It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report D
Ref All
Question The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:

A the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
B mean sea level
C the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
METEOROLOGY
Question The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:
D airfield level D
Ref All
Question Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the
abbreviation PROB30 mean?
A Probability of 30% A
B Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
C The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft
D Change expected in less than 30 minutes
Ref All
Question Refer to TAF below:EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30
TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KTFrom the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z
Choices in Birmingham (EGBB) will be:
Answers Correct
A not less than 1.5 km but could be in excess of 10 km A
B a maximum of 5 km
C a minimum of 1.5 km and a maximum of 5 km
D more than 10 km
Ref All
Question On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals of:

A 2 hours
B 1 hour
C 0.5 hours C
D 3 hours
Ref All
Question Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to
aircraft in flight?
A SPECI
B ATIS
C SIGMET C
D TAF
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to
aircraft in flight?
Ref All
Question In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night,
the highest?
A VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG=
B 22004KT 6000 RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG=
C VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR= C
D 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG=
Ref All
Question What does the term SIGMET signify?

A A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions A
B A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
C A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
D A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
intervals
Ref All
Question Which of the statements is true concerning equal lines?

A Severe squall lines always move from north west to south east
B Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
C For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
D For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued D
Ref All
Question Refer to the following TAF for Zurich:LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 DZ
BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
A 6 NM
B 6 km B
C 4 km
D 10 km
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours?

A 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000= A
B 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG=
C 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000
D 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG=
Ref All
Question Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?TAF LSZH
211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG
Choices 2022 25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z=
Answers Correct
A Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots A
B Visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18oC
C Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3000 feet, wind 250o, temperature 18oC
D Severe rainshowers, visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15oC, gusts up to 35 knots
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB
23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW=
A Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18oC A
B Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23oC
C Broken, cloud base 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18oC
D Wind 250o, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
Ref All
Question Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG
VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800=
A Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar front, RVR for runway 16 more
than 1500 metres
B Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3oC, vertical
visibility 100 metres
C Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility
100 feet, fog with hoar frost
D RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility D
improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question Does the following report make sense? LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG

A The report is nonsence, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of 5 km
if shallow fog is reported
B The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the meteorological
visibility is more than 2 km
C The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye level C
D The report is not possible, because with a temperature of 2oC and a dew point of 2oC there must
be uniform fog
Ref All
Question The wind directin in a METAR is measured relative to:

A the 0-meridian
B magnetic north
C true north C
D grid north
Ref All
Question In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the:

A QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa
B QFE rounded to the nearest hPa
C QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa C
D QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa
Ref All
Question Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428. What must you consider when making
performance calculations?
A Aquaplaning conditions
B The braking action will be medium to good
C The runway will be wet
D The friction co-efficient is 0.28 D
Ref All
Question Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the BECMG
data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
METEOROLOGY
Question Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the BECMG
data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
A The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC A
B A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
C Many short term changes in the original weather
D Many long term changes in the original weather
Ref All
Question Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT
8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is
Choices forecast on the approach to Bordeaux?
Answers Correct
A Light drizzle and fog
B Moderate snow showers
C Heavy rain showers C
D Continuous moderate rain
Ref All
Question Refr to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG 2001What does the
abbreviation BKN004 mean?
A 4-8 oktas, ceiling 400m
B 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400m
C 5-7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft C
D 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
Ref All
Question The validity of a TAF is:

A between 6 and 9 hours
B 9 hours from the time of issue
C stated in the TAF C
D 2 hours
Ref All
Question The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the:

METEOROLOGY
Question The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the:
A value representative of the touchdown zone

B average value of the A-, B- and C- position
C highest value of the A-, B- and C- position C
D lowest value of the A-, B- and C- position
Ref All
Question A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is
reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is
Choices the safest departure procedure?
Answers Correct
A Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
B Take off is not possible under these conditions
C Depart on runway 09 with a tail wind C
D Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle, during the passage through the inversion
Ref All
Question The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being:

A AGL
B AMSL
C AAL C
D Pressure altitude
Ref All
Question How is the cloud base reported in a METAR:

A In steps of 100 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft A
B In steps of 100m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
C In steps of 10 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
D It steps of 10m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
Ref All
Question Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC.TAF YUDO 120600Z 121206 17010KT
3000 SCT005 BECMG 1820 RB03KT BCFG SKC BECMG 2022 0300 FG VV002=What can be said about the destination
Choices airport at 2030 UTC if CAT II ILS inimum:
Answers Correct
A Open the whole night because 300 m of visibility corresponds to at least 900m RVR
METEOROLOGY
Question Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC.TAF YUDO 120600Z 121206 17010KT
3000 SCT005 BECMG 1820 RB03KT BCFG SKC BECMG 2022 0300 FG VV002=What can be said about the destination
airport at 2030 UTC if CAT II ILS inimum:
B Still open until 2200 UTC because the weather change is not completed before 2200 UTC
C Has to be considered as closed C
D Still open because the decrease of the visibility below the CAT II minima will be a little bit
later than 2030 UTC
Ref All
Question Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2123 0500 FG VV001What visibility is
forecast for 2400 UTC?
A 500 m A
B 2000 m
C Between 5000m and 2000m
D Between 0m and 1000m
Ref All
Question Refer to the following TAF messageLFxx 180800Z 180918 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214 24025KT 2000 RA
BKN009 OVC070=At 1400 UTC, the lowest cloud base will be:
A between 900 and 1500 feet AMSL
B at 900 feet AGL B
C between 900 and 1500 feet AGL
D at 1500 feet AGL
Ref All
Question TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG 0002 27015KT 4500 SN SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400
+SN VV002 BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT 1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB=What is the
Choices expected visibility at 0300 UTC?
Answers Correct
A 4500m
B Between 400m and 10 km or more
C Between 4500m and 10 km or moe
D Between 400m and 4500 m D
Ref All
Question TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO
1316 6000 SCT007=Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?
A Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
METEOROLOGY
Question TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO
1316 6000 SCT007=Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?
B Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feet
C Visibility 2.5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots C
D Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
Ref All
Question The following weather message:EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 BR OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002
TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001Is a:
A METAR
B 24 hour TAF
C SPECI
D 9 hour TAF D
Ref All
Question The TAF weather messages are:

A airport forecasts A
B hourly or semi-hourly weather observations
C special weather observations
D landing forecasts of the trend type
Ref All
Question The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:

A 9999, NSC, NOSIG
B 9000, SKC, NOSIG
C 8000, HAZARDOUS WX NIL, NOSIG
D 9999, NSC, NSW D
Ref All
Question The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in percentage, of phenomena described
during a specific period. The numerical values immediately following the term PROB, are:
A 25 or 25
B 20 or 30
C 30 or 40 C
METEOROLOGY
Question The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in percentage, of phenomena described
during a specific period. The numerical values immediately following the term PROB, are:
D 35 or 50
Ref All
Question What does the code TAF AMD mean?

A Revised TAF A
B No change compared with the previous TAF
C Weather conditions expected to affect the safety of normal operations
D Delayed issue of a TAF
Ref All
Question What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT
1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB
Choices BECMG 2024 6000=
Answers Correct
A 1800 feet
B 1200 feet
C 1400 feet
D 900 feet D
Ref All
Question What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT
9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
A 500 ft A
B 500 m
C 1000 ft
D 1000 m
Ref All
Question What is the lowest probably cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston? TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606
36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG
Choices 2301 34010KT FEW025=
Answers Correct
A 1500 m
B 1000 m
C 1500 ft
D 1000 ft D
METEOROLOGY
Question What is the lowest probably cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston? TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606
36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG
2301 34010KT FEW025=
Ref All
Question What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019
18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005
Choices BKN015CB=
Answers Correct
A 8 NM
B 8 km B
C 6 NM
D 10 km
Ref All
Question What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR
TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG
Choices 2024 6000=
Answers Correct
A 1200 metres
B 5 km B
C 6 km
D 10 km or more
Ref All
Question What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC?TAF OEDR
280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CABOK BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA=
A 4000 yards
B 10 km or more
C 7 km
D 4 km D
Ref All
Question What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC? TAF LEMD
281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
Choices TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
Answers Correct
A 2000 feet
B 1500 feet B
C 3000 feet
D 800 feet
METEOROLOGY
Question What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC? TAF LEMD
281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
Ref All
Question What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC?EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000
SHRA OVC 015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK
A 260o / 10 kt A
B Variable / 05 kt
C Variable / 15 to 25 kt
D Calm
Ref All
Question What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB
BECMG1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025=
A 360o / 10 kt
B 140o / 20 kt gusts 34 kt B
C 340o / 10 kt
D 140o / 27 kt
Ref All
Question What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be experienced during the final approach
to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020
Choices PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA
Answers Correct
A Anabatic winds
B Roll cloud associated with standing waves
C Radiation fog
D Low level wind shear D
Ref All
Question What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC?MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315
14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2224 34010KT FEW025=
A Heavy rain showers A
B Light drizzle
C Continuous moderate rain
D Intermittent light rain
Ref All
METEOROLOGY
Question What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC?TAF LEMD 281200Z
281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306
Choices 6000 SCT008
Answers Correct
A 6000 metres
B 8000 metres
C 10 kilometres or more C
D Greater than 10 kilometres
Ref All
Question Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

A Heavy duststorm A
B Strong inversion
C Thick fog
D Snow and ice on the runway
Ref All
Question Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

A Strong inversion
B Heavy duststorm B
C Thick fog
D Snow and ice on the runway
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-106)The following TAF applies best to which aerodrome? 19010KT 8000 RA BKN014 TEMPO
1518 4000 RADZ BKN010
A EBBR A
B LOWW
C MADRID
D PARIS
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-36)Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?

METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-36)Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?
A 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG=

B 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000=
C 28006KT 4000 =TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG NSW=
D 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG 8000= D
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-36)At which airport is the following weather development most likely to be taking
place? TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT
Choices 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050=
Answers Correct
A LFPO
B EDDL B
C LEMD
D EPWA
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-36)On which airport do you expect the development of the following most likely weather
situation?TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OCT 180 BECMG 1013 OVC090 TEMPO RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020
Choices OVC030 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020
Answers Correct
A LFPO
B EGLL
C EDDL C
D LOWW
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-46)At which airport is the following weather development taking place?TAF 231322
24014G32KT 4000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA
Choices BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=
Answers Correct
A EINN A
B LFPO
C LFML
D EKCH
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-46)The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on May 23.
Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport?
METEOROLOGY
Question (Refer to figure 050-46)The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on May 23.
Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport?
A TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002=
B TAF LSZH 10161 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015=
C TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=
D TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 D
0100 FG VV001=
Ref All
Question (Refer to figure 050-44)The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the
following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport (LSZH)?
A TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG A
BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001=
B TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002=
C TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003
OVC015=
D TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=

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B in summer than winter in moderate latitudes

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D decreases and its temperature decreases

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D shallowest over the poles in summer

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D There is no significant difference with change of latitude

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B stability decreases in the layer

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D remains constant with height D

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B Environmental lapse rate B

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