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Biology An Australian Focus 5th

Edition Knox Test Bank


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Chapter 08 Testbank

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Animal and plant cells are usually

A. diploid.

B. haploid.

C. triploid.

D. homologous.

E. reproductive.

2. In sexual reproduction of eukaryotes

A. the gametes are usually diploid.

B. the zygotes are usually haploid.

C. fusion occurs immediately after meiosis.

D. the egg and sperm are produced by mitosis.

E. meiosis halves the number of chromosomes.

3. DNA in a prokaryotic cell is

A. a linear structure.

B. moved around the cell by spindle fibres.

C. composed of a single, circular molecule.

D. attached to the nuclear membrane.

E. condenses to form a visible structure during binary fission.


4. Which of the following statements about prokaryote cell replication is CORRECT?

A. The newly forming cell wall and cell membrane grow outwards from the middle of the cell.

B. The circular DNA molecule is unattached to the plasma membrane before and after replication.

C. The circular DNA molecule is single stranded before it replicates.

D. The two replicated DNA molecules are separated by the growth of the plasma membrane and cell wall between them.

E. The newly replicated DNA is attached to the plasma membrane on opposite side of the cell.

5. In eukaryote cells, the amount of DNA in a cell doubles during the

A. S phase of the cell cycle.

B. G1 phase of the cell cycle.

C. M phase of the cell cycle.

D. G2 phase of the cell cycle.

E. G0 phase of the cell cycle.

6. If a cell ceases to divide during the cell cycle, it exits during _______ and enters a state called ______. Fill in the blanks
to complete this statement.

A. G1, S

B. G1, G2

C. S, G1

D. G1, G0

E. G0, M

7. Very specialised cells such as nerve cells no longer undergo division. In what stage of the cell cycle are these cells?

A. G1 phase

B. S phase

C. G2 phase

D. Mitosis

E. G0 phase
8. The sequence of stages in mitosis is

A. prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase.

B. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

C. prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase.

D. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase.

E. prometaphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

9. After S phase and before mitosis, a chromosome consists of two chromatids

A. held together at the centromere.

B. each containing one long molecule of DNA.

C. which are genetically identical.

D. in an enlarged nucleus.

E. All of the statements are true.

10. In animal cells, the centrosomes

A. are formed during prophase.

B. separate during prophase.

C. contain two centrioles.

D. are a protein disc for attachment of microtubules.

E. attach to the centromeres.

11. An important feature of prophase of mitosis is

A. crossing over between homologous chromosomes.

B. the pairing up of chromosomes.

C. the exchange of genetic material.

D. the condensation of chromosomes.

E. the breakdown of the nuclear membrane.


12. The mitotic spindle attaches to the centromere by inserting its microtubules in the

A. kinetochore.

B. equatorial plate.

C. synaptonemal complex.

D. centrosome.

E. asters.

13. The stage of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned in one plane, midway between the poles, is called

A. prophase.

B. prometaphase.

C. metaphase.

D. anaphase.

E. telophase.

14. In animal cells undergoing mitosis, division of the cytoplasm is caused by a contracting ring of

A. interphase microtubules.

B. kinetochore fibres.

C. actin filaments.

D. tubulin filaments.

E. midbody fibres.

15. During mitosis in a plant cell, the poles are broad and the spindle barrel-shaped because plant

A. chromosomes do not have kinetochores.

B. cells do not have an aster.

C. microtubules are made of actin.

D. microtubule assemble is not as strong as in animal cells.

E. cells do not have centrioles.


16. Phragmoplasts are

A. only found in animal cells.

B. made up of contracting actin filaments.

C. fibrous structures located at the position of a developing cell wall.

D. membrane-bound organelles.

E. microtubules which form on the cell wall to join the cell plate.

17. Which of the following provides evidence to show cytokinesis is independent of mitosis?

A. Cytokinesis does not begin until anaphase.

B. Anti-microtubule drugs applied to dividing cells inhibit chromosome separation but not cytokinesis.

C. A phragmoplast forms in plants but not in animals.

D. Cytokinesis is dependent on the formation of the midbody and mitosis is not.

E. In meiosis, there are two separate cell divisions, not one.

18. In plant cells, the position at which the new cell wall will form is indicated by

A. the point at which the circular chromosome is attached to the plasma membrane.

B. a point equidistant between the poles of the aster.

C. a point at the middle of the cell.

D. a band of microtubules near the cell wall before prophase commences.

E. the position of the centriole in the cell.

19. A diploid cell with a total of sixteen chromosomes undergoes mitosis. This type of division would result in which of the
following?

A. Four genetically identical cells.

B. Two cells each with eight chromosomes.

C. Two cells each with sixteen chromosomes.

D. Two cells which are genetically different.

E. Four genetically different cells.


20. In animal cells, a drug that disrupts actin-based activity in the cell would be expected to prevent

A. cytokinesis.

B. DNA replication.

C. formation of the mitotic spindle fibres.

D. condensation of the chromosomes.

E. movement of the chromosomes.

21. If a drug which prevents the disassembly of microtubules is added to cells early in cell division it would be expected to
disrupt

A. cytokinesis.

B. DNA replication.

C. condensation of the chromosomes.

D. formation of the mitotic spindle fibres.

E. movement of the chromosomes.

22. During which phase does the S-phase-promoting factor activate proteins?

A. S

B. G2

C. G1

D. G0

E. M

23. In the cell cycle

A. DNA replicates at M phase.

B. chromosomes become visible under the light microscope at G1 phase.

C. differentiated cells exit the cell cycle at S phase.

D. important check points control cell cycle progression.

E. cytochalasins, which act as anti-actin drugs, prevent progression of the cell cycle.
24. All of the following are characteristics of cancer cells, EXCEPT

A. absolute numbers of chromosomes.

B. chromosomal abnormalities.

C. normal cell cycle progression.

D. loss of check point controls.

E. loss of response to cell growth signals.

25. Meiosis produces four cells that are

A. haploid and genetically identical to each other.

B. haploid and genetically identical to the parent cell.

C. haploid and genetically different from each other.

D. diploid and genetically different from each other.

E. diploid and genetically different from the parent cell.

26. There a number of differences between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis. The following feature is only
found in anaphase of mitosis.

A. Centromeres split.

B. Homologous chromosomes separate from their partners.

C. Spindle fibres shorten.

D. Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.

E. Chromatids are held together by the kinetichore.

27. Chromatids of homologous chromosomes may exchange genetic material

A. during prophase of mitosis.

B. during metaphase of meiosis I.

C. during interphase.

D. during prophase I of meiosis.

E. between meiosis I and meiosis II.


28. Chromosomes consist of a single chromatid during

A. prophase of mitosis.

B. metaphase of mitosis.

C. anaphase I of meiosis.

D. anaphase II of meiosis.

E. metaphase I of meiosis.

29. The vinegar fly, Drosophila, has eight chromosomes in normal body cells. At prophase II of meiosis the nucleus will
have

A. four chromosomes, each with two chromatids.

B. four chromosomes, each with one chromatid.

C. eight chromosomes, each with two chromatids.

D. eight chromosomes, each with one chromatid.

E. eight chromosomes each with four chromatids.

30. Meiosis and mitosis have a number of features in common. However, only meiosis has the following feature.

A. The presence of chromatids.

B. The pairing-up of homologous chromosomes.

C. The movement of chromosomes to the poles of the cell.

D. The condensation of chromosomes.

E. The separation of sister kinetochores and rapid movement to the poles of the cell.

31. The two identical copies of chromosomes produced in a cell during DNA synthesis are called

A. chromatids.

B. sister chromatids.

C. sister chromosomes.

D. homologous chromosomes.

E. homologous chromatids.
32. The phase of mitosis when the chromosomes become thicker and shorter is called

A. anaphase.

B. interphase.

C. metaphase.

D. prophase.

E. telophase.

33. Interphase is composed of

A. G2 +M.

B. G1 + S + G2.

C. prophase + prometaphase + metaphase + anaphase.

D. cytokinesis + mitosis.

E. meiosis I + meiosis II.

34. In cell division, the 'Start' point defines the point at which the cell commits to progression through the cell cycle. Which
of the following are true about the Start point?

A. It occurs at the beginning of S phase when DNA synthesis commences.

B. It is the point in the cell cycle when the MPF complex accumulates.

C. It is the point in anaphase when the sister chromatids separate from each other.

D. It signals the commencement of Meiosis II.

E. It is the point when a cyclin-dependent kinase binds to a cyclin and the complex activates genes required for DNA
synthesis.

35. An organism has 24 chromosomes. After meiosis II, but before cytokinesis, how many chromosomes will each cell
have?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 24

D. 36

E. 48
36. Checkpoint controls in cell division

A. are important during G2 to inhibit the MPF activity and prevent entry into M phase.

B. are essential for ensuring the DNA integrity of replication.

C. involve the activation of cyclin-dependent kinases by binding to cyclin.

D. are points in cell division where specific proteins are phosphorylated.

E. All of these statements about checkpoint controls are correct.

37. In prokaryotes, what is the process mediated by the ftsZ proteins during cell division?

A. only eukaryotes carry the genes that encode for the ftsZ proteins.

B. cell wall ‘softening' so it can expand and extend across two cells.

C. the growth of the cell wall and membrane across the middle of the cell.

D. the formation of a ring of microfilaments perpendicular to the point of cell division.

E. chromosomal duplication.

38. Which of the following is INCORRECT in relation to the G1 cell cycle phase

A. It is also known as the first gap phase.

B. It is the longest part of the cell cycle.

C. It is the first part of interphase.

D. It immediately follows the completion of mitosis.

E. It is the period in which DNA is replicated.

39. Following fertilisation, what is the name of the process that generates somatic cells that make up a developing
embryo?

A. Mitosis

B. Binary fission

C. Meiosis

D. Homologous recombination

E. Cellular demarcation
40. If identical sister chromatids are held together as one chromosome in a cell, what would be the ploidy number of that
cell and why?

A. The cell can be either haploid (1n) or diploid (2n) depending on the stage of the cell cycle.

B. Haploid (1n) because it still has the same number of homologous pairs of chromosomes.

C. Diploid (2n) because it still has the same number of homologous pairs of chromosomes.

D. Diploid (2n) because the number of chromosomal arms has increased.

E. Haploid (1n) because the cell is about to divide and the chromatids separate to form the genetic blueprint for each
individual cell.

41. Reduction division is unique to

A. the second meiotic division.

B. the first meiotic division.

C. mitosis.

D. interphase.

E. cell cycle stages G1 and G2.

42. What is the result when homologous chromosomes are randomly segregated, combined with crossing-over events?

A. Mitosis

B. New combinations of parental genes

C. All options listed here are correct

D. Generation of haploid cells

E. Sexual reproduction

43. During anaphase

A. a chiasma is formed.

B. the plasma membrane folds inwards.

C. DNA is replicated.

D. homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles.

E. sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.


44. Two scientists are discussing mitosis in plant cells. Scientist one states that plant cells undergo cleavage in a manner
similar to animal cells, whilst scientist two other argues that instead they form a cell plate. Which scientist is correct and
why?

A. Scientist one, as all eukaryotic cells undergo mitosis in an essentially identical manner.

B. Scientist two, as animal cells do not undergo cleavage because of their cell wall.

C. Scientist one, as even though there are some distinct differences in the process of mitosis in animal and plant cells,
cleavage is shared by both.

D. Scientist two, but the context given for the cell plate is irrelevant to mitosis.

E. Both scientists are incorrect; plant cells divide by the action of vesicles deposited by the tonoplast.

45. Which of the following statements in relation to cytokinesis is INCORRECT?

A. Cytokinesis begins late in mitosis.

B. Cytokinesis can involve pinching of the cytoplasmic membrane.

C. Cytokinesis obligatorily includes the deposition of a new membrane between separated chromosomes.

D. Cytokinesis and mitosis are separable events.

E. The creation of new cells is dependent on cytokinesis.


Chapter 08 Testbank Key

1. Animal and plant cells are usually

A. diploid.

B. haploid.

C. triploid.

D. homologous.

E. reproductive.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

2. In sexual reproduction of eukaryotes

A. the gametes are usually diploid.

B. the zygotes are usually haploid.

C. fusion occurs immediately after meiosis.

D. the egg and sperm are produced by mitosis.

E. meiosis halves the number of chromosomes.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells
3. DNA in a prokaryotic cell is

A. a linear structure.

B. moved around the cell by spindle fibres.

C. composed of a single, circular molecule.

D. attached to the nuclear membrane.

E. condenses to form a visible structure during binary fission.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.1. Describe, with the use of diagrams, the process of cell division in prokaryotes.
Section: Cell division in prokaryotes

4. Which of the following statements about prokaryote cell replication is CORRECT?

A. The newly forming cell wall and cell membrane grow outwards from the middle of the cell.

B. The circular DNA molecule is unattached to the plasma membrane before and after replication.

C. The circular DNA molecule is single stranded before it replicates.

D. The two replicated DNA molecules are separated by the growth of the plasma membrane and cell wall between them.

E. The newly replicated DNA is attached to the plasma membrane on opposite side of the cell.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.1. Describe, with the use of diagrams, the process of cell division in prokaryotes.
Section: Cell division in prokaryotes

5. In eukaryote cells, the amount of DNA in a cell doubles during the

A. S phase of the cell cycle.

B. G1 phase of the cell cycle.

C. M phase of the cell cycle.

D. G2 phase of the cell cycle.

E. G0 phase of the cell cycle.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: Cell division and the cell cycle
6. If a cell ceases to divide during the cell cycle, it exits during _______ and enters a state called ______. Fill in the blanks
to complete this statement.

A. G1, S

B. G1, G2

C. S, G1

D. G1, G0

E. G0, M

Bloom's: Comprehension
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: Cell division and the cell cycle

7. Very specialised cells such as nerve cells no longer undergo division. In what stage of the cell cycle are these cells?

A. G1 phase

B. S phase

C. G2 phase

D. Mitosis

E. G0 phase

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: Cell division and the cell cycle

8. The sequence of stages in mitosis is

A. prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase.

B. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

C. prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase.

D. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase.

E. prometaphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis
9. After S phase and before mitosis, a chromosome consists of two chromatids

A. held together at the centromere.

B. each containing one long molecule of DNA.

C. which are genetically identical.

D. in an enlarged nucleus.

E. All of the statements are true.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: Cell division and the cell cycle

10. In animal cells, the centrosomes

A. are formed during prophase.

B. separate during prophase.

C. contain two centrioles.

D. are a protein disc for attachment of microtubules.

E. attach to the centromeres.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

11. An important feature of prophase of mitosis is

A. crossing over between homologous chromosomes.

B. the pairing up of chromosomes.

C. the exchange of genetic material.

D. the condensation of chromosomes.

E. the breakdown of the nuclear membrane.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis
12. The mitotic spindle attaches to the centromere by inserting its microtubules in the

A. kinetochore.

B. equatorial plate.

C. synaptonemal complex.

D. centrosome.

E. asters.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

13. The stage of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned in one plane, midway between the poles, is called

A. prophase.

B. prometaphase.

C. metaphase.

D. anaphase.

E. telophase.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

14. In animal cells undergoing mitosis, division of the cytoplasm is caused by a contracting ring of

A. interphase microtubules.

B. kinetochore fibres.

C. actin filaments.

D. tubulin filaments.

E. midbody fibres.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis
15. During mitosis in a plant cell, the poles are broad and the spindle barrel-shaped because plant

A. chromosomes do not have kinetochores.

B. cells do not have an aster.

C. microtubules are made of actin.

D. microtubule assemble is not as strong as in animal cells.

E. cells do not have centrioles.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

16. Phragmoplasts are

A. only found in animal cells.

B. made up of contracting actin filaments.

C. fibrous structures located at the position of a developing cell wall.

D. membrane-bound organelles.

E. microtubules which form on the cell wall to join the cell plate.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

17. Which of the following provides evidence to show cytokinesis is independent of mitosis?

A. Cytokinesis does not begin until anaphase.

B. Anti-microtubule drugs applied to dividing cells inhibit chromosome separation but not cytokinesis.

C. A phragmoplast forms in plants but not in animals.

D. Cytokinesis is dependent on the formation of the midbody and mitosis is not.

E. In meiosis, there are two separate cell divisions, not one.

Bloom's: Analysis
Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis
18. In plant cells, the position at which the new cell wall will form is indicated by

A. the point at which the circular chromosome is attached to the plasma membrane.

B. a point equidistant between the poles of the aster.

C. a point at the middle of the cell.

D. a band of microtubules near the cell wall before prophase commences.

E. the position of the centriole in the cell.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

19. A diploid cell with a total of sixteen chromosomes undergoes mitosis. This type of division would result in which of the
following?

A. Four genetically identical cells.

B. Two cells each with eight chromosomes.

C. Two cells each with sixteen chromosomes.

D. Two cells which are genetically different.

E. Four genetically different cells.

Bloom's: Application
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

20. In animal cells, a drug that disrupts actin-based activity in the cell would be expected to prevent

A. cytokinesis.

B. DNA replication.

C. formation of the mitotic spindle fibres.

D. condensation of the chromosomes.

E. movement of the chromosomes.

Bloom's: Application
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis
21. If a drug which prevents the disassembly of microtubules is added to cells early in cell division it would be expected to
disrupt

A. cytokinesis.

B. DNA replication.

C. condensation of the chromosomes.

D. formation of the mitotic spindle fibres.

E. movement of the chromosomes.

Bloom's: Application
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis

22. During which phase does the S-phase-promoting factor activate proteins?

A. S

B. G2

C. G1

D. G0

E. M

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.5. Describe how cell division is regulated in eukaryotes.
Section: The control of cell division in eukaryotes

23. In the cell cycle

A. DNA replicates at M phase.

B. chromosomes become visible under the light microscope at G1 phase.

C. differentiated cells exit the cell cycle at S phase.

D. important check points control cell cycle progression.

E. cytochalasins, which act as anti-actin drugs, prevent progression of the cell cycle.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.5. Describe how cell division is regulated in eukaryotes.
Section: The control of cell division in eukaryotes
24. All of the following are characteristics of cancer cells, EXCEPT

A. absolute numbers of chromosomes.

B. chromosomal abnormalities.

C. normal cell cycle progression.

D. loss of check point controls.

E. loss of response to cell growth signals.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.5. Describe how cell division is regulated in eukaryotes.
Section: The control of cell division in eukaryotes

25. Meiosis produces four cells that are

A. haploid and genetically identical to each other.

B. haploid and genetically identical to the parent cell.

C. haploid and genetically different from each other.

D. diploid and genetically different from each other.

E. diploid and genetically different from the parent cell.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

26. There a number of differences between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis. The following feature is only
found in anaphase of mitosis.

A. Centromeres split.

B. Homologous chromosomes separate from their partners.

C. Spindle fibres shorten.

D. Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.

E. Chromatids are held together by the kinetichore.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells
27. Chromatids of homologous chromosomes may exchange genetic material

A. during prophase of mitosis.

B. during metaphase of meiosis I.

C. during interphase.

D. during prophase I of meiosis.

E. between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

28. Chromosomes consist of a single chromatid during

A. prophase of mitosis.

B. metaphase of mitosis.

C. anaphase I of meiosis.

D. anaphase II of meiosis.

E. metaphase I of meiosis.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

29. The vinegar fly, Drosophila, has eight chromosomes in normal body cells. At prophase II of meiosis the nucleus will
have

A. four chromosomes, each with two chromatids.

B. four chromosomes, each with one chromatid.

C. eight chromosomes, each with two chromatids.

D. eight chromosomes, each with one chromatid.

E. eight chromosomes each with four chromatids.

Bloom's: Application
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells
30. Meiosis and mitosis have a number of features in common. However, only meiosis has the following feature.

A. The presence of chromatids.

B. The pairing-up of homologous chromosomes.

C. The movement of chromosomes to the poles of the cell.

D. The condensation of chromosomes.

E. The separation of sister kinetochores and rapid movement to the poles of the cell.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

31. The two identical copies of chromosomes produced in a cell during DNA synthesis are called

A. chromatids.

B. sister chromatids.

C. sister chromosomes.

D. homologous chromosomes.

E. homologous chromatids.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: The cell cycle in eukaryotes

32. The phase of mitosis when the chromosomes become thicker and shorter is called

A. anaphase.

B. interphase.

C. metaphase.

D. prophase.

E. telophase.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Mitosis
33. Interphase is composed of

A. G2 +M.

B. G1 + S + G2.

C. prophase + prometaphase + metaphase + anaphase.

D. cytokinesis + mitosis.

E. meiosis I + meiosis II.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: Cell division and the cell cycle

34. In cell division, the 'Start' point defines the point at which the cell commits to progression through the cell cycle. Which
of the following are true about the Start point?

A. It occurs at the beginning of S phase when DNA synthesis commences.

B. It is the point in the cell cycle when the MPF complex accumulates.

C. It is the point in anaphase when the sister chromatids separate from each other.

D. It signals the commencement of Meiosis II.

E. It is the point when a cyclin-dependent kinase binds to a cyclin and the complex activates genes required for DNA
synthesis.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: Cell division and the cell cycle

35. An organism has 24 chromosomes. After meiosis II, but before cytokinesis, how many chromosomes will each cell
have?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 24

D. 36

E. 48

Bloom's: Application
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells
36. Checkpoint controls in cell division

A. are important during G2 to inhibit the MPF activity and prevent entry into M phase.

B. are essential for ensuring the DNA integrity of replication.

C. involve the activation of cyclin-dependent kinases by binding to cyclin.

D. are points in cell division where specific proteins are phosphorylated.

E. All of these statements about checkpoint controls are correct.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.5. Describe how cell division is regulated in eukaryotes.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

37. In prokaryotes, what is the process mediated by the ftsZ proteins during cell division?

A. only eukaryotes carry the genes that encode for the ftsZ proteins.

B. cell wall ‘softening' so it can expand and extend across two cells.

C. the growth of the cell wall and membrane across the middle of the cell.

D. the formation of a ring of microfilaments perpendicular to the point of cell division.

E. chromosomal duplication.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.1. Describe, with the use of diagrams, the process of cell division in prokaryotes.
Section: Cell division in prokaryotes

38. Which of the following is INCORRECT in relation to the G1 cell cycle phase

A. It is also known as the first gap phase.

B. It is the longest part of the cell cycle.

C. It is the first part of interphase.

D. It immediately follows the completion of mitosis.

E. It is the period in which DNA is replicated.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in controlling it.
Section: The cell cycle in eukaryotes
39. Following fertilisation, what is the name of the process that generates somatic cells that make up a developing
embryo?

A. Mitosis

B. Binary fission

C. Meiosis

D. Homologous recombination

E. Cellular demarcation

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

40. If identical sister chromatids are held together as one chromosome in a cell, what would be the ploidy number of that
cell and why?

A. The cell can be either haploid (1n) or diploid (2n) depending on the stage of the cell cycle.

B. Haploid (1n) because it still has the same number of homologous pairs of chromosomes.

C. Diploid (2n) because it still has the same number of homologous pairs of chromosomes.

D. Diploid (2n) because the number of chromosomal arms has increased.

E. Haploid (1n) because the cell is about to divide and the chromatids separate to form the genetic blueprint for each
individual cell.

Bloom's: Comprehension
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

41. Reduction division is unique to

A. the second meiotic division.

B. the first meiotic division.

C. mitosis.

D. interphase.

E. cell cycle stages G1 and G2.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells
42. What is the result when homologous chromosomes are randomly segregated, combined with crossing-over events?

A. Mitosis

B. New combinations of parental genes

C. All options listed here are correct

D. Generation of haploid cells

E. Sexual reproduction

Bloom's: Evaluation
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.7. Explain, with reference to crossing over and the random segregation of maternal and paternal chromosomes, the genetic
consequences of meiosis.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

43. During anaphase

A. a chiasma is formed.

B. the plasma membrane folds inwards.

C. DNA is replicated.

D. homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles.

E. sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one.
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells

44. Two scientists are discussing mitosis in plant cells. Scientist one states that plant cells undergo cleavage in a manner
similar to animal cells, whilst scientist two other argues that instead they form a cell plate. Which scientist is correct and
why?

A. Scientist one, as all eukaryotic cells undergo mitosis in an essentially identical manner.

B. Scientist two, as animal cells do not undergo cleavage because of their cell wall.

C. Scientist one, as even though there are some distinct differences in the process of mitosis in animal and plant cells,
cleavage is shared by both.

D. Scientist two, but the context given for the cell plate is irrelevant to mitosis.

E. Both scientists are incorrect; plant cells divide by the action of vesicles deposited by the tonoplast.

Bloom's: Analysis
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 8.4. Describe the differences between mitosis in animal cells and plant cells.
Section: The cell cycle in eukaryotes
45. Which of the following statements in relation to cytokinesis is INCORRECT?

A. Cytokinesis begins late in mitosis.

B. Cytokinesis can involve pinching of the cytoplasmic membrane.

C. Cytokinesis obligatorily includes the deposition of a new membrane between separated chromosomes.

D. Cytokinesis and mitosis are separable events.

E. The creation of new cells is dependent on cytokinesis.

Bloom's: Knowledge
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 8.5. Describe how cell division is regulated in eukaryotes.
Section: The cell cycle in eukaryotes
Chapter 08 Testbank Summary

Category # of Quest
ions
Bloom's: Analysis 2
Bloom's: Application 5
Bloom's: Comprehension 2
Bloom's: Evaluation 1
Bloom's: Knowledge 36
Difficulty: Easy 10
Difficulty: Hard 13
Difficulty: Medium 22
Learning Objective: 8.1. Describe, with the use of diagrams, the process of cell division in prokaryotes. 3
Learning Objective: 8.2. List the events of the cell cycle in eukaryotes and explain the role of checkpoint proteins in cont 8
rolling it.
Learning Objective: 8.3. List the phases of mitosis and describe what occurs in each one. 15
Learning Objective: 8.4. Describe the differences between mitosis in animal cells and plant cells. 1
Learning Objective: 8.5. Describe how cell division is regulated in eukaryotes. 5
Learning Objective: 8.6. List the phases of meiosis and describe what occurs in each one. 12
Learning Objective: 8.7. Explain, with reference to crossing over and the random segregation of maternal and paternal c 1
hromosomes, the genetic consequences of meiosis.
Section: Cell division and the cell cycle 6
Section: Cell division in prokaryotes 3
Section: Meiosis and the formation of haploid cells 15
Section: Mitosis 14
Section: The cell cycle in eukaryotes 4
Section: The control of cell division in eukaryotes 3

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