Spring Semester Pae Sets

BILKENT UNIVERSITY
ENGLISH LANGUAGE PREPARATORY PROGRAM
2022-2023 ACADEMIC YEAR
SPRING SEMESTER PAE SETS

Contents
PAE SPRING SEMESTER PRACTICE SET 1 ......................................................................................................... 3
PAE SET 1 Reading Part One.................................................................................................................................... 5
PAE SET 1 Reading Part Two ................................................................................................................................... 8
PAE SET 1 Reading Part Three .............................................................................................................................. 12
PAE SET 1 GRAMMAR .............................................................................................................................................. 17
PAE SET 1 VOCABULARY ....................................................................................................................................... 19
PAE SET 1 LISTENING PART ONE ........................................................................................................................ 23
PAE SET 1 LISTENING PART TWO ....................................................................................................................... 28
PAE SET 1 WRITING PART 1 .................................................................................................................................. 35
PAE SPRING SEMESTER PRACTICE SET 2 ....................................................................................................... 37
PAE SET 2 Reading Part One.................................................................................................................................. 39
PAE SET 2 Reading Part Two ................................................................................................................................. 42
PAE SET 2 GRAMMAR .............................................................................................................................................. 53
PAE SPRING SEMESTER PRACTICE SET 3 ....................................................................................................... 74
PAE SET 3 Reading Part One.................................................................................................................................. 76
PAE SET 3 Reading Part Two ................................................................................................................................. 79
PAE SET 3 GRAMMAR .............................................................................................................................................. 89
PAE SET 3 WRITING PART 1 ................................................................................................................................ 104
PAE SPRING SEMESTER PRACTICE SET 4 ..................................................................................................... 106
PAE SET 4 Reading Part One................................................................................................................................ 108
PAE SET 4 Reading Part Two ............................................................................................................................... 111
PAE SET 4 Reading Part Three ............................................................................................................................ 116
PAE SET 4 GRAMMAR ............................................................................................................................................ 121
PAE SET 4 VOCABULARY ..................................................................................................................................... 123
1
PAE SET 4 LISTENING PART ONE ...................................................................................................................... 127
PAE SET 4 LISTENING PART TWO ..................................................................................................................... 131
2
PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 1
NAME: ______________________________
CLASS: ___________
3
READING, GRAMMAR &
VOCABULARY BOOKLET
4
READING SECTION
PAE SET 1 Reading Part One
Questions 1-8
Read the following three passages. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for
each question. Give only one answer to each question.
Image Consultant
Image consultant, Mary Stanford, has been helping organisations and individuals create the look
and sound of success since 1982. Mary’s company, 'Stanford Communications', offers a wide range
of training, consulting and coaching programs. Those programmes teach the skills important to
success such as developing a professional image, good manners, the ability to function both in
formal and informal situations, and public speaking.
The workshops offered by Stanford Communications go a step beyond the usual programs and
teach people not only the “how” of image development, but the “why” as well. During these
workshops, you will attend a number of valuable sessions that will enhance your professional skills
and image. In the ‘Speak Abilities’ training course, Stanford Communications offers small groups
and individuals the opportunity to fine-tune their speaking skills. They can help you deliver a superior
presentation as well as teaching you how to use small talk to improve your relations both in the office
and at social company events. Meanwhile, Mary’s image consultants will also focus on your
appearance by providing “make-overs” for men and women. They offer assistance with colour
selection, wardrobe planning and personal shopping, even helping you choose which gifts are best
for co-workers and their families.
Stanford Communications believes that life is like a card game and you have the power to give
yourself the winning cards. It’s your move. Make the choice to improve both your business and
personal life.
1 What does the writer imply in paragraph 2?
A There is only one way that you can change your image.
B Programs rarely consider the reasons for needing a change.
C You need to decide which workshops to go to before you join.
D The sessions are expensive, but well worth the money.
E Men are better at delivering presentations than women.
2 The main idea of the last paragraph is that
A you have the ability to make your life much better.

B you can be successful in either your business or personal life.
C if you are lucky, you will have lots of job opportunities.
D you have to be given the right opportunity to be successful.
E if you choose the winning cards carefully, life will be easier for you.
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3 The purpose of this text is to
A advertise the services of an image consulting company.

B explain how image consultants should do their job.
C predict which people need the help of image consultants.
D criticise people who refuse to seek professional guidance.
E describe a new trend in business management.
Children's Brains and Multi-tasking

As children are exposed to 8 hours of TV, video games, computers and other media a day– often at
once– are they losing the ability to concentrate? Are their developing brains becoming hard-wired
to multi task rather than the focused critical thinking needed for a democracy? These troubling
questions are raised by educational psychologists but even more troubling is the answer: "We don’t
know," David Walsh of the National Institution of Media and the Family and other experts in the field
say.
Children are more attuned to distractions around them. “They attend to everything – the air vents
creaking, someone talking. They bounce from task to task. Teachers say kids have more trouble
getting organized, and their attention spans are not as good as they used to be,” says school
psychologist Tamara Waters-Wheeler. Studies with college students and adults show that the brain
doesn’t work well when it focuses on more than one task. If the challenge demands a lot of attention,
mental performance is particularly poor. However, Walsh says there are no such studies on today’s
kids as they multi-task with new media-instant-messaging, plugged into an iPod and doing
homework at the same time. Some evidence suggests that children’s brains might be changing so
they can juggle tasks and concentrate better than their elders.
Scores on intelligence tests have been steadily rising since the 1940s, says neuropsychologist Sam
Goldstein. The tests measure a child’s ability to shift and divide attention, but they also cover
problem-solving and comprehension skills. “Basically, kids are smarter today,” Goldstein says.
4 The main idea of the first paragraph is that
A the effects of multi tasking is not known.

B critical thinking might be under threat.
C education cannot benefit from multi-tasking.
D the ability to concentrate is harmed by the media.
E democracy may suffer due to critical thinking.
5 Goldstein talks about the rising scores on intelligence tests in order to
A explain what he thinks about multi-tasking and its usefulness.

B criticize Walsh’s ideas about children’s development.
C prove that the new generation will be more successful in their careers.
D describe the purpose and function of such tests.
E show that children’s brains are adapting to new challenges.
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6 The writer’s attitude towards children and multi-tasking is
A supportive.
B neutral.
C disapproving.
D cynical.
E enthusiastic.
Time
Nothing seems to us more obvious than reading the time on a watch. What we sometimes forget is
that the time on the dial is based on conventions or rules, without which it would be impossible to
live in our modern society. That time passes is something man has always been aware of. But what
is time?
Father Augustine, in the 15th century, called it the stream in which events happen, appear and then
in the next moment vanish. Isaac Newton, in 1712, believed that time was something that gave
rhythm to the universe. However, Albert Einstein was the first who reflected in a fundamentally new
way on the nature of time. He perceived that it is not time and space, but the speed of light that
represents the passing of time in the universe. In fact, Einstein’s Theory of Relativity revolutionised
our thinking on the nature of time and helped us have further understanding of it.
In order to honour Albert Einstein and his great accomplishments, a special exhibition has been
opened in the Historiches Museum in Bern, Switzerland. A comprehensive picture of Einstein’s
personality covers over 2500 m2 on two floors of the museum building. The exhibition features
specially designed atmospheric rooms where the successive periods of Einstein’s life are recreated
through original objects, films and documents. In perfect working order and still flawlessly measuring
time, Albert Einstein’s Longine pocket watch occupies a prominent place in the exhibition,
symbolising Einstein’s greatest accomplishment.
7 In the second paragraph, the word ‘revolutionised’ is closest in meaning to
A matched.
B changed.
C explored.
D adopted.
E threatened.
8 The main idea of the text is about the
A need for time rules and conventions.

B Longine pocket watches that Einstein wore.
C role Einstein played in the understanding of time.
D Theory of Relativity and how it relates to time.
E modern interpretation of the meaning of time.
7
PAE SET 1 Reading Part Two
Questions 9-20
Read the following two passages. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for
each question. Give only one answer to each question.
The Three Gorges Museum

The four-meter-tall gate that dominates the entrance of the Three Gorges Museum has come a long
way, through time rather than over distance. Carved during the Han dynasty, a period between 206
B.C. and A.D. 220, the gate was erected among farmers’ fields along the Yangtze River just west of
the region called the Three Gorges. A general probably commissioned the work to honour his
ancestors. During the Tang dynasty, the pillars supporting the gate collapsed and were slowly buried
in the soft earth. They were discovered in 2002 when the building of the huge Three Gorges Dam
got underway and archaeologists were making a last-ditch effort to save artefacts, historical objects
which, unless saved, would be lost forever. Wang Chuanping, vice director of Chongqing’s ministry
of culture, points to a well-preserved dragon carved onto the face of one pillar. “The quality is
amazing,” he says. “It is one of the best Han dynasty relics ever found.”
The gate is just one of thousands of artefacts with equally long histories to be found in Chongqing’s
$7 million museum, a testament to the region’s rich past. The Yangtze, Asia’s longest river, has
been used for travel and trade for thousands of years. In 1987, scientists working in the Wu Gorge,
the middle one of the Three Gorges, found 2-million-year-old teeth, the oldest human remains ever
discovered in Asia. The Yangtze was also important because Buddhism spread east into China
along the river. About 4500 years ago in this area, two millennia before Julius Caesar was born,
two tribes came into contact and merged to become the Baculture, a society that developed a
pictographic language that researchers are only just beginning to decipher.
Now the government in the Chinese capital Beijing is scrambling to preserve its Yangtze heritage.
It has set aside $120 million for the preservation of the relics in the Three Gorges region. Wang says
that archaeologists have examined some 700,000 square meters of land, turned up hundreds of
thousands of artefacts and moved dozens of historical buildings and bridges to higher ground to
avoid the rising waters. The effort’s crown jewel is the Three Gorges Museum. Made of sandstone
and glass, the 42,000 square meter building holds a collection of 350,000 artefacts, from teapots to
ancient coins and statues of Buddhist saints.
In one of the largest halls, the Magnificent Three Gorges Hall, visitors can tour a Ching dynasty
home with hand-carved wooden windows and beautiful carvings. Also on display are ancient
illustrations of sampans - small wooden fishing boats that once crowded the Yangtze River, but are
now rare. One of the older pieces is a 9000-character-long story praising a Sung dynasty emperor
that was carved into a cliff in the Qutang Gorge, the shortest of the Three Gorges. To move the two
meter tablet to the museum, craftsmen had to carefully cut the stones from the wall without
damaging the flowing calligraphy.
Like most Chinese exhibitions, the Three Gorges Museum contains its share of eccentricities. In the
lobby, named the Ecohall, a dead 10,000-year-old tree stands among living plants. Given the
environmental damage caused by the Three Gorges dam (the World Wildlife Fund calls the Yangtze
the world’s “river at most risk” due to excessive damming), the result is a strong – though unintended
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– reminder of the costs of China’s rapid economic growth. The museum also highlights Japan’s
World War II bombing campaign against Chongqing, then China’s capital; visitors pass through a
representation of a bomb shelter before watching a movie about the horrors of the war.
Most foreign visitors, however, will find the region’s ancient history more interesting. Beyond a wall-
size painting of the Yangtze by Chinese artist Xu Shihu in the Magnificent Three Gorges hall, stone
carvings offer a glimpse of a millennium of river history. Beyond the stones is a collection of 2000-
year-old statues of Buddha and a detailed carving of fish, birds and simple homes dating from the
New Stone Age. In China’s modern era, marked by steel and glass, they are symbols of a past
already flooded by the future.
9 According to paragraph 1, the gate from the Han dynasty was discovered
A by a general from the army.

B during the construction of the dam.
C by farmers working in their fields.
D along with a statue of a dragon.
E when the Yangtze River flooded.
10 In paragraph 2, the discovery of old teeth shows that the
A history of the region goes back to pre-historic times.

B oldest humans in the world were found in Asia.
C researchers are still working on Chinese history.
D Yangtze River was known to Julius Caesar.
E cultural importance of the area was ignored.
11 The main idea of paragraph 3 is the
A international importance of the Three Gorges Museum.

B restoration of many different types of artefacts.
C work that archaeologists are doing in the region.
D methods used by archaeologists to preserve the artefacts.
E efforts of the Chinese government to protect the area.
12 According to paragraph 4, which can be seen in the Magnificent Three Gorges Hall?
A Pictures of fishing boats on the Yangtze

B Carvings that honour different emperors
C A number of typical Chinese wooden homes
D Statues of the Sung Dynasty emperors
E Photographs of the Qutang Gorge
13 According to paragraph 5, what can visitors do in the Three Gorges museum?
A Watch a film about China’s more recent past

B Contribute to conservation efforts
C Watch the construction of the dam
D Support the World Wildlife Fund
E Attend a lecture on China’s economic growth
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14 In the last paragraph, ‘they’ refers to
A artefacts in the museum.

B stones depicting Buddha.
C wall-size paintings.
D steel and glass structures.
E carvings by Xu Shihu.
Dr. Linton
At a quarter to eight in the morning, Grant County was just waking up. A sudden overnight rain had
washed the streets clean, and though it was still cool out, Sara drove her BMW with the top down.
The car had been purchased during a post-divorce crisis when Sara needed something to make
herself feel better. It had worked for about two weeks, then the stares and the comments about the
flashy car had made her feel a bit ridiculous. This was not the kind of car to drive in a small town,
especially since Sara was a doctor. Had she not been born and raised in the place, Sara suspected
she would have been forced to sell the car or lose half her patients at the clinic.
Sara coasted into the clinic's parking lot. The Heartsdale Children's Clinic was rectangular in shape
with a large glass brick room at the front. This was the waiting area for patients. Fortunately, the
previous owner of the clinic, Dr Barney, who had designed the building was a better doctor than he
was an architect. The glass walled waiting room, which faced south, turned the place into an oven
in summer and a freezer in the winter. Patients had been known to have their fevers break while
waiting to see the doctor.
The waiting room was cool and empty when Sara entered. She looked around the dark room,
thinking not for the first time that she should redecorate. Chairs that could hardly be called anything
but utilitarian were set out for the patients and their parents. Sara and Tessa had spent many a day
sitting in those hard chairs, their mother beside them, waiting for their names to be called. In the
corner was a play area with three tables so that children who felt like it could draw while they waited.
That had been the only change she'd made.
Looking back, Sara wondered if it had been here in this very room that she had decided to become
a doctor. Unlike Tessa, the prospect of going to Dr. Barney never frightened her, probably because
she had rarely been sick as a child. In seventh grade, when Sara had shown an interest in science,
her father had done some plumbing work for a biology professor and instead of payment, the
professor tutored Sara in exchange for work. Two years later, a chemistry professor at the college
needed his water pipes replaced, and Sara was soon performing experiments alongside his college
students.
The lights came on and Sara blinked to adjust her eyes, Nelly her assistant opened the door
separating the examination rooms from the waiting room.
"Good morning, Dr. Linton. I got your message about going down to the police station and so I've
moved your appointments around. You don't mind working late?"
Sara shook her head and went into her office. She sat back in her chair. Her first month on the job
had been hectic, but nothing like the hospital in Atlanta. Maybe three months had passed before
she got used to the slower pace. Earaches and sore throats were plentiful, but not many kids came
in with critical cases. Those went to the hospital over in Augusta.
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Daryl Harper's mother was the first parent to give her a photo of their child. More parents followed
suit and soon she started putting them up on the walls of her office. Twelve years had passed since
that first picture, and photographs of kids covered her office wall and into the bathroom. She could
glance at any one of them and remember the kid's name and most of the time his or her medical
history. Already she was seeing them come back to the clinic as young adults, telling them at
nineteen years old they should probably consider seeing a general practitioner. Some of them
actually cried.
Sara opened her briefcase to find a chart, stopping at the sight of the postcard she'd received. She
stared at the photo of Emory University's entrance gates. She remembered the day the acceptance
letter had arrived. She'd been offered scholarships to more prestigious places up north but Emory
had always been her dream. Real medicine took place there, and she could not imagine herself
living anywhere else but in the south.
15 It can be inferred that the only reason Sara can drive her BMW in town is because she
A is a well-known doctor.
B gets positive comments.
C comes from Grant County.
D feels self-confident.
E is a single woman.
16 Which of the following statements is true about the clinic
A The previous doctor had built it himself.

B The building was made of glass and wood.
C The design was quite unsuccessful.
D The waiting room was far too small.
E The patients found it comfortable.
17 Which of the following statements is true about the waiting room?
A A space for kids had been added.

B The chairs were comfortable.
C It had recently been decorated.
D Parents and kids sat at different tables.
E It was bright and cheerful.
18 Paragraph 4 mainly focuses on Sara's
A experience in the clinic.

B relationship with Dr Barney.
C decision to work with her dad.
D work with a professor.
E progress in science.
19 It can be inferred that her work in Atlanta had been
A less rewarding.
B more stressful.
C better paid.
D less challenging.
E more important.
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20 The information about the photographs tells us that Sara
A is a keen photographer.
B cares about her patients.
C has a poor memory.
D prefers children to adults.
E feels sad when she sees them.
PAE SET 1 Reading Part Three
Questions 21-35
Read the following passage. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for each
question. Give only one answer to each question.
1. In 1913, Douglas Mawson, who was to become one of Australia’s most famous and respected
explorers, led an expedition to Antarctica, which at that time was relatively unexplored. Mawson,
unlike some other explorers who were in search of fame and fortune or personal glory, was
passionate about advancing science and hoped to differentiate his expedition from others by doing
important scientific research. He succeeded, and the research conducted during the expedition
involved work on geology, marine science and biology. In 2013, in memory of Mawson’s
achievements, Chris Turney, a climate scientist from the University of New South Wales, Australia,
organized a privately funded expedition to travel the same route that Mawson had taken. The
expedition, known as the Australasian Antarctica Expedition (AAE), set off in November 2013 on the
Russian research ship the Akademik Shokalskiy. Unfortunately, the ship got stranded for 2 weeks
in the icy sea off East Antarctica and a number of icebreakers from other expeditions were sent to
try to clear a path through the ice to free the ship. The international rescue effort, five nations working
together in the harshest conditions in one of the most isolated areas on Earth, caught the world’s
attention.
2. In the days after the rescue, many scientists criticised the AAE for the impact the rescue had had
on the other scientific research programmes that had to stop what they were doing to help rescue
the ship. Working safely in this remote part of the world requires rigorous planning and adherence
to timetables. At the British Antarctic Survey, which is typical of many national Antarctic
programmes, most scientific projects require at least two years of planning. Major projects involving
several countries and many Antarctic locations can take five or six years of planning, and disruptions
such as having to divert to rescue a ship in distress can be a big problem. According to Tony
Fleming, director of the Australian Antarctic Division, “the effect of any interruption will magnify
throughout the season.” The director of the French Polar Institute said that sending a French
icebreaker to assist in the early stages of the rescue had caused his scientists to call off a two-week
programme of oceanographic research. The Australian supply ship was halfway through unloading
vital supplies comprising food and scientific equipment at the Australian Antarctic base when it was
called to help in the rescue. As a result, two projects that had been years in the planning had to be
postponed to varying degrees.
3. None of the critics of the AAE had any issues with the rescue itself – it is the law of the sea for
ships to aid each other in times of distress. There was, however, a feeling that the AAE was not
primarily a scientific expedition and therefore, had no business in the Antarctic. Research
programmes in Antarctica are mostly supported by government agencies, such as the Australian
Antarctic Division and the British Antarctic Survey, but the AAE trip was not a typical scientific
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expedition to the polar region. The Akademik Shokalskiy had 22 crew and 52 passengers, half of
the latter group being scientists, the other half members of the public who had paid to go on the trip
as “science assistants”. This prompted many scientists to ask, “if the expedition was to involve
serious scientific expedition, why were there paying tourists on board?”
4. According to Turney, however, the AAE was a serious expedition with paying volunteers. This
was a different but not entirely original way of raising money for an expedition. One hundred years
ago, early explorers raised money for their research with various schemes including sponsorship
from private businesses and lotteries. As a result, they were able to conduct research in a remote
region – something that many national governments did not have the resources for.
5. Adapting this largely unused model of funding research, Turney sold places on the Akademik
Shokalskiy to members of the public who paid £10,000 to work as assistants to the scientists.
According to Turney, there is an innate interest in science and an innate interest in Antarctica, and
comments posted on the expedition’s website seem to reinforce this. Many of those who commented
praised Turney for organizing a privately funded scientific expedition to Antarctica that members of
the public could be part of and bringing Antarctica within their reach. Generating public interest in
Antarctica was a central part of the AAE’s strategy. Throughout the expedition, the AAE posted
online reports of their research and during the 6 weeks of the expedition, the website received more
than 60,000 visits. According to Turney, the AAE was able to inform the public about Mawson’s
expedition and science exploration: “never before has a science expedition involving such a remote
location remained in touch with so many people.”
6. Despite the so-called educational benefits, critics questioned the scientific aims of Turney’s
expedition. Research programmes are sometimes multinational projects, which require
sophisticated equipment, but are always multiyear. By contrast, Turney’s six-week expedition was
relatively short, and many polar scientists questioned if significant research could have been
conducted in such a short period of time despite the sophisticated equipment on board. One well-
known polar scientist, Richard Coleman, said, “One of the aims of the expedition was to gain new
insights into the circulation of the southern ocean and its impact on the global carbon cycle; a single
trip could provide only limited glimpses into this massive question.” Turney was surprised by the
criticism of the expedition’s aims. He had spent two years organizing a team of experts keen to work
with volunteers. A great many meetings had been held, and the expedition was discussed in detail.
However, many polar scientists were quick to point out that the scientific aims of the expedition did
not receive as much intense examination as the aims of government-funded expeditions receive.
7. Turney continues to dispute the claims that the expedition was not a serious scientific study. He
points to the fact that half the team were full-time scientists, looking at the full range of natural and
physical sciences, and they had started working almost from day one. He says that the expedition
planned to use Mawson’s data as a baseline to see how this part of the world had changed over
100 years. This work, he argues, would help to understand the past and the future of climate change
especially within Antarctica and calls for the expedition to be judged by the quality of the research it
produced.
8. The Antarctic Treaty, which was signed in 1959, requires all expeditions to be approved by
government authorities, but as the problem with the Akademik Shokalskiy showed, countries differ
in how they implement the rules. For example, British planes or ships going to Antarctica are
assessed on environmental grounds and whether the expedition will be operated safely and is
properly insured. The UK also examines whether or not a proposed expedition is self-sufficient, not
just in terms of food and fuel but whether or not the people can get themselves out of trouble without
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relying immediately on help from other national Antarctic programmes. In contrast, the Australian
system only looks at the environmental impact of a proposed expedition, not an expedition’s safety
or self-sufficiency. However, the Australians are coming under pressure to re-examine their
procedures after the Akademik Shokalskiy incident.
9. Agreeing on new regulations, though, is always a difficult process due to inevitable international
sensitivities. When the Akademik Shokalskiy rescue was first formally discussed at a meeting on
ship safety, there was disagreement between the Russians, whose ship had been hired for the
expedition, and the delegations from some of the countries that had helped in the rescue. The
Russians insisted that the ship with its equipment, housing and crew was well prepared and could
have handled the situation on its own. Disagreements like this are relatively mild, but they could be
a sign of things to come. An increasing number of countries are asserting their presence in
Antarctica and wrestling for political and economic power over the Earth’s last great wilderness, and
this means more expeditions and perhaps more conflicts between competing nations.
10. Whatever the problems of the Akademik Shokalskiy’s expedition, Turney says he believes
funding science through public interest has big potential. “If we hadn’t got caught by that sea ice,
and that was an extreme event, we’d have achieved almost everything we’d set out to do,” he says.
“And that’s the frustration because this model potentially works so well. It would be disappointing for
people to turn around and say that unless you’re government-supported and government-funded,
you can’t do science. That would be a real shame.” In the short term, arguments over whether or
not the AAE was a scientific expedition will be settled by the results of its research. Persuading the
scientific community that projects not funded by government agencies can still produce good
science could be a longer-term, uphill struggle.
21 In 1913, Mawson travelled to Antarctica in order to
A enhance his reputation as an explorer.

B conduct serious scientific research.
C earn a considerable sum of money.
D be the first person to explore this area.
E achieve one of his lifetime ambitions.
22 The word stranded in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A damaged.
B sunk.
C trapped.
D covered.
E lost.
23 The main idea of paragraph 2 is that
A the AAE was not well equipped for the dangerous expedition.
B the rescue of ships in distress is a very dangerous business.
C any change to a programme will result in serious delays.
D any international rescue mission leads to inevitable conflict.
E the rescue left other research programmes without supplies.
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24 The main criticism of the AAE expedition was that it
A had wasted government agencies’ time.

B had involved too many Australian scientists.
C was not a well funded expedition.
D was not a real scientific expedition.
E lacked academics with adequate qualifications.
25 The word they in paragraph 4 refers to
A early explorers.
B paying volunteers.
C private businesses.
D expedition ships.
E national governments.
26 The comments posted on the expedition’s website support Turney’s idea that the
A journey to Antarctica is exciting.

B public is interested in Antarctica.
C AAE expedition is an original idea.
D AAE expedition is truly international.
E use of private funds is widespread.
27 According to Turney, the AAE expedition was unique in that it
A was the first privately funded expedition to Antarctica.

B gave paying passengers the chance to go to Antarctica.
C reached out to many people during the expedition.
D enabled the public to watch a ship being rescued.
E went to the most inaccessible part of Antarctica.
28 According to paragraph 6, one criticism polar scientists had of Turney’s expedition was
that it
A could not have achieved its aims in the time given.

B did not work with other research groups.
C was not a multinational research group.
D did not have sophisticated equipment.
E should not have asked for any help from others.
29 Which of the following is true according to paragraph 6?
A Turney had a lot of difficulty finding suitable volunteers to work with.

B Turney could not find enough scientists for the expedition.
C Turney spent too much time organizing the AAE expedition.
D The aims of the expedition were not thoroughly reviewed.
E The conditions of the expedition were discouraging for polar scientists.
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30 Turney believed his research would help to
A prove the validity of Mawson’s climate studies.

B encourage scientists to study Mawson’s work.
C improve the quality of global climate research.
D motivate scientists to look at a range of sciences.
E understand climate change in Antarctica.
31 Australian expeditions only need to prove that they
A will have enough food and supplies on board.

B can conduct genuine scientific research.
C will not travel without adequate insurance.
D can help themselves in times of danger.
E will not cause any environmental damage.
32 The writer mentions international sensitivities to show
A how tension over Antarctica will increase.

B how upset the Russians were by the incident.
C why funding is essential for rescue missions.
D why it’s a challenge to decide on regulations
E why Australia will change its procedures.
33 The Russian delegation at the meeting on ship safety believed
A international conflicts reduce the effectiveness of rescue missions.

B the ship could have dealt with the incident itself.
C there could be more incidents like the Akademik Shokalskiy.
D there is a need to revise the regulations on ship safety.
E the ship was hired for the expedition because of its facilities
34 Turney believes that limiting Antarctic expeditions to only government funded projects
would be
A unethical.
B unusual.
C unfair
D illegal.
E irresponsible.
35 The writer believes that
A the AAE will be prevented from travelling to Antarctica in the future.

B the AAE will prove that it conducted important scientific research.
C it will be a challenge for privately funded expeditions to be accepted.
D it will be difficult to conduct good research on privately funded trips.
E it will only be possible to organize short private trips to Antarctica.
16
LANGUAGE SECTION
PAE SET 1 GRAMMAR

Questions 36-50
Read the following two texts. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for each
question. Give only one answer to each question.
Thucydides
Thucydides, the Greek historian, was born in 460BC and died in 400BC. He came from Athens and
would have been about thirty years old _____(36)_____ the Peloponnesian War, between Athens
and Sparta, began in 431BC. In 424 BC, he became a general and was ordered to defend the city
of Amphipolis. _____(37)_____ his ships arrived too late to save Amphipolis from the enemy, he
successfully defended the nearby city of Eion.
His greatest achievement was to write his ‘History of the Peloponnesian War’, _____(38)_____ is
the only reliable historical account of the war. It was not the first history written; Herodotus had
produced such a work before, but Thucydides, _____(39)_____ earlier writers, insisted upon
accuracy. He took his reports from witnesses, and checked them with as much thoroughness and
care as possible. He claimed to have been present at the events he described or to have interviewed
people who were there. This standard of accuracy was quite extraordinary in the fifth century BC.
The only possible models for him _____(40)_____ follow were a few philosophers and medical
writers. Despite the good example he set, few historians after Thucydides were quite so detailed in
their research. Only among scientists like Aristotle has anything comparable _____(41)_____
produced. Yet, the war took place nearly two and a half thousand years ago and the clear picture of
the war demonstrates that Thucydides succeeded in his aim _____(42)_____ creating a work that
was “not designed to meet the taste of an immediate public, but to last forever.”
36 A while B when C since D if E during
37 A If B As though C Although D Despite E Because
38 A what B that C when D which E where
39 A such B than C unlike D by E as
40 A to B on C in D at E for
41 A being B to be C is D been E was
42 A about B of C so D from E above
17
Saving Endangered Species
When people talk about saving endangered species they usually consider animals like whales,
pandas or tigers. Not many people would think of plants being endangered, but in fact, there are far
_____(43)_____ threatened species of plants than animals. Over the past four hundred years,
thousands of plants and trees around the world _____(44)_____ become extinct owing to global
warming, population growth and deforestation. It has been estimated that by 2050, almost a quarter
of the world’s remaining plant species _____(45)_____ most probably have disappeared.
Plants give us the energy and nutrition we need in the form of food. They also help to regulate and
maintain the make-up of the atmosphere, which makes the earth a place _____(46)_____ we can
live. Apart from the materials they provide for shelter, clothing and utility, one very important reason
_____(47)_____ we need plants is that they are used for medicinal purposes. Today, one-fourth of
all prescription drugs come from plants.
Scientists all over the world are working hard to find solutions to prevent the loss of _____(48)_____
precious resources. One recent innovation is the Seed Bank Project, which aims to collect and store
plant types _____(49)_____ risk so that future generations can grow new plants from them.
Hopefully, these projects will help preserve genetic diversity. The greater genetic diversity
_____(50)_____is, the less likely a species is to face extinction.
43 A less B most C least D many E more
44 A has B had C have D was E were
45 A will B could C can D should E must
46 A when B where C which D what E since
47 A how B being C whether D why E is
48 A such B So C too D a few E a lot
49 A at B in C on D for E of
50 A that B it C this D there E which
18
PAE SET 1 VOCABULARY
Questions 51-70
Read the following two texts. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or
E for each question. Give only one answer to each question.
Burglaries
Burglars have discovered a new way to find out when your home will be unguarded:
they ring you up and ask, “Hello, I’m doing some research on _____(51)_____ of a
major software supplier. Do you have a computer at home? You could be
_____(52)_____ to win a new computer program if you wouldn’t mind answering a few
simple questions.” Tempting words, but the police warn that the only _____(53)_____
being carried out is whether or not you’ll be at home during the day. If not, you’ll get a
very unwelcome visit from burglars.
The police say that there have been several domestic burglaries over the last two
months, each following a rather _____(54)_____ telephone call. The caller asks you
about a variety of things but your answers to some questions might include information,
which you would not normally _____(55)_____ to a stranger. The information that the
thieves are looking for is the answer to questions like “Would it be _____(56)_____ if
we came along tomorrow at about 11 am to install your new program?” If the answer is
no, that _____(57)_____ the perfect opportunity for a break-in. The police suggest that
if you get one of these calls, you should make a note of anything suspicious and
_____(58)_____ the police with as much information as you can. Clearly it is unwise to
_____(59)_____ strangers about the times when you will not be at home. People need
to be extremely _____(60)_____ against this type of crime and take the necessary
precautions.
19
51 A contrary B behalf C reason D base E scale
52 A capable B compatible C eager D eligible E persistent
53 A survey B approach C experience D trial E investigation
54 A ambiguous B distracted C biased D liable E suspicious
55 A allow B emerge C reveal D arise E access
56 A effective B convenient C comfortable D efficient E potential
57 A accepts B attempts C concludes D includes E offers
58 A provide B integrate C release D coordinate E treat
59 A inform B appoint C identify D prefer E conform
60 A aggressive B sufficient C vigilant D hostile E motivated
20
Mandrills
Unlike other monkey species, mandrills in captivity do not imitate human behaviour and
gestures when they want to communicate. Instead, they convey their messages in very
____(61)___ ways. In 1999, zookeepers at Colchester Zoo saw a young female
mandrill, Milly, frequently make an interesting gesture: she covered her eyes with her
hand. No one realized its ___(62)___ for years until a researcher Mark Laidre visited in
2007. Previously, it had been interpreted as a meaningless gesture. However, Laidre
showed that Milly was ___(63)____ covering her eyes with her hand to send a message
to other mandrills: ‘Leave me alone’. This gesture had not been _____(64)_____ as
typical behaviour in any other mandrill communities; it was something Milly had
invented all by herself. Laidre was even more ___(65)____ when he found that the
signal had been learned by the 25 other members of Milly’s community.
This type of learned behaviour is ___(66)___ that mandrills can develop their own
culture. From a scientific ___(67)___, culture is a behaviour learned from others. Once
thought to be unique to humans, it has been observed among these mandrills, and other
animals as well such as dolphins. In many cases, examples of learned behaviour are
based in the physical environment – for instance, natural sponges make____(68)____
tools for dolphins trying to protect their beaks as they search for food.
Further research might lead to the ____(69)____ of other animals that develop their own
communicative gestures. This suggests that the capacity to communicate with the
hands in ____(70)____ ways may have existed long before humans existed.
61 A creative B possible C necessary D artificial E familiar
62 A capability B significance C severity D argument E dominance
63 A intentionally B respectfully C formally D innocently E predictably
64 A adjusted B debated C desired D identified E accounted
65 A satisfied B annoyed C astonished D concerned E isolated
66 A analysis B authority C treatment D pretension E evidence
67 A perspective B variety C appeal D commitment E concept
68 A considerable B reluctant C convenient D significant E coherent
69 A approach B controversy C option D occasion E discovery
70 A energetic B accurate C elegant D meaningful E ornamental
21
LISTENING PART 1 &
LISTENING PART 2 NOTE
TAKING BOOKLET
22
PAE SET 1 LISTENING PART ONE
You are going to listen to five short dialogues. As you listen, answer the
questions related to each dialogue by choosing A, B, C, D or E. You will hear each
dialogue once only. You will be given 30 seconds before each dialogue to look at
the questions.
NUMBER ONE
1 Joe is looking for his
A assignment.
B telephone.
C Ipad.
D wallet.
E textbook.
2 Joe is not going to the party because he
A had an argument with Anne.

B thinks his ex-girlfriend will be there.
C does not think he is popular.
D did not receive an invitation.
E has too much work to do.
3 Alice was surprised when she heard that the idea for a three day weekend
A was rejected in the 1930s.

B has been around for ages.
C was introduced by the French.
D has not been discussed much.
E has not been popular with people.
23
NUMBER TWO
4 Emma cannot see her friends anymore because she has to
A move out of the dormitory.

B do a lot of work at home.
C study hard for her exams.
D take many classes.
E change her university.
5 What is Emma’s major?
A Chemistry
B Education
C Literature
D Maths
E Physics
6 What will Emma be doing next semester?
A Continuing with her internship

B Trying to find a job at a middle school
C Attending her required courses
D Finishing her departmental coursework
E Taking a number of elective classes
24
NUMBER THREE
7 How does the student feel when he hears the professor's offer?
A Scared
B Disappointed
C Undecided
D Relieved
E Surprised
8 The professor avoided commenting in class on Tim’s poem "Northern Lights" to
A prevent Tim's peers from getting discouraged.

B hear the opinions of Tim's peers about the poem.
C help Tim realize that she did not like the poem much.
D show Tim she was not sure about the language used.
E talk to Tim about the poem in detail later on.
9 The professor asks Tim to come to her office to
A make some corrections to Tim's novel.

B change the wording in Tim's poems.
C show Tim's novel to another professor.
D choose the poems Tim will read out.
E help Tim practice reading out the poems.
25
NUMBER FOUR
10 The assistant went to the Appalachians for
A research.
B fieldwork.
C relaxation.
D meetings.
E Christmas.
11 The purpose of the meeting between the professor and the assistant is to
A renew a book.
B review a subject.
C reschedule a lecture.
D revise a course.
E redesign a quiz.
12 What will the assistant do next?
A Go to the library
B Return a book
C Attend a lecture
D Surf the net
E Read the notes
26
NUMBER FIVE
13 The student has visited the adviser's office in order to
A find out more information about the course content.

B complain about the classes he has been taking.
C ask for advice about choosing a major.
D ask which profession would be popular in the future.
E talk about his best and favourite subjects.
14 Which subjects does the student like?
A Literature, psychology and philosophy

B Science, math and business
C Science, business and world history
D Math, literature and cultural anthropology
E World history, math and sociology
15 What does the adviser recommend the student to do?
A Wait a year before choosing a major

B Change his major to literature
C Consider majoring in journalism
D Reconsider majoring in business
E Consult Professor Briggs for his major
27
PAE SET 1 LISTENING PART TWO
You are going to listen to a lecture about the myth of Shangri-la. As you listen, take
notes under the headings provided. Some background information is provided about the
myth.
The myth of Shangri-la is based on the notion that somewhere on earth, probably
in Tibet, there is a wonderful place where no-one gets ill or stressed and conflict
does not exist.
WHAT IS A MYTH?
THE MYTH OF AN EARTHLY PARADISE
28
THE MYTH OF SHANGRI-LA
THE BASIS OF THE MYTH OF SHANGRI-LA
THE BLEND OF MYTH AND REALITY
29
PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 1
LISTENING PART 2
QUESTIONS
30
Use your notes about Shangri-la to answer the following questions. On the
answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for each question. Give only one
answer to each question.
16 According to the speaker, people need myths because they

A show man’s connections to the ancient world.
B help to explain the relationship between man and the world.
C provide mankind with useful, fictional stories.
D link modern traditions with a more ancient past.
E give clear answers to things that are difficult to understand.
17 The idea of ‘myths that reassured’ refers to myths which helped man to
A accept the destructive forces of nature.
B live a much more virtuous life.
C pass on knowledge to the next generation.
D accept their adult responsibilities.
E feel in control of their world.
18 The speaker says that a “myth taps into a universal cultural narrative”. What is
meant by this?
A Myths are told in a straightforward narrative form.
B Myths are concerned in some way with the universe.
C Myths are shared by different people worldwide.
D Myths originate in the Middle East.
E Myths are interpreted in different ways by people.
19 The speaker refers to El Dorado in order to
A give an example from the Old Testament.

B compare it to the myth of Atlantis.
C show how Columbus was a firm believer in myths.
D explain the origin of the Garden of Eden myth.
E exemplify the myth of an earthly paradise.
20 The novel ‘Lost Horizon’
A is set in Japan.
B was written in 1930.
C is a story of survival.
D was based on a Hollywood film.
E tells a story of war pilots.
21 The monastery in the novel is important because it is
A where the survivors of the plane crash stay.

B believed to be the centre of the universe.
C said to contain all the wisdom of the world.
D home to the greatest culture on earth.
E thought to be the symbol of an earthly paradise.
31
22 The novel ‘Lost Horizon’
A gave people hope in a time of crisis.
B was based on a true story of a plane crash.
C reflected the carefree mood of the 1930s.
D predicted the rise of Hitler in Germany.
E distracted people from the war that was going on.
23 Today, Shangri-la is synonymous with an experience that is said to be
A luxurious.
B mysterious.
C spiritual.
D heavenly.
E surprising.
24 The idea of a mysterious place in the Himalayas became known in the West
thanks to
A James Hilton.
B a Portuguese priest.
C the Emperor Akbar.
D a Tibetan monk.
E Shambala.
25 What did the term Shambala refer to?
A The Moghul Empire

B Tibet
C The Himalayas
D A hidden kingdom
E Treasure
26 The myth of Shambala is concerned with the notion of
A destruction.
B hope.
C fear.
D loss.
E pleasure
27 According to Tibetan Buddhist teaching, Shambala does not
A grow older.
B wish to be found.
C admit foreigners.
D physically exist.
E reveal itself easily.
32
28 The myth of Shambala was not known to the western world until the 19 th century
because the
A old Portuguese priest destroyed his manuscript.

B area was closed off to foreigners.
C Tibetans had no contact with the west.
D young priest who went there was killed.
E original documents were lost.
29 What is the speaker’s attitude towards Shangri-la County?
A Delighted
B Nervous
C Puzzled
D Hopeful
E Critical
30 The speaker concludes by saying that today, the world
A should become more spiritual.

B is too sophisticated for myths.
C is in need of a Shangri-la myth.
D could be a better place.
E has to modernise the old myths.
33
PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 1
WRITING PARTS 1 & 2

BOOKLET
34
PAE SET 1 WRITING PART 1
In the text below, the writer refers to a new technological development. In your
opinion, is it a positive development? Write a paragraph of approximately 150
words.
Clearly identify what this new technological development is and write what you
think about it by referring to relevant arguments in the text and expanding upon
these arguments.
Your paragraph will be assessed on task completion, organization, grammar and

vocabulary. Copying sentences or chunks from the text is not acceptable and will
be penalized.
The tiny bump on the back of Dave William’s hand is barely noticeable. It is only when
he opens his front door by waving his hand in front of a digital reader that it becomes
clear something strange is happening. Inserted under William’s skin is a microchip that
can be used like a contactless credit card to store and transfer information.
Convenience is one of the biggest attractions for Williams. The fact that he now has a
gadget on him that opens doors and unlocks his computer — one that he can’t leave at
home or forget — is a huge advantage. At present, the microchips can store passwords,
medical records and contact details but many envision a future where they can do far
more. They could be used to track missing persons or even criminals. And once these
microchips can be used to make payments, it is expected that their popularity will soar.
One of the biggest advantages of the microchips is that when a chip is in your hand,
there’s less chance someone can scan your details.
But not everyone is convinced. Certain financial and legal companies are asking
employees to have the microchip inserted to restrict who has access to sensitive
information. However, if a company says we will only give you a job if you have such a
microchip it raises ethical issues. Civil liberties groups also warn that these microchips
could be used by employers to monitor employees’ productivity or by governments to
intrude on our privacy. Other concerns revolve around the risks the microchips pose to
our health. These include the possibility of infection and a microchip’s incompatibility
with MRI machines as during an MRI scan, patients cannot take anything metal,
including microchips.
Despite these concerns, it is worth remembering that our mobile phone sends far more
information about our daily behaviour to companies like Apple than a microchip ever
could. However, a mobile phone is easily separable; a microchip is not.
35
Choose either topic A or topic B (do not do both) and write an essay
of about 350 words.
Every year more and more young people receive university degrees but are unable to
find a job.
This is clearly a worrying situation and poses several questions. Are there not enough
jobs for
these graduates, are there just too many people with university degrees and does a
country need
all these highly qualified people, should there be other alternatives to a university
degree?
What is your opinion on this issue?
OR
Many people would agree that life today is very different from what it was for their
grandparents’ generation. People in modern times simply have too much to do and there
is just not enough time to do it all. As a result, today many people are suffering from a
lot of stress because of a perceived lack of time.
In your opinion, do you think that people have less time today and are therefore more
stressed than people in the past?
YOU MAY USE THIS SPACE TO PLAN YOUR ESSAY
36
PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 2
37
READING, GRAMMAR &
VOCABULARY BOOKLET
38
Questions 1 - 8
Read the following three passages. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B,
C, D or E for each question. Give only one answer to each question.
Compassion
It sounds kind of obvious, but the world would be a better place to live in if we were all
a little bit kinder to each other. But how can we make that happen? This is fast becoming
a scientific question. Psychologists and neuroscientists are exploring how to increase
people’s capacity for compassion and generosity towards others. There are two ongoing
studies claiming that meditation not only increases compassionate feelings but also
improves physical and emotional health.
However, you don’t have to be a Buddhist or an expert on the brain to help increase
global compassion. There is evidence that selfless acts spread through social networks,
in other words, if you are kind to a friend, they are more likely to be kind to someone
else they know. To demonstrate this, Nicholas Christakis of Harvard Medical School in
Boston designed a cooperative game in which 120 students were organised into groups
of four and asked to give money to their group. The game lasted five rounds and after
each round, the students were reorganised so that no two appeared in the same group
twice. The researchers told the participants at the end of each round how much the
others in their group had given. They found that generosity is infectious. If someone
gave a dollar more than the predicted group average, the others in that group gave
approximately 20 cents more than expected in the next round of the game. This
altruism persisted until the third round, after which no further increases were noted.
1 The purpose of this text is to
A describe three studies that are investigating empathy and compassion.
B provide an overview of what it means to have compassionate feelings.
C show that researchers are looking into ways to make people kinder.
D give some background information about meditation and kindness.
E encourage people to try to develop a greater capacity for empathy.
2 The main idea of paragraph 2 is that the feeling of compassion
A is closely linked to one’s financial status.
B can be beneficial when people are working in groups.
C is essential when playing games with others.
D needs to be spread all around the world.
E can pass from one person to another.
3 From the context, it can be understood that altruism means a willingness to
A do something for others.

B spend a lot of money.
C become part of a group.
D be as kind as others.
E help others become kinder.
39
Smart Kids
James is a fifth grader at a highly competitive school. James hangs out with five friends
from his class. They are the “smart kids”. Ever since James could walk, he has heard
constantly that he’s smart. Not just from his parents but from any adult he has come into
contact with. But as James has progressed through school, this self-awareness that he
is smart hasn’t always translated into fearless confidence when doing his schoolwork.
In fact, James divides the world into two – things he is naturally good at and things he
isn’t. Some things come very quickly to him and when they don’t he gives up almost
immediately, concluding “I’m not good at this”. So why then does this child, who is one
of the brightest kids in the class, lack confidence about his ability to tackle routine school
challenges?
James is not alone. For the last few decades, it has been noted that a large percentage
of gifted students severely underestimate their own abilities. Those children afflicted
with this perceived lack of competence adopt lower standards for success and expect
less of themselves. They also underrate the importance of effort. Recent research into
this has shown that actually telling kids that they are smart and always praising them
for their intelligence seems to be setting them up for failure in other areas. When we tell
them they are smart, we send the message that they always need to be smart and that
they shouldn’t risk making mistakes.
4 It can be inferred from the text that James does not

A like to be told he is smart.
B try hard in all his subjects.
C show just how smart he is.
D compete with his friends.
E have a very good social life.
5 The main idea of this text is that parents should
A stop constantly telling smart children that they are clever.

B help smart children to try and not to make mistakes.
C adopt lower standards of success for their smart children.
D help their smart children to develop their natural intelligence.
E make sure that their smart children get enough support.
Improving Universities
Governments across the globe are putting astonishing sums into building and improving
their universities, and are spending millions more selling them abroad. The stakes in the
education race could not be higher. With the number of internationally-minded students
growing, schools and nations must do all they can to attract them, both for economic
and intellectual reasons. Ultimately, the winners in the new global race will be those
countries that are the most international at every level. Realizing this, EU governments
have already started a process to mobilize university students by adopting common
standards. Not long ago, moving students between Europe’s largely state-controlled
universities was almost impossible because of the lack of common academic standards.
In addition, national funding systems across Europe discouraged mobility, rewarding
40
institutions that kept students and providing no incentives to study away from home.
Now, much of that is changing. The better Europe gets at moving its own students
around, the more aggressive it will be on the global education market. Of course, on a
continent with so many cultures, the process has been far from simple. Universities must
now meet minimum requirements on the number of hours spent in the classroom and
the amount of coursework submitted. Indeed, the system has created serious problems
for many universities, forcing them to choose between their traditional independence on
the one hand and adopting common standards on the other. In the end, market forces
should win; each institution will ultimately get to decide for itself to what extent it wants
to cooperate and therefore compete.
6 In order for a country to better compete internationally it must
A build more universities.

B attract more academics.
C keep good students.
D invest more in its universities.
E develop its economy.
7 The main idea of this text is that there is
A a shortage of good universities in European countries.

B a need to attract more students from different countries.
C a lack of academic standards in some universities.
D an aggressive educational policy in some countries.
E little opportunity for students to study in other countries.
8 What does the writer mean by ‘each institution will ultimately get to decide for
itself to what extent it wants to cooperate and therefore compete’.
A Universities will have to decide what they must do in order to become

more independent.
B Universities will be forced to adopt a set of common standards for
academic study.
C Universities will need to become more competitive by cooperating with
other European universities.
D Universities will have to decide how far they want to change in order to
compete with other universities.
E Universities will decide how important the notion of competition is for
European academics.
41
Questions 9 - 20
Read the following two passages. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C,
D or E for each question. Give only one answer to each question.
Neanderthals
The Neanderthals inhabited Europe for approximately 200,000 years until they
disappeared around 30,000 years ago. An analysis of Neanderthal bones discovered in
a cave in Croatia in the 1970s, and more recently in caves in Iraq and Israel, has
provided scientists with useful clues about the lives of these early hunter-gatherers.
In the past, most scientists viewed Neanderthals as being large, heavy, sub-humans of
low intelligence who lacked the anatomical or intellectual ability to speak. Neanderthals
left behind no evidence that they could create art and their tool making skills were most
primitive. While scientists have found nothing new about Neanderthals’ ability to create
art, they have begun to realise that they were mistaken in other areas. Recent
excavations and analysis have demonstrated that Neanderthal tools in fact required a
level of craftsmanship and mental skills as developed as those of modern humans.
Neanderthals skilfully worked pieces of stone into knives and other tools. They
organised group hunts and took care of the weak and the sick, which suggests a social
organisation more complex than previously believed. Most scientists now accept the
idea that Neanderthals spoke a rudimentary language.
The origins of the Neanderthals are uncertain, but scientists suspect that they share a
common ancestor with modern humans: a tall slender species known as Homo Erectus,
which migrated into Europe, probably from Africa, between 700,000 and a million years
ago. Another uncertain issue is why the Neanderthals disappeared. Around 40,000
years ago, modern humans began spreading throughout Europe. About 10,000 years
after their arrival, all record of Neanderthal life ends. Perhaps the modern humans
conquered and destroyed the Neanderthals. Perhaps the newcomers introduced deadly
diseases, just as the Europeans carried smallpox to America. Or maybe the
Neanderthals slowly died off, unable to compete with the more adaptable, modern
humans.
One thing that we do know about the Neanderthals is that they did not disappear
because of climate change, in fact, they were well equipped to deal with the changing
climate. The land that shaped them was a harsh, often a very cold wilderness.
Occasional warm periods would moderate the climate, creating subtropical conditions
as far north as England for 10,000 years or more. But the ice would periodically return,
and the Neanderthals were able to adapt and survive. Like people living in the Arctic
today, Neanderthals had short limbs and broad, thick bodies. In such a cold climate,
they needed to have a heavily built body and relatively short arms and legs in order to
retain heat. Their powerful muscles enabled them to bring down large animals such as
bison and mammoths. What their bones tell us is that they had a lot of strength and
endurance.
42
The last traces of the Neanderthals have been discovered in isolated seaside caves in
Spain. Some scientists think that the Neanderthals were forced to move south because
temperatures in Europe fell dramatically 35,000 years ago. The rock of Gibraltar seems
to have been the Neanderthals last place of refuge. Apparently they never ventured
beyond there, even though Africa lies only a few miles away across the sea. Scientists
think that the proximity of Africa raises one of the great mysteries of the Neanderthals
because by this time, humans elsewhere were crossing much greater distances of
water. They were already in Australia for instance. Yet, there is no evidence of the
Neanderthals having made it across the sea to Africa. Weren’t they curious? Maybe that
was one of those mysterious differences between them and us. We are driven by
curiosity, the need to explore, and an obsession with change. Perhaps the thought of
moving on never occurred to them. Maybe they simply accepted the present, without a
past and future tense. Who knows? What we can say is that for more than 200,000
years, the Neanderthals adapted to their changing world. Will we be able to say the
same for ourselves?
9 Recent findings have shown us that the Neanderthals
A were skilled at producing tools.

B had a simpler social organisation than previously thought.
C used a very primitive form of written language.
D developed the ability to create art.
E were physically weaker than previously believed.
10 Which of the following is a possible reason for the disappearance of the

Neanderthals?
A They could not adapt to the subtropical conditions.
B They migrated to different parts of the world.
C They may have had no resistance to certain diseases.
D They were integrated into the Homo Erectus species.
E They could not find enough food to survive.
11 The climate in Europe during the Neanderthal period can best be described as
being
A changeable.
B warm.
C icy.
D subtropical.
E wet.
12 Which physical characteristic helped the Neanderthals to stay warm?
A Long legs
B Powerful muscles
C Thick bodies
D Big bones
E Strong arms
43
13 The reason why the Neanderthals did not cross over to Africa might be because
A the distance from Europe to Africa was too great for them.
B the temperatures in Africa were not suitable for their lifestyle.
C they felt that they were safer in the seaside caves in Spain.
D they did not feel any need to go and explore new lands.
E they had not learned how to build boats and cross the seas.
14 It can be inferred that the question posed at the end of the text shows that the
writer
A admires the fact that the Neanderthals co-existed with humans.
B is concerned about modern man’s ability to survive.
C thinks it is wrong to live without thinking about the future.
D believes we need to find out more about the Neanderthals.
E suggests the Neanderthals changed the world in many ways.
Mars
It was a fine, long afternoon. They finished a late lunch and sat together and he told
them about his rocket and they smiled upon him and Mom was just the same and Dad
bit off a cigar and lit it thoughtfully in his old fashion. There was a big, traditional chicken
dinner at night and time flowed on. When the plates were scraped clean, the captain
leaned back and exhaled his deep satisfaction. Night was in all the trees and colouring
the sky. From all the other houses down the street came the sound of music and doors
slamming.
‘I’ll wake in the morning,’ said the captain. ‘And I’ll be back in my rocket, in space, and
all this will be gone.’
‘Oh no, don’t think that,’ said Mom softly. ‘Don’t question things, let us be happy.’
‘But I should go and check that the rest of my crew are alright.’
‘Really! Why would you do that?’ asked Dad.
‘Why, well. No reason, I guess. They’re all eating or in bed. A good night’s sleep won’t
hurt them, after all it’s been a long journey to get here.’
‘Good night, son. It’s good to have you back.’
He left the room filled with the smell of cigar-smoke and the soft, gentle light and climbed
the stairs talking to his brother, Edward. Edward pushed a door open and there was his
old bed, everything seemed so familiar. ‘It’s just too much,’ said the captain. ‘I’m
confused and I’m tired. Too much has happened today. I feel as if I’ve been out in a
pounding rain for 48 hours. I’m soaked to the skin with emotion.’
Edward silently pulled back the sheets on his own bed and shook his pillow. There was
moonlight and the sound of distant music, dancing and whispering. ‘So this is Mars,’
said the captain as he climbed into his bed.
44
‘Yes, this is Mars – not what you expected.’ said Edward getting into bed. ‘Good night,
John.’
The captain lay peacefully, letting his thoughts float. For the first time the stress of the
day was moved aside; he could start to think logically now and questions started to form.
It had all been emotion, too much emotion, but now, how could this be true, he
wondered. He considered the various theories put forward, when they first landed, by
the other members of his crew. He let all kinds of new theories work slowly through his
mind. Mom. Dad. Edward. Mars. Earth. Mars. Martians. Who had lived here a thousand
years ago on Mars? Martians? Or had this always been the way it was today? Martians,
he repeated the word idly. He had the most ridiculous theory quite suddenly. Highly
improbable. Silly. Forget it. It’s totally ridiculous, he thought to himself.
But, he thought, just suppose that there were Martians living on Mars and they saw our
spaceship coming and they saw us inside our ship and that they hated us. Suppose that
they wanted to destroy us as they thought we were invaders. They would do it in such
a way that we would be taken totally by surprise. Well, what would the best weapon for
them to use against Earth Men who had landed on their planet? The answer was
interesting – telepathy, hypnosis, memory and imagination. Suppose, thought the
captain, suppose that all these houses aren’t real at all, but only figments of my
imagination, made real through the use of telepathy and hypnosis, by the Martians.
Suppose these houses are really some other shape, a Martian shape, but, by playing
on my desires, they have made this seem like my old home town. What better way to
fool a man, using his own mother and father as bait?
And here we all are tonight, separated, in different houses, with no weapons to protect
us, and our spaceship lies in the moonlight, empty. And wouldn’t it be horrible to
discover that all of this was part of some clever plan by the Martians to divide us, and
kill us? Sometime during the night, perhaps my brother will change form, melt, shift, and
become another thing, a terrible thing, a Martian.
His hands were shaking under the covers. His body was cold. Suddenly it was no longer
a theory. He lifted himself in bed and listened. The music had stopped and the night
was unnaturally quiet. Carefully he lifted the covers and slipped from the bed. He was
walking softly across the room when his brother’s voice said, ‘Where are you going?’
The voice was alien and cold.
‘For a drink of water.’
‘But you are not thirsty.’
‘Yes, yes, I am.’
Captain John Black broke and ran across the room. He screamed. He never reached
the door.
45
15 When the captain decides that he should make sure his men are ok, his father is
A surprised.
B understanding.
C sympathetic.
D sad.
E indifferent.
16 When the brothers enter their bedroom, Edward
A tries to make his brother feel more comfortable.

B shows no reaction to his brother’s emotional outburst.
C reassures his brother by explaining what Mars is like.
D starts to think about how stressful the day was.
E helps his brother by pulling back the bed sheet.
17 When the captain gets into bed, he
A has a conversation with his brother.

B listens to the sound of whispering.
C thinks about how happy he is to be home.
D starts to think clearly about the situation.
E wonders where the rest of the crew are.
18 Initially, his theory about Mars and the Martians makes the captain feel
A glad that they no longer exist.

B frightened in case it is true.
C sad as his parents are Martians.
D confused about where he is.
E stupid for thinking about it.
19 The longer he thinks about it, the more convinced the captain becomes that he
and his
A men have been trapped.

B crew should go to their ship.
C brother are no longer close.
D crew are actually dead.
E family have been tricked.
20 When the captain sits up in bed, he realises that
A he needs to go down to the kitchen and get a drink.

B he can no longer hear any noise from outside.
C he is cold because the covers had come off the bed.
D his brother is staring at him with a cold expression.
E something terrible has happened to his family.
46
Questions 21-35
Read the following passage. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E
for each question. Give only one answer to each question.
1. Just after the last Ice Age, there were only a few hundred thousand humans on Earth.
Since then, the population has grown exponentially – it began very slowly, but over
generations the growth rate increased more and more rapidly, by what we call the
“Snowball Effect.” It took the human population thousands of years to reach 1 billion in
1804. However, it took only 123 years for us to double to 2 billion in 1927. The population
hit 4 billion in 1974 (in only 47 years), and if we continue at our current rate, the human
population will reach 8 billion in 2028. The impact of this incredible growth is an issue
of concern because the number of people exceeds the resources available and the
capacity of the environment to sustain them.
2. When discussing overpopulation, a lot of focus is placed on the rapid population

growth in third world countries. In fact, the fastest population growth has happened in
the fifty least-developed nations such as Ethiopia. This growth, says the United Nations
Population Agency (UNPA), “poses a bigger threat to people in most African countries
than diseases like AIDS. High birth rates and the doubling of the population every 20
years means you have to double the numbers of qualified teachers and doctors and
also increase the amount of medical supplies and food imports”. But it's not just a Third
World issue, many developed countries have also experienced population growth.
During the 20th century, the health and wealth of developed countries improved
dramatically and income available per capita and other measures of healthy living also
significantly increased average life expectancy. “20th century population growth in the
developed parts of the world did not take place because people suddenly started to
have more babies – rather, it happened because they finally stopped dying like flies,”
says a leading U.S. health expert.
3. Everyone wonders whether the world can support more people. Development
agencies and demographers say with half the world’s population now under 25, the
answer to this question is “No”. They claim that the rapidly rising population will damage
impoverished nations in particular, if it is not stabilized. Over 200 years ago, Thomas
Malthus, a famous demographer and political economist of the time, warned against
unchecked population growth and predicted that there would be a struggle for food and
land in the future. At that time, the world population was less than a billion people. Now,
the world population is almost 6.7 billion and humanity is already living well beyond the
sustainability of its environment. According to one UNPA report, mankind currently
consumes about 25 percent more natural resources than the Earth can produce. The
organization warns that if humanity reaches 9.1 billion people by 2050, it will be using
the biological capacity of two planet Earths, which would cause very serious problems
like lack of food and other natural resources.
4. Supporters of population control suggest that if we take precautions now, for the first
time in 200 years the majority of the world’s population might find themselves living in
47
countries with low birth rates. Countries in Europe have been at this point for a while,
but in a matter of a few years China, Indonesia, Brazil, and even regions of India may
join them. It is these countries with low or decreasing birth rates that are experiencing
incredible economic growth. This is no coincidence. Lower birth rates lead to economic
growth. One Indonesian study found that with each child, a woman is 20% less likely to
get a job. If women have fewer children, they are more likely to enter the workforce and
contribute to economic productivity. Of course, the opposite is also true; having children
also contributes to the economic activity generated by raising a child, such as paying
for school, buying toys and clothes and getting a babysitter. However, in the long run
there is an economic gain in not having many children, as adults with fewer children are
economically more productive and independent. Interestingly, there is also evidence
that suggests that lower birth rates are a result of economic growth. Higher living
standards, better access to goods, services, and employment, better social programs
and an increasing middle class all make it unnecessary for adults to have many children
to contribute to the families’ income, as they did in the past.
5. In terms of the environment, the UNPA has declared that slowing down the rise in the
Earth's population would be a major contribution to fighting environmental destruction.
Slower population growth would help reduce all kinds of pollution and would contribute
to a reduction of greenhouse-gas emissions in the future. Also, nature will take over
where there is nothing but humans, farming and industry now. The typical appearance
of many developed countries, where every piece of land has long been measured and
used, will change; these countries of the future may look rather different, since large
parts of them will go back to their wild states. In Europe, for example, some of the effects
are already being felt. “The decline in population is opening room for species that have
been pushed back by humans,” says the UNPA report. “In Germany an increase in
animals such as wolves and deer has been observed and birds are nesting and foxes
lurking around where there used to be old buildings, houses, factories, railway lines,
and so forth."
6. On the other hand, there are those who claim that a decreasing population could
actually have negative consequences. Of course, they know this worry is theoretical
because we have never seen population decline on a massive scale; thus, it is
impossible to predict with certainty the side effects of population decline. However,
opponents of population decline say that there is good reason to believe it will be bad
for humankind. They say the decreasing population will have a serious impact on
employment. They forecast a major drop in the number of younger people who will be
able to work and earn money; between now and 2030, for example, the EU will lose
20.8 million (6.8 percent) people of working age, as the number of over-65s will rise by
more than 50 percent and the number of people aged between 15-64 will decrease by
nearly 7 percent.
7. Those who are against population decrease claim that the population of older people
who need support and help will soar and eventually the large group of working age
adults who are currently employed will retire. The worry is, with low birth rates, there will
be an insufficient number of young people to pay for healthcare and social security.
Alasdair Murray, deputy director of the Centre for European Reform, warns of the
dangers brought about by the changes. “Europe's ageing population will place a strain
48
on healthcare and retirement systems. This, coupled with the decline in working age
populations, will act as a drag on economic growth. As a consequence, European
countries will find it difficult to continue to fund their social systems to the extent that
they did in the past,” he says. Another problem might be that the production of goods
will suffer as the demand for nearly everything slackens. Worried about their present
and future financial situation, the reduced population will not consume and spend as
much and, due to less demand, supply will decrease and economies will probably get
smaller.
8. Opponents of population decline also claim that the world can support more people.
In their opinion, the availability of food in the world has increased greatly, even with a
growing population. Demographer Philip Longman notes that, between 1980 and 2008,
the price of food declined by 53 percent. Famine, observes Longman, has become “a
political problem — a matter of fair distribution, not of inadequate supply. New
agricultural technologies have made it possible to produce food cheaply and
abundantly.” Those who share his view think the argument that the Earth has a finite
supply of resources that we shall surely soon deplete is a false one which we have
heard many times before. More than 100 years ago, economists feared that supplies of
raw materials would be used up. Instead, markets and human innovation have provided
greater efficiency. For instance, in the America of 1850, one acre of farmland could only
produce 1000 dollars worth of food crops. By 1950, however, new agricultural
technologies made it possible for one acre of farmland to produce more than 3000
dollars worth of food crops.
9. As for the environment, critics of population decline say reducing the population might
actually harm the planet because fewer people and greater wealth means more single
households and greater per capita consumption. For example, there are 300 to 600
million fewer people in China because of the one-child policy. However, as a result of
this decline, many Chinese have become wealthier and started consuming more and
this has had far more impact on the environment than the fact that there are 300 million
fewer poorer people. Therefore, it seems the real threat to the environment is not having
more poor people in the world but the wasteful lifestyles of the rich. In other words, when
we compare the lifestyles of the rich and the poor, the former cause a much greater
problem. Therefore, just as much as the size of the population, it is important to consider
the resources consumed by each person, and the damage done by the technologies
used to supply them. Finally, overcrowding is a problem of density, not population; there
is plenty of land available. The problem is that everyone wants to live in the cities: There
are fewer people living in the country today than there were in the 1920s and cities have
grown tremendously in size. So the proposed ‘benefits’ of population decline are, at the
very least, doubtful.
21 21 The “Snowball Effect” refers to the
A pace of population growth.

B current population levels.
C imbalance between population and resources.
D effect of population growth on the environment.
E dangers posed by climate change.
49
22 It can be inferred from the information in paragraph 2 that population growth in
Africa is
A unpredictable.
B unsustainable.
C unsteady.
D undetectable.
E unavoidable.
23 By saying “they finally stopped dying like flies”, a health expert emphasizes
the importance of
A a rapid, uncontrolled population increase.

B cooperating with agencies like the UNPA.
C developments in healthcare that prevented illnesses.
D using resources around the world more effectively.
E controlling insects that spread diseases.
24 The writer refers to Thomas Malthus in order to show that
A many people suffered from a lack of food and land 200 years ago.
B population growth was seen as a minor threat to human beings.
C impoverished nations did not try to stabilize the population.
D 200 years ago it was clear that over-population would be a problem.
E a slow rate of population growth could lead to serious problems.
25 The main purpose of paragraph 3 is to
A give information about a demographer.

B offer advice on population control.
C present the benefits of a low birth rate.
D introduce two sides of an argument.
E show the need to take precautions.
26 According to paragraph 4, economic growth leads to lower birth rates because
A people do not want to spend their money on having children.

B people do not need so many children to add to the family budget.
C strict measures are taken against population growth.
D some jobs discourage people from having children.
E people do not value family life as much as they did.
50
27 According to paragraph 5, what will happen as a result of the population decline?
A Developed countries will have much more orderly landscapes.

B People will start moving into forests and wild areas.
C Some of the land in developed countries will revert to its natural state.
D Fewer animals will live in areas that have become uninhabited.
E More land will become available for agricultural use.
28 According to paragraph 6, how does the writer feel regarding the worries about a
decrease in population?
A Irritated
B Sarcastic
C Shocked
D Offended
E Unsure
29 According to paragraph 7, a harmful result of population decline would be the
A rise in the number of unemployed people.

B elderly placing a financial burden on younger people.
C economic collapse of a number of European countries.
D failure to deal with economic growth.
E poor state of health of many older people.
30 The word slackens in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to
A accelerates.
B stabilizes.
C extends.
D terminates.
E decreases.
31 Philip Longman states that famine is caused by
A uncontrolled population growth.

B increased food production costs.
C inefficient production methods.
D ineffective government policies.
E inadequate land management.
32 According to paragraph 8, an increasing population is not a problem because
A people do not consume as much as they used to.

B new technologies in agriculture have been developed.
C the Americans have come up with a way of dealing with it.
D new supplies of raw materials are always being discovered.
E the transportation of agricultural products has become easier.
51
33 We learn from paragraph 9 that the author feels the one-child policy of China has
resulted in a(n)
A increase in consumption.
B more balanced society.
C equal distribution of wealth.
D improvement in healthcare.
E lack of natural resources.
34 In terms of population impact, rich countries are a greater threat than poor
countries because
A technology is promoted in these countries.

B the number of rich countries is increasing.
C population growth happens faster in rich countries.
D individuals use up too many resources in rich countries.
E people in rich countries can afford to have more children.
35 The main aim of the writer is to
A discuss different opinions on overpopulation and its effects on Earth’s

resources.
B encourage people to have more children to contribute to their country’s
economy.
C prove how population growth has affected many developed countries
positively.
D give people advice on what precautions they can take to control
population.
E warn people that overpopulation is the greatest problem mankind has ever
faced.
52
PAE SET 2 GRAMMAR
Questions 36-50
Chinese Astronaut
Chinese astronaut Liu Yang made history on June 16, 2012. She became her country’s
first female astronaut to travel into outer space _____(36)_____ she had only begun
her astronaut training two years earlier. The public has shown great interest in her space
flight, and now the country is obsessed with learning about her private life. Liu’s
popularity has increased to _____(37)_____ a great extent that a video of her speaking
in a school has become the most watched on the internet.
This interest in Liu as a personality is a new phenomenon in China. In 2003, when

China’s first astronaut, Chang Wei, made his space flight, the public was not very
interested in his accomplishment. In contrast to this, Liu’s flight was broadcast live on
more than 250 media channels. Space program officials called her flight ‘essential’
_____(38)_____ just for the development of space exploration, but also for China’s
position in the space race.
A couple of years ago, _____(39)_____ were only a few countries involved in human
space flight. China _____(40)_____ to be an unimportant competitor in the space race,
but this is no longer the case. Now, because the Russian and US space programs are
suffering from lack of investment, an opportunity has arisen in order for China
_____(41)_____ take the lead. Most Chinese citizens support their government’s efforts
and _____(42)_____ proud that their country is now beginning to make its mark in
space. However, critics claim that the country is spending far too much on an
unnecessary luxury.
36 A before B because C although D whenever E while
37 A much B such C very D so E many
38 A as B no C none D more E not
39 A most B there C these D many E they
40 A used B could C had D should E ought
41 A for B and C since D but E to
42 A is B was C are D were E would
53
Animal Rights
Many years ago, the famous Swedish author Astrid Lindgren, wrote a series of children's
stories about animals. One of the main features of these books was that all the animals
in the stories were badly treated, _____(43)_____ not commonly found in children’s
books. But the effect was astonishing and the public immediately put pressure
_____(44)_____ the government to look at the issue of animal cruelty. In short, these
stories were instrumental in persuading the Swedish government to pass a series of
laws in order to provide legal protection for animals.
Under Swedish law, all domestic animals, _____(45)_____ cows, pigs and even
chickens, are protected. The laws are far-reaching and cover all areas of animal welfare.
For example, all farm animals must have access to food, water and light, and all animals,
the law states, must _____(46)_____ from unnecessary cruelty even when they are
killed for food. Farmers also need to ensure that their animals are kept as comfortable
as possible. Cows, the law says, must have fresh grass to eat and pigs' living quarters
need to be divided into separate areas _____(47)_____ feeding and sleeping. The rule
is quite simple: the welfare of the animal always comes first and this _____(48)_____
just refer to farm animals or pets. Scientific research is also included. The number of
scientific experiments carried out on animals is to be reduced _____(49)_____ possible.
Researchers have been advised _____(50)_____ alternative methods of testing
cosmetics and new drugs.
43 A anything B nothing C is D are E something
44 A to B on C in D of E at
45 A such B so C like D for E as
46 A save B saved C have saved D be saved E been saved
47 A before B after C to D about E for
48 A doesn’t B isn’t C never D didn’t E not
49 A unless B if C only if D if only E if not
50 A for finding B finding C to find D find E for find
54
Questions 51-70
Sleeping Problems
Nearly everyone complains about insomnia, lack of sleep. Many effects of lack of sleep,
such as feeling grumpy and not working at your best, are well known. Between 5 and
10 million people have sleeping problems, and around half a million people are
_____(51)_____ to suffer from serious sleep disorders and its effects. But did you know
that poor sleep can also have a profound _____(52)_____ on your physical health?
Anxiety about the effects of poor sleep is a major preoccupation and a lot of people feel
that it might be necessary to _____(53)_____ a specialist to deal with the problem.
A variety of factors can cause poor sleep, including health conditions such as sleep
apnoea. Also, insomnia was once thought to be unimportant, but now it is taken
seriously as a possible _____(54)_____ of underlying illnesses. Nevertheless, many
people who _____(55)_____ themselves insomniacs may be simply kept awake by
worry, coffee, alcohol or being overweight. Those people have experienced the fatigue,
short temper and lack of _____(56)_____ that often follow a poor night’s sleep. If it
continues for a prolonged period, lack of sleep can affect your physical health and make
you _____(57)_____ to serious medical conditions, such as obesity and diabetes.
Besides, long-standing sleep deprivation seems to be _____(58)_____ with increased
heart rate and blood pressure and higher levels of certain chemicals linked with
inflammation, which may put extra strain on your heart. There is no _____(59)_____
that sleep is essential to health. However, the question of how to solve this problem
_____(60)_____ unanswered.
55
51 51 A neglected B estimated C initiated D urged E restrained
52 52 A attempt B restriction C implication D impact E insight
53 53 A consult B verify C compromise D reinforce E engage
54 54 A reaction B distraction C inclusion D prohibition E indicator
55 55 A regard B adjust C consider D devote E cease
56 56 A knowledge B interaction C response D focus E conflict
57 57 A conscious B suitable C vulnerable D accountable E cynical
58 58 A specialized B associated C occupied D disturbed E abandoned
59 59 A doubt B struggle C result D progression E recovery
60 60 A keeps B maintains C discovers D expects E remains
56
NLP
Neuro-Linguistic Programming (NLP) is a methodology for helping people make
dramatic changes in their lives. It is based on the idea that with our physical senses we
can only _____(61)_____ a small part of the world. However, NLP embodies several
techniques that can help people _____(62)_____ their way of thinking and deal with a
variety of personal issues such as changing negative beliefs and dealing with fears more
effectively. NLP can be applied to any area of human activity. It has been used to
achieve _____(63)_____ in sport, training, business, education, music and the arts.
Managers find that their managerial skills improve and educators find ways to involve
students more _____(64)_____ so that the students learn better. NLP is also used to
make _____(65)_____ to our behaviour through positive thinking.
Let us now think of an example. What is the best way to make someone,
_____(66)_____ a child, drop something? Say “Mind you don’t drop it.” If you tell
children "Don’t make a mess”, a mess is what they will make. You have announced your
_____(67)_____. This announcement indicates that you have already _____(68)_____
the tray being dropped, the room being untidy and, surprise, the wheels are set in motion
and what we warn against is what happens. So, avoid making negative
_____(69)_____. Instead, try saying “Could you please keep the room tidy?” or “Make
sure you keep those drinks on the tray." Immediately, you have a more positive image
of the _____(70)_____ outcome of events and your brain and body become
subconsciously programmed to achieve it.
61 A cope B found C perceive D manage E determine
62 A enable B shift C identify D prove E realise
63 A excellence B performance C recommendation D significance E admission
64 A gradually B reportedly C rapidly D safely E fully
65 A restrictions B interventions C modifications D innovations E implications
66 A primarily B strangely C carelessly D purely E particularly
67 A complaints B explanations C fortunes D expectations E possibilities
68 A targeted B warned C visualised D wished E confirmed
69 A effects B statements C attempts D deals E sacrifices
70 A deliberate B desirable C external D valuable E steady
57
PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 2
LISTENING PART 1 &

TAKING BOOKLET
58
the questions.
NUMBER ONE
1 The student failed the course because she
A got a low grade from the exam.

B had to stay in hospital for a few days.
C could not attend classes for two days.
D did not have a sick report.
E missed an exam last week.
2 In order to get an answer to her question, the student needs to
A ask at the Health Centre.

B read the student handbook.
C send an email to the directorate.
D contact someone in her department.
E go to Student Services in person.
3 Mr Johnson’s attitude towards the student is
A supportive.
B cautious.
C critical.
D aggressive.
E indifferent.
59
NUMBER TWO
4 The student would like to know if producers
A receive fines if they do not obey the rules.

B have the legal right to increase their prices.
C spend a lot of time growing organic food.
D should be trusted when making food choices.
E need a legal certification to sell organic food.
5 According to the professor, in order to regard food as ‘organic’, the most

important factor is
A the quality of the seeds.

B using clean water.
C no use of fertilizers.
D the condition of the land.
E no use of pesticides.
6 The professor criticizes the fact that
A the government does not support agriculture.

B farmers use fertilizers to make more money.
C people pay a lot of money to eat organic food.
D most vegetables on the market are not healthy.
E people face health problems due to pesticides.
60
NUMBER THREE
7 Emily does not eat in the Daphne Restaurant because she does not like the
A price.
B food.
C queue.
D building.
E smell.
8 Emily does not bring her lunch to school because
A she does not like cooking at all.

B her friends in the dormitory eat it all.
C she does not have any cooking equipment.
D she is not allowed to cook in the dormitory.
E her friends want her to eat with them.
9 Emily does not like eating in the canteen because
A there is a limited variety of food.

B they do not serve food after 13:30.
C it is far from her department.
D she thinks the food is not tasty.
E she does not want to eat fattening food.
61
NUMBER FOUR
10 To be able to use the football pitch, students should
A have a Sports Centre membership.

B have a university identification card.
C pay for it a couple of days in advance.
D bring the necessary equipment.
E contact the reception in the dormitory.
11 Kevin will not play football with Susan on Thursday because
A he does not like playing with girls.

B he has been feeling ill lately.
C they do not need another player.
D Susan does not ask him to join her.
E he needs to prepare for an exam.
12 Susan and Kevin will be ‘perfect partners’ because
A both of them like doing sports.

B they have been friends for a long time.
C both of them enjoy the history course.
D they can share their lesson notes.
E both of them are good students.
62
NUMBER FIVE
13 Years ago, the Romans used the pine tree to decorate their
A neighbourhood.
B religious places.
C festival areas.
D winter homes.
E spring gardens.
14 Early Christmas trees were
A so tall that they touched the ceiling.

B put into pots without any branches.
C brought inside the house to flower.
D in the shape of an Egyptian pyramid.
E displayed in homes for a long time.
15 In ancient times, Christians did not like the practice of having a Christmas tree
because it
A led to the destruction of forests.

B created conflict with other societies.
C caused hostility among people.
D was regarded as a Pagan belief.
E had never been part of their culture.
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You are going to listen to a lecture about water. As you listen, take notes under
the headings provided. Your notes will not be marked. You will be given questions
to answer using your notes. Some background information is provided below
about the topic.
************************************************************************************
************
Water is our most precious natural resource and one that is limited. In recent years, the
number of conflicts that have arisen over water has increased dramatically. This is an
important issue and one that has to be taken seriously.
1. BACKGROUND INFORMATION - how much water do we have?
2. SERIOUS ISSUES
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3. CONTAMINATED WATER
4. WASTE DISPOSAL
65
5. MAJOR GLOBAL CONFLICT
6. THREE GUIDELINES FOR AVOIDING GLOBAL CONFLICT
7. CONCLUSION
66
Use your notes about water to answer the following questions. On the answer
sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for each question. Give only one answer to
each question.
16 How much of the Earth’s water is currently available for human consumption?
A 7%
B 3%
C 1%
D 6%
E 4%
17 At the World Water Forum, Gorbachev stated that the “right to water” could
not be
A avoided.
B taken away.
C underestimated.
D ignored.
E agreed upon.
18 The speaker gives the example of hospital beds to show that
A there is a lack of resources to deal with water-related illnesses.

B doctors are fighting a losing battle against water-related illnesses.
C water-related illnesses only affect people who live in poor rural areas.
D there are millions of people suffering from water-related illnesses.
E the most serious diseases are those that are water-related.
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19 By the year 2025, how many people will have no access to safe water?
A 1.1 billion
B 1.6 billion
C 2.8 billion
D 6.1 billion
E 2.3 billion
20 Which one of the following was not mentioned by the speaker as an example of
a country that is suffering as a result of global industrialisation?
A Egypt
B Israel
C Mexico
D Pakistan
E India
21 In the United States, most of the water pollution caused by agriculture comes
from
A cattle and sheep.
B animal waste.
C pesticides.
D farming equipment.
E food crops.
22 The negative effects of waste disposal can be seen

A in countries all over the world.
B mainly in developing countries.
C in several European countries.
D mainly in countries with large lakes.
E only in industrialised countries.
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23 Too many nitrates in the water is leading to a
A reduction in the number of European lakes.

B drying up of many European lakes.
C decrease in the aquatic life in European lakes.
D lack of phosphorous in European lakes.
E rise in the temperatures of European lakes.
24 According to the speaker, today, water conflicts are
A believed to be easily avoidable.

B concerned with different issues than those in the past.
C connected with the issue of who controls access to ports.
D related to how powerful a country believes itself to be.
E linked to the availability of oil resources.
25 The CIA’s report on water conflict shows that
A there is a growing awareness of the problem.

B all countries are now aware of the situation.
C action will be taken to avoid future problems.
D the US government will try and find a solution.
E at the moment the situation is under control.
26 Which one of the following potential trouble spots is given as an example?
A Turkey and Iran

B Israel and Jordan
C India and Pakistan
D Egypt and Syria
E Iraq and Ethiopia
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27 The tradable-usage rights system allows farmers to
A have access to cleaner and cheaper water.

B decide how much money they should pay for water.
C sell any water that flows through their land.
D grow crops which need less water.
E adopt a more careful attitude towards water usage.
28 One of the main problems with most governments and their water policies is that
they
A tend to think only of their own country.

B often lack technical expertise.
C make decisions based on political relations.
D have little interest in the problem.
E blame other countries for the problem.
29 What was the main source of disagreement at the Istanbul World Water Forum?
A The mismanagement of water

B The centralisation of water control
C The benefits of building dams
D The privatisation of water
E The protection of the environment
30 At the end of the lecture, the speaker concludes by implying that
A water is actually more important than oil.

B water wars will certainly happen in the future.
C the comparison between oil and water is a good one.
D fighting over water is an issue for individual countries.
E water will cost us a lot more in the future.
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PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 2
WRITING PARTS 1 & 2

BOOKLET
71
In the text below, the writer discusses a new trend in movies. In your opinion, is
this trend problematic? Write a paragraph of approximately 150 words.
Clearly identify what this new trend is and write what you think about it by
referring to relevant arguments in the text and expanding upon these arguments.

be penalized.
‘Bad guys’ have always been used in storytelling to get people to side with the ‘good
guy’. However, in recent films, the role of villains has changed significantly. For example,
Malificent is not Disney’s traditional evil witch trying to poison young women; she is a
misunderstood fairy acting out in anger.
The Wolf of Wall Street film glamorizes the true story of a drug-crazed stockbroker who
cheats investors to enrich himself. The FBI agent (i.e. the good guy) pursuing him is
portrayed as a sad, ineffectual man and the cost to the many victims is never
considered. For some, this ‘humanizing’ of villains is a dangerous game that leads to
blurred lines between good and evil as people begin to openly identify more with villains
than heroes. For parents especially, this can be quite disturbing because it feels like
filmmakers care more about why villains kill, for example, than the fact that they commit
cold-blooded murder. They feel this trend of sympathizing with villains undermines efforts
to teach children the difference between right and wrong.
Others believe that understanding villains is a crucial part of identifying people who need
help and ultimately preventing crime. DC’s newest interpretation of the Joker is unique
because it is the first time this villain has been given his own movie. The movie’s dive
into the mind of a criminal is a disturbing tale of mental insanity brought about by abuse
and neglect. Traditional portrayals of mentally ill villains, like past Jokers, tended to play
into already harmful stigma about mental illness. The new trend of sympathy for villains
reflects a belief that people who do evil are simply misunderstood victims of their
circumstances. Showing criminals’ and villains’ humanity and what led them to lives of
crime may be crucial to understanding that anyone might be the same under certain
circumstances, hopefully making us more compassionate of those who need help.
72
of about 350 words.
Social media has opened up the world and today, people have access to all kinds of
news from all around the globe. There is no limit to what is available. However, it is also
important to know how to critically evaluate what you read, this is especially important
when it comes to the news. People need to be aware of the fact that there is a lot of
fake news around.
In your opinion, is fake news a serious issue that needs to be addressed?
OR
Stress has become a serious issue today. More and more people are seeking medical
help and are on medication to help relieve their stress. However, there are ways to
reduce or even eliminate stress from our lives. A good diet and regular exercise are just
two examples of how we can do this.
In your opinion, what is the biggest cause of stress today and how can people reduce
their stress
levels?
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PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 3
74
READING, GRAMMAR &
VOCABULARY BOOKLET
75
Questions 1-8
Read the following three passages. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C,
Venice
Venice, a stunning European city of over 100 islands and a popular tourist destination,
is under threat from climate change. According to a new study, Venice could face major
problems with rising ocean tides in as little as 10 years. The study looked at statistical
information gathered by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) and
calculated that Venice could soon become flooded or worse. It appears that higher
barriers will be needed to save Venice but, more importantly, new solutions need to be
found to address the climate change issue and many countries are turning to the IPCC
for leadership.
The IPCC is an international body that assesses climate change. Its purpose is to
provide accurate scientific views on climate change and its potential socio-economic
and environmental consequences. In other words, this body is attempting to skirt any
flawed scientific reports that disguise the real effect of climate change and instead
will provide more balanced and precise scientific information. Currently, the IPCC is
advocating much better enforcement of environmental policies in as many countries as
possible worldwide. It is certainly desirable that countries have the courage to follow this
advice.
It is chilling to think that the oceans’ tides could rise and threaten cities like Venice.
Imagine what would happen if this trend continued. Other great cities like New York,
Tokyo and Istanbul could also face the danger of flooding. Losing these great centres
of civilisation would surely be devastating for the global community.
1 ‘attempting to skirt any flawed scientific reports’ means that the IPCC
A reports are useful to keep climate change under control.

B is dealing with current problems related to climate change.
C disagrees with the existing scientific information available.
D is trying to avoid the use of inaccurate scientific reports.
E intends to commission a new scientific report on the issue.
2 According to the last sentence in paragraph 2, the writer hopes that
A the IPCC can start to do something about climate change.
B developing countries will follow stricter guidelines.
C the IPCC will help countries understand climate change.
D the advice will be shared by scientists in all countries.
E more countries will start to take climate change seriously.
3 The main aim of paragraph 3 is to

A explain predictable future climate change trends.
B express concern over what may happen in the future.
C describe the causes of climate change in several cities.
D demonstrate how the global community could be saved.
E comment on the measures being taken in different cities.
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Anechoic Chamber
They say silence is golden – but there is a room somewhere in the USA which is so
quiet that it becomes unbearable after a short time. The longest anyone has survived in
this room, or anechoic chamber, at Orfield laboratories is 45 minutes. It is 99.99 per
cent sound absorbent and is the world’s quietest place.
Ironically, rather than enjoying this, most people find its perfect quiet upsetting. Being
deprived of the usual reassuring sounds can cause fear – this explains why sensory
deprivation is a form of torture and also why astronauts do part of their training in
anechoic chambers. They need to be able to cope with the silence of space if something
goes wrong. The presence of sound means things are working; when sound is absent,
that signals malfunction. On the day of the 9/11 terrorist attacks, a huge number of
trekkers in rural New York State abandoned their walks and returned home, not because
they had heard about the attacks but because they felt uncomfortable due to the
absence of air traffic noise and sensed something was wrong.
Being in an anechoic chamber for longer than 15 minutes can cause extreme symptoms,
from panic attacks to aural hallucinations – you literally start hearing things. When it’s
quiet, your ears will adapt. The quieter the room, the more things you hear. You'll hear
your heart beating, or your stomach gurgling or sometimes even your lungs. In the
anechoic chamber, you become the sound. This is such a disorientating experience
that walking around becomes impossible. As the director of Orfield laboratories
explains, "How you orient yourself is through the sounds you hear when you walk. In
the anechoic chamber, you don't have this. You take away the perceptual cues that
allow you to remain upright and manoeuvre. If you're in there for 30 minutes, you have
to be in a chair."
4 According to the text, when there is complete silence, people

A think they can cope better.
B feel there is a problem.
C struggle to concentrate.
D continue what they are doing.
E have conflicting emotion.

A show that some professionals should be trained for silence.
B support why the majority of people like the idea of silence.
C exemplify how much humans are used to hearing sounds.
D encourage the readers to stay away from noise in cities.
E present practical solutions to the problem of silence.
6 What does the writer mean by ‘you become the sound’?
A The person in the room starts hearing the sounds of his body.
B The sound in the room helps the person to move more easily.
C The laboratory asks the person to make noise in the room.
D The person’s heart starts to beat more quickly in the room.
E The person makes so much noise by walking in the room.
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Chinampas
Birds fly low over a flat-bottomed boat navigating a canal and rest in one of the
ahuehuete trees on the river bank. In a nearby field an elderly farmer with a straw hat
checks his lettuces while another man admires his sweet-smelling white flowers.
Welcome to San Gregorio Atlapulco, a paradise in the middle of the watery corridor
along the south-eastern edge of Mexico City, the Mexican capital. This is one of the
places where you can still see the island gardens, known as chinampas, that once
sustained Tenochtitlan, the great Aztec capital.
These flat and fertile gardens, built from piles of mud, were producing tomatoes and red
peppers before the appearance of the Aztecs in the area in the 14th century. The
chinampas continued to develop as the Aztec empire and its capital – also built on a
specially constructed island – flourished. But today the clock is ticking for the chinampas
and the way of life they represent. Their slow decline began once the Spanish conquest
brought a new urban culture that encouraged domination of the wet environment rather
than working in harmony with it. However, the real danger of destruction only emerged
hundreds of years later, when Mexico City’s population exploded. A ban on construction
towards the end of the 20th century helped slow the process, but some building
continued, as did the chaotic urbanisation that reduces and contaminates the water in
the canals.
Taking a break from his work, 72-year-old Sabino Martinez can see the new metro
terminal construction and some hills farther south that used to be covered in cornfields
not so long ago. “It was once very beautiful here, but those days will never return,” he
says. “Now we are going to become just another part of the metropolis.”
A suggest when it is best to visit the gardens there.

B show how people can reach San Gregorio Atlapulco.
C describe what San Gregorio Atlapulco is like.
D explain why farmers need to plant vegetables there.
E criticize how much San Gregorio Atlapulco is destroyed.
8 It can be understood from the text that before the arrival of the Aztecs
A people in this area built their houses of mud.

B people were already growing crops in this area.
C this area was known for its sweet-smelling flowers.
D it was hard for people in this area to get enough food.
E the gardens in this area were used as places of worship.
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Questions 9-20
Read the following two passages. On the answer sheet mark the letter A, B, C, D
or E for each question. Give only one answer to each question.
Child Labour
The International Labour Organisation (ILO) has estimated that 250 million children
between the ages of five and fourteen work in developing countries – at least 120 million
on a full time basis. 61% of these children are in Asia, 32% in Africa and 7% in Latin
America. Most working children in rural areas work in the agricultural sector. Many
children also work as servants and urban children work mainly in trade and services,
with fewer in manufacturing and construction.
Child labour ranges from four year olds tied down to keep them from running away to
seventeen year olds helping out on the family farm. In some cases, a child’s work can
be helpful to him or her and to the family; working and earning can be a positive
experience for a child growing up. This depends largely on the age of the child, the
conditions in which the child works and whether work prevents the child from going to
school.
The Children’s Rights Division at Human Rights Watch has focussed its efforts on the
worst forms of child labour. Children, who work long hours, often in dangerous and
unhealthy conditions, are exposed to lasting physical and psychological harm. Children,
who work making rugs and carpets for example, are disabled with eye damage, lung
disease and a susceptibility to arthritis, as they grow older. Children making silk thread
in India dip their hands into boiling water that burns them, breathe smoke and fumes
from machinery, handle dead worms that can cause infections and guide twisting
threads that cut their fingers. Children harvesting sugar cane use knives to cut the sugar
cane plant for up to nine hours a day in the hot sun; injuries to their hands and legs are
common and medical care is often not available.
Denied an education and a normal childhood, some children are confined and beaten
and reduced to slavery. Some are denied freedom of movement, that is the right to leave
the workplace and go home to their families. Some are abducted and forced to work.
The human rights abuses in these practices are clear and acute. There are similar
problems in Asia, the Middle East, Latin America and the United States: children who
work for too many hours and too many days, for too little and sometimes for no pay, are
often subject to physical abuse and made to work with very dangerous tools. Public
attention needs to be drawn to these aspects of the complex and troubling child labour
issue.
Child labour takes many different forms. One of these is known as ‘Bonded Labour’.
Bonded labour takes place when a family receives an advance payment, sometimes as
little as $15, and they hand over a child to an employer. In most cases the child cannot
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work off the debt, nor can the family raise enough money to buy the child back. The
workplace is often structured so that “expenses” are deducted from a child’s earnings
in such amounts that it is almost impossible for the family to repay the debt. In some
cases the labour is generational, that is a child’s grandfather or great-grandfather
made a promise to an employer many years earlier, with the understanding that each
generation would provide the employer with a new worker, often with no pay at all.
Understandably, people are concerned about child labour and there are numerous
groups trying to tackle this issue. UNICEF, the ILO and other organisations are co-
operatively trying to develop a holistic strategy to prevent children from losing their
childhood, education and opportunities by being trapped in bonded labour.
Internationally, it is crucial that these larger organisations work together with local
groups to support efforts to bring about change worldwide.
9 According to paragraphs 1 and 2, which of the following is true about working

children?
A Most children have full time jobs in developing countries.
B Children can benefit from having a job if the conditions are right.
C It is preferable for children to work in the agricultural sector.
D The lowest number of child labourers is found in Asia.
E India has the worst working conditions for child labourers.
10 The main idea of paragraph 3 is to
A prove that children become physically stronger due to the conditions.
B suggest that working children should be given better medical aid.
C claim that parents should protect children from harsh conditions.
D support that working children can cope with extreme conditions.
E show that children suffer in different ways due to working conditions.
11 In paragraph 4, the writer suggests that
A people are not fully aware of the seriousness of the issue.
B children are not treated badly in the developed world.
C many families do not want their children to be educated.
D some children are not allowed to see their parents again.
E most working children do not want to receive education.
12 In paragraph 5, ‘the labour is generational’ means that
A a child from each generation is promised to an employer.
B each generation needs to work to pay off the family debt.
C all members of the family work together for one generation.
D each generation has to work under different conditions.
E children work side by side with the older generation.
13 According to paragraph 5, many children who work as part of the bonded labour
system
A are born and die in the workplace.
B are taken from their family at birth.
C earn almost no money.
D are sold back to their family.
E are paid for their expenses.
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14 According to the last paragraph, the organisations working together are trying
to
A support the work of UNICEF.
B make higher profits.
C raise awareness locally.
D educate local organisations.
E ensure global support for reform.
Bluenose
The sea lies mirror calm as it has been for the last three days. Giant waves slide beneath
our ship. She is Bluenose II, on her first voyage, and now two months bound out of Nova
Scotia. We are five degrees north of the equator and seeking an elusive spot of land
somewhere to the west. Three hundred miles behind us is the jungle shore of Costa
Rica. We are surrounded by silence.
Until only one week ago, I had been working on pressure experiments in Philadelphia.
A post graduate fellowship had enabled me to begin my studies of diving medicine at
the University of Pennsylvania. It had been an exciting time, but the weather and
workload had been such that, when I received a call from the Canadian Broadcasting
Corporation asking if I would join a filming expedition as a doctor, I leapt at the
opportunity. After all, it would only be a two-week interruption in my work, and I would
have the opportunity to take a lot of photographs. The chance for adventure was
irresistible.
On the horizon, three smudges of rain cloud slowly appear. They release their soft
grey colour and gradually become threatening. Beneath me, heavier waves begin to lift
the boat. “Island!" a voice shouts out. Figures cluster on the ship's deck railing above
me. “There she is! It’s her for sure! What a beauty!” The island sits like a green crown
on a submerged mountain. It is the only land in hundreds of miles of sea.
The first map of the island was sketched in 1541. The land was called Cocos because
of the coconut trees that grew on its shoreline and interior. There is no record of the first
voyager to discover this tropical jungle in the Pacific. Probably it was a Spanish sailor
exploring the far-water boundaries of his country.
It is easy to understand why this tiny spot was overlooked during the sixteenth century.
Navigation was an art and not a science. Cocos was an island only three and a half
miles across in a hidden sea. It had a certain ghostly quality that still remains. A ship
travelling close by can be carried away by strong local currents. Many ships pass within
a few miles without ever glimpsing a trace of land.
The exact location of Cocos was at first difficult to pinpoint. Capricious geographers
placed the island south, and then north, of the equator. Some ignored it altogether, and
said it didn’t exist. The first real visitors were probably whalers who would often leave
their steaming ships for temporary refreshment in the cool forests ashore. They sought
the sweet water which splashed into the sea, climbing the tall steep mountains to do so.
Then they carried countless loads of wood, coconut, and other fruit into their waiting
boats.
Cocos might have continued its remoteness indefinitely if a certain ship had not
anchored under a shadow in 1820. Somewhere below the cool red earth, sweating and
cursing men laid millions of dollars of buried treasure never to return again. These men
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were the crew of a wind-torn Portuguese ship, the ship of the Portuguese pirate, Benito.
He was anything but kindly. He was a pale-eyed killer who threatened the seacoast
between Peru and Mexico. He had such a savage manner that even the most
despicable of his crew detested him. For his own protection, he spent most of his time
locked in his cabin. He survived on deck only by carrying a loaded pistol. Immediately
after anchoring his ship, Benito led his crew ashore to bury the treasure. Many large
trunks were dragged across the beach and into the jungle. Since then, this secret of
Cocos, which is said to be worth a fortune, has haunted men’s minds. And the stories
you hear about it are full of myth and fact, murder and mystery.
15 The narrator has been at sea for

A two months.
B two weeks.
C one week.
D three days.
E five days.
16 The narrator is a
A medical specialist.
B broadcaster.
C professional diver.
D photographer.
E sailor.
17 We can understand from the text that the crew of the Bluenose II is going to the
island of Cocos to
A obtain fresh fruit and water.
B make a documentary.
C map out its exact position.
D find the lost treasure.
E write a history of the island.
18 ‘she’ in paragraph 3 refers to the

A mountain.
B island.
C ship.
D woman.
E sea.
19 Which of the following statements about the island is correct?
A Spanish people have lived there since 1820.
B It can be easily seen from a passing ship.
C Most ships anchor there for food.
D It was first recorded in the year 1541.
E The narrator is the first person on the island.
20 According to the text, Benito
A and the story about the treasure is untrue.
B and his crew never returned for the treasure.
C was most probably killed by his crew.
D let the crew steal the treasure from him.
E got on well with and was liked by his crew.
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Questions 21 – 35
Read the following passage. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E
for each question. Give one answer only for each question.
1. It was the end of term at Kirkkojarvi Comprehensive School in Espoo, a suburb west
of Helsinki – the capital of Finland, when Kari Louhivuori, an experienced teacher,
decided to try something extreme – by Finnish standards. One of his sixth-grade
students, a Kosovo-Albanian boy was resisting his best efforts. The school’s team of
special educators including a social worker, a nurse and a psychologist were convinced
that laziness was not to blame. So Louhivuori decided to hold the boy back a year, a
measure very rare in this country. 13-year-old Besart Kabashi became Louhivuori’s
private student. Years later, Besart showed up at the school’s Christmas party with a
bottle of wine and a big smile. “You helped me,” he told his former teacher. Besart had
opened his own car repair firm and a cleaning company. “No big fuss,” said Louhivuori.
“This is what we do every day, prepare kids for life whatever it takes.”
2. ‘Whatever it takes’ is an attitude that drives not just Kirkkojarvi’s 30 teachers, but most
of Finland’s 62,000 educators who are among the top 10 percent of the nation’s
graduates. Many schools are small enough so that teachers know every student. If one
method fails, teachers consult with colleagues to try something else and they seem to
relish the challenges. Nearly 30 percent of Finland’s children receive some kind of
special help during their first nine years of school. The school where Louhivuori teaches
had 240 pupils last year; and in contrast with Finland’s reputation for ethnic
homogeneity, more than half of its 150 elementary-level students are immigrants – from
Somalia, Iraq, Russia, Bangladesh, Estonia and Ethiopia, among other nations.
“Wealthy families may consider sending their kids to private schools,” Louhivuori said
smiling. “We try to catch the weak students, no matter where they’re from. It’s deep in
our thinking.”
3. The transformation of the Finnish education system began some 50 years ago as the
key factor in the country’s economic recovery plan. Educators had little idea it was so
successful until 2000, when the first results from the Programme for International
Student Assessment (PISA), a standardized test given to 15-year-olds in more than 40
global venues, revealed Finnish youth to be the best young readers in the world. Three
years later, they led in math. By 2006, Finland was first out of 57 countries in science.
In the 2009 PISA scores, the nation came in second in science, third in reading and
sixth in math among nearly half a million students worldwide. “I’m still surprised,” said
Timo Heikkinen, principal of a Helsinki comprehensive school. “I didn’t realize we were
that good.”
4. Timo Heikkinen and many more are right to be surprised, not because they
underestimate what is being achieved in Finnish schools, but because they believe
countries like the USA are the leaders in education just like in any other field. However,
what they have missed is that these leading countries, especially the United States,
have been muddling along for the past decade. The PISA 2010 results show that the
American ranking fell from 24th to 29th in math, from 19th to 22nd in science, and from
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10th to 20th in reading. What Timo Heikkinen and his colleagues also didn’t know is that
in order to fix the problem, American government officials have attempted to introduce
marketplace competition into public schools thinking that this will lead to fierce
competition among schools and therefore an increase in student performance. Former
President Obama, too, supported competition. His ‘Race to the Top’ initiative invited all
states to use tests and other methods to measure not students but teachers, a
philosophy that would not fly in Finland. “I think, in fact, teachers would tear off their
shirts,” said Heikkinen when he heard the real story. “If you only measure the statistics,
you miss the human aspect.”
5. Ironically, both teachers and students in Finland spend fewer hours at school each
day and spend less time in classrooms. Teachers use the time they are not teaching to
build curriculums and assess their students. Children spend far more time playing
outside, even in the depths of winter. Homework is minimal. Compulsory schooling does
not begin until age 7. “We are not in any hurry,” said Louhivuori. “Children learn better
when they are ready. Why stress them out?” There are no mandated standardized tests
in Finland, apart from one exam at the end of students’ senior year in high school. There
are no rankings, no comparisons or competition between students, schools or teachers.
6. The majority of the schools in Finland are publicly funded. The people in the
government agencies running them, from national officials to local authorities, are
educators, not business people, military leaders or career politicians. Every school has
the same national goals and draws from the same pool of university-trained educators.
The result is that a Finnish child has a good shot at getting the same quality education
no matter whether he or she lives in a rural village or a university town. The differences
between the weakest and strongest students are the smallest in the world, according to
the most recent survey by the Organization for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD). “Equality is the most important word in Finnish education. All
political parties on the right and left agree on this,” said Olli Luukkainen, president of
Finland’s powerful teachers union. It’s almost unheard of for a child to show up hungry
or homeless. Finland provides three years of maternity leave and subsidized day care
to parents, and preschool for all 5-year-olds, where the emphasis is on play and
socializing. In addition, the state subsidizes parents, paying them around 150 Euros per
month for every child until he or she turns 17. Ninety-seven percent of 6-year-olds attend
public preschool, where children learn some basics. Schools provide food, medical care,
counselling and taxi service if needed. Student health care is free.
7. Finland’s schools were not always a wonder. Until the late 1960s, Finns were still
emerging from the effects of Soviet influence. For hundreds of years, these fiercely
independent people had been wedged between two rival powers—the Swedish
monarchy to the west and the Russian Czar to the east. Considering themselves neither
Scandinavian nor Baltic, Finns were proud of their Nordic roots and their unique
language that only they could love (or pronounce). In 1809, Finland was given to Russia
by the Swedes, who had ruled its people for some 600 years. The czar created the
Grand Duchy of Finland, a quasi-state with constitutional ties to the empire. He moved
the capital from Turku, near Stockholm, to Helsinki, closer to St. Petersburg. After the
czar was killed by the Bolsheviks in 1917, Finland declared its independence, throwing
the country into civil war. Three more wars between 1939 and 1945—two with the
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Soviets, one with Germany—left the country scarred by bitter divisions and a punishing
debt owed to the Russians. “Still we managed to keep our freedom,” said Pasi Sahlberg,
a director general in the Ministry of Education and Culture.
8. In 1963, the Finnish Parliament made the bold decision to choose public education
as its best shot at economic recovery. “I call this the Big Dream of Finnish education,”
said Sahlberg, whose upcoming book, Finnish Lessons, is scheduled for release in
October. “It was simply the idea that every child would have a very good public school
education. If we want to be competitive, we need to educate everybody. It all came out
of a need to survive." The second critical decision came in 1979, when reformers
required every teacher to have a master’s degree in theory and practice from one of
eight state universities—at state expense. From then on, teachers were effectively
granted equal status with doctors and lawyers. Applicants began flooding teaching
programs, not because the salaries were so high but because autonomy and respect
made the job attractive. In 2010, some 6,600 applicants competed for 660 primary
school training slots.
9. However, there are still challenges. Finland’s crippling financial collapse in the early
90’s brought fresh economic challenges to this “confident and assertive Eurostate,” as
David Kirby calls it in A Concise History of Finland. At the same time, immigrants poured
into the country, living in poor neighbourhoods and placing extra strain on schools. A
recent report by the Academy of Finland warned that some schools in the country’s
large cities were becoming more skewed by race and class since wealthy, white Finns
choose schools with fewer poor, immigrant populations. A few years ago, Kallahti
principal, Timo Heikkinen began noticing that wealthy Finnish parents, perhaps worried
about the rising number of immigrant children at Kallahti, had begun sending their
children to one of two other schools nearby. In response, Heikkinen and his teachers
designed new environmental science courses that take advantage of the school’s
proximity to the forest. A new biology lab with 3-D technology allows older students to
observe blood flowing inside the human body. “We have yet to catch on,” Heikkinen
admits, “but we are always looking for ways to improve.” In other words, whatever it
takes.
21 Which of the following is true according to the information in paragraph 1?
A Kari Louhivuori wanted to fail a student due to his disruptive behaviour.

B Kari Louhivuori was used to teaching students with learning problems.
C Besart Kabashi used to work and study to look after his family.
D Besart Kabashi benefitted a lot from what he was made to do at school.
E Kari Louhivuori was asked to become a private tutor for foreign students.
22 ‘Whatever it takes’ is an attitude where
A teachers keep working to find a solution.

B students accept the challenges their teachers create.
C schools reward their enthusiastic teachers.
D teachers refuse to use the traditional methods.
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E teachers have special training to work with immigrants.
23 The transformation that the Finnish education system went through was
A part of a scheme to improve the country’s economy.

B initially planned to improve teaching in science and math.
C expected to increase the number of students studying science.
D intended to help students do well in international exams.
E completed long before it had been originally planned.
24 The main reason why most Finnish educators were surprised at the PISA results
is that they
A did not expect such a quick change.

B undervalued the abilities of their students.
C did not expect such a combined effort.
D overestimated the education in developed countries.
E did not expect their teachers to be that dedicated.
25 With the new educational plan, the American government expects
A parents to send their kids to public schools.

B schools to compete with one another.
C students to take more international exams.
D teachers to design their own curriculum.
E teachers to design more challenging tests.
26 In paragraph 4, what is it that would make teachers ‘tear off their shirts’?
A Assessing teachers according to their performance

B Underestimating the difficult work conditions
C Expecting students to compete with their classmates
D Using statistics to make changes in the instruction
E Transforming public schools into private schools
27 What would be the best heading for paragraph 5?
A Unfair Competition at School

B Outdoor Instruction
C A Preschool Education
D Assessment Policy
E An Unusual Way to Success
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28 According to paragraph 6, one reason for the success of the Finnish education
system is
A schools are run by a team of experts from different professions.

B the same standards apply to both rural and urban schools.
C schools are selective when employing new teachers.
D decisions are taken by the representatives of all political parties.
E preschool is compulsory for all 5 and 6 year old kids.
29 According to paragraph 6, which of the following service sector slogans would

be used to describe the Finnish education system?
A First come, first served

B The customer is always right
C We have an open-door policy
D Patience is a virtue
E Your satisfaction is our satisfaction
A give background information about education in Finland.

B show how the Russians influenced the Finnish education system.
C explain the reason why Finnish is the official language.
D justify the actions taken to solve the educational problems.
E show that determination is a quality of the Finnish people.
31 In paragraph 7 wedged is closest in meaning to
A exploited.
B threatened.
C trapped.
D ignored.
E manipulated.
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32 In paragraph 7, its people refers to
A Sweden.
B The Baltic.
C Russia.
D Scandinavia.
E Finland.
33 According to paragraph 8, graduates are attracted to the teaching profession

because they
A earn more than doctors and lawyers.

B can work fewer hours.
C make more critical decisions.
D know it is a valued profession.
E have more employment opportunities.
34 The biggest challenge for Finnish schools today is
A unemployment.
B immigration.
C overpopulation.
D urbanisation.
E poverty.
35 What Timo Heikkinen and his teachers have been doing recently can best be
described as
A innovative.
B scientific.
C ethical.
D practical.
E patriotic.
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PAE SET 3 GRAMMAR
Questions 36-70
Arachnophobia
Arachnophobia, the fear of spiders, is one of the most common phobias. People
_____(36)_____ suffer from it cannot stay in a room containing a spider, let alone touch
or hold one. Some arachnophobics can never walk on grass and will stay out of a room
where a spider has been seen, so this phobia can have quite _____(37)_____ severe
effect on their lives.
_____(38)_____ is, however, possible to treat the condition, using a technique known
as exposure therapy. This therapy aims to teach arachnophobics that their fears about
spiders are not based on facts. As they progress with the therapy, they begin to
approach the spider. First, they learn to touch it with a brush, then with a gloved hand.
This process continues _____(39)_____ they are able to touch the spider or hold it in
their bare hands.
A study on exposure therapy, which involved twelve adults affected by arachnophobia,

_____(40)_____ recently been conducted. In the study, the participants were given a
brain scan both before and after therapy. Before therapy, most of the adults could not
even get close to a spider _____(41)_____ feeling intense fear. What’s more, the parts
of the brain related to fear showed a high degree of activity, _____(42)______ if the
person just looked at a picture of a spider. However, a brain scan taken immediately
after therapy showed reduced activity, and this was the same after another scan six
months later. This study shows how effective exposure therapy can be as it results
_____(43)_____ long-term changes to the brain’s response to fear.
36 A when B whose C whom D where E who
37 A several B the C any D a E more
38 A This B One C It D That E There
39 A until B when C if D whereas E because
40 A would B has C was D had E is
41 A by B through C from D without E for
42 A even B although C nevertheless D because E which
43 A from B on C in D of E to
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Stress
Much research has been conducted into stress over the last hundred years. Some of
the theories are now universally accepted, while _____(44)_____ are still being
debated. What complicates the issue is that we all feel that we know what stress is and
therefore the definition must be obvious.
Hans Selye was one of the founding fathers of stress research. His view, in the 1950s
was that “stress is not necessarily something bad – it all depends on how you deal with
it. The stress of innovative and creative work is beneficial _____(45)_____ that of failure
or humiliation is detrimental.” Selye believed that the biochemical effects of stress would
be experienced regardless of _____(46)_____ the situation was positive or negative.
Since then, further research has been carried out and ideas have moved on. Stress is
now viewed as a “bad thing” _____(47)_____ a range of harmful biochemical and long-
term effects. Research conducted by Walter Cannon established _____(48)_____
existence of the well-known “fight-or-flight” response. Cannon's work showed that when
an organism experiences a shock or perceives a threat, hormones are released that
help it to survive. These hormones help us to fight harder and run faster.
_____(49)_____, this struggle of the body for survival also has negative consequences
because it reduces our ability to make fine judgments. As a result, we find ourselves
more accident-prone and _____(50)_____ able to make sound decisions.
44 A neither B ones C others D all E another
45 A since B provided C after D so E whereas
46 A why B whether C which D when E what
47 A from B on C through D at E with
48 A an B this C some D no E the
49 A Therefore B Likewise C However D That is to say E In contrast
50 A little B very C less D so E even
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Questions 51-70
Work-related emails
According to some estimates, more than 200 billion work-related emails are sent
across the internet every day. This may have improved the _____(51)_____ of
communication in the workplace. However, some people are now voicing concerns
about potentially _____(52)_____ effects on our physical and mental health.
A recent study carried out at the University of California _____(53)_____ attaching

heart rate monitors to office workers, some of whom stayed logged on to email, while
others were told not to check their messages for up to five days. Software added to
their computers _____(54)_____ how often they switched from what they were working
on to checking their email. The results, which were later _____(55)_____ at a
computing conference in Austin, Texas, showed that those who continually checked
their emails showed ‘high alert’ heart rates. This means that the heart beats at a steady
fast rate because of the _____(56)_____ underlying stress they are experiencing all
the time. This is known to _____(57)_____ to the production of higher levels of cortisol,
a potentially damaging stress hormone.
As a result of this study, the researchers are calling for employers to _____(58)_____ a
policy of ‘email holidays’ to preserve their employees’ health. It was also suggested by
the study that limiting email access might _____(59)_____ workers’ concentration
levels, making them more productive. This could eventually help them work more
_____(60)_____.
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51 A delivery B integration C speed D evolution E ratio
52 A impressive B detrimental C influential D considerate E compatible
53 A introduced B involved C analysed D created E developed
54 A approached B integrated C attempted D measured E pretended
55 A participated B confronted C presented D assessed E addressed
56 A constant B incidental C Notable D virtual E sequential
57 A encourage B cause C lead D enable E release
58 A trigger B emerge C determine D justify E implement
59 A boost B reduce C distract D inflate E initiate
60 A decisively B mildly C reluctantly D efficiently E potentially
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Digital Natives
We hear teachers complain so often about the new generation’s or, as they are
commonly known, the Digital Natives’ attention spans. Digital Natives are those who
were born into the current digitally connected and technologically _____(61)_____
environment. But is it true that their attention span is so short? Recent research reveals
that it’s not that Digital Natives can’t pay attention, it’s that they _____(62)_____ not to
do so. Research undertaken for the children’s programme Sesame Street reveals that
children do not watch television _____(63)_____, but with many breaks. That is, they
make a short sudden effort and tune in just enough to get the gist and be sure it makes
sense. In one key _____(64)_____, half the children watched the program in a room full
of toys. As expected, they were frequently _____(65)_____ and therefore watched the
show only 47% of the time as opposed to 87% in the group without toys. But when the
children were tested for how much of the show they remembered, the scores were the
same. This led to the _____(66)_____ that the children in the group with the toys were
listening in a very different way. To be more specific, they were listening
_____(67)_____, which means they listened so as to get only what they needed. They
could do this by _____(68)_____ their attention from toy play to viewing. Thus, they
looked for the most _____(69)_____ element in the program. This was such a/an
_____(70)_____ achievement that the children could gain no more from increased
attention.
61 A restrained B advanced C isolated D confirmed E talented
62 A care B treat C stop D choose E avoid
63 A simultaneously B reluctantly C continuously D hastily E neatly
64 A operation B enforcement C hypothesis D distinction E experiment
65 A examined B neglected C ranked D distracted E inspected
66 A resistance B conclusion C temptation D ambiguity E resolution
67 A cautiously B genuinely C selectively D substantially E permanently
68 A concentrating B drawing C distributing D initiating E shifting
69 A obvious B qualified C appreciative D critical E amazed
70 A pretentious B steady C notable D deliberate E gradual
93
LISTENING PART 1 &
TAKING BOOKLET
94
the questions.
NUMBER 1
1 How does Scott sound when they first start talking?
A Depressed
B Critical
C Disappointed
D Indifferent
E Furious
2 Rebecca has learnt about school phobia from
A a textbook.
B a counsellor.
C a class at school.
D Scott himself.
E her parents.
3 According to the study, one reason for school phobia in Japan is
A protective teachers.
B health problems.
C crowded classrooms.
D concerns about life.
E pressure from friends.
NUMBER 2
4 The students are mainly talking about
A what it feels like to fail a course.

B what a department expects.
C how to submit homework on time.
D how to be a successful student.
E how friends can be a distraction.
5 The first recommendation given is to
A pay attention while in class.

B use time management skills.
C study regularly in the library.
D find extra online materials
E get advice from your teacher.
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6 What advice does Julide give about studying?
A Do more than just homework

B Start attending class regularly
C Get a reading list from faculty
D Get to know students in faculty
E Apply for a study program abroad
NUMBER 3
7 The student first speaks to the librarian because
A she wants to place a book on hold.

B the book she wants is checked out.
C she wants to take care of a late fee.
D she cannot locate the book she wants.
E the online catalogue is not working.
8 The student pays the late fee
A with her student card.

B with a bank card.
C in cash.
D with a credit card.
E online.
9 The student’s attitude can best be described as
A critical.
B persistent.
C pessimistic.
D indifferent.
E encouraging.
NUMBER 4
10 The instructor did not take the bus because
A she stayed in bed.

B it was not operating.
C she had a long breakfast.
D it did not stop for her.
E she had no classes.
96
11 What does the instructor complain about most?
A Bus drivers who smoke

B Buses that smell bad
C Inefficient line managers
D Unhelpful bus drivers
E Traffic jams on campus
12 The person listening to the complaint is
A confused.
B shocked.
C unsympathetic.
D disappointed.
E critical.
NUMBER 5
13 Mike had a difficult day because
A his mother was unhappy.

B of a medical problem.
C he was tired of teaching.
D of his research project.
E Sam was complaining.
14 What other job would Mike choose to do?

A Lawyer
B Cartoonist
C Journalist
D Writer
E Politician
15 According to Sam, politics is
A satisfying.
B problematic.
C inspiring.
D disappointing.
E boring.
97
You are going to listen to a lecture on tea. As you listen, take notes under the
headings provided. You will be given questions to answer using your notes after
the lecture has finished. Your notes will not be marked. Some background
information is provided about tea.
**************************************************************************************************
**************
People drink tea throughout the world, but where it comes from and how it became so
popular is not so well known. It is also a commonly held belief that tea benefits our
health, but in what ways is it beneficial and why?
1. THE ORIGINS OF TEA
2. FIRST DEVELOPMENT: TRANSPORTATION
98
3. SECOND DEVELOPMENT: THE TEA BAG
4. THE HEALTH BENEFITS OF DRINKING TEA
99
Use your notes about the lecture on tea to answer the following questions. On the
answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for each question. Give only one
answer to each question.
16 According to the lecture, the Chinese believed tea
A was a difficult plant to grow.

B enhanced thinking ability.
C could cure all diseases.
D had supernatural qualities.
E could replace medicine.
17 The Dutch and Portuguese sailors were offered tea when they arrived in China
because the
A Chinese wanted to begin selling the drink.

B sailors asked if they could try a local drink.
C Chinese served tea to visitors to welcome them.
D sailors were sick and needed medicine.
E Chinese exchanged tea for gifts from the sailors.
18 There are various names for tea because
A the sailors mispronounced the Chinese word when they sold tea.
B tea was imported from areas of China with different dialects.
C several methods of preparing tea were used throughout China.
D the sailors wanted to use names people would understand.
E the Chinese sold many varieties of tea leaves to the sailors.
19 The English bought tea from the Dutch rather than the Portuguese because the
Dutch
A brought much better tea to England.

B traded with countries in northern Europe.
C sold their tea at a much lower price.
D wanted to improve their relations with England.
E could speak English better than the Portuguese.
100
20 The Dutch limited the amount of tea they brought to England because they
A had sold most of their tea in Europe.

B wanted to sell it in their own country.
C thought that it might not be popular.
D couldn’t transport large amounts.
E couldn’t afford to transport a lot from China.
21 The speaker explains that England’s fast ships were originally designed to
A create a more powerful English navy.

B connect England with the rest of the world.
C allow the English to sell tea to other countries.
D explore the world for other sources of tea.
E shorten the time it took to come back from China.
22 The East India Trade Company was founded to
A employ English sailors.

B control the flow of Chinese goods.
C provide England with tea.
D enable the English to export tea.
E transport English goods to China.
23 What event caused tea to become affordable throughout England?
A The Chinese began to grow more tea for the English.

B Traders flooded the English market with tea.
C Sailors discovered a shorter trade route to China.
D The government began to regulate the price of tea.
E A lower quality of tea was imported for the lower classes.
24 According to the speaker, tea bags were originally designed to
A stop losing tea during delivery.

B make tea easier for shops to store.
C keep tea fresh for customers.
D enhance the flavour of tea.
E make tea look more attractive.
25 The speaker explains that the English originally reacted negatively to tea bags
because
A the tea sold in England was better.
B they affected the taste of the tea.
C they disliked American-made products.
D they thought they wasted expensive materials.
E the tea used in them was less fresh.
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26 The Japanese researchers discovered that
A vitamin M can help prevent cancer in women.

B tea helps people to recover from heart attacks.
C more than four cups of tea per day is beneficial.
D tea prevents the build up of homocysteine.
E drinking tea regularly reduces blood pressure.
27 We can infer from the lecture that the speaker believes vitamin M is
A capable of curing many diseases.

B a concern for Japanese women.
C not very well known.
D a western discovery.
E not found in Japanese tea.
28 Doctors are beginning to prescribe green tea to patients who
A want to lose some weight.

B are affected by insomnia.
C are suffering from stress.
D have suffered from a heart attack.
E have a damaged nervous system.
29 Which of the following is NOT an effect of drinking too much caffeine?
A Insomnia
B Anxiety
C Headaches
D Diabetes
E Addiction
30 According to the lecture, caffeine
A is an artificial substance added to tea.

B is most commonly found in green tea.
C should be consumed after 5pm.
D should be limited to two cups per day.
E creates a sense of peace in the drinker.
102
WRITING PARTS 1 & 2
BOOKLET
103
In the text below, the writer refers to two different approaches to music in schools.
In your opinion, which approach is best? Write a paragraph of approximately 150
words.
Clearly identify what these approaches are and write about which you think is
preferable by referring to relevant arguments in the text and expanding upon
these arguments.
Your paragraph will be assessed on task completion, organisation, grammar and

be penalised.
With the introduction of contemporary educational theories, there has been fierce rivalry
among schools to integrate art into their curriculum. However, when it comes to music
as the most popular art form, educationalists hold different perspectives towards
whether it is worth allocating resources for music education in schools or not.
The West Finland School believes that having music as part of the curriculum enhances
learning abilities which students can make use of in other areas of their education,
particularly in exams. Mary Luehrisen, the director of the school, states that when
students are involved in music, they use more of their brain, which makes students
smarter and thus helps raise test scores. “However, the benefits are not limited to
academic domains” said Luehrisen. Educators like her believe in the social function of
music at school, which is connecting students for a purpose. Coming together to make
music at school fosters collaboration, and connection between students. More
importantly, this contributes to character building by giving them a chance to learn how
to develop tolerance towards others. This is why the school asks students to form their
own music band, practice at school and perform at the end of each semester.
Some educational experts, however, see the issue differently. They argue that a music
strand in schools can detract from academic subjects and hinder students' learning in
other important subjects like physics and math. They claim that students would spend
too much time practising music, which could negatively affect their ability to do
homework and study. According to them, students should focus on academic subjects
at school and can engage in music in their leisure time. Another point these experts
make is that music training in school can promote competition and rivalry among
peers, which can trigger aggressive behaviours among young children and can be
harmful to their future development. This is definitely not an intended outcome of a
curriculum at any school.
104
of about 350 words.
A It seems that finally the world has woken up to the reality that we are seriously
damaging our planet. Pollution is killing our oceans, the air in many parts of the
world is dangerous and a health hazard for people living in cities, poisonous
chemicals are entering the food chain - to give just a few examples. Globally,
efforts are now being made to try and protect the planet.
In your opinion, is enough being done to save the planet or is it already too late?
OR
B Many people believe that blaming TV, movies and violent video games for the
increase in violence today is wrong. They say that this way of thinking is avoiding
the real issues that lead to violence in society - poverty, racism and in some
countries like the USA, the availability of guns.
In your opinion, which of the above is the main reason for the violence in
society today?
105
PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 4
106
READING, GRAMMAR &
VOCABULARY BOOKLET
107
Questions 1-8
Read the following three passages. On the answer sheet, mark the letter A, B, C,
Climate Change
Last week Owen Paterson, a UK politician, gave a predictable speech. He was careful
to avoid complete denial of climate change; he raised some fair points admitting that
climate change exists, but his unspoken conclusion was dangerous. He would like us
to believe that climate change is not as bad as organisations like Greenpeace claim.
And I would really like to be able to agree with him. It would just be easier. Most of us
don’t want to accept the truth even if it is right in front of us. If there’s no solution, or the
solutions take time to get right, then we’d rather not hear about the problem.
Last Thursday I chose not to avoid it – I was sitting in my office with Voltaire Alferez
from the Philippines – a country heavily influenced by climate change. In the Philippines,
there used to be around 25 typhoons a year. There are now more than 40 – and they
are getting stronger. Alferez is surprisingly optimistic for someone whose job is to
persuade politicians like Paterson that his country is being swallowed by the sea
because of climate change.
The action we need to take is clear. We need to help people like Alferez. We should
encourage all political parties to put climate change back on their to-do lists. Individually
we can all take action – in more effective ways than ever before. With organisations and
campaigns exploiting the best that the internet has to offer, we’ve got an unprecedented
opportunity to speak publicly and collectively, and so to turn the tide.
1 It can be inferred that in his talk, Owen Paterson
A encouraged his audience to take action against climate change.

B informed his audience about the dangerous effects of climate change.
C accused the authorities of denying the effects of climate change.
D explained various strategies to deal with the effects of climate change.
E criticized some organisations for overreacting to climate change.
2 Many people may ignore the problem of climate change because they
A think politicians should find the answer.

B do not trust the environmentalists.
C are unaware of its effects on them.
D do not think it is easy to deal with.
E find it difficult to agree on a solution.
108
3 The writer believes the use of the internet to deal with the problem of climate
change is
A optional.
B debatable.
C invaluable.
D temporary.
E reliable.
Modern Humans
It is generally accepted that anatomically, modern humans first appeared about 100,000
years ago. However, it is only from the fossil records of about 40,000 to 50,000 years
ago, that we have the first recognisable stages of modern human behaviour. We also
witness a greater sophistication of technology in the development of more intricate tools
and a flourishing of art as seen in cave paintings, particularly in Europe. It would seem
that about 40,000 years ago, there was literally a creative explosion in Europe, which
marked a transition point between early man and modern humans. But what caused this
development? Was it a gradual process, or as the term “explosion” suggests, did it
happen suddenly?
Academics tend to be divided into two camps. There are those who support the Human
Revolution Theory, which supports the theory that about 40,000 years ago, there was a
sudden, dramatic change in the evolution of man that allowed humans to communicate
through speech. Opponents of this theory tend to be evolutionary psychologists, such
as Steven Pinker. Pinker argues that language is simply a more complex biological
adaptation that evolved through the process of natural selection. Pinker’s idea is
superficially appealing. The problem is, however, that neither Pinker nor any of his
colleagues has succeeded in producing an actual theory to support their ideas. My view
is that both an evolutionary and a revolutionary approach can be combined. Our innate
capacity for language evolved gradually over time, but something revolutionised the
process, allowing humans to co-operate with each other and to develop sophisticated
language.
4 The writer regards Steven Pinker’s views as
A only appealing to a minority.

B lacking a theoretical basis.
C quite revolutionary in nature.
D too complex to be fully understood.
E contrary to the theory of natural selection.
5 The main idea of the second paragraph is that
A evolutionary psychologists suggest another way to learn a language.

B human revolutionary theory receives acceptance from psychologists.
C a mixture of the two theories can best explain language evolution.
D historic records can demonstrate human language evolution better.
E both of the theories suggest different methods of language learning.
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6 The main aim of this text is to
A present two opposing claims.

B offer a solution to a problem.
C discredit the ideas of Pinker.
D argue against evolution.
E explain the creative revolution.
Home Schooling
Nowadays, many parents are being encouraged to home school, believing it to be the
best option for their children. However, there are many details to be worked out before
beginning such a program. Many parents wonder if there is a specific age or time to
home school their children. Most experts will agree that deciding when to home school
comes down to two key points. First, do you as the parent, think your child will benefit
more from a home school program or the more traditional class setting? Secondly, are
you the parent and now the teacher, better suited to teach your child than someone that
has been professionally trained? The next most important step after you’ve decided to
home school is to make sure that you’re fully prepared and equipped to complete the
task. You need to spend a fair amount of time preparing all the things you’re going to
need to provide for your child’s education.
Homeschooling can be one of the most rewarding and satisfying roles a parent can take
on for the development of their children; it can also be one of the worst decisions if not
carried out correctly. So while homeschooling may appeal to you, make sure you speak
to other parents who have done this and speak with other students that have been
homeschooled. Choose wisely.
7 The main idea of the text is that homeschooling
A needs to be a collaborative effort between parents and professionals.

B involves many processes which need to be thought about in detail.
C becomes a worthwhile practice if parents know when to apply it.
D requires parents to have certain teaching skills and qualifications.
E is a good choice which should be made by children at a certain age.
8 The writer’s attitude towards parents’ homeschooling decision is
A critical.
B regretful.
C indifferent.
D cautious.
E discouraging.
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Questions 9-20
Read the following two passages. On the answer sheet mark the letter A, B, C, D
or E for each question. Give only one answer to each question.
Exercise
New research into exercise is changing the way people think about getting in shape and
proving that many popular beliefs are simply myths. Specialists in sports psychology at
the San Diego State University in California are at the forefront of this new research and
are saying that most people simply do not get enough exercise.
So how much exercise is necessary and how often do we need it? According to popular
myth, people need to do at least 3 hours of intense physical exercise to reap the
benefits. The new magic number, however, appears to be about 150 minutes a week,
which can be divided up in any way. “There’s no compelling evidence that 150 minutes
across five days is any better than across three or four” says Simon Marshal. Therefore,
people with very busy schedules can exercise just at the weekends with no adverse
effects to their health. Furthermore, it appears that exercise can even be broken down
into small ten minute segments instead of continuous bouts, that is long periods without
stopping. This new evidence breaks down some previously held myths that continuous
exercise for at least 30 minutes is needed to stay fit.
So how does anyone know if they are getting fit? This depends on how you define
‘fitness.’ For instance, it can refer to muscle strength or flexibility. However, it is most
commonly associated with your aerobic fitness or how effective your body is at
transporting oxygen to your muscles. Olympic athletes, for instance, train to become
extremely fit, even going so far as to train in high altitude locations so their bodies have
to work harder to conserve oxygen, which makes them stronger in competitions. For the
average person, however, this can vary depending on age, weight, gender and so on.
The important thing is that being fit can better supply your body with the nutrients it
needs and make your heart stronger.
Often the next question people ask is what kind of exercise should you be doing? If you
have been in a gym lately, you will have noticed many people pumping iron on really
complex looking machinery which highlights another myth. Many scientists have
recently been asking if this is enough. There have been many studies that link muscle
development with longevity and health, but the many factors contributing to the findings
are unclear. Recently there was a study that followed a group of men for over 20 years
and discovered that weight training does positively influence health and longevity. This
study has even prompted the American college of sports medicine to recommend two
episodes of weight training a week. Apparently, a mixture of aerobic fitness and weight
training is your best ticket to longevity and health.
Or is it? Many scientists these days are also saying that genetic factors can also play
an important role. Have you ever noticed that some people maintain a level of fitness
while others struggle, spending hours at the gym and seeming to get nowhere? Recent
research findings from the Heritage Family study have shown that about 1 in every 10
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people will not benefit from the effects of rigorous training. In other words, some
people’s genes will hold them back from receiving the full benefits from exercise
programs. It is important to mention that everyone still received some benefits like lower
blood pressure, so doing exercise in some form is still better than doing nothing.
Genetics, however, appears to be a powerful player in health so it is important to be
mindful of how your body reacts to exercise.
Many scientists are also questioning how obesity affects fitness levels. A commonly
held myth is that only slim and fit people are healthy. Are obese people really less fit
than the rest of the population? The obvious answer seems to be yes, but Steven Blair
at the University of California seems to think otherwise. Blair’s study got 2600 people of
varying body sizes to run on a treadmill until they felt exhausted. His results might
surprise you. Many of the mildly obese and obese volunteers outperformed normal or
skinny volunteers in the aerobic fitness test. It appears that the body’s ability to deliver
oxygen to the muscles has nothing to do with the size of the body. Moreover, Blair’s
study has shown that the risks associated with dying are more prevalent in individuals
that have poor aerobic fitness compared to those who may carry more fat. Blair’s study
has been very influential in medical circles and has contributed to _____(6)_____
New research that aims at breaking down health myths and better directing people in
their pursuit of a healthy lifestyle will benefit most people. Undoubtedly, exercise is good
for our health and it should be a part of our weekly routine. It appears that at least 150
minutes a week is necessary and this should be spread out between weight training and
aerobic exercise, regardless of your body shape.
9 According to paragraph 2, 150 minutes of exercise should be done
A in small bursts three days a week.

B in small 10 minute intervals during the week.
C at any time over the course of a week.
D in continuous bouts of physical activity.
E in blocks of up to 30 minutes at a time.
10 According to paragraph 3, training at high altitudes is beneficial for Olympic
athletes because it
A helps to remove the effects of ageing.

B provides an easier place to train for competitions.
C helps them to become psychologically stronger.
D increases nutrients in their blood stream.
E allows for their blood to conserve more oxygen.
11 What does ‘it’ refer to in paragraph 5?
A A study carried out on weight training

B Having a long and healthy life
C The effects of weight training on health
D A mixture of weight training and aerobic fitness
E The American college of sports medicine
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12 What does “some people’s genes will hold them back” in paragraph 5 refer
to?
A Some people’s genes can make exercise a dangerous activity.

B Rigorous training is directly linked with a person’s genes.
C Genetic make-up can affect how a person benefits from exercise.
D Lower blood pressure and exercise is linked to a person’s genes.
E Certain genetic types need less exercise than other people.
13 According to Steven Blair’s study, obese people
A are unlikely to outperform skinny people in aerobic fitness.

B have poor aerobic fitness because of their weight.
C should make a special effort to improve their aerobic fitness.
D can be healthy even though they carry a lot of extra fat.
E have bodies that can deliver oxygen to the muscles easily.
14 Which of the following best completes the blank in paragraph 6?
A providing new evidence that obesity is not an illness.

B enabling the obese to get the right sort of exercise for themselves.
C maintaining the belief that exercise is good for all, even the obese.
D developing specific exercise routines for those who are obese.
E breaking down the myth that all obese people are unhealthy.
Ethan
I’d come to this party to meet the host, but he was somehow unattractive. When I turned
and saw the other guy in the leather jacket — his dance moves, his hopeful smile — I
smiled back and danced away. He followed.
An hour later, as we walked toward Prospect Park, Ethan told me about himself: his
M.A. degree in poetry and his dog, Goldie. The dog caught my interest. I pictured a big
dog with huge paws.
“What’s the story of her name?” I asked, trying to keep my tone neutral. It seemed an
unoriginal name for a poet to give his dog. I assumed he wasn’t a good one.
His father had named her, Ethan explained. Goldie was initially his parents’ dog but he’d
taken her over when she’d proven too much for them. He’d rescued her, sort of. I liked
that in him.
He had a dog. I love dogs. I’d see him again.
My phone rang. It was unspeakably early on a Sunday morning, but Ethan knew I’d be
awake for the Charity Walk. He was going too, he said. Did I want a ride?
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“You’re driving to Central Park?” I said. “Why not take the subway?” He said it was
easier to drive there with Goldie. I stopped worrying about the impracticalities of parking.
If the dog was coming, I was in.
Ethan pulled up in his old car, a small, fluffy dog on his lap. “Hi, Goldie,” I said, masking
my surprise as I lowered myself into the passenger seat. Goldie wasn’t a real dog by
my definition, but she was undeniably adorable. We’d have to do something about that
name, though. It's dangerous to rename a boy’s dog on the second date, so I treaded
lightly, choosing a nickname close to the original. The name fit, and soon Ethan was
calling her Goldstar, too. I gave Ethan a nickname too, one that was fond but not so
respectful — a reminder to myself and whomever I was talking to that this relationship
wasn’t meant to last.
“He’s too pretty to be called Dogboy,” my friend Andy said after meeting him. Ethan
objected — he thought he should be Dogman — but I laughed that off, although he
wasn’t kidding. I laughed at many things about Ethan which might have caused me to
walk away if I had been taking us seriously. But like his dog, he had a good heart. They
were sweet, these two. Affectionate and fun. Besides, I assured myself, it was just for
the summer.
Summer stretched into fall, which cooled into winter, with the three of us still together.
Somewhere along the way, I fell in love with dog and Dogboy both. Never mind that
neither was the type I’d thought I would have chosen. Love can be surprising. Right?
I wanted to be someone for whom love conquers all, but I wasn’t. The problems I
could pinpoint seemed trivial at best, yet when I imagined us together several years
down the line, my heart skipped with panic. I knew I needed to end things. But breaking
up with Ethan would mean losing Goldstar. When Dogboy begged, I stayed.
We moved in together. We hosted dinner parties, he cooked and I baked; we travelled

abroad, and cuddled our dog together. Ethan wanted to marry. “The problem with us,”
he said, “is that you won’t commit.” I leaned my face against Goldstar’s and worried he
might be right. If I didn’t want this relationship, why was I still in it? “Love,” the most
comfortable answer, was also the least.
I started looking at real estate listings. Imagining what it might be like to return home to
a new apartment with no boyfriend and no dog, no comfort of an ‘us’.
In the end, it wasn’t another guy who came along that I found more acceptable- it was
another dog.
Walking Goldstar around the block one day, I passed an animal shelter adoption bus
parked on our street. There in the window, I saw her. Her alert eyes, long legs built to
run. Her nose for trouble.
My heart immediately recognized her: This was my kind of dog.
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Adopting another dog was a bad idea. But I signed the papers, leaving Ethan’s name
off them. From the moment I saw her, Arugula was mine. By then, Ethan and I’d spent
almost five years creating an ‘us’ with Goldstar, the unofficial mascot of our relationship.
The introduction of Arugula caused a divide. Now Arugula and I were the ‘us’ and Ethan
and Goldstar were ‘them’. It was clear the four of us didn’t belong together. “This was a
terrible mistake,” Ethan said. “We have to give her back.” But Arugula and I had other
plans.
We unclipped the leash and shot free.

15 When the author heard the dog’s name, she felt
A disappointed.
B indifferent.
C impressed.
D embarrassed.
E relieved.
16 Ethan decided to drive to Central Park rather than taking the subway because
A it was difficult for him to wake up early.

B it was easy to find a parking place.
C he was taking the dog with him.
D he wanted to give the author a lift.
E he thought the subway would be crowded.
17 The nickname the author gave to Ethan shows that
A she was not fond of his actual name.

B their love for dogs was mutual.
C she wanted to praise his good qualities.
D she was not satisfied with his looks.
E their relationship was temporary.
18 The author says “I wanted to be someone for whom love conquers all, but I
wasn’t.” This sentence reflects her
A humorous style.
B self-awareness.
C optimistic nature.
D open-mindedness.
E peaceful manner.
19 The author adopted Arugula because
A she wanted to have a bigger family.

B Ethan was reluctant to share his dog with her.
C it was her idea of a real dog.
D it was suffering in the animal shelter.
E Goldstar needed a friend.
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20 It can be understood that at the end of the story
A the author and Ethan got married.

B Ethan and the author left the city.
C the author and Arugula began a new life.
D the author and Ethan gave Arugula back.
E Arugula and Goldstar started to get on well.

Questions 21-35
Read the following passage. On the answer sheet mark the letter A, B, C, D or E
for each question. Give only one answer to each question.
1. Jacques Mayol was the pioneer of free diving, an extreme sport in which divers
attempt to reach great depths under the sea without using any diving or breathing
equipment. Mayol was known as the ‘Dolphin Man,’ not only because of his underwater
achievements in the field of free diving, but also because of the special relationship he
developed with dolphins.
2. Mayol was born in Shanghai, China in 1927 to French parents and spent his first 13
years in Asia. His interest in diving began on holidays in Japan, where he would spend
much of his later life. His father was also a successful diver but unfortunately he died in
a diving accident. This actually had a positive impact on Mayol, and despite his father’s
death, his enthusiasm for this sport remained unquenched. His free diving adventures
began when he was a young man, and he won several European deep-diving
competitions, in which contestants went down deep into the sea using special
equipment.
3. Mayol’s fascination with the sea increased even further when he formed a close
friendship with a dolphin named Clown at the Seaquarium in Florida, where he was sent
from Radio Canada as a journalist to do some research for an article. Mayol was so
interested in the work being carried out at the Seaquarium that the director invited him
to stay on and work there. Mayol accepted and began working on the maintenance of
the tanks and taking care of the dietary concerns of the various sea creatures. At the
same time, he was also given permission to dive in the big tank with the dolphins,
including the one destined to become his special friend - Clown.
4. Initially, Mayol had considered free diving as nothing more than a leisure activity. But
as a result of the strong relationship he developed with Clown, he started to feel that he
had to try and go beyond his physical limits in order to, as he said, “dolphinize” himself
more. By observing Clown, Mayol learned how to hold his breath longer on every dive,
how to behave underwater, how to integrate himself with the water totally and finally, to
do something that he referred to as being able to laugh inside. As a result, Mayol was
able to hold his breath for five minutes while motionless and four minutes when active.
He also integrated the principles of Yoga with his diving skills, a discipline he first
became aware of while growing up in Japan. In a magazine interview, he said that the
only people in the world capable of simulating the effects of pressure on the body were
yogis, the masters of yoga who could hold their breath for up to 22 minutes. He took his
practice of meditation and the yoga breathing exercise, Pranayama, extremely seriously
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and learned to slow down his heart rate and oxygen consumption. His normal pulse rate
was 60bpm (beat per minute), but the medical world was astonished to discover that
this would drop to 20bpm when he was diving, a phenomenon previously observed only
in dolphins and whales.
5. “Some yogis in India are voluntarily able to lower their pulse rates to one beat per
minute,” Mayol said during an interview. "Unfortunately, I am a long way from achieving
such a remarkable feat, but before starting each new series of deep dives, I go to India,
to a place called Pondicherry, to train for two to three months with a yogi." This emotional
and psychological training opened up the path that led to his record setting 100-meter
dive. This dive, which took place in 1976, was, to say the least, a tremendous occasion.
It issued a challenge for the next individual willing to try and break this incredible record.
6. This dive was actually part of a long-running competition Mayol had with the Italian
diver Enzo Maiorca, the first man to dive below 50 meters. Jacques Mayol’s dive broke
that record. The competition was to last over ten years - years that saw the number of
free-dive depths double.
7. Ultimately, this competition was the inspiration for Luc Besson’s film ‘The Big Blue’,
which was inspired by the deep-diving champions, Mayol and Maiorca. It was a
fictionalised account of the sporting competition between the two famous free divers
and portrayed the competition and friendship of these real-life champions. The action
was divided into two timelines - the initial competition between the two divers as children
and their final competition at the World Free Diving Championship in the Sicilian town
of Taormina.
8. After his record dive in 1976, Mayol, during a test for Omega’s new Seamaster 120
watch, dived to 101 meters in 1981, thus breaking his own record. In 1983, Mayol
decided to step away from the challenge. At 56 years of age, he had reached a depth
of 105 meters, had broken every record in the books and made a personal decision to
hand his mantle over to the young lions.
9. Mayol dived most of his life out of a love of the ocean, an expression of his personal
philosophy and a desire to explore his limits. He did so in an admirable fashion. His
efforts improved the world of free diving by including an entire philosophy, a state of
mind based on relaxation and Yoga, now known as ‘Apnea Diving’. He also contributed
to technological advances in the field of diving, particularly with regard to the equipment
used by ‘no limit’ divers to reach great depths, survive and return to the surface.
10. Mayol also shared his vision for the future in his book ‘Homo Delphinus - The Dolphin
within Man’. The term Homo Delphinus refers to individuals who are aquatic as a
dolphin, share the same love of the ocean and recognise the importance of protecting
it and keeping it pure. Mayol believed that someday people would be capable of
swimming at depths of 200 meters and holding their breath for up to ten minutes. “That
day will come”, he always said.
11. He tried to understand the physiological and psychological mechanisms that made
him recall what he would call his ‘aquatic past’. There was no doubt, according to Mayol,
that human beings (32)________________. In the introduction to his book, he wrote, "I
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have attempted to open new windows onto the mystery of our mother, the sea, and to
deepen the spiritual links that unite us to the sea and to dolphins." Mayol believed that
humans have far more in common with dolphins than we realise, and that by
harnessing our natural powers, we can go on to ever more amazing underwater
journeys. This was Mayol’s favourite quote: “One day, the babies of the future will be
reconnected to the aquatic evolutionary past. They will be totally in harmony with the
sea and diving and playing at great depths with their marine cousins, holding their breath
for a long period of time. Homo Delphinus is not just a concept; the future of humanity
will be under the sea, not on a space colony on another planet.”
12. On the 22nd day of December 2001, the life of Jacques Mayol came to a sudden
end. At the age of seventy-four, Mayol decided, after a long period of depression, to end
his life. For many in the diving community, it was very difficult to accept this and many
questions remained unanswered about the life and death of this well-known pioneer of
free diving. Friends have their own theories about Mayol's death. Maurizio Russo told
Diver Magazine, "Lately, Mayol was very depressed, mainly because he was getting
old. He was always travelling around the world, doing many projects as usual. Recently,
he had finished the film ‘Ocean Men’ with Umberto Pelizzari. His popularity was at its
peak. He had received an award for his best-selling book. But he was still unhappy. He
had lost interest in life. He could find peace only by swimming in the ocean together with
his dolphin friends. In my opinion, he had always challenged the limits of the unknown;
therefore, his final challenge was to experience the final unknown."
13. Free divers have a certain way of expressing their emotions. We will never know for
sure what happened, but it is likely that Mayol could not accept the cruel law of time and
that when he felt that his blue was becoming black, he decided to dive into the infinite,
empty space.
21 Paragraph 2 is mainly about
A Mayol’s early life and the start of his diving career.

B why Mayol became really interested in diving.
C how Mayol started to enter diving competitions.
D Mayol’s father and his impact on Mayol’s diving career.
E Mayol’s attitude towards the risks involved in diving.
22 In paragraph 2, “unquenched” is closest in meaning to
A unusual.
B unstable.
C unbearable.
D unchanged.
E uncomfortable.
23 After his contact with Clown, Mayol began to see diving as a
A way to be able to hold his breath for up to 22 minutes.

B way to become a real part of the underwater world.
C sport which helped him have a deeper connection with Clown.
D type of activity which went beyond his physical capacities.
E means of better understanding the principles of yoga.
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24 Paragraph 4 is mainly about how Mayol
A slowed down his heartbeat.

B utilised the principles of Yoga.
C used Clown to dolphinize himself.
D challenged the beliefs of doctors.
E improved his diving ability.
25 According to paragraph 4, yogis taught Mayol how to
A keep his heart rate at 60 beats per minute.

B change the way his body normally functions.
C observe the heart rate of dolphins and whales.
D hold his breath by putting heavy pressure on his body.
E raise his oxygen levels through breathing exercises.
26 According to paragraph 5, Mayol broke a record

A by lowering his pulse rate to 1bpm.
B that was impossible to break later.
C by training psychologically and emotionally.
D by practising diving in Pondicherry.
E that no one was willing to challenge.
27 According to paragraph 7, the film ‘The Big Blue’
A made the two divers, Mayol and Maiorca, famous.

B was made in Taormina where Mayol and Maiorca lived.
C led to a life-long competition between Mayol and Maiorca.
D showed why Mayol was determined to be better than Maiorca.
E was based on the life-long rivalry between Mayol and Maiorca.
28 The phrase ‘his own record’ in paragraph 8 refers to diving down to
A 120 meters.
B 101 meters.
C 100 meters.
D 50 meters.
E 105 meters.
29 In paragraph 8, what the writer means by “hand his mantle over to the young
lions” is that Mayol decided to
A open the way for younger divers.

B study other animals, such as lions.
C compete with younger divers.
D break his earlier records.
E concentrate on teaching young divers.
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30 According to paragraph 9, Mayol contributed to free diving by
A adding new ideas to the philosophy of Yoga.

B teaching divers how to reach great depths.
C exploring the underwater world.
D developing the concept of ‘Apnea Diving’.
E using modern technology to aid relaxation.
31 It can be inferred from the text that the book ‘Homo Delphinus’ deals mainly
with the
A protection of dolphins.
B relationship between man and the sea.
C development of a new species.
D protection of the oceans.
E development of diving techniques.
32 Which of the following would best fit in the blank in paragraph 11?
A need to protect the oceans.

B understand the mysteries of the sea.
C should use the power of the oceans.
D have their origins in the sea.
E will one day swim at great depths.
33 In paragraph 11, “harnessing” is closest in meaning to
A ignoring.
B using.
C creating.
D imagining.
E studying.
34 In paragraph 12, what does Russo mean by “the final unknown”?
A Death
B Peace
C The Ocean
D Old Age
E Depression
35 In paragraph 13, the writer suggests that Mayol probably committed suicide
because he
A could not compete with others.

B could not dive so deep anymore.
C was afraid of growing old.
D was losing his popularity.
E was becoming ill.
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PAE SET 4 GRAMMAR
Questions 36-50
Neuroplasticity
The vast majority of today’s educators and teachers grew up with the understanding
that the human brain doesn’t physically change based on stimulation it receives from
the outside. However, it turns out that this view is wrong. According to the latest research
in neurobiology, _____(36)_____ is no longer any question that stimulation actually
changes brain structure. This affects the way people think and these transformations
continue throughout our lives. The brain is continually _____(37)_____ reorganised
differently based on the inputs it receives.
The old idea that we have a fixed number of brain cells that die off one by one has been
replaced by research. Countless studies have shown that our supply of brain cells
_____(38)_____ refilled constantly. This process, which continues throughout our lives,
is a phenomenon technically known_____(39)_____ neuroplasticity. A number of
experiments have been carried out in this field, the earliest of _____(40)_____ showed
significant differences among rats in different environments. Rats in enriched
environments indicated brain changes compared to those in impoverished
environments after a while. Sensory areas of the brains of the rats in the experimental
group were found to be much thicker than _____(41)_____ of the other rats. Other
experiments have led to similar conclusions _____(42)_____ they all show that the brain
maintains its plasticity for life.
36 A which B there C it D what E that
37 A been B to being C be D being E to be
38 A have B is C are D has E was
39 A for B like C with D by E as
40 A whom B them C which D this E most
41 A ones B none C few D a lot E those
42 A and B although C unlike D unless E but
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Daylight Saving Time
Every year billions of people around the world put their clocks back one hour at the
beginning of autumn and forward one hour at the beginning of spring. This is a practice
called Daylight Saving Time (DST) _____(43)_____ it was adopted by governments so
that people would get more daylight in the evening.
_____(44)_____ every country in the world follows DST. The reason _____(45)_____
some don’t use it is because they simply don’t need it. Countries which are closer to the
equator, for instance, don’t need it because night and day are of equal length all year
round. _____(46)_____, some countries don’t do this because research indicates that
it just isn‘t profitable. It was originally introduced _____(47)_____ a way to enable
people to get more daylight and, therefore, _____(48)_____ electricity. However, today
the amount of electricity used during the day has increased to such an extent that the
savings are minimal, even non-existent.
Currently, some countries are considering _____(49)_____ they should carry on with
the practice or not. Many people are tired of having to adjust their sleep patterns twice
a year so they want their governments to stop using DST. Others believe that there is
also a commercial motive _____(50)_____ DST. They suspect that it is to encourage
them to spend more time outside in cafes, restaurants and shops after work rather than
go straight home and sit in front of their TV.
43 A but B so C although D or E since
44 A Thus B Not C How D That E If
45 A for B is C because D why E of
46 A Whereas B Despite C Though D Thus E Furthermore
47 A like B in C as D by E such
48 A saving B saved C did save D save E has saved
49 A about B whether C even D to E whereby
50 A for B to C in D by E at
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Questions 51-70
Extreme weather-related events
There’s been a change in the weather. Extreme events like the Nashville flood in May
2010 are happening more frequently than they used to. A month before Nashville,
torrential rain fell on Rio de Janeiro, which _____(51)_____ mud slides that buried
hundreds of people. About three months after Nashville, monsoon rains in Pakistan
caused flooding that _____(52)_____more than 20 million people. In 2011, floods in
Thailand submerged hundreds of hi-tech factories near Bangkok, creating a world-wide
_____(53)_____ of computer hard drives.
However, it is not just _____(54)_____ rains that are making the headlines. During the
past decade, we have also _____(55)_____ severe droughts in places like Russia and
Australia and a record number of tornadoes have swept across the United States.
Losses from such events have _____(56)_____ the financial cost of weather disasters
to an estimated $150 billion worldwide. This is a huge jump in comparison to previous
years. So what exactly is _____(57)_____ on? Are these extreme weather events
_____(58)_____ of a dangerous human-made shift in Earth’s climate? Some would
have us believe that we are just going_____(59)_____ a natural stretch of bad luck.
Scientists from both sides continue to provide evidence in _____(60)_____ of their
particular theory – but the real answer is probably somewhere between the two.
51 A resulted B triggered C drew D developed E allocated
52 A destroyed B damaged C reduced D affected E included
53 A decrease B loss C interruption D collapse E shortage
54 A strong B heavy C huge D large E harsh
55 A confronted B perceived C addressed D witnessed E noticed
56 A increased B calculated C led D accounted E set
57 A taking B getting C going D bringing E following
58 A affairs B elements C parts D signs E reports
59 A in B towards C into D by E through
60 A terms B support C view D regard E search
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Making Business Happy
Does money make you happy? Conventional wisdom says that after _____(61)_____ a
basic living standard, more money does not result in proportionately more happiness.
Recently, Bhutan, a small Asian country, introduced an ambitious _____(62)_____ to
offer a more visionary answer to this question. For decades, Bhutan has followed a very
unique development policy _____(63)_____ by the concept of Gross National
Happiness (GNH). Now, the prime minister wants to test whether the country's efforts
to measure happiness can work for businesses too. The idea is to steer private
companies away from a(n) _____(64)_____ on short-term benefits and towards long-
term values that will nurture responsible and sustainable businesses.
The idea is to make businesses _____(65)_____ to their shareholders, customers,

employees, as well as the environment. To achieve this, the government has introduced
a GNH Certification Tool for Business. The tool _____(66)_____ a set of indicators,
grouped under nine different domains in the GNH. Information on four of these -
psychological well-being, health, time use and education will be _____(67)_____ from
a company's employees and the data analysed. It is hoped that the tool will inject GNH
values into business models, _____(68)_____ that society is safe from any negative
impacts of a company's operations, products and services. The adoption of the GNH is
expected to have a significant _____(69)_____ on the country, increasing its overall
happiness level. Over a lifetime, the average person earns their living by spending
approximately 95,000 hours at work - clearly society and business are interdependent.
That is the real vision of Bhutan's GNH: having a society that is both happy and
_____(70)_____.
61 A pursuing B achieving C creating D advancing E recovering
62 A feature B opportunity C initiative D structure E competition
63 A inspired B revealed C formed D featured E proven
64 A focus B commitment C decision D influence E benefit
65 A available B approachable C affordable D adaptable E accountable
66 A includes B decides C allows D determines E regards
67 A asked B regarded C adopted D collected E described
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68 A advocating B insisting C determining D ensuring E complying
69 A boost B advance C impact D demand E solution
70 A content B prosperous C Moderate D significant E crucial
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PAE SPRING SEMESTER
PRACTICE SET 4
LISTENING PART 1 &

TAKING BOOKLET
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the questions.
NUMBER 1
1 According to the professor, few students are
A familiar with popular entertaining podcasts.

B against downloading podcasts for education purposes.
C eager to attend faculty lectures due to online podcasts.
D satisfied with the quality of the podcasts at school.
E aware of the use of podcasts at universities.
2 Madeline thinks that she wouldn’t be able to
A understand how most students benefit from podcasts.

B download her audio feedback from the faculty website.
C gain much advantage from feedback through podcasts.
D risk missing pre-class materials before attending lectures.
E compare the benefits of getting face-to-face feedback.
3 The professor suggests instructors provide feedback through podcasts in order

to
A generate interest in using online feedback tools.

B increase learner autonomy outside class.
C have students access feedback anywhere.
D avoid spending more time on written feedback.
E vary feedback techniques for students with disabilities.
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NUMBER 2
4 The professor has assigned seats in her class so that the
A students can easily get to know one another.

B she can easily see all of the students in the room.
C student’s presence in class can be recorded.
D students can work in discussion groups together.
E she can memorize the student’s names quickly.
5 The female student’s attitude towards requesting to be moved can be best described
as
A sarcastic.
B enthusiastic.
C unreasonable.
D concerned.
E encouraging.
6 The female student and one of the talkative students in class
A share a common friend.

B have asked to be moved.
C are living in the same dorm.
D have an awkward friendship.
E are enemies of each other.
NUMBER 3
7 Which of the following best describes the creation of the Internet?
A Its creation was very similar to that of the telephone.

B It had been created by the beginning of the Cold War.
C The idea of it had been around for hundreds of years.
D No single person can take credit for the creation of it.
E It was first used by Russia in 1957 during the Cold War.
8 Why did the Americans become more serious about science and technology?
A People were proud of the Soviet’s launch of the first satellite.

B They wanted to have bigger cars and better televisions.
C Because classes such as physics had been added to courses.
D Because brighter scientists and engineers came to America.
E They had to become more innovative to win the Cold War.
9 At the end of the conversation, the student’s attitude can be best described as
A delighted.
B humorous.
C hopeful.
D appreciative.
E enthusiastic.
128
NUMBER 4
10 Professor Marks was not able to attend the conference because she
A wasn’t able to find a flight to Manchester.

B had to mark her students’ oral performance.
C didn’t prepare her presentation for the conference.
D worked on her research on artificial intelligence.
E had to attend another conference in Bodrum.
11 Professor Marks’ latest research aims to help
A engineering students.
B language teachers.
C ambitious engineers.
D disabled learners.
E artificial intelligence scientists.
12 Professor Marks thinks her findings won’t generate interest in engineers because
of
A time constraints.
B poor planning.
C inadequate expertise.
D lack of collaboration.
E financial reasons.
129
NUMBER 5
13 At the beginning of the conversation, Ella feels that Jack is
A not paying attention to her.

B making fun of her handwriting.
C pretending to be interested.
D not contributing enough ideas.
E not doing enough reading.
14 According to Ella, planners and architects have recently begun to think about
how
A stress makes cities difficult places to live in.

B quality of water in a city can be improved
C quality of living in a city can be improved.
D resources can be allocated fairly in a city.
E city living can become much more affordable.
15 Jack mentions a study that helps researchers understand
A how planners can make cities greener.

B why people dislike noise in cities.
C why people choose to live in cities.
D why university cities are popular.
E what people like to see in cities.
130
You are going to listen to a lecture about fear. As you listen, take notes under
the headings provided. Some background information is provided below about
fear.
H.P. Lovecraft is quoted as saying that “the oldest and strongest emotion of mankind
is fear”. Fear is a vital response to physical and emotional danger – if we couldn’t feel
it, we would not be able to protect ourselves from real threats.
1. INTRODUCTION
2. FEAR IN GENERAL
131
3. A SPECIFIC FEAR AND ITS SIGNIFICANCE
4. CAN WE BE MADE TO FEAR THINGS?
5. WHAT MODERN RESEARCH HAS TAUGHT US ABOUT FEAR
Visual Cortex
132
LISTENING PART 2
Use your notes about fear to answer the following questions. On the answer
sheet, mark the letter A, B, C, D or E for each question. Give only one answer to
each question.
16 At the beginning of the lecture, the speaker says that fear is fascinating
because it
A is the strongest human emotion.

B is a very specific human emotion.
C has more than one purpose.
D can be taught at an early age.
E is processed by the brain.
17 Which of the following physical responses does the speaker mention when we
experience fear?
A Sweating more than usual

B Breathing much faster
C Producing more blood
D Feeling pressure in the heart
E Turning red or pale
18 The body remains in the ‘fight or flight’ state until the
A brain gets a signal to say that the danger has passed.

B person either runs away or faces up to the fear.
C person gives a physical release to the fear.
D brain decides whether or not it is necessary to fight.
E brain is able to identify that there is a threat.
19 The speaker talks about fear as an important part of evolution because it

helped early man to
A develop their nervous system.

B use their brain more effectively.
C escape from dangerous creatures.
D control their environment.
E learn how to make decisions.
20 The purpose of the computer experiment was to see how
A quickly people responded to a feared object.

B many people still had a fear of spiders.
C people reacted when they saw something they feared.
D people with no fear reacted to specific objects.
E people decided which animals were dangerous.
133
21 In Pavlov’s famous experiment, the dogs were
A taught to fear certain things.

B punished if their mouths watered.
C made to behave in a specific way.
D trained to bark when they saw food.
E rewarded for good behaviour.
22 What is the speaker’s attitude towards the "Baby Albert" experiment?
A Critical
B Supportive
C Doubtful
D Impressed
E Surprised
23 In the "Baby Albert" experiment, Watson
A gave the baby a rat to play and then took it away quickly.
B showed the baby a rat and then made a loud noise.
C hit the rat with a hammer and screamed at the baby very loudly.
D made a noise and then showed the baby a rat which made a noise.
E frightened the baby by forcing it to touch a rat that made a loud noise.
24 The result of the "Baby Albert" experiment showed that fear can be
A created in people.
B removed quite quickly.
C dangerous if it is extreme.
D worse for children.
E intensified by noise.
25 In the second experiment, the speaker describes a study carried out on rats
that were
A kept in a cage with a light on all the time.

B made to fear the light in their cage.
C trained to withstand small electric shocks.
D shouted at by the researchers.
E taught to turn a light on and off.
26 The purpose of the visual cortex is to
A store visual images.

B think and react.
C produce chemicals.
D understand personal events.
E see and think.
134
27 The visual cortex processes information and if you are really afraid of
something then it
A attempts to calm you down.

B produces chemicals causing fear.
C helps you run away.
D alerts the cerebral cortex.
E gives you a choice of actions.
28 People who would not have survived are those who
A had an extreme reaction to fear.

B produced no adrenaline.
C had a weak cerebral cortex.
D ran from danger without checking if it is real.
E failed to act responsibly when threatened.
29 If people have no fear of spiders and see something that could be a spider,
they process the information more slowly and
A control their reaction.

B experience a calming chemical.
C walk slowly away.
D enjoy the situation.
E check the object carefully.
30 The speaker ends the lecture by referring to people who like to watch horror
films because they enjoy the
A thrill they get from the release of Adrenalin.

B sensation of being controlled by their fear.
C effects of Dopamine and Serotonin.
D complexity of a fearful emotion.
E pretence of feeling afraid.
135
WRITING PARTS 1 & 2
BOOKLET
136
In the following text, the writer describes two approaches to university

accommodation. In your opinion, which approach is the most beneficial for
students? Write a paragraph of approximately 150 words.
Clearly identify what these approaches are and write about which you think is
best by referring to relevant arguments in the text and expanding upon these
arguments.

be penalized.
University students often end up making lifelong friendships with the students they share
their university accommodation with in their first year at university. But what determines
who shares a room or dormitory with who? New research has revealed that universities
in the UK use two very different policies to determine how dormitory rooms are allocated.
One important educational benefit of going to university is learning to mix with, and
getting to know, a more diverse range of people with different life experiences. As a
result, many universities strive to promote social integration. One of the most explicit
policies promoting social integration is at Bristol University, which aims "to create
diverse, balanced communities within university residences paying particular attention
to nationality, gender, faculty and private or state school". It has therefore adopted a
policy of percentage targets for each dormitory. By ensuring that each dormitory has a
similar percentage of, for example, international and home students, or science and arts
students, the university believes the dormitories accurately reflect the overall profile of
the student population.
But there are other universities which appear to give more priority to grouping together
first year students with similar characteristics in order to help ease their transition into
university life. In some cases, universities ask students for considerable detail about
their personalities and lifestyle. Strathclyde University says " We would avoid placing
morning and night people together as their sleep patterns would clash. Warwick
University tries to match roommates with similar hobbies, on the basis that "for first-year
students this can break the ice and help them to settle down". At similar universities, the
accommodation service does not allocate rooms centrally, but instead enables new
students to book specific rooms themselves online. This system allows first-year
students who already know each other or who come from high school to room together.
This, the university claims, leads to fewer complaints. In contrast, however, West of
England University says grouping students with similarities is encouraged but friends
are "not generally housed together" as this would affect the social dynamics of
residences.
137
of about 350 words.
A It should be the priority of every government to make sure that its citizens are
educated. However, the traditional view of education, in which the teacher is the
provider of all knowledge, is now considered out of date and inefficient at some
points. For this reason, governments should invest more in educational technology
rather than increasing the number of teachers.
In your opinion, do governments need to invest more in educational technology to

be able to provide better education services?
OR
B Every year, millions of people in the developing world die because they do not
have access to clean water. The death rate is particularly high among young children.
Many people argue that it is the responsibility of governments in developed
countries to help to sort out this problem.
In your opinion, do governments in developed countries have a responsibility to

help those suffering in underdeveloped countries?
YOU MAY USE THIS SPACE TO PLAN YOUR ESSAY
138

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BILKENT UNIVERSITY

ENGLISH LANGUAGE PREPARATORY PROGRAM

2022-2023 ACADEMIC YEAR

SPRING SEMESTER PAE SETS

PAE SET 1 Reading Part One

1 What does the writer imply in paragraph 2?

2 The main idea of the last paragraph is that

A you have the ability to make your life much better.

A advertise the services of an image consulting company.

Children's Brains and Multi-tasking

4 The main idea of the first paragraph is that

A the effects of multi tasking is not known.

5 Goldstein talks about the rising scores on intelligence tests in order to

A explain what he thinks about multi-tasking and its usefulness.

7 In the second paragraph, the word ‘revolutionised’ is closest in meaning to

8 The main idea of the text is about the

A need for time rules and conventions.

The Three Gorges Museum

A by a general from the army.

10 In paragraph 2, the discovery of old teeth shows that the

A history of the region goes back to pre-historic times.

11 The main idea of paragraph 3 is the

A international importance of the Three Gorges Museum.

A Pictures of fishing boats on the Yangtze

13 According to paragraph 5, what can visitors do in the Three Gorges museum?

A Watch a film about China’s more recent past

A artefacts in the museum.

16 Which of the following statements is true about the clinic

A The previous doctor had built it himself.

17 Which of the following statements is true about the waiting room?

A A space for kids had been added.

18 Paragraph 4 mainly focuses on Sara's

A experience in the clinic.

19 It can be inferred that her work in Atlanta had been

PAE SET 1 Reading Part Three

21 In 1913, Mawson travelled to Antarctica in order to

A enhance his reputation as an explorer.

22 The word stranded in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

23 The main idea of paragraph 2 is that

A had wasted government agencies’ time.

25 The word they in paragraph 4 refers to

A journey to Antarctica is exciting.

27 According to Turney, the AAE expedition was unique in that it

A was the first privately funded expedition to Antarctica.

A could not have achieved its aims in the time given.

29 Which of the following is true according to paragraph 6?

A Turney had a lot of difficulty finding suitable volunteers to work with.

A prove the validity of Mawson’s climate studies.

31 Australian expeditions only need to prove that they

A will have enough food and supplies on board.

32 The writer mentions international sensitivities to show

A how tension over Antarctica will increase.

33 The Russian delegation at the meeting on ship safety believed

A international conflicts reduce the effectiveness of rescue missions.

35 The writer believes that

A the AAE will be prevented from travelling to Antarctica in the future.

PAE SET 1 GRAMMAR

36 A while B when C since D if E during

37 A If B As though C Although D Despite E Because

38 A what B that C when D which E where

39 A such B than C unlike D by E as

41 A being B to be C is D been E was

42 A about B of C so D from E above

43 A less B most C least D many E more