SUTRA EDUCATIONS

NEET TEST – DAY 22

Name:

CHEMISTRY – Hydrogen and s – Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals)
1. The adsorption of hydrogen by metals is called
a) adsorption b) occlusion
c) hydrogenation d) dehydrogenation

2. When electric current is passed through an ionic hydride in the molten state
a) hydrogen is liberated at the cathode
b) hydrogen is liberated at the anode
c) no reaction takes place
d) hydride ion migrates towards cathode

3. Elements of which of the following group(s) of periodic table do not from hydrides?
a) Groups 7, 8, 9 b) Group 13
c) Groups 16, 16, 17 d) Group 17

4. Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH, NaH, KH, RbH, CsH,
the correct order of increasing ionic character is
a) LiH > NaH > CsH > KH > RbH
b) LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CsH
c) RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiH
d) NaH > CSH > RbH > LiH > KH

5. Which of the following pairs of ions make the water hard?

−¿¿
+¿,Cl ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿
a) NH 4 b) Ca2+, HCO 3 c) Ca2+, NO 3 d) Na+, S
2−¿¿
O4

6. When zeolite which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate is treated with hard water, the
sodium ions are exchanged with
a) H+ ions b) Mg2+ ions c) Ca2+ ions d) Both Ca2+ and Mg2+

7. Hydrogen can be obtained from water, by the action of water on

a) calcium carbide b) calcium hydride c) calcium oxide d) calcium

8. Heavy water is used as

a) moderator b) controller c) coolant d) fuel rods

9. What is the structur e of H2O2?

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10. Which of the following are arranged in correct increasing order of solubilities?
a) CaCO3 < KHCO3 < NaHCO3
b) NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < CaCO3
c) KHCO3 < NaHCO3 < CaCO3
d) CaCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3

11. Which of the following statements is correct for CSBr3?

a) It is a covalent compound
−¿¿
b) It contains Cs+ and Br 3 ions
c) It contains Cs3+ and Br– ions
d) It contains Cs+, Br– and Br2 molecule

12. The alkali metals form salt – like hydride by the direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The
thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in which of the following orders?
a) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
b) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
c) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
d) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH

13. BaSO4 is insoluble in water due to its

a) high hydration energy b) high lattice energy
c) high ionisation energy d) high kinetic energy

14. The correct order of mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is
a) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ b) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+
+ + + +
c) K > Rb > Na > Li d) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+

15. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by

a) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 b) BeCl2 < NaCl< LiCl
c) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 d) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl

16. Amphotheric hydroxides react with both alkali and acids. Which of the following group 2
metal hydroxides is soluble in sodium hydroxide?
a) Be(OH)2 b) Mg(OH)2 c) Ca(OH)2 d) Ba(OH)2

17. LiF is almost insoluble in water whereas, LiCl is soluble not only in water but also in acetone.
This is because
a) of high hydration enthalpy of Li+
b) of low hydration enthalpy of Li+
c) of more ionic character in LiCl
d) None of the above

18. Sodium peroxide which is a yellow solid, when exposed to air becomes white due to the
formation of
a) H2O2 b) Na2Oc) Na2O and O3 d) NaOH and Na2CO3

19. The correct order of increasing thermal stabilities of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is
a) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3
b) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
c) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
d) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3

20. Fire extinguisher contain H2SO4 and

a) Na2CO3 b) NaHCO3 c) CaCO3 d) All of these

21. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to

a) keep away the sharks
b) make the ship lighter
 c) prevent action of water and salt
d) prevent puncturing by under – sea rocks
22. Solubility of the alkaline earth’s metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence
a) Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
b) Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg
c) Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba
d) Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca

23. The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion – exchange resins follows
the order
a) Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Rb+ b) Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+
+ + + +
c) K < Na < Rb < Li d) Na+ < Li+ < K+ < Rb+

24. Which one of the alkali metals forms only, the normal oxide, M2O on heating in air?
a) Rb b) K c) Li d) Na

25. Which of the following carbonates is the most stable?

a) MgCO3 b) CaCO3 c) SrCO3 d) BaCO3

ZOOLOGY – Human Physiology

26. Which of the following chemical reactions can occur anaerobically?
a) Glycolysis
b) Kreb’s cycle
c) Conversion of lactic acid to pyruvic acid
d) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co – A

27. Aerobic respiration increases the body’s supply of

a) CO2 b) water c) ATP d) All of the preceding

28. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
(Animal) (Respiratory organ)
A. Earthworm 1. Moist cuticle
B. Arthropods 2. Gills
C. Fishes 3. Lungs
D. Birds/Reptiles 4. Trachea
Codes
A B C D A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3 b) 2 4 1 3
c) 1 3 2 4 d) 1 2 4 3

29. Expiratory muscles contract at the time of

a) deep inspiration
b) normal inspiration and expiration
c) forceful expiration
d) normal expiration

30. Respiration involves one of the following sets of processes

a) inspiration, exchange of gases and expiration
b) aspiration, inspiration and expiration
c) external, internal and expiration
d) None of the above

31. Oxygenated blood from lungs is carried to the heart by

a) pulmonary artery b) pulmonary vein
c) coronary vein d) pre – cavals
32. During inspiration, air passes into lungs due to
a) increase in volume of thoracic cavity and fall in lung pressure
b) fall in pressure inside the lungs
c) increased volume of thoracic caviry
d) muscular expansion of lungs

33. In mammals, ventilation movements of lungs are governed by

a) muscular wall of lungs
b) intercostal muscles
c) diaphragm
d) diaphragm and intercostal muscles

34. The maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration is called the
a) forced expiratory volume
b) maximum expiratory flow
c) tidal volume
d) vital capcaity

35. If the thoracic wall but not lungs, is punctured the

a) lungs get inflated
b) man dies as the lungs get collapsed
c) breathing rate decreases
d) breathing rate increases

36. In human beings, rib case and sternum move upwardly and outwardly during
a) exercise b) sudden back injury
c) expiration d) inspiration

37. The cartilages, upon which the vocal cords are attached are the
a) thyroid and arytenoid cartilages
b) thyroid and cricoid cartilages
c) cuneiform and cricoid cartilages
d) thyroid and corniculate cartilages

38. Respiration in insects is called direct because

a) the cells exchange O2/CO2 directly with the air in the tubes
b) the tissues exchange O2/CO2 directly with coelomic fluid
c) the tissues exchange O2/CO2 directly with the air outside through body surface
d) tracheal tubes exchange O2/CO2 directly with the haemocoel which then exchange with
tissues.

39. Mark the correct pair of muscles involved in the normal breathing in humans.
a) External and internal intercostal muscles
b) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
d) Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

40. Given diagram represents the human larynx, Choose the correct combination of labelling
from the options given below.

a) A – Larynx, B – Parathyroid, C – Tracheal cartilage, D – Trachea

b) A – Nasolarynx, B – Thyroid, C – Tracheal cartilage, D – Trachea
 c) A – Trachea, B – Thyroid, C – Bronchiole, D – tracheal cartilage
d) A – Epiglottis, B – Thyroid, C – Tracheal cartilage, D – Trachea
41. Neither the trachea nor the bronchi contain
a) hyaline cartilage b) ciliated columnar epithelium
c) goblet cells d) simple squamous epithelium

42. Pharyngeal tonsils are located in the

a) nasopharynx b) oral cavity c) nasal cavity d) oropharynx

43. Which of the following is not a structural feature of the left lung?
a) Superior lobe b) Cardiac notch
c) Inferior lobe d) Middle lobe

44. Volume of air left after maximum forceful expiration in human lung is
a) total lung capacity b) residual volume
c) vital capacity d) tidal volume

45. One of the following is a difference between pulmonary respiration of frog and human
a) diaphragm and ribs play role in respiration
b) lungs are respiratory organs
c) respiration occurs due to pressure gradient
d) None of the above

46. A person met with an accident and died instantly without any injury to heart, brain, stomach
and kidney. One of the following is a reason for his death
a) intestine got twisted b) RBCs became coagulated
c) stomach stopped digestion d) diaphragm got punctured

47. The serous membrane in contact with the lung is the

a) parietal pleura b) pulmonary mesentery
c) pulmonary peritoneum d) visceral pleura

48. Which is not a structure of the respiratory system?

a) Pharynx b) Bronchus c) Larynx d) Hyoid

49. The roof of the nasal cavity is formed primarily by the

a) hard palate b) cribriform palate of the ethmoid bone
c) superior concha d) vomer

50. Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume

I. Tidal volume II. Residual volume
III. Expiratory reserve volume IV. vital capacity
a) I < II < III < IV b) I < III < II < IV
c) I < IV < III < II d) I < IV < II < III

BOTANY – Environmental Issues

51. Which of the following does not cause pollution?
a) Automobiles b) Hydroelectric power plant
c) Thermal power plant d) Nuclear power plant

52. World Environment Day is celebrated on

a) 5th June b) 28th February c) 7th August d) 10th April

53. Which of the following is normally not an important atmospheric pollutant?

a) CO2 b) CO c) SO2 d) Hydrocarbons

54. Recent reports of acid rains in big industrial cities are due to the effect of atmospheric
pollution by
a) more release of NO2 and SO2 by burning of fossil fuels
b) more release of CO2 by burning of coal/wood cutting of forests and increasing populations
 c) excessive release of NH3 by coal gas/industries
d) excessive release of CO by incomplete combustion of carbonaceous fuels
55. Which of the following is correct?
a) PAN (Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate) is a secondary pollutant
b) Photochemical smog was first observed in Los Angeles
c) Carbon monoxide has about 200 times greater affinity for haemoglobin as compared to
oxygen
d) All of the above

56. Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin to form

a) carboxyhaemoglobin b) leghaemoglobin
c) haemocyanin d) methaaemoglobin

57. Pollution of SO2 destroys

a) lichen b) fungi c) algae d) fishes

58. Pollutant released by Jet planes is

a) CO b) NH3 c) CO2 d) CFCs

59. Photochemical smog always contains

a) ozone b) methane c) carbon monoxide d) carbon dixoide

60. Which of the following is the main factor of water pollution?

a) Pesticides b) Ammonia c) Industrial wastes d) Detergents

61. Indicator plants, which can be used to indicate atmospheric pollution by SO 2 are
a) grassland like Deschampsia b) moss like Sphagnum
c) lichens like Usnea d) climbers like Cucurbita

62. According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing
great harm to human health are of diameter
a) 2.50 micrometers b) 5.00 micrometers
c) 10.00 micrometers d) 7.5 micrometers

63. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic
converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into
a) carbon dioxide and water
b) carbon monoxide
c) methane
d) carbon dioxide and methane

64. SO2 pollution causes

a) membrane damage b) plasmolysis
c) chlorophyll destruction d) All of the above

65. Compressed Natural Gas is (CNG) is

a) propane b) methane c) ethane d) butane

66. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of
alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol?
a) 2.5% b) 10-15% c) 10% d) 5%

67. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
b) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen
d) increased population of aquatic food web organisms

68. Spraying of DDT on crops produces pollution of

a) air and soil only b) air and water only
 c) air, soil and water d) air only

69. ‘Water bloom’ is commonly caused by

a) Hydrilla b) green algae
c) bacteria d) blue – green algae

70. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial
and municipal waste water into natural surface water is
a) < 3.0 ppm b) < 10 ppm c) < 100 ppm d) < 30 ppm

71. A substantial fall in CO 2 and SO2 level has been found in Delhi between 1997 and 2005 due
to
a) use of purified, unleaded petrol
b) use of purified, unleaded diesel
c) use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) in public transports
d) use of Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) in public transports

72. Which of the following is called “Terror of Bengal”?

a) Nelumbo nucifera b) Eichhornia crassipes
c) Lemna d) Pistia

73. BOD stands for

a) Biological Oxygen Demand
b) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
c) Beneficial Oxygen Development
d) Beneficial Oxygen Demand

74. Biomagnification is
a) increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels
b) the natural ageing of a lake by biological enrichment of its water
c) heated (thermal) waste water flowing out of electricity generating units
d) waste from homes, offices, stores, schools, hospitals, etc.

75. In Meerut a park was rich in lichens up to 1995, but there is no lichen in that park today
because of
a) SO2 pollution b) CO pollution
c) Global warming d) Greenhouse effect

PHYSICS – Oscillations and Waves

76. An elastic ball is dropped from a certain height and returns to the same height after elastic
collision on the floor. What is the nature of repeated motion of the ball?
a) Simple harmonic, oscillatory and periodic
b) Simple harmonic, oscillatory but not periodic
c) Simple harmonic, periodic, but not oscillatory
d) Oscillatory, periodic but not simple harmonic

77. The graph between restoring force and time in case of SHM is
a) a straight line b) a circle c) a parabola d) a sine curve

78. The displacement of SHM is given by y = 5 cos (10t + 0.6) What is the initial phase of the
SHM?
a) 5 rad b) 10 rad c) 0.6 rad d) None of these

79. A system is subjected to two SHMs given by y 1 = 6 cos t and y2 = 8 cos t The resultant
amplitude of SHM is given by
a) 2 b) 10 c) 14 d) 20

80. The displacement of a particle varies with time according to the relation y = asint + bcost
a) The motion is oscillatory but not SHM
b) The motion is SHM with amplitude a + b
 c) The motion is SHM with amplitude a2 + b2
d) The motion is SHM with amplitude √ a2 +b 2
81. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat p an attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as
shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly
and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 Nm -1.
What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion, so that the mass gets detached from
the pan? (take, g = 10 ms-2)
a) 8.0 cm b) 10.0 cm
c) Any value less than 12.0 cm d) 4.0 cm

82. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation
is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the
equilibrium position is
T T T T
a) b) c) d)
4 8 12 2

83. A particle executes SHM with a period of T second and amplitude A metre. The shortest time
A
it takes to reach point metre from its mean position in seconds is
√2
T T T
a) T b) c) d)
4 8 16

84. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The radius of the circle, the period, sense of
revolution and the initial position are indicated on the figure. The simple harmonic motion of
the x – projection of the radius vector of the rotating particle P is

2t t
a) x(t) = B sin b) x(t) = B cos
30 15

t ❑ t ❑
c) x(t) = B sin + d) x(t) = B cos +
15 2 15 2

85. The equations of two linear SHM’s are

x = asint along X – axis
y = asin2t, along Y – axis
If they act on a particle simultaneously, the trajectory of the particle is
2 2 2
y x 4x 2 2
a) 2
+ 2 =1 b) y2 = 2 (a – x )
a 4a a

c) y2 = 2ax d) None of these

86. The time period of a SHM is 16 s. It starts its motion from the equilibrium position. After 2 s
its velocity is ms-1. What is its displacement amplitude?
a) √ 2m b) 2√ 2m c) 4√ 2m d) 8√ 2m

87. If at any time the displacement of a simple pendulum be 0.02 m, then its acceleration is 2 ms -2.
What is the angular speed of the pendulum at that instant?
a) 100 rads-1 b) 10 rads-1 c) 1 rads-1 d) 0.1 rads-1
88. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium for which they were
incident. Which of the following changes?
a) Speed b) Frequency c) Wavelength d) None of these

89. The waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water are

a) transverse b) longitudinal
c) longitudinal and transverse d) stationary

90. A wave of frequency 500 Hz travels between X and Y, distance of 600 m in 2 s. How many
wavelength are there in distance XY?
a) 1000 b) 300 c) 180 d) 2000

91. A boat of anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100 m apart and velocity is 25 ms -1. The
boat bounces up once in every
a) 2500 s b) 75 s c) 4 s d) 0.25 s

92. Sound waves of wavelength  travelling in a medium with a speed of v m/s enter into another
medium where its speed is 2v m/s. Wavelength of sound waves in the second medium is
❑
a)  b) c) 2 d) 4
2

93. An observer standing on the sea coast finds that 54 ripples reach the surface per minute. If the
wavelength of the ripples by 10 m, what is the wave velocity?
a) 54 m/s b) 9 m/s c) 10 m/s d) 6 m/s

94. A wave is represented by the equation

❑
Y = 7 sin 7t – 0.04 x +
3

where, x in metre and t in second. The speed of the wave is

a) 175  ms-1 b) 49  ms-1 c) 49/ ms-1 d) 0.28  ms-1

95. In the given progressive wave equation,

y = 0.5 sin (10 t – 2 x) cm
What is the maximum velocity of particle?
a) 5 ms-1 b) 5  ms-1 c) 10 ms-1 d) 10.5 ms-1

96. A transverse wave propagating along X – axis is represented by

❑
Y (x, t) = 8.0 sin 0.5x – 4 t -
4
where, x is in metre and t is in second. The speed of the wave is
❑ -1
a) 4  ms-1 b) 0.5  ms-1 c) d) 8 ms-1
4 ms

97. Velocity of sound in gaseous medium is 330 ms -1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times
without change in temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is
a) 330 ms-1 b) 660 ms-1 c) 156 ms-1 d) 990 ms-1

98. The displacement Y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as

y = 10-6 sin (100t + 20x + /4) m
where, t is in second and x in metre.
The speed of the wave is
a) 2000 ms-1 b) 5 ms-1 c) 20 ms-1 d) 5  ms-1

99. The phase difference between two waves, represented by

 [ ( ) ]
y1 = 10-6 sin 100 t+
x
50
+0.5 m

[ ( )]
y2 = 10-6 cos 100 t+
x
50
m

where, x is expressed in metre and t is expressed in second, is approximately

a) 1.07 rad b) 2.07 rad c) 0.5 rad d) 1.5 rad

100. Given that y = A sin [( ❑2 (ct−x))] , where y and x are measured in metres. Which of the
following statements is true?
a) The unit of  is same as that of x and A
b) The unit of  is same as that of x but not of A
c) The unit of c is same as that of
2
❑
2
d) The unit of (ct – x) is same as that of
❑