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A
Question Paper : Paper I & Paper II
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Duration : 2 Hours (Paper I : 1 Hour & Paper II : 1 Hour)

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NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (1) [P.T.O.
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NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (2)
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Duration : Two Hours – One Hours for Each Paper)

Paper–I

Teaching and Research Aptitude and Technique, Reasoning Ability and Divergent Thinking,
Comprehension and General Knowledge
(50 Questions)
INSTRUCTION :
(i) Each correct answer – 2 Marks
(ii) Each no answer – 0 Mark
(iii) Each wrong answer or repeated attempt – (minus) 0.5 Mark

1. Cognitive objectives are related to

(a) Mental abilities
(b) Physical abilities
(c) Psycho-motor abilities
(d) All the above abilities

2. Which one of the following arrangements is against the elements of learning

(a) From Known to unknown
(b) From Simple to Complex
(c) From Abstract to Concrete
(d) From Observation to Reasoning

3. Which of the following verb is most appropriate while writing an instructional objective
(a) Know
(b) Understand
(c) Enjoy
(d) Demonstrate

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (3) [P.T.O.

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4. The foundation of good teaching in Indian circumstances is
(a) Democratic values
(b) Enrichment of student potential
(c) Teacher-a philosopher and friend
(d) All of the above

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of Bloom's Six levels of learning

(a) Motivation
(b) Knowledge
(c) Comprehension
(d) Application

6. Which of the following is more of a science rather than art of teaching

(a) Andragogy
(b) Pedagogy
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

7. The audio-visual aid helps in

(a) Better retention
(b) Creating interest
(c) Making teaching more effective
(d) All of the above

8. Which of the following is a NOT a training method

(a) Case study
(b) Power point presentation
(c) Lecture
(d) Demonstration

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (4)

9. Which of the following is a learner-centered training methodology

(a) Lecture

(b) Panel Discussion

(c) Project assignment

(d) None of the above

10. Which of the following is a trainer centered methodology

(a) Case study

(b) Demonstration

(c) Role Play

(d) Games

11. A foundation of accounting course that students were required to successfully complete prior to
taking a hospitality cost control course would be called

(a) Prerequisite course

(b) Core course

(c) Co-requisite course

(d) Non-credit course

12. A capstone course

(a) Focuses on methods, not outcomes, since problem solving is a needed industry skill

(b) Is an example of formative evaluation that is important in determining competence

(c) Will include students from a variety of majors in order to have an intermediary experience

(d) Culminates a student's educational experience in order to bring together a variety of learned
competencies

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (5) [P.T.O.

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13. A teacher unaware of non-verbal communication in the class room would most likely
(a) Notice gentle nodding of students' heads that denotes they understand the concepts being
discussed
(b) Change from lecture to an interactive activity upon noticing several students yawning
(c) Assemble transparencies in sequence while a student answers a question
(d) Recognize scowls on students' faces after a complex explanation and would encourage
questions

14. An advantage of electronic slides as a support media for lecture is that they
(a) Eliminate students having to take notes
(b) Are very easy to prepare and are popular with students
(c) Can be used in any teaching space with little equipment or preparation
(d) Can synchronize learning for visual and audio learners

15. Rajeev asked a question from the teacher, and rather than immediately answering the question,
the teacher asked Samar how he would answer it. The question Samar is answering is called a :
(a) Redirected question
(b) Rebound question
(c) Follow-up question
(d) General question

16. Which of the following is a student-driven activity

(a) Including questions during a classroom lecture on serving guests who have disabilities
(b) Giving a demonstration about filleting a fish and allowing students to ask questions throughout
(c) Having three student groups brainstorm ways to improve efficiency and accuracy when
checking in a guest
(d) Having a guest speaker talk about finding jobs in the hospitality industry and having students
ask prepared questions

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (6)

17. One primary advantage of using a case study is that it

(a) Allows stronger students to help weaker students when discussed in a group setting

(b) Almost always has a single solution

(c) Requires students to learn to justify and defend their ideas

(d) Can act as a filler if lecture is shorter than anticipated

18. Giving various homework assignments throughout the semester that will be graded is an example
of what type of evaluation

(a) Formative

(b) Course

(c) Objective

(d) Summative

19. 'Fill in the blanks' type questions

(a) Cover several topics in one question

(b) Make it difficult for students to guess answers

(c) Combine the principles of both multiple choice and essay questions

(d) Are difficult to grade

20. One disadvantage of true- false questions is that they

(a) Seldom test for a high level of learning

(b) Discourage guessing

(c) Are difficult to grade

(d) Are time consuming to create

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (7) [P.T.O.

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21. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below

(a) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of research design, Hypothesis making,

Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusion

(b) Development of research design , Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis,
Arriving at conclusions and data collection

(c) Problem formulation, , Hypothesis making, Development of research design ,Collection of

data, Analysis, Arriving at generalizations and conclusion

(d) Problem formulation, Collection of data , Hypothesis making ,Analysis, Development of

research design,, Arriving at generalizations and conclusion

22. The best quality of a researcher is

(a) Curiosity

(b) Imagination

(c) Great ability

(d) Networking

23. Which of the following is susceptible to the issue of research ethics

(a) Faulty research design

(b) Choice of sampling techniques

(c) Reporting of research findings

(d) Inaccurate application of statistical techniques

24. The chief characteristic of a good research design is

(a) Unbiased in nature

(b) Free from confounding effect

(c) Statistical precision

(d) All of the above

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (8)

25. Suppose the population is quite comprehensive and distributed in a large geographical area. In
such a situation what kind of sampling procedure would you like to prefer

(a) Multi level sampling

(b) Systematic sampling

(c) Cluster sampling

(d) None of the above

26. Complete the series by writing the missing number

1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28

27. Write the missing word on the basis of relationship indicated in the first pair

Laugh : Joy :: Weep : ?

(a) Grief

(b) Remorse

(c) Baby

(d) Punishment

28. Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group

(a) Zebra

(b) Horse

(c) Lion

(d) Tiger

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29. In a certain code, SPRING is written as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be written in
that code language

(a) KQEFPA

(b) OMDGNC

(c) OMDGPA

(d) OMEFPA

30. Looking at a portrait of a man, Harsh said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son. Brothers
and sisters I have none". At whose portrait was Harsh looking
(a) His son
(b) His cousin
(c) His nephew
(d) His uncle

31. Five persons are standing in a line. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor
and the other is a business man. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is
to the left of the businessman. The student is standing between the professor and the advocate.
Counting from the left, the advocate is at which place.
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 5th

32. One day, Ravi left and cycled 10 km southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned right
and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers will he have to cycle
to reach his home straight?
(a) 10 km
(b) 15 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 25 km

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (10)

33. Select the correct set of symbols which will fit in the given equation

5 0 3 5

(a) X , X , X

(b) – , + , X

(c) X , +, X

(d) + , – , X

34. Statement : Some books are pens. No pen is pencil

Conclusions :

I. Some pens are books

II. Some pencils are books

III. Some books are not pencils

IV. All pencils are books

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II and III follow

(c) Only I and III follow

(d) Only I and II follow

35. Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence
from the alternatives provided

1. Honey 2. Flower 3. Bee 4. Wax

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2

(b) 2, 1, 4 ,3

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (11) [P.T.O.

36. Who finished as the leading goal scorer in FIFA 2018 to win the Golden Boot award
(a) Antoine Griezmann
(b) Harry Kane
(c) RomeluLukaku
(d) Thomas Muller

37. Who was the flag bearer of India for the opening ceremony of 2018 Asian Games
(a) Neeraj Chopra
(b) P.V.Sindhu
(c) Rani Rampal
(d) Sushil Kumar

38. Name the Governer General who abolished Sati in India

(a) Lord Clive
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Dalhousie

39. Which crop is sown on the largest area in India

(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Sugar cane

40. Name the Cabinet minister of Human Resource Development (HRD )in India
(a) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
(b) Smriti Irani
(c) Prakash Javadekar
(d) Piyush Goel

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (12)

41. Longest bone in the body is known as
(a) Humerus
(b) Femur
(c) Shin bone
(d) Tendon

42. In national film awards-2018, the best actor category award was bagged by
(a) Akshay Kumar
(b) Prabhas
(c) Riddhi Sen
(d) Jairaj

43. The largest state in India by population

(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

44. 'Grameen Kaushal yojana' a Government of India Youth employment scheme has been
named after
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) DeenDayalUpadhyay
(c) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

45. What is the capital of Switzerland

(a) Bern
(b) Geneva
(c) Lucerne
(d) Zurich

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (13) [P.T.O.

 Direction (Q. No. 46-50) : Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been
no disadvantage. In fact I can see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my advantage. My
hesitancy in speech, which was once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its greatest benefit has
been that it has taught me the economy of words. I have naturally formed the habit of restraining
my thoughts. I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes
my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything in my speech or writing.
I have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time. Experience has taught me that silence
is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or
modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary
to surmount it. A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will measure
every word. We find so many people impatient to talk. There is no chairman of a meeting who
is not pestered with notes for permission to speak. Whenever the permission is given the speaker
generally exceeds the time limit, asks for more time, and keeps on talking without permission.
This kind of talking can hardly be said of any benefit to the world, but is so much waste of time.
My shyness has been in reality my shield and my buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has
helped me in my discernment of truth.

46. Which word in the passage has the meaning 'judgement'

(a) Votary

(b) Discernment

(c) Buckler

(d) Proneness

47. Who will be rarely thoughtless in his speech

(a) A man of few words

(b) A man of new words

(c) A man of high thoughts

(d) A man of sobriety

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (14)

48. How has the author been spared many a mishap and waste of time

(a) By sticking to his guns

(b) By speaking too much

(c) By speaking aloud

(d) By restraining his thoughts

49. What is the natural weakness of man

(a) His love to tell lie

(b) His tendency to modify truth

(c) His proneness to speak truth

(d) His desire to expose others

50. What do the speakers generally do

(a) They speak too little

(b) They speak too loud

(c) They exceed time limit

(d) They speak extempore

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (15) [P.T.O.

 Paper – II
(Nutrition and Food Science, General Basic Management and Hotel Accounts)
(50 Questions)

INSTRUCTION :
(i) Each correct answer – 2 Marks
(ii) Each no answer – 0 Mark
(iii) Each wrong answer or repeated attempt – (minus) 0.5 Mark

51. One calorie is equal to

(a) 3.2 joules
(b) 4.2 joules
(c) 5.2 joules
(d) 6.2 joules

52. Which of the following food has a neutral pH value of 7 and therefore its neither acidic nor
alkaline
(a) Apples
(b) Banana
(c) Chocolate
(d) Egg white

53. Protein in bones, skin and connective tissue which is completely hydrolysed to gelatin by heat
during cooking
(a) Myoglobin
(b) Collagen
(c) Elastin
(d) Micelles

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (16)

54. Egg yolk is a good emulsifier because it contains

(a) Lecithin

(b) Pectin

(c) Pyridoxine

(d) Amylase

55. Glucose, fructose and galactose are

(a) Monosachharides

(b) Disaccharides

(c) Oligosachharides

(d) Polysaccharides

56. 'Stew boiled is stew spoiled'

The above saying has a scientific explanation in the form of

(a) If temperature is above 100ºC, coagulation is slow and coagulated protein is hard

(b) If temperature is above 100ºC, coagulation is fast and coagulated protein is hard

(c) If temperature is above 100ºC, coagulation is fast and coagulated protein is soft

(d) If temperature is above 100ºC, coagulation is slow and coagulated protein is soft

57. Gluten is a

(a) Protein complex

(b) Starch complex

(c) Carbohydrate complex

(d) Type of fat found in flour

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (17) [P.T.O.

58. The process by which liquid oils can be converted to solid fats is known as

(a) Winterization

(b) Hydrogenation

(c) Oxidation

(d) Neutralization

59. Apple turns brown when its cut-part comes in exposure to the air. This happens due to

(a) Enzymatic browning

(b) Maillard reaction

(c) Caramelization

(d) Ascorbic acid browning

60. Micro-organisms thrive best in a temperature range of ___________________ ºC , and therefore

this range is known as danger zone.

(a) 2 to 41

(b) 3 to 41

(c) 5 to 63

(d) 9 to 82

61. Transfer of microbes from raw food products to finished food products through non-food vehicles,
such as chopping board, hands of food handler etc. is called as

(a) Carrierization

(b) Cross contamination

(c) Encapsulation

(d) Infestation

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (18)

62. Sugar and salt are food preservatives which falls in to following category of preservatives

(a) Class I Preservatives

(b) Class II Preservatives

(c) Class III Preservatives

(d) None of the above

63. Which of the following is classified as a macro-nutrient

(a) Fats

(b) Vitamins

(c) Minerals

(d) None of the above

64. RDA stands for

(a) Recommended daily activity

(b) Recommended diet action

(c) Recommended dietary allowance

(d) Registered daily absorption.

65. 'Cholesterol can be synthesized by the body independent of the dietary intake.'

Which organ of the human body is responsible for synthesis of cholesterol?

(a) Heart

(b) Lower intestine

(c) Pancreas

(d) Liver

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (19) [P.T.O.

66. Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) All of the above

67. Beri-Beri is a disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin__________

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E

68. Deficiency of Iodine mineral in diet causes the following disease

(a) Oedema
(b) Rickets
(c) Goitre
(d) Osteoporosis

69. Deficiency of this mineral in human beings is unlikely in normal circumstances

(a) Calcium
(b) Potassium
(c) Iron
(d) Iodine

70. An obsessive disorder concerning weight control and resultant self-induced starvation is
known as
(a) Bulimia
(b) Hydrophobia
(c) Anorexia Nervosa
(d) Paranoid Schizophrenia

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (20)

71. A budgeting process which demands each manager to justify his entire budget in detail from
beginning is

(a) Functional budget

(b) Master budget

(c) Zero base budgeting

(d) None of the above

72. __________ contains the picture of total plans during the budget period and it comprises
information relating to sales, profit, cost, production etc.

(a) Master budget

(b) Functional budget

(c) Cost budget

(d) None of the above

73. Actual Sale Minus Break even point sale is equal to

(a) Margin of safety

(b) Contribution

(c) P/V Ratio

(d) None of the above

74. Which of the following control tools links a restaurants suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring
that the proper quality of products is available for production and service?

(a) Standard Recipes

(b) Yield percentage Worksheets

(c) Standard portion size specification

(d) Standard purchase specifications

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (21) [P.T.O.

75. Idle time variance arises when
(a) Only one grade of labour is used
(b) Time is lost due to abnormal reasons
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

76. Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost

(a) Food Cost.
(b) GM's Salary.
(c) Property taxes.
(d) Rent expense.

77. Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution
margin as:
(a) Dogs.
(b) Stars.
(c) Puzzles.
(d) Plow horses.

78. A stockout can occur as a result of:

(a) Over-purchasing
(b) Inadequate menu engineering
(c) Perpetual inventory system
(d) Under-purchasing

79. Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?
(a) Issuing
(b) Storing
(c) Purchasing
(d) Accounting

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (22)

80. A cost that does not change, in total, with the change in activity is called

(a) Mixed Cost

(b) Prime Cost

(c) Factory Cost

(d) Fixed Cost

81. In the BCG Growth-Share matrix, the business units that have a small market share in a high
growth market are referred as:

(a) Cash Cows

(b) Stars

(c) Question Marks

(d) Dogs

82. Which of the following group is Not a part of McKinsey 7-S framework:

(a) Structure, Systems,

(b) Shared Values, Staff

(c) Style, Skills

(d) Strategy, Sympathy

83. The statement which may be defined as 'the fundamental & enduring purpose of an organization
that sets it apart from other organizations of a similar nature' is called:

(a) Vision statement

(b) Mission statement

(c) Intent statement

(d) CSR statement

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (23) [P.T.O.

84. SWOT stands for:

(a) Styles, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

(b) Styles, Warehouses, Operations, Trends

(c) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

(d) Strengths, Weaknesses, Operations, Terminations

85. While doing environmental analysis of a business, 'the general environment, which affects the
working of all firms is termed as Macro environment and the one which is specific to a firm and
affects its working on a short term basis is called Micro environment.' Which of the following
is Not a Micro environment component:

(a) Government

(b) Competitors

(c) Suppliers

(d) Intermediaries

86. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions

(a) Organizing, planning, leading, controlling

(b) Organizing, leading,planning, controlling

(c) Planning, organizing, leading, controlling

(d) Planning, organizing, controlling, leading

87. What are the three interpersonal roles of managers

(a) Figure head, leader and liaison

(b) Spokesperson, leader, coordinator

(c) Director, coordinator, disseminator

(d) Communicator, organiser, spokesperson

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (24)

88. At what level of an organisation does a corporate manager operate
(a) Functional
(b) Operational
(c) Middle level
(d) Top level

89. Which one is not a recognized key skill of management

(a) Conceptual skills
(b) Human skills
(c) Technical skills
(d) Writing skills

90. Which of the following does not form the basis of a performance indicator for a marketing plan
(a) Competitor reaction
(b) Contribution to business performance
(c) Marketing effectiveness
(d) Consumer reaction

91. What is the term for a market that is defined by specific characteristics
(a) Market niche
(b) Market division
(c) Market characteristic
(d) Market segment

92. What do companies that focus on filling a gap in the market engage in
(a) Direct marketing
(b) Traditional marketing
(c) Niche marketing
(d) Outbound marketing

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (25) [P.T.O.

93. Accrual accounting is based on this principle
(a) Full disclosure
(b) Cost
(c) Conservatism
(d) Matching

94. P&L Statement is also known as

(a) Statement of operations
(b) Statement of income
(c) Statement of earnings
(d) All of the above

95. Higher the ratio, the more favourable it is, doesn't stands true for
(a) Operating ratio
(b) Liquidity ratio
(c) Net profit ratio
(d) Stock turnover ratio

96. Which account increases equity

(a) Expenses
(b) Withdrawals
(c) Treasury stock
(d) Revenues

97. The accounting principle that states companies and owners should be account for separately
(a) Business entity concept
(b) Going concern concept
(c) Monetary unit assumption
(d) Periodicity assumption

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (26)

98. Assets are recorded at their original purchase price according to the
(a) Materiality principle
(b) Historical cost principle
(c) Cost benefit principle
(d) Consistency principle

99. CPM in project management stands for

(a) Constructive path method
(b) Conducive path method
(c) Critical path method
(d) Collaborative path method

100. Before deciding upon the total floor area to be constructed on a given plot, one must keep in
account the _______________________ in the area
(a) SWG
(b) PERT
(c) FSI
(d) CIP

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (27) [P.T.O.

 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
ijh{kkFkhZ ds fy, vuqns'k
1. Candidate must read the instruction before start replying :
tokc nsuk vkjEHk djus ls igys mEehnokj dks funs'Z k i<+uk pkfg, %
(i) There are 100 Multiple Choice Questions in this booklet, all carry equal marks.
100 cgqfodYih loky bl iqfLrdk esa gSa] rFkk lcds vad cjkcj gSaA
(ii) For correct answer darken/blacken the appropriate bubble/circle.
lgh loky dk tokc nsus ds fy, mfpr cqycqyk@o`Ùk dkyk djsaA
(iii) Use blue or black ball point pen.
uhys ;k dkys jax dh L;kgh dk mi;ksx djsaA
(iv) Each correct answer carry two marks.
izR;sd loky ds lgh tokc ds nks vad feysaxsA
(v) For a wrong answer 0.50 marks will be deducted.
,d loky ds xyr tokc ds fy, 0-50 vad dh dVkSrh dh tk,xhA
(vi) No mark will be awarded for question not attempted.
iz'u dk iz;kl ugha djus ij dksbZ vad izkIr ugha gksxkA
(vii) Darkening of two or more bubbles/circles for answering MCQ will be treated as
wrong answer.
nks ;ks nks ls vf/d cqycqys Darkening dj MCQ iz'u ds fy, mÙkj dks xyr tokc ekuk tk,xkA

2. Candidate must write his/her name, Roll Number and Answer Sheet Number on the
cover page of this Question Paper Booklet.
mEehnokj vo'; bl iz'u&i=k cqdysV ds doj ist ij viuk uke] jksy uacj vkSj mÙkj&i=k uacj fy[ksaA

3. Candidate must hand over the question paper booklet along with Answer Sheet to the
invigilator at the end of Examination.
vH;FkhZ ijh{kk mijkar iz'u&i=k ds lkFk&lkFk mÙkj&i=k 'khV dks vUos"kd dks lkSai nsaA

4. No extra sheet will be given to the candidate for rough work. They can use any blank
space on the Question paper booklet for the purpose.
fdlh dPps dke ds fy, mEehnokj dks dksbZ vfrfjDr dkxt ugha fn;k tk,xkA os iz;kstu ds fy,
iz'u&iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh fjDr LFkku dk mi;ksx dj ldrs gSaA

NHTET-SEPTEMBER 2018-Paper-I & II (28)