Biology EXTRACT 8 - Removed

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. Crypts of lieberkuhn are present in

(a) intestine (b) stomach
1. Teeth of adult man, not present in milk dentition are (c) oesophagus (d) all of these
(a) molars (b) premolars 9. The sphincter of Oddi is present between
(c) canines (d) incisors (a) oesophagus and cardiac stomach.
2. Mammalian teeth are (b) pyloric stomach and duodenum.
(a) acrodont (b) homodont (c) hepatic duct and cystic duct.
(c) thecodont (d) polyphyodont (d) hepatopancreatic duct and duodenum.
3. Which of the following is a freely movable muscular organ 10. Which of the following does not produce any digestive
that is attached to the floor of the oral cavity by the enzyme ?
frenulum? (a) Acini of pancreas (b) Liver
(a) Jaws (b) Teeth (c) Stomach (d) Duodenum
(c) Tongue (d) Salivary glands 11. The number of salivary glands present in human beings
4. The function of tongue is to is
(a) grind and crush the food. (a) 5 pairs (b) 4 pairs
(b) position food for swallowing. (c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
(c) add enzymes and moisture to the food. 12. Brunner’s glands are found in
(d) protect the opening of the pharynx during (a) submucosa of stomach
swallowing. (b) wall of rectum
5. A "1" flap called "2" prevents the entry of food into the (c) submucosa of duodenum
glottis – opening of the "3" – during "4". Identify 1, 2, 3, (d) mucosa of ileum
and 4. 13. Function of gall bladder is
(a) storage of bile.
1 2 3 4 (b) formation of enzymes.
(a) Cartilaginous Epiglottis Wind pipe Swallowing (c) synthesis of bile.
(d) formation of bile salts.
(b) Bony Glissons Stomach Digestion
14. Where does bile go after it leaves the gall bladder?
capsule (a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum
(c) Bony Pharynx Oral cavity Ingestion (c) Ileum (d) Caecum
(d) Cartilaginous Oesophagus Trachea Mastication 15. Which of the following is the structural and function unit
of the largest digestive gland?
6. The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the (a) Kupffer cells
(a) serosa membrane (b) Hepatic lobules
(b) mucosa membrane (c) Glissons capsule
(c) submucosa membrane (d) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(d) lumen 16. The common bile duct in human is formed by the joining
7. ____ are needed in the diet as components of teeth and of
bone, regulators of acid-base balance and water balance, (a) pancreatic duct and bile duct.
and parts of certain enzymes. (b) cystic duct and hepatic duct.
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Fats (c) cystic duct and pancreatic duct.
(c) Minerals (d) Nucleic acids (d) hepatic duct and pancreatic duct.
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EBD_7209
138 Biology
17. The substrate for amylase is 31. Which of the following enzyme digest milk protein in
(a) proteins (b) fats alkaline medium?
(c) starch (d) cane sugar (a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin
18. Digestive enzymes responsible for breaking down (c) Rennin (d) Chymotrypsin
disaccharides includes 32. Most of the fat digestion occurs in
(a) pepsin, trypsin and trypsinogen. (a) rectum (b) stomach
(b) amylase, pepsin, and lipase. (c) colon (d) small intestine
(c) sucrase, lactase, and maltase. 33. Muscular contraction in alimentary canal is called —
(d) pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin. (a) deglutition (b) mastication
19. Salivary amylase is also known as (c) peristalsis (d) none of these
(a) ptyalin (b) gastrin 34. Enterokinase takes part in conversion of
(c) glyoxylase (d) pepsin (a) pepsinogen to pepsin
20. pH of saliva is (b) trypsinogen to trypsin
(a) 6.5 (b) 8 (c) protein into polypeptides
(c) 7 (d) 9.5 (d) caseinogen into casein
21. Maltase converts 35. HCl of gastric juice
(a) maltose to glucose at pH greater than 7. (a) inactivates ptyalin and activates pepsin.
(b) maltose to glucose at pH lesser than 7.0. (b) activates ptyalin and inactivates pepsin.
(c) maltose to alcohol. (c) inactivates both ptyalin and pepsin.
(d) starch to maltose at pH higher than 7.0. (d) activates both ptyalin and pepsin.
22. Which digestive organ mechanically and chemically 36. Rennin acts on milk protein and changes
transforms a food bolus into chyme? (a) caesinogen into caesin.
(a) Oesophagus (b) Stomach (b) caesin into paracaesin.
(c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine (c) caseinogen into paracaesin.
23. The disaccharidases are secreted with (d) paracaesin into caesinogen.
(a) saliva (b) gastric juice 37. Which cells of gastric mucosa secrete pepsinogen?
(c) intestinal juice (d) pancreatic juice (a) Parietal (b) Oxyntic
24. Succus entericus is a term used for (c) Chief cells (d) Goblet
(a) the junction of ileum and colon 38. Which enzyme initiates protein digestion ?
(b) inflammation of intestine (a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin
(c) vermiform appendix (c) Aminopeptidase (d) Carboxypeptidase
(d) digestive juice of intestine 39. Trypsin changes
25. Enzyme trypsin is secreted by (a) fats into fatty acids.
(a) duodenum (b) liver (b) proteins into peptones.
(c) pancreas (d) stomach (c) starch and glycogen into maltose.
26. The protein coated, water soluble fat globules are called (d) maltose into its components.
(a) chylomicrons (b) micelles 40. Most of the chemical digestion of food in humans is
(c) chyle (d) monoglycerides completed in the —
27. Milk protein is acted upon by a gastric enzyme in infant (a) small intestine (b) appendix
mammals. The enzyme is ___________. (c) ascending colon (d) stomach
(a) rennin (b) caesinogen 41. End product of protein digestion is —
(c) pepsinogen (d) pepsin (a) sugar (b) amino acid
28. Pancreatic juice helps in the digestion of (c) nucleotide (d) ammonia
(a) proteins and fats 42. Which one of the following is the constituents of the
(b) proteins and carbohydrates pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in
(c) fats and carbohydrates humans?
(d) proteins, fats and carbohydrates (a) Maltase (b) Enterokinase
29. Oxyntic cells are located in (c) Trypsinogen (d) Chymotrypsin
(a) Islets of langerhans. 43. Which homeostatic function of the liver is controlled and
(b) gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin. monitored in the pancreas?
(c) kidneys and secrete renin. (a) Deamination of amino acids
(d) gastric epithelium and secrete HCl. (b) Release of glucose
30. Enzyme trypsinogen is changed to trypsin by (c) Release of iron
(a) gastrin (b) enteropeptidase (d) Removal of toxins
(c) enterogastrone (d) secretin
Digestion and Absorption 139
44. Diglycerides on digestion give 54. Jaundice may be caused by retarded function of —
(a) one fatty acid and one glycerol (a) lungs (b) kidneys
(b) two fatty acid and one glycerol (c) heart (d) liver
(c) two glycerol and one fatty acid 55. ____i_____ is a diseased condition in which a person
(d) two glycerols only passes out watery stool frequently while
45. Semi - digested food in intestine is called ______ii_______ is known as infrequent elimination of
(a) chyle (b) chyme dry stool.
(c) bolus (d) none of these (a) i- Constipation, ii- Diarrhoea
46. Which of the following enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice? (b) i- Diarrhoea, ii- Constipation
(a) Chymotrypsinogen (b) Steapsin (c) i- Diarrhoea, ii- Vomiting
(c) Nuclease (d) Enterokinase (d) i- Constipation, ii- Vomiting
47. Emulsification refers to
(a) action of bile on breaking large fat droplets STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(b) action of gastric lipase on proteins 56. How do nutrients, absorbed by the small intestine, travel
(c) action of salivary amylase on starch to the individual cells of the human body?
(d) action of pancreas on fat droplets (a) The nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine
48. Protection of the walls of the stomach against the action
into the blood and move through the circulatory
of its own digestive juice
system to the body cells.
(a) is controlled by a centre in the medulla of the brain.
(b) The nutrients move from the small intestine directly
(b) results from the nervous reactions of the lining of
the stomach. to the liver and then move through the lymphatic
(c) results from the presence of an anti-enzyme chemical system to the body cells.
formed by the gastric gland. (c) The small intestine forces the nutrients into the
(d) results from the neutralizing, buffering and coating kidneys, where the nutrients are then dissolved in
mucus covering its inner surface. fluids used by the body cells.
49. A good source of lipase is (d) The body cells send nerve impulses indicating a lack
(a) saliva (b) gastric juice of nutrients to the small intestine, and the small
(c) bile (d) pancreatic Juice intestine sends the nutrients back to the cells.
50. Glucose, some amino acids and sodium are absorbed in 57. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
to blood by ________. chylomicrons ?
(a) simple diffusion (a) They are undigested proteins.
(b) active transport (b) They are undigested carbohydrates.
(c) facilitated transport (c) They are fat droplets coated with phospholipids.
(d) the statement is incorrect since they are absorbed in (d) They are fat droplets coated with glycerol and
lymph and not in blood.
proteins.
51. The ______ is primarily a storage chamber within the
58. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
digestive system, while the ______ reabsorbs water, ions,
enterokinase?
and generates the faeces.
(a) buccal cavity; midgut (a) It is a hormone that prevents the secretion of gastric
(b) crop; midgut juice.
(c) stomach; hindgut (b) It is an enzyme that activates the enzymes of
(d) buccal cavity; hindgut pancreatic juice.
52. The main function of lacteals in the villi of small intestine (c) It is an enzyme that activates the proteolytic enzymes
is the absorption of of succus entericus.
(a) amino acids and glucose (d) It is a hormone that prevents the secretion of
(b) glucose and vitamins pancreatic juice.
(c) water and mineral salts
59. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(d) fatty acids and glycerol
53. Under which of the following circumstances will insulin (a) Brunner’s glands are submucosal.
be secreted? (b) Rugae are the irregular folds of inner gastric mucosa.
(a) The blood sugar level in the liver is low. (c) Glisson’s capsule is the connective tissue sheath of
(b) The blood sugar level in the hepatic portal vein is hepatic lobule.
low. (d) Mesothelium or serosa lies in close proximity of the
(c) The blood sugar level in the islets of Langerhans is high. sub-mucosa.
(d) The glycogen level in the skeletal muscle is high.
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140 Biology
60. Which of the following is not the function of HCl in (iii) Food is digested completely in the stomach.
stomach? (iv) The large intestine is shorter than the small intestine.
(a) Breaking down proteins into peptones. (v) Inside the large intestine, most of the water from the
(b) Killing the bacteria ingested with food and drinks. undigested food is absorbed by the body.
(c) Promoting the formation of pepsin. (a) (i) and (ii) only
(d) Softening fibrous food elements. (b) (iii) and (v) only
61. What is common among amylase, renin and trypsin? (c) (i), (iv) and (v) only
(a) All are proteins. (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(b) All are proteolytic enzymes. 68. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
(c) Produced in stomach. jaundice?
(d) Act at pH lower than 7. (i) It indicates liver damage.
(ii) It involves infrequent elimination of dry stool.
62. What will happen if bile duct gets choked ?
(iii) It involves yellowing of skin and eyes.
(a) Faeces become dry.
(iv) It increases absorption of food.
(b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralized.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) There will be little digestion in intestine.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(d) Little digestion of fat will occur. 69. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
63. Which one of the following statements is true regarding absorption of fatty acids?
digestion and absorption of food in humans? (a) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the small
(a) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary intestine.
amylase in our mouth. (b) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels at the small
(b) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme intestine.
pepsinogen. (c) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels from the blood
(c) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through stream.
intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like (d) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the large
Na+. intestine.
(d) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are
transported from intestine into blood capillaries. ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
64. Which of the following statement is true ? In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
(a) Pepsin cannot digest casein. by a statement of Reason.
(b) Trypsin can digest collagen. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
(c) Pepsin cannot digest collagen. the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(d) Chymotrypsin can digest casein. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
65. Which of the following statements is incorrect? not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(a) Saliva lubricates the food. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(b) Tongue helps in chewing of food. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(c) Salivary glands have protein digesting enzymes. 70. Assertion : Starch is hydrolysed by ptyalin to maltose.
(d) Bile does not contain any digestive enzymes. Reason : Sucrase hydrolyses sucrose to lactose.
66. Which of the following is not the function of digestive 71. Assertion : Presence of HCl in stomach is essential for
system? the process of digestion.
(a) It allows your body to get the nutrients and energy Reason : HCl kills and inhibits the growth of bacteria in
it needs from the food you eat. stomach.
72. Assertion : Chewing is one of the most important process
(b) It breaks down large food molecules into smaller
of digestion in animals.
molecules that can be used by cells.
Reason : Chewing helps in enzyme action.
(c) It converts foods to larger substances that can be
73. Assertion : Glucose, Na+ and amino acids are absorbed
absorbed and used by the cells of the body.
actively.
(d) It converts food into soluble and diffusible products
Reason : Na+, glucose and amino acids move against the
that can be absorbed by the blood.
concentration gradient and hence require energy.
67. Which of the following statements are true regarding 74. Assertion : Water and electrolytes are almost fully
human digestive system? absorbed in the large intestine.
(i) Food is not digested in the gullet. Reason : In large intestine, haustral contractions (slow
(ii) There is no digestive juice in the mouth. segmenting movements) roll the forming faeces over and
over, causing absorption of water and electrolytes.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 80. Match column I (organs) with column II (functions) and
choose the correct option.
75. Choose the correct matching pair. Column-I Column-II
(a) Renin – Protein (Organs) (Functions)
(b) Trypsin – Starch
A. Mouth I. Reclaims water and salts
(c) Invertase – Sucrose
(d) Amylase – Lactose B. Stomach II. Carries out most of the
76. Identify the correct set which shows the name of the digestion and absorption of
enzymes from where it is secreted and substrate upon nutrients.
which it acts C. Small intestine III. Releases amylase enzyme
(a) Pepsin – Stomach wall – Protein that break down
(b) Ptyalin – Intestine – Maltose carbohydrates.
(c) Chymotrypsin – Salivary gland –Lactose D. Large intestine IV. An acidic compartment that
(d) Ptyalin – Pancreas – Lipid begins to break proteins
77. Select the correct match of the digested products in into larger polypeptides.
humans with their absorption site and mechanism. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
Column-I Column-II (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(a) Fructose, Na+ – Small intestine, passive
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
absorption
(b) Glycerol, fatty acids – Duodenum, move as (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
chylomicrons 81. The given pair represent substrate-enzyme pair. Which
(c) Cholesterol, maltose – Large intestine, of the following pair is (are) correct?
active absorption A. Maltose – Lactase
(d) Glycine, glucose – Small intestine, B. Protein – Pepsin
active absorption
C. Carbohydrate – Lipase
78. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the
site of action of the given substrate, the enzyme acting D. Casein – Renin
upon it and the end product? (a) A and B only (b) B and C only
Lipase (c) A and D only (d) B and D only
(a) Stomach : Fats ¾¾¾ ¾® Micelles
82. Match column I (food type) with column II their (enzymes)
Tryp sin
(b) Duodenum : Triglycerides ¾¾¾¾ ® and choose the correct option.
Monoglycerides Column-I Column-II
µAmylase (Food type) (Enzymes)
(c) Small intenstine : Starch ¾¾¾¾¾
®
Disaccharide A. Starch I. Nucleases
(Maltose) B. Protein II. Lipase
Pepsin C. Fats III. Amylase
(d) Small intestine : Proteins ¾¾¾¾ ® Amino acid
79. Which one of the following four secretions is correctly D Nucleic acid IV. Trypsin
matched with its source, target and nature of action? (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
Secretion Source Target Action (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(a) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall Release of bile (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V
bladder juice (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) Gastrin Stomach Oxyntic Production of 83. Which of the following monomers are produced, when
lining cells HCl lipids are broken down by lipase?
(c) Salivary Salivary Mouth Breakdown of A. Nucleotides
amylase gland starch into
B. Amino acids
maltose
(d) Rennin Saliva Small Emulsification C. Glycerol
intestine of fats D. Fatty acids
(a) A and C only (b) C and D only
(c) C only (d) D only
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142 Biology
84. Match the following digestive processes given in column
I with their correct description given in column II and
then choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Digestive processes) (Description) S
A. Ingestion I. Elimination of
digestible solids.
B. Mechanical digestion II. Enzymatic
degradation of food
stuffs into simpler (a) A= amylase, B = maltase, C = lactase, D = invertase
molecules. (b) A = amylase, B = maltase, C= invertase, D= lactase
C. Chemical digestion III. Taking food into the (c) A = amylase, B = invertase, C = maltase, D= lactase
digestive systems (d) A = amylase, B = lactase, C = maltase, D = invertase.
D. Defecation IV. Chewing, mixing, 88. The diagram given below shows the human digestive
churning and system. Few structures are marked as I, II, III and IV.
segmentation of Which region of the human digestive system releases
food. bile juice?
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(d) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
85. Match the following organic molecules given in column I
with their correct description given in column II and then
choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(I)
(Organic molecules) (Description)
A. Carbohydrates I. It is made of fatty (II)
acids and glycerol (III)
B. Proteins II. It is mostly ingested
in the form of starch
C. Nucleic acids III. It is built of long (IV)
chains of amino
acids
D. Lipids IV. It is made of ribose
(a) I (b) II
or deoxyribose
sugars and (c) III (d) IV
nitrogenous bases. 89. The given figure shows a section of small intestinal
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV mucosa showing villi. What is the function of structure
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III marked as I in the given figure?
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
86. Which of the following substances involved in organic
molecule digestion is correctly matched with their (I)
descriptions?
(a) Salivary amylase- It begins lipid digestion in mouth.
(b) Trypsin- It emulsifies fats for digestion.
(c) Bile- It digests proteins in small intestine.
(d) Maltase- It is a brush border enzyme that acts on
disaccharides.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS

(a) To absorb amino acids.
87. The given flowchart shows the fate of carbohydrate
(b) To carry blood.
during digestion in the human alimentary canal. Identify
(c) To transport fat
the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D.
(d) To transport glucose
90. Refer the given diagram of digestive system to answer

the question.
x
93. Sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of digestive juice by
guarding which duct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
94. Which two ducts are responsible for the formation of a
duct that carry bile from the gall bladder and conduct it
Which of the following is associated with the structure into the first section of the small intestine?
marked as "X"? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) It is a small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 1
microorganisms. 95. Which of the following best describes the role of the
(b) The undigested, unabsorbed substances enter into structure marked as Y in the given figure?
this structure through ileo-ceacal valve.
(c) It helps in mechanical churning and chemical
digestion of food.
(d) Both (a) and (c) Y
Directions (Qs. 91 and 92): Refer the given figure and answer
the questions. This figure shows the diagrammatic
representation of T.S of gut with few structures marked as 1, 2,
3 and 4
1
(a) Serves a minor role in the chemical digestion of fats.
Inner-circular 2
Outer-longitudinal (b) Mucus is secreted to protect the oesophagus from
the stomach enzymes.
3
(c) Digestive enzymes are secreted as food passes from
4
the oesophagus to the stomach.
(d) Connects the mouth to the stomach and has no
function in chemical digestion.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS

91. Which of the following structure forms glands in the
stomach and crypts in between the bases of villi? 96. In pancreatic juice, which of the followings are secreted
(a) 1 (b) 2 in inactive form as proenzymes ?
(c) 3 (d) 4 (a) Trypsin, chymotrypsin & carboxypeptidases
92. Which of the following part is made up of a thin (b) Pepsin, trypsin and chymotrypsin
mesothelium with some connective tissue? (c) Trypsin only
(a) 1 (b) 2 (d) Trypsin and chymotrypsin only
(c) 3 (d) 4 97. If the bile-pancreatic duct is blocked then which of the
Directions (Qs. 93 and 94): The given diagram shows the duct following will not be affected ?
systems of liver, gall bladder and pancreas in which few (a) Digestion of proteins
structures are marked as 1.2.3 and 4. On the basis of this figure (b) Emulsification of fats
answer the questions. (c) Level of blood glucose
(d) Digestion of starch
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144 Biology
98. Which of the following is the correct chronological order 107. In case of taking food rich in lime juice, the action of
for flow of food from mouth to anus? ptyalin on starch is
(a) Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large (a) enhanced (b) reduced
intestine (c) unaffected (d) stopped
(b) Large intestine ® Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small
108. If the chyme of a person who had orally consumed only
intestine
starch as food is analysed before it enters the duodenum,
(c) Small intestine ® Large intestine ® Oesophagus ®
stomach it will show the presence of
(d) Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large intestine ® (a) maltose and glucose
Oesophagus (b) dextrin and maltose
99. Which of the following occurs in the duodenum? (c) starch, dextrin and maltose
(a) Absorption of vitamins and minerals. (d) starch, dextrin and glucose
(b) Mixing of food with pancreatic juice and bile. 109. An adolescent human below 17 years of age normally has
(c) Mastication of food.
dental formula as
(d) Absorption of water.
100. From deep to superficial, what are the tunics of the 2, 1, 2, 0 2, 1, 2, 2
(a) (b)
intraperitoneal portions of the alimentary canal? 2, 1, 2, 0 2, 1, 2, 2
(a) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa
2, 1, 3, 2 2, 2, 3, 2
(b) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and serosa (c) (d)
(c) Adventia, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa 2, 1, 3, 2 2, 2, 3, 2
(d) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and adventia 110. Which of the following is the correct chronological order
101. If for some reason our goblet cells becomes non- for the enzyme activity of some enzymes taking part in
functional then this will adversely affect protein digestion?
(a) production of somatostatin.
(a) Pepsin ® Trypsin ® Peptidase
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands.
(c) maturation of sperms. (b) Pepsin ® Peptidase ® Trypsin
(d) smooth movement of food down the intestine. (c) Trypsin ® Pepsin ® Peptidase
102. The digestion of butter begins with (d) Peptidase ® Trypsin ® Pepsin
(a) saliva 111. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric
(b) gastric juice
glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
(c) pancreatic juice
(a) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal
(d) intestinal juice
mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted into
103. Removal of gall bladder in man would lead to
(a) impairment of digestion of fats. trypsin.
(b) impairment of digestion of protein. (b) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin.
(c) jaundice (c) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen.
(d) increased acidity in intestine. (d) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen
104. During prolonged fasting is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
(a) first fats are used up, followed by carbohydrates 112. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes
from liver and muscles and proteins in the end. eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves
(b) first carbohydrates are used up, followed by fat and down the alimentary canal?
proteins towards end. (a) Salivary maltase ® Carboxypeptidase ®
(c) first lipids, followed by proteins and carbohydrates Trypsinogen
towards end.
(b) Pancreatic amylase ® Salivary amylase ® Lipases
(d) none of the above.
(c) Disaccharidase like maltase ® Lipases ® Nucleases
105. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm raw sugar,
4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 (d) Salivary amylase ® Pancreatic amylase ®
gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 Disaccharidases
gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get? 113. A person who is on hunger strike and is surviving only
(a) 144 (b) 126 on water, will have
(c) 164 (d) 112 (a) less amino acids in his urine.
106. If pH of stomach is 7 then which component of food would (b) more glucose in his blood.
be affected? (c) less urea in his urine.
(a) Starch (b) Protein
(d) more sodium in his urine.
(c) Fat (d) Sucrose
114. If the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially 119. Which part is infected when a person is suffering from
non-functional, what is likely to happen? diarrhoea ?
(a) The pancreatic enzymes, specially the trypsin and (a) Small intenstine (b) Large intestine
lipase will not work efficiently. (c) Stomach (d) None of these
(b) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly. 120. Which process transported the bolus into the pharynx
(c) Steapsin will be more effective. and then into the oesophagus?
(d) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin (a) Deglutition (b) Peristalsis
into proteases and peptones. (c) Vomiting (d) All of these
115. What happens to the food when it enters from oesophagus 121. If the epiglottis does not function correctly, then what
to stomach? will happen to the human being ?
(a) Food mixes with juices and protein digestion starts. (a) One might congest.
(b) Food mixes with juices and carbohydrate digestion (b) Peristalsis will discontinue.
starts. (c) Acid reflux disease will damage the oesophagus.
(c) Food quickly moves into small intestine. (d) Swallowing will be difficult or impossible.
122. Study the statement given below and answer the question.
(d) Food quickly moves into large intestine.
“Even though the contents of stomach are very acidic,
116. The hydrochloric acid secreted by the gastric glands
the stomach usually does not cause damage to itself”.
activates the enzyme _____i_____ while th e
Identify the reasons (i to iv) given below which are
_____ii_____ secreted by gastric glands protects the
responsible for the above statement.
lining of the stomach from the action of acid.
(i) The release of gastric juices is controlled to avoid
(a) i- pepsin, ii- mucus
too high a concentration.
(b) i- pepsin, ii- trypsin
(ii) The stomach lining is quick to repair itself.
(c) i- amylase, ii- trypsin
(iii) Mucus forms a thick protective coating for the
(d) i- amylase, ii- rennin
stomach.
117. Which digestive processes takes place in the mouth?
(iv) Food and water dilute the gastric juices
(a) Both chemical and physical digestion.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) Chemical digestion only.
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) Physical digestion only.
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) Neither chemical nor physical digestion.
(d) All of the above
118. Following are given parts of small and large intestine.
123. If the large intestine becomes irritated and peristalsis
(i) Cecum (ii) Colon
increases then which of the following will result?
(iii) Jejunum (iv) Rectum
(a) Indigestion (b) Diarrhoea
(v) Duodenum (vi) Ileum
(c) Constipation (d) Vomiting
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the
order food passes through them from the small intestine
to the anus.
(a) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi)
(b) (v) – (iii) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
(c) (iv) – (v) – (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi)
(d) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
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Chapter
ᨨ §෌矄矄
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS (c) inspiratory capacity

(d) functional residual capacity
1. Which of the following has no specialized respiratory 11. The total volume of air a person can expire after normal
structures ? inspiration is called
(a) Crab (b) Earthworm (a) residual volume
(c) Salmon (d) Ant (b) vital capacity
2. The structure which prevents the entry of food into the (c) expiratory capacity
windpipe is (d) functional residual capacity
(a) gullet (b) glottis 12. Functional residual capacity can be represented as
(c) tonsil (d) epiglottis (a) TV + ERV (b) ERV + RV
3. Lungs are present in (c) RV + IRV (d) ERV + TV + IRV
(a) mediastinum (b) pleural cavity 13. The total lung capacity is represented by
(c) pericardial cavity (d) thoracic cavity (a) Tidal volume + Vital capacity
4. The structure which does not contribute to the breathing (b) Tidal volume + Residual volume
movements in mammals is (c) Vital capacity + Residual volume
(a) larynx (b) ribs (d) Inspiratory + Expiratory reserve volumes
(c) diaphragm (d) intercostal muscles 14. When 1200 mL air is left in the lungs, it is called
5. Intercostal muscles are found attached with (a) vital capacity
(a) diaphragm (b) ribs (b) tidal volume
(c) pleura (d) lungs (c) residual volume
6. Membrane separating air in pulmonary alveoli from blood (d) inspiratory reserve volume
capillaries is 15. The volume of air breathed in and out during normal
(a) alveolar epithelium breathing is called
(b) cardiac epithelium (a) vital capacity
(c) endothelium of blood capillaries (b) inspiratory reserve volume
(d) both (a) and (c) (c) expiratory reserve volume
7. The nose produces ____________ to put moisture in (d) tidal volume
the air and catch dust and bacteria. 16. In anaerobic respiration
(a) mucus (b) bronchi (a) O2 is taken in. (b) CO2 is taken in.
(c) cilia (d) oxygen (c) O2 is given out. (d) CO2 is given out.
8. The smallest and thinnest tube in the lung is 17. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers following amount
(a) trachea (b) larynx of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological contition.
(c) bronchi (d) bronchiole (a) 5 ml (b) 25 ml
9. The path that leads from the throat to the lungs is known as (c) 50 ml (d) More than 50 ml
(a) trachea (b) oesophagus 18. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the atmospheric air as
(c) epiglottis (d) larynx compared to that of alveolar air ?
10. The amount of air remaining in the air passages and alveoli (a) pO2 lesser and pCO2 higher
at the end of quiet respiration is called (b) pO2 higher and pCO2 lesser
(a) tidal volume (c) Both pO2 and pCO2 lesser
(b) inspirating reserve volume (d) Both pO2 and pCO2 higher
Breathing and Exhange of Gases 147
19. As blood becomes fully O2 saturated, haemoglobin (a) 5ml of CO to the alveoli
combines with____ molecule(s) of oxygen. (b) 6ml of CO2 to the plasma
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(c) 4 (d) 8 (d) 7ml of CO to the plasma
20. What percentage of oxygen is carried by haemoglobin ? 32. Asthma is caused due to
(a) 90 (b) 98 (a) infection of lungs.
(c) 23 (d) 73 (b) spasm in bronchial muscles.
21. Partial pressure of oxygen in inspired and expired air is (c) bleeding into pleural cavity.
……. and ……. mm of Hg. (d) infection of trachea.
(a) 100, 46 (b) 158, 40 33. Emphysema developes mainly because of
(a) allergy or hypersensitization.
(c) 158, 90 (d) 100, 95
(b) spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles.
22. p50 value denotes
(c) cigarette smoking.
(a) percentage of oxygen
(d) inflammation of the alveoli
(b) partial pressure of O2
(c) percentage of haemoglobin 34. Respiratory mechanism is controlled by
(a) central nervous system
(d) percentage of oxyhaemoglobin
(b) sympathetic nervous system
23. Most oxygen is carried by the blood __(i)__. Most carbon
(c) parasympathetic nervous system
dioxide is carried by the blood __(ii)__. (d) autonomic nervous system
(a) (i) attached to haemoglobin. (ii) in the form of 35. The respiratory centre, which regulates respiration, is
bicarbonate ions. located in
(b) (i) dissolved in plasma . (ii) dissolved in plasma. (a) cerebral peduncle (b) vagus nerve
(c) (i) in the form of H+ ions . (ii) in the form of bicarbonate (c) pons varolii (d) medulla oblongata
ions. 36. The pneumotaxic centre that can moderate the function
(d) (i) attached to haemoglobin. (ii) attached to of respiratory rhythm centre is located in
haemoglobin. (a) dorsal side of medulla
24. Which of the following gases makes the most stable (b) ventral side of medulla
combination with the haemoglobin of RBCs? (c) aortic arch and carotid artery
(a) CO2 (b) CO (d) pons varolii
(c) O2 (d) N 37. Which of the following normally contains the highest
25. In mammals, carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to concentration of oxygen ?
respiratory surface by (a) Body cells
(a) plasma (b) R.B.C. (b) Inhaled air
(c) W.B.C. (d) both (a) and (b) (c) Air in the pulmonary trunk
26. __(i)__ in CO2 in your blood, which causes __(ii)__ in (d) Blood entering the lungs
pH, would cause your breathing to speed up. 38. The volume of the air that leaves the lungs in human is
(a) (i) An increase, (ii) a rise measured by
(b) (i) An increase, (ii) a drop (a) respirometer
(c) (i) A decrease, (ii) a rise (b) spirometer
(d) (i) A decrease, (ii) a drop (c) sphygmomanometer
27. Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentration in (d) monometer
(a) leucocytes (b) blood plasma 39. Which of the following organ receives electrical messages
(c) erythrocytes (d) lymphocytes from the brain for breathing in and out?
28. Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin can be promoted by (a) Diaphragm (b) Bronchi
(a) low pCO2 (b) high pCO2 (c) Bronchioles (d) Alveoli
(c) low body temperature (d) high blood pH 40. Which of the following group are supported by incomplete
29. Which of the following structures is the actual gas cartilaginous rings?
exchange surface in the mammalian respiratory system ? (a) Pharynx, primary & tertiary bronchi and initial
(a) Bronchus (b) Alveolus bronchioles.
(c) Bronchiole (d) Trachea (b) Trachea, primary & secondary bronchi, and initial
30. Residual air mostly occurs in bronchioles.
(a) alveoli (b) bronchus (c) Larynx, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and
(c) nostrils (d) trachea initial bronchioles.
31. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers (d) Trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and
approximately _________________. initial bronchioles.
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148 Biology
41. Thoracic chamber is formed (A) by the vertebral column, 49. Which one of the following is the correct statement for
(B) by the sternum, (C) by the ribs and on the (D) side by respiration in humans?
the dome shaped diaphragm. (a) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries
Identify A, B, C and D. may suffer from lung fibrosis.
(a) A – dorsally, B – ventrally, C – laterally, D – lower (b) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by
(b) A – ventrally, B – laterally, C – dorsally, D – upper haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
(c) A – laterally, B - ventrally, C – dorsally, D – lower (c) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi.
(d) A – dorsally, B - laterally, C – ventrally, D – upper (d) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region
of brain can increase the duration of inspiration.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 50. Mark the correct statement.
(a) Volume of residual air is higher than tidal volume.
42. Which of the following statement is correct? (b) Volume of complementary air is higher than tidal
(a) Tracheal rings are of hyaline cartilage . volume.
(b) Dorsal side of thoracic chamber is formed by sternum. (c) Volume of supplementary air is lower than residual
(c) Expiration occurs when there is negative pressure in capacity.
lungs. (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 51. Which of the following statements is correct?
43. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration
(a) Diffusion membrane is made up of 3-major layers. is active.
(b) Solubility of CO2 is higher than O2 by 25 times. (b) Inspiration is active process whereas expiration is passive.
(c) Breathing volumes are estimated by spirometer. (c) Inspiration and expiration are active process.
(d) High conc. of hydrogen ion s favours (d) Inspiration and expiration are passive process.
oxyhaemoglobin formation. 52. Which of the following conditions is responsible for
44. With reference to human respiration, which is correct? increase in ventilation rate of lungs ?
(a) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation. (a) Increase of CO2 content in inhaled air.
(b) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary (b) Increase of CO2 content in exhaled air.
ventilation. (c) Decrease in O2 content of inhaled air.
(c) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary (d) Decrease in O2 content of exhaled air.
ventilation. 53. What happens during breathing?
(d) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar (i) Size of our chest increases.
ventilation. (ii) Size of our chest decreases.
45. Which of the following statement correctly defines Bohr (iii) Carbon dioxide is removed out from body.
effect? (iv) Air enters our lungs.
(a) Rise in p50 with a decrease in CO2 conc. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(b) Rise in p50 with decrease in pH. (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
(c) Rise in p50 with increase in O2. 54. Air travels through
(d) Fall in p50 with decrease in pH. (i) Nose (ii) Skin
46. Which one of the following statement is correct? (iii) Trachea (iv) Mouth
(a) All animals require a medium for cellular respiration. (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iv)
(b) In all animals oxygen is transported by blood. (c) only (i) (d) only (ii)
(c) All animals need oxygen for respiration. 55. Which of the following statements are true/false?
(d) All of the above (i) The blood transports CO2 comparatively easily
47. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin because of its higher solubility.
is that it (ii) Approximately 8 -.9% of CO2 is transported being
(a) maintains blood sugar level. dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(b) acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood. (iii) The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses
(c) functions as a catalyst for biological reactions. passively into the blood stream and passes into red
(d) forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases. blood corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3
48. Identify the correct statement with reference to transport (iv) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the erythrocytes is
of respiratory gases by blood ? basic.
(a) Haemoglobin is necessary for transport of carbon (v) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the
dioxide and carbonic anhydrase for transport of
erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.
oxygen.
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) are true; (ii) and (iv) are false.
(b) Haemoglobin is necessary for transport of oxygen and
(b) (i), (iii) and (v) are false; (ii) and (iv) are true.
carbonic anhydrase for transport of carbon dioxide.
(c) Only oxygen is transported by blood. (c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are true; (iii) and (v) are false.
(d) Only carbon dioxide is transported by blood. (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false; (iii) and (v) are true.
56. Read the following statements and select the correct

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
option.
(i) Carbonic anhydrase is present in the erythrocytes . 63. Match the column I (Animals) with column II (Mode of
(ii) In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide combine with respiration) and choose the correct option.
water and is transported. Column - I Column - II
(a) Statement (i) is correct and is responsible for
(Animals) (Mode of respiration)
statement (ii).
(b) Statement (i) is not correct but statement (ii) is A. Earthworm I. Pulmonary
correct. B. Human II. Branchial
(c) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
C. Prawn III. Tracheal
(d) Statement (i) is correct but not involved in statement (ii).
57. Which one of the followings statements is not correct? D. Insects IV. Cutaneous
(a) Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
inspiration is called expiratory capacity. (b) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
related to partial pressure of CO2.
(d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(c) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli. 64. Match the disorders given in column - I with symptoms
(d) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around under column - II. Choose the answer which gives the
5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological correct combination.
conditions. Column-I Column-II
(Disorders) (Symptoms)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
A. Asthma I. Inflammation of nasal
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed tract
by a statement of Reason. B. Bronchitis II. Spasm of bronchial
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
muscles
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is C. Rhinitis III. Fully blown out alveoli
not the correct explanation of the Assertion. D. Emphysema IV. Inflammation of
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. bronchi
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
V. Cough with blood
58. Assertion: A sigmod curve is obtained when percentage
saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against the strained sputum
pO2. (a) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I
Reason: Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver (b) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I
around 5mL of O 2 to the tissues under n ormal (c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV
physiological conditions. (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
59. Assertion: If two men, expire the same volume of air after 65. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (A-D) in
normal inspiration, they have the same expiratiory capcity. column I and four jumbled respiratory volume of a normal
Reason: Expirtory capacity includes tidal valume and human adult in column II.
inspiratory reserve volume. Column -I Column-II
60. Assertion: A rise in pCO2, H+ ions and temperature shifts (Respiratory capacities) (Respiratory volumes)
the HbO2 dissociation curve to right. A. Residual volume I. 2500 mL
Reason: A rise in pCO2 or fall in pH decreases oxygen
B. Vital capacity II. 3500 mL
affinity fr haemoglobin.
61. Assertion: The abdominal muscles are primarily involved C. Inspiratory reserve volume III. 1200 mL
in generating pressure gradient between the lungs and D. Inspiratory capacity IV. 4500 mL
the atmosphere. Which one of the following is the correct matching of two
Reason: The strength of inspiration and expiration can capacities and volume?
be increased by additional muscles in diaphragm and (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV.
intercostal muscles. (b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II.
62. Assertion: Emphysema is the permanent abnormal (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I.
inflation of air space of teminal bronchioles or alveolar
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II.
sacs.
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66. Match the column I (Organs) with column II (Functions) (a) To prevent food from entering into trachea.
and choose the correct option. (b) To filter and warm the air.
Column - I Column - II (c) To help in exchange of gases.
(Organs) (Functions) (d) To catch dust and bacteria.
A. Nose I. Stops food from going
70. In the given diagarm of human respiratory system which
down into lungs.
marked label (I, II, III & IV) is the common passageway
B. Epiglottis II. Produces sound.
where the nasal and oral cavities meet?
C. Pharynx III. Traps bacteria as well as
dust.
D. Larynx IV. Allows air to pass from I
nose to oesophagus. II
III
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I IV
67. Which one of the following four organs of respiratory
system is correctly matched with its characteristics?
A. Bronchi – Two branches of the trachea that (a) I ® nasal-cavity (b) II ® pharynx
brings air into the lungs. (c) III®trachea (d) IV®lungs
B. Trachea – Small flap that prevents food from 71. In which one of the options given below, the one part A,
entering B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?
C. Diaphragm – Dome shaped muscle that pushes
on the lungs during exhalation.
D. Alveoli – Pair of organs that inflate as you
inhale and deflate as you exhale. D
(a) A and B only (b) C and D only
(c) A and C only (d) B and D only C
A
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS B
68. The given diagram represents the human respiratory
system with few structures labelled as I, II, III and IV. (a) A- Alveolar cavity- It is the main site of exchange of
respiratory gases.
I
(b) B- Red blood cell- It transports mainly carbon dioxide.
(c) C- Arterial capillary- It passes oxygen to tissues.
II III
(d) D- Capillary wall- Here, exchange of O2 and CO2 takes
IV
heart
place.
72. In the given diagram of human respiratory system, few
parts are marked as I, II, III, IV, V & VI. Choose the correct
combination of labelling from the given options.
The exchange of gases takes place in which labelled
structure?
(a) I ® trachea (b) II ® Bronchi
(c) III ® bronchioles (d) IV ® alvedi
69. In the given diagram of human respiratory system what is
the funciton of structure marked as X ?
X
heart
(a) I- Nose, II- Bronchus, III- Larynx, IV- Diaphragm, 75. The given figure shows the respiratory system. Identify
V- Trachea, VI- Lung the correct structure marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 whose
(b) I- Nose, II- Larynx, III- Bronchus, IV- Lung, contraction initiated the inspiration which in turn increases
V- Diaphragm, VI- Trachea the volume of thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior
(c) I- Mouth, II- Trachea, III- Larynx, IV-Lung, axis.
V- Diaphragm, Vi- Bronchus.
(d) I- Mouth, II- Diaphragm, III- Trachea, IV- Bronchi,
V-Larynx, VI- Lung
73. In the given figure, label A represents ____________
while label B represents _________.
heart 3
4
1
A 2
B (a) 1-lung (b) 2-Diaphram

(c) 3-pleural (d) 4-Alveoli
76. The figure given below shows the mechanism of
breathing. Identify the stage (X) of breathing explained &
A, B and C marked in the figure.
(a) A- Trachea, B- Bronchus

(b) A- Alveolus, B- Bronchiole
Ribs and
(c) A- Bronchiole, B- Trachea
sternum Volume of
(d) A- Trachea, B- Bronchiole
A thorax
74. Refer the given figure and answer the question.
B
% saturation of
haemoglobin Rib cage
100 Diaphragm
80 C
60
(a) X – Expiration, A– raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed
40
(b) X – Inspiration, A – raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed
20 (c) X – Expiration, A – raised, B – increased, C –
contracted
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 (d) X - Inspiration, A– raised, B – increased, C –
partial pressure contracted
of oxygen (Kpa)
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the
above figure? 77. About 70% of CO2 is transported as
(a) When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is (a) carbonic acid (b) darboxyhaemoglobin
plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen, a (c) bicarbonates (d) carbamino compounds
sigmoid curve is obtained. 78. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
(b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily deoxyhaemoglobin at
related to partial pressure of carbon monoxide. (a) low O2 pressure in tissue.
(c) The given graph illustrates the amount of HbO2 as (b) high O2 pressure in tissue.
similar to Hb at different pO2.
(c) equal O2 pressure inside and outside tissue.
(d) None of the above.
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152 Biology
(d) all times irrespective of O2 pressure. V. Alveolar pressure decreases.
79. Even when there is no air in it, human trachea does not (a) I – II – III – IV – V (b) III – IV – II – V – I
collapse due to presence of (c) II – V – I – III – IV (d) IV – V – II – I – III
(a) bony rings (b) turgid pressure 89. Which of the following are the stages of respiration in
(c) chitinous rings (d) cartilaginous rings correct order?
80. Dissociation curve shifts to the right when A – Gaseous transport B – Cellular respiration
(a) pH increases. C – Tissue respiration D – Breathing
(b) CO2 concentration increases. (a) A – D – C – B (b) D – A – C – B
(c) O2 concentration decreases. (c) D – A – B – C (d) D – C – B – A
(d) 2, 3 D-P-G decreases. 90. Vital capacity of our lungs is
81. During inspiration in mammals, the diaphragm becomes (a) total lung capcity minus residual volume.
(a) dome shaped (b) raised highly (b) inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume.
(c) flat (d) static (c) total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume.
82. During oxygen transport, the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue
(d) inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve
level liberates oxygen to the cells because in tissue
volume.
(a) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low.
91. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air
(b) O2 concentration is low and CO2 is high.
(a) that can be filled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(c) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(d) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension is high.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
83. Combining of haemoglobin with O2 in lungs can be
promoted by (d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.
(a) decreasing CO2 concentration in blood. 92. If a person is suffering from emphysema, his/her
(b) decreasing O2 concentration in blood. (a) bronchioles are found damaged.
(c) increasing CO2 concentration in blood. (b) alveolar walls are found damaged.
(d) introducing CO2 into blood. (c) the plasma membrane is found damaged.
84. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing (d) the respiratory muscle is found damaged.
becomes 93. Number of RBCs per unit volume of blood is likely to be
(a) slow and deep. higher in a person living at high altitudes, because
(b) faster and deeper. (a) air is clean and unpolluted.
(c) shallower and slow. (b) more sunshine is available.
(d) there is no effect on breathing. (c) air is less dense.
85. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (d) vegetation gives out more O2.
(low pH)? 94. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity
(a) Oxygen carying capacity of haemoglobin increases. of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases. conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient has been
(c) RBCs count increases. inhaling polluted air containing usually high content of
(d) RBCs count decreases. (a) chloroform (b) carbon dioxide
86. When, under certain conditions, the P 50 value of (c) carbon monoxide (d) carbon disulphide
haemoglobin rises, the affinity of the pigment of combining 95. Common feature in the alveoli of lungs and villi of intestine
with O2 will in mammals is that both
(a) remain same (b) rise (a) provide a large surface area.
(c) fall (d) first rise and then fall
(b) have ciliated epithelium.
87. Low oxygen tension in the blood causes
(c) are suited for diffusion of gases.
(a) coughing (b) yawning
(d) have rich supply of blood vessels and lymph ducts.
(c) hiccuping (d) sneezing
96. Presence of large number of alveoli around alveolar ducts
88. Arrange the following events in the correct order as they
opening into bronchioles in mammalian lungs is
occur during inspiration:
(a) inefficient system of ventilation with little of residual air.
I. Air flows into the lungs.
II. Alveolar volume increases. (b) inefficient system of ventilation with high percentage
of residual air.
III. Thoracic volume increases.
(c) an efficient system of ventilation with no residual air.
IV. Pleural pressure decreases.
(d) an efficient system of ventilation with little residual air.
97. Maximum amount of oxygen is exchanged from the blood (a) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ®
in the ............... trachea ¾¾ ® bronchioles ¾¾ ® bronchi ¾¾ ®
(a) capillaries-surrounding tissue cells. alveoli
(b) arteries of the body. (b) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ®
(c) left auricle of the heart. trachea ¾¾ ® bronchi ¾¾ ® bronchioles ¾¾ ®
alveoli
(d) capillaries surrounding the alveoli.
(c) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ®
98. After taking a long deep breath, we do not respire for
trachea ¾¾ ® bronchi ¾¾ ® alveoli
some seconds due to
(d) nasal cavity ¾¾ ® larynx ¾¾ ® pharynx ¾¾ ®
(a) more CO2 in blood (b) more O2 in blood
trachea ¾¾ ® bronchioles ¾¾ ® alveoli
(c) less CO2 in blood (d) less O2 in blood
104. The chloride shift in red blood cells is the movement of
99. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human
blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2 (a) cations into the cell to balance its uptake of chloride
ions.
(a) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues.
(b) chloride ions from the blood into the glomerular
(b) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise.
filtrate for excretion.
(c) raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(c) chloride ions out of the cell to balance the release of
(d) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%. hydrogencarbonate ions.
100. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us (d) chloride ions into the cell to balance its uptake of
in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort? hydrogencarbonate ions.
(a) One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by 105. External gills, tracheae, and lungs all share which of the
moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the following sets of characteristics ?
ribs at all.
(a) Part of gas-exchange system, exchange both CO2
(b) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully and O2; increase surface area for diffusion.
breathing out all air from them.
(b) Used by water breathers; based on countercurrent
(c) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen. exchange; use negative pressure breathing.
(d) One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes (c) Exchange only O2; are associated with a circulatory
by closing both the nose and the mouth. system; found in vertebrates.
101. The urge to inhale in humans results from (d) Found in insects; employ positive-pressure pumping
(a) rising pCO2 (b) rising pO2 based on crosscurrent flow.
(c) falling pCO2 (d) falling pO2 106. Which of the following equation shows the role of
102. The pharynx functions as a ___i___, whereas the larynx carbonic anhydrase enzyme in the transport of carbon
functions as a ___ii___. dioxide by blood?
(a) i- common passage for air and food; ii- passageway
for food only. (a) ¾¾
® H 2 CO3 ¬¾
CO2 + H 2O ¬¾
¾ ¾¾
® HCO3– + H +
¾
(b) i- passageway for air only; ii- passageway for air and
Oxidation
food.
(c) i- common passageway for air and food; ii- (b) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 6 CO2 + 6 H 2O
passageway for air only. Reduction
(d) i- block to bacteria; ii- passage for air and food.
(c) C6 H12 O6 ® 2 C6 H5OH + 2 CO 2
103. In man and mammals, air passes from outside into the
lungs through (d) None of the above.
EBD_7209
18
Ťᨨ 泐§ 盐� 矄§
Chapter
Ū�ᆠ盐�ᨨ
9. Rh factor is named after

FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) monkey (b) Drosophila
1. Lymph differs from blood in (c) rat (d) man
(a) absence of RBC (b) absence of WBC 10. When the blood of a foetus is agglutinated by its mother's
(c) excess of water (d) absence of protein Rh antibodies, then which of the following condition arises
2. Lymph is modified blood that contains as a severe anaemia?
(a) RBC and WBC (a) Immunization
(b) RBC, WBC and protein (b) Ectopic pregnancy
(c) WBC and all protein
(c) Erythroblastosis foetalis
(d) all contents of blood except RBC and certain protein
(d) Both (b) and (c)
3. In blood
(a) WBCs are more than RBCs 11. __________ plays an important role in blood clotting.
(b) RBCs are more than WBCs (a) Sodium (b) Chlorine
(c) RBCs are less than platelets (c) Calcium (d) Potassium
(d) Platelets are less than WBCs 12. Which of the following cations is required for the
4. Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly? conversion of prothrombin into active thrombin by
(a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes thromboplastin?
(c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils (a) Cu2+ (b) Fe3+
5. What is true about leucocytes ? (c) Fe 2+ (d) Ca2+
(a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood cancer
13. Clotting of blood is to
(b) These are produced in thymus
(a) seal up wounds and prevent blood loss.
(c) These are enucleated
(d) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls (b) slow down the movement of blood inside the blood
6. Which of the following is considered as the soldiers of vessels.
body? (c) trap oxygen inside the blood so that it can be carried
(a) Lungs (b) Capillaries around more easily.
(c) Red blood cells (d) White blood cells (d) trap harmful germs inside the blood and prevent them
7. Which of the following is responsible for ABO grouping? from harming the body.
(a) Presence or absence of clotting factors. 14. Fish has ___(i)____ and ___(ii)___ circulatory system.
(a) (i)- open, (ii)- single
(b) Compatibility of blood groups durin g blood
transfusion. (b) (i)- open, (ii)- double
(c) Presence or absence of surface antigens (A and B) on (c) (i)- closed, (ii)- single
WBCs. (d) (i)- closed, (ii)- double
(d) Presence or absence of two surface antigens (A and B) 15. Open type blood vascular system is found in
on the RBCs. (a) earthworm (b) lizard
8. What is correct for blood group ‘O’? (c) cockroach (d) toad
(a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present 16. Which of the following set of animals has an incomplete
(b) A antigen and b antibody double circulation system ?
(c) Antigen and antibody both absent (a) Frog and crocodile (b) Shark and whale
(d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies (c) Lizard and pigeon (d) Toad and lizard
Body Fluids and Circulation 155
17. Heart is covered by 29. Sinu-atrial node in human heart is embedded in the wall of
(a) peritoneum (b) pleural membrane (a) sinus-venosus
(c) pericardium (d) visceral membrane (b) interatrial septum
18. Nodal tissue/musculature in human heart has (c) right atrium
(a) the ability to generate action potential due to any (d) atrioventricular septum
external stimuli. 30. Which term does not apply to human heart?
(b) two patches, one in atrium and other in ventricle. (a) Pacemaker (b) Four chambered
(c) purkin je fibres throughout th e ventricular (c) Mitral valve (d) Neurogenic
musculature. 31. What is the function of valve?
(d) atrioventricular node, also called pacemaker. (a) To prevent blood from flowing into the aorta.
19. Pulmonary vein, carrying oxygenated blood, opens into (b) To push blood into the ventricle.
(a) left auricle (b) right auricle (c) To push blood into the aorta.
(c) left ventricle (d) right ventricle (d) To prevent backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
20. The pacemaker of the human heart is 32. A blockage in aortic valve would directly reduce blood
flow to the _______.
(a) SA node (b) tricuspid valve
(a) heart (b) liver
(c) AV node (d) SV node
(c) lungs (d) brain
21. Which one of the following blood vessel is without
valves? 33. In mammals the blood from the right ventricle goes to
(a) systemic aorta (b) precavals
(a) Artery (b) Pulmonary aorta
(c) truncus arteriosus (d) pulmonary aorta
(c) Vein (d) Systemic aorta
34. The heart sound ‘dupp’ is produced when
22. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the
(a) tricuspid valve is opened.
command from
(b) mitral valve is opened.
(a) Purkinje fibres (b) AV node
(c) mitral valve is closed.
(c) chordae tendinae (d) SA node
(d) semi-lunar valves at the base of aorta get closed.
23. The opening of auricles into ventricles on the right side is
35. The first heart sound is
guarded by which valve?
(a) ‘LUBB’ sound produced at the end of systole.
(a) Tricuspid (b) Bicuspid
(b) ‘DUP’ sound produced at the end of systole.
(c) Semilunar (d) Mitral valve
(c) ‘LUBB’ sound produced at the beginning of systole.
24. Bicuspid valve allows blood from (d) ‘DUP’ sound produced at the beginning of systole.
(a) right auricle to left ventricle. 36. Closure of which of the following valves makes louder
(b) right auricle to right ventricle. sound of heart beat?
(c) left auricle to left ventricle. (a) Mitral valve (b) Seminular valve
(d) post caval to heart. (c) Auriculo-ventricular valve
25. ‘Bicuspid’ term is applied to (d) Tricuspid valve
(a) a valve in heart and a bone of pelvic girdle. 37. Cardiac cycle in man takes about
(b) a muscle in upper arm and a valve in heart. (a) 0.5 seconds (b) 1.0 second
(c) a valve in heart and tooth surface. (c) 1.2 seconds (d) 0.8 seconds
(d) a valve in heart. 38. The pattern of contraction and relaxation of the heart is
26. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following referred to as
organs in humans? (a) blood pressure (b) arterial flow
(c) blood flow (d) cardiac cycle
(a) Brain (b) Heart
39. ‘P’ wave of ECG occurs before the
(c) Kidney (d) Pancreas
(a) onset of ventricular contraction.
27. Which of the following has the thickest walls? (b) end of arterial contraction.
(a) Right ventricle (b) Left ventricle (c) beginning of atrial contraction.
(c) Right auricle (d) Left auricle (d) none of the above.
28. A four-chambered heart is found in 40. QRS is related to
(a) mammals only (a) ventricular contraction
(b) humans only (b) auricular contraction
(c) all vertebrates (c) cardiac cycle
(d) some reptiles, all birds and mammals (d) auricular relaxation
EBD_7209
156 Biology
41. The largest artery in the body is
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) aorta (b) precaval
(c) vena cava (d) pulmonary artery 53. Mark the incorrect statement regarding normal ECG.
42. Pulmonary artery arises from (a) Patient is connected to 3 electrical leads (one to each
(a) right atrium (b) left atrium wrist and to the left ankle).
(c) right ventricle (d) left ventricle (b) ‘T’ wave represents atrial repolarization.
43. Which circulation provides nutrients and oxygen to (c) Q marks the beginning of ventricular systole.
cardiac muscle tissue?
(d) R represents ventricular depolarization.
(a) Pulmonary circulation
54. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human
(b) Systemic circulation
blood circulatory system
(c) Lymphatic circulation
(d) Coronary circulation (i) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as
compared to veins.
44. Which structures are directly involved in the pulmonary
circulation? (ii) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood
(a) Right atrium, aorta and left ventricle. circulation to the brain is reduced.
(b) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava. (iii) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to
(c) Superior vena cava, right atrium and left ventricle. any person with any blood group under ABO system.
(d) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium. (iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood
45. Which structures are directly involved in the "systemic clotting.
circulation"? Which two of the above statements are correct?
(a) Superior vena cava, right ventricle and left ventricle. (a) (i) & (iv) (b) (i) & (ii)
(b) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium. (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv)
(c) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava. 55. What is true about RBCs in humans?
(d) Right atrium, pulmonary trunk and left ventricle. (a) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2.
46. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood?
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2.
(a) Renal vein (b) Hepatic portal vein
(c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and
(c) Hepatic vein (d) Pulmonary vein
the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved
47. Which of the following parts of heart possess semilunar
valves? state in blood plasma.
(i) Aorta (ii) Vena cava (d) They do not carry CO2 at all.
(iii) Pulmonary artery (iv) Pulmonary vein 56. Find out the incorrect statement from the following.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (a) Veins are typically larger in diameter than arteries.
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) Because of their small size, capillaries contain blood
48. In adult man, normal BP is that is moving more quickly than in other parts of
(a) 100/80 mm Hg (b) 120/80 mm Hg the circulatory system.
(c) 100/120 mm Hg (d) 80/120 mm Hg (c) The walls of arteries are elastic, enabling them to
49. Pulse beat is measured from stretch and shrink during changes in blood pressure.
(a) capillaries (b) arteries (d) Veins contain more blood than any other part of the
(c) veins (d) nerves circulatory system.
50. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as 57. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding
(a) heart failure (b) cardiac arrest blood pressure?
(c) atherosclerosis (d) angina (a) 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and
51. Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of cholesterol kidney.
is called (b) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires
(a) thrombosis (b) atherosclerosis treatment.
(c) rhinitis (d) angina
(c) 120/80 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure.
52. In arteriosclerosis
(d) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active.
(a) arterial walls become very thin and weak so that the
blood oozes out of the walls. 58. Cardiac output is/are
(b) sex linked heredity is involved. (i) Product of heart rate and stroke volume.
(c) blood coagulates even in the arteries. (ii) Product of auricular and ventricular volume.
(d) arterial walls become inelastic and thickened. (iii) A process in which blood pumped in one minute.
Which of the above statements is true ? (b) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) they are destroyed in the spleen.
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) (c) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells
59. Which of the following statements is/are correct for blood which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.
group? (d) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting
(i) Blood group O is universal donor. disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood
from the body.
(ii) Blood group AB is universal acceptor.
(iii) Blood group A contains antigen B and anti-A ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
antibodies.
(iv) Blood group B contains antigen B and anti-A In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
antibodies. by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
(a) Only (i) and (ii). (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii).
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv). (d) Only (i), (iii) and (iv). (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
60. Which of the following statements is correct regarding not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
joint diastole? (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(a) Both atria relax but ventricles contract. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(b) Both ventricles relax but atria contract. 66. Assertion : SAN is called the pacemaker of heart.
(c) Both semilunar valves are open. Reason : The SAN can generate the maximum number of
(d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open. action potentials and is responsible for initiating and
61. Which of the following statements is correct regarding maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.
pulmonary artery ? 67. Assertion : Lub is a heart sound which is produced during
(a) It carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs. each cardiac cycle.
(b) It carries deoxygenated blood from lungs to heart. Reason : It is associated with the closure of the tricuspid
and bicuspid valves.
(c) It carries oxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
68. Assertion : Saline water is not given to patients with
(d) It carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart. hypertension.
62. Which one of the statement is correct with reference to Reason: Saline water can cause vomiting and may drop
the circulation of blood in a mammal? blood pressure suddenly causing cardiac arrest.
(a) Left auricle receives oxygenated blood. 69. Assertion : Blood pressure is arterial blood pressure.
(b) Pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood to the Reason : Blood pressure is measured by
lungs. sphygmomanometer.
(c) Blood from the lungs is returned to heart through 70. Assertion: WBCs accumulate at the site of wounds by
2-veins, one from each lung. diapedesis.
(d) None of the above. Reason: It is squeezing of leucocytes from endothelium.
63. Which of the following statement is correct regarding 71. Assertion : Blood coagulates in uninjured blood vessels.
lymph? Reason : Uninjured blood vessels release an anticoagulant
(a) It transports oxygen to brain. heparin.
(b) It transport CO2 to lungs. 72. Assertion : Prothrombinase enzyme acts as antiheparin.
Reason : Heparin prevents coagulation of blood in blood
(c) It returns interstitial fluid to blood.
vessels.
(d) It returns RBCs and WBCs to lymph nodes.
73. Assertion : When there is a fall in the blood pressure due
64. Which of the folowing statement best defines artery? to loss of blood volume, this is compensated by
(a) It carries blood from one visceral organ to another vasoconstriction of veins.
visceral organ. Reason : Veins hold the extra amount of blood which can
(b) It carries oxygenated blood to the different organs. be shifted to the arteries as required.
(c) It carries blood away from the heart to different
organs. MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(d) It breaks up into capillaries which reunite to form a 74. In which of the following options the types of heart is
vein. correctly matched to their respective group of animals?
65. Which of the following statement is correct regarding (a) Two chambered heart- Fishes and amphibians
blood cells? (b) Three chambered heart- Amphibians and birds
(a) A healthy individual has 12 - 16 gms of haemoglobin (c) Four chambered heart- Birds and mammals
in every 200ml of blood. (d) Three chambered heart- Reptiles and mammals
EBD_7209
158 Biology
75. Which one of the following is a matching pair? 79. Match each area of the heart (column-I) with the structure
(a) Lubb-Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of (column-II) from which it receives blood.
ventricular systole. Column-I Column-II
(b) Dup-Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the (Area of heart) (Receives blood from)
beginning of ventricular diastole. A. Right atrium I. Left atrium
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery-Valves in the blood B. Right ventricle II. Vena cavae
vessels. C. Left atrium III. Right atrium
(d) Purkinje fibres-Initiation of the heart beat. D. Left ventricle IV. Pulmonary veins
76. In a standard ECG, which one of the following alphabets (a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
is the correct representation of the respective activity of (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
the human heart? (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(a) P-Depolarization of the atria (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) R-Repolarization of ventricles 80. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct
(c) S-Start of systole answer from the option given below.
(d) T-End of diastole Column-I Column -II
77. Match the following descriptions (given in column-II) of A. Cardiac cycle I. 72 / min
each type of blood cell to their names (given in column-I). B. Plasma II. 120/80 mmHg
Column-I Column-II C. Systolic/Diastolic III. 0.8 seconds
(Blood cell) (Description) D. Haemoglobin IV. 12 -16 gms in every 100 ml
A. Erythrocyte I. Most abundant white of blood
blood cell, and the main E. Heart beat V. 55 % of the blood
phagocytic cell of the (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
blood. (b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I
B. Eosinophil II. Least abundant white (c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV
blood cell; releases (d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II
histamine granules.
C. Lymphocyte III. Resist infections and DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
are associated with
81. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
allergic reactions.
Which one of its components is correctly interpreted?
D. Neutrophil IV. Blood cell that contains
haemoglobin and
transports oxygen.
E. Basophil V. Specialized antibody-
producing white blood
cells. (a) Peak P and Peak R together - Systolic and diastolic
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II blood pressures
(b) A – I; B – II, C – III; D – IV; E – V (b) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(c) Complex QRS - One complete pulse
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV
(d) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – V
82. The given diagram represents human heart with four
78. Which of the following term (column-I) is correctly
chambers labelled as I, II, III & IV?
matched with its functions (column-II)?
Column-I Column-II
(Term) (Functions)
(a) Plasma Straw coloured fluid that
consists of suspended blood
cells I
III
(b) Heart Site where exchange of II
nutrients and gases occur
(c) Capillary A red colour fluid th at IV
provides food to the cells
(d) Blood Pumping station of the body
Which labelled structure receives carbon dioxide rich 86. The given figure represents the pathway of blood
blood from the body? throughout the body.
(a) I- Left atrium (b) II- Left ventricle
(c) III- Right atrium (d) IV- Right ventricle Lungs
83. In the given diagram of human heart the mitral valve is
located between which two parts of the heart? (3) (4)
A Heart
(1) (2)
E
Body
B tissues
D C
Identify the correct match of marked number 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(a) 1- Artery (b) 2- Pulmonary vein
(a) D and E (b) B and C (c) 3- Pulmonary artery (d) 4- Vein
(c) D and C (d) E and B 87. The given figure represents diagrammatic presentation
of an ECG. Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter
84. In the human heart, blood from the lungs enters the heart
from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical activity
through the left atrium, pumps into the left ventricle, out
of the heart.
the aorta and through the body, and then returns into the
right atrium, pumps into the right ventricle and exits to
the lungs.
Using the diagram, which set of letters (A, B, C, D, E)
correctly represents the process describe above?
A Which of the following letter shows the incorrect activity

of heart?
(a) QRS - Depolarization of the ventricles
(b) R wave - Marks the beginning of the systole.
E (c) P- Electrical excitation (or depolarization) of the atria
B
(d) T wave - Return of the ventricles from excited to
normal state (repolarization).
D C
(a) E, D, A, B, C (b) B, C, A, E, D 88. What is true about leucocytes ?

(c) C, D, A, B, E (d) D, C, A, E, B (a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood
85. Refer the given figure of human heart and identify the cancer.
chamber (marked as 1, 2, 3 & 4) which receives most of the (b) These are produced in thymus.
blood returning from the brain. (c) These are enucleated.
(d) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls.
89. Which is the correct route through which pulse making
impulse travels in the heart?
(a) SA node ® AV node ® Bundle of His ® Purkinje
4
1 fibres
(b) AV node ® Bundle of His ® SA node ® Purkinje
3 2 fibres ® heart muscles
(c) AV node ® SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® Bundle of
His ® heart muscles
(a) I- Left atrium (b) II- Left ventricle (d) SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® Bundle of His ® AV
(c) III- Right ventricle (d) IV- Right atrium node ® heart muscles
EBD_7209
160 Biology
90. If nerves of heart are cut, then heart will 99. If a person is loosing blood continuously due to injury
(a) beat rhythmically (b) stop then what will be the effect on his pulse and BP initially?
(c) beat arhythmically (d) shrink (a) Pulse and BP both will fall.
91. Which one of the following will be the cardiac output (in (b) Pulse will fall and BP will rise.
litres per minute) of a heart that has a stroke volume of (c) Both pulse and BP will rise.
0.07 litres and is beating at a rate of 90 per minute? (d) Pulse will rise and BP will fall.
(a) 63.30 (b) 63.00 100. During systemic circulation, blood leaves the ___(i)____
(c) 00. 63 (d) 06.30 and _________(ii)______.
92. The blood returning to the heart through pulmonary vein
(a) (i)- left ventricle, (ii)- goes directly to the aorta
has more
(b) (i)- right ventricle, (ii)- goes directly to the aorta
(a) RBC (b) haemoglobin
(c) oxygen (d) nutrient (c) (i)- right ventricle, (ii)- moves to the lungs.
93. First heart sound (LUBB) coincides with which wave of (d) (i)- left ventricle, (ii)- moves to the lungs
ECG? 101. In normal human blood pressure, what does the "120"
(a) R-wave (b) T-wave represent?
(c) P-wave (d) Q-wave (a) The maximum pressure that can be sustained by the
arteries before bursting.
94. What happens when the pacemaker becomes non-
functional? (b) The lowest pressure in the arteries that will keep
someone from fainting when they stand up.
(a) Only the auricles will contract rhythmically.
(c) The highest ideal arterial pressure for someone at
(b) The cardiac muslces do not contract in a coordinated
rest.
manner rhythmically.
(d) The pressure in the veins.
(c) Only ventricles will contract rhythmically.
102. If a person had two-chambered heart (one atrium, and
(d) Auricles and ventricles contract simultaneously.
one ventricle) with the vena cava entering the atrium and
95. Maximum amount of oxygen is lost from the blood in the the aorta leaving the ventricle then which of the following
(a) capillaries surrounding the tissue cells. statement would be correct?
(b) arteries of the body. (a) No oxygen would reach the cells.
(c) capillaries surrounding the alveoli. (b) No blood would reach the head and neck.
(d) left auricle of the heart. (c) The blood would be unable to carry food to the cells.
96. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on (d) There would be no blood circulation.
four slides. Which of them will not coagulate? 103. Sinus venosus is/are present in which of the following
(a) Whole blood from pulmonary vein animals?
(b) Blood plasma (i) Fishes (ii) Amphibians
(c) Blood serum (iii) Reptiles (iv) Birds
(d) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system (v) Mammals
97. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iv) only
valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
will be the immediate effect?
104. In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left
(a) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be ventricle in mammalian heart, it must flow through
reduced.
I. Right ventricle II. Pulmonary veins
(b) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.
III. Left atrium IV. Lungs
(c) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.
V. Pulmonary arteries
(d) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.
(a) I- V- IV- II- III (b) I- II- III- IV- V
98. Which of the following set of events can occur
(c) III- V- I- II- IV (d) III- II- I- IV-V
simultaneously?
105. Which of the following is not correct for blood pressure?
(a) Auricular depolarization, ventricular depolarization,
auricular systole. (i) It is not affected by atherosclerosis.
(b) Ventricular depolarization, auricular systole, (ii) It is typically lower in veins than in arteries.
ventricular diastole. (iii) Diastolic pressure is higher than systolic pressure.
(c) Auricular depolarization, ventricular repolarization, (iv) It is usually refers to as venous pressure of the
auricular diastole. systemic circulation.
(d) Auricular depolarizaion, ventricular diastole, (a) (i) & (iii) (b) (i), (ii) & (iii)
auricular systole. (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (i), (iii) & (iv)
106. Mother-foetus Rh blood type incompatibility disorder can 108. Which area allows the atria to completely empty as the
occur if the mother is _____ and her foetus is ____. ventricles fill with blood?
(a) Rh positive; Rh positive (a) A-V node (b) A-V bundle
(b) Rh positive; Rh negative (c) S-A node (d) Purkinje fibers
(c) Rh negative; Rh positive 109. When a leopard runs after you, the increase in heart rate
(d) Rh negative; Rh negative is probably due to the __________.
107. "X" is a fibrous tissue of the membranous septum of the (a) hypothalamus
heart just above the septal cusp of the tricuspid valve. It (b) sympathetic nerves
separates the atrium and the ventricle of the same side. (c) increase in blood pressure
Identify "X". (d) medullary accelerator centre
(a) Sino atrial node 110. The state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively
(b) Atrioventricular septum enough to meet the needs of the body is called _____.
(c) Atrioventricular node (a) angina (b) cardiac arrest
(d) Interventricular septum (c) heart attack (d) heart failure
EBD_7209
Ŷ ᆠᨨ泐§ᨨ 盐ᆠ矄§
19
Chapter
�§Ŷ�鼀� �ᨨ
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS (c) double the number of Bowman’s capsules.

(d) sum of Bowman’s capsules an d Malpighian
1. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in corpuscles.
(a) reptiles and bird 8. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule constitute
(b) birds and annelids (a) nephrotome (b) renal corpuscle
(c) amphibians and reptiles (c) renal capsule (d) malpighian tubule
(d) insects and amphibians 9. In which part of the excretory system of mammals you
2. Ammonia is the main nitrogenous excretory material in can first use the term urine for fluid it contains?
(a) amphibians (b) turtles (a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Loop of Henle
(c) tadpoles (d) reptiles (c) Collecting tubule (d) Ureter
3. Mechanism of uric acid excretion in a nephron is 10. Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals are formed
(a) osmosis (b) diffusion as extensions of
(c) ultrafiltration (d) secretion (a) Cortex into medulla
4. Why bony fishes, aquatic amphibian and aquatic insects (b) Cortex into pelvis
are called ammonotelic animals? (c) Medulla into pelvis
(a) They excrete ammonia as their excretory product. (d) Pelvis into ureter
(b) They excrete ammonia as a least toxic nitrogenous 11. Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called
waste product. (a) renal artery (b) renal vein
(c) They excrete uric acid in the form of pellet and paste (c) efferent arteriole (d) afferent arteriole
with a minimum loss of water. 12. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?
(d) These animals have nephridia as their excretory organ (a) Loops of Henle
which helps to remove nitrogenous waste and (b) Peritubular capillaries
maintain a fluid and ionic balance.
(c) Convoluted tubules
5. Excretion of nitrogenous waste product in semi-solid form
occur in (d) Collecting ducts
(a) amniotes (b) desert animals 13. The efferent arteriole emerging from the glomerulus forms
a fine capillary network around the renal tubule called the
(c) ureotelic animals (d) uricotelic animals
______________.
6. The projections of renal pelvis are called
(a) vasa recta (b) loop of Henle
(a) hiluses
(c) collecting duct (d) peritubular capillaries
(b) calyces
14. Juxta-glomerular apparatus is formed by cellular
(c) medullary pyramids
modification in the
(d) renal columns
(a) afferent arteriole and DCT
7. The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to
(b) efferent arteriole and PCT
(a) the number of Bowman’s capsules.
(c) afferent arteriole and PCT
(b) sum of Bowman’s capsules and glomeruli.
(d) efferent arteriole and DCT
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 163
15. Which of the following accessory excretory structure (a) 100 ml/minute, i.e., 180 liters per day.
eliminates NaCl, lactic acid and urea? (b) 125 ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day.
(a) Kidney (b) Liver (c) 120 ml/minute, i.e., 100 litres per day.
(c) Sebaceous gland (d) Sweat gland (d) 130 ml/minute, i.e., 120 litres per day.
16. Which of the following components of blood does not 26. The maximum reabsorption of useful substances back into
enter into the nephron? the blood from filtrate in a nephron occurs in
(a) Urea (b) Water (a) PCT (b) Loop of Henle
(c) Glucose (d) Plasma protein (c) DCT (d) collecting duct
17. Kidney helps in the conservation of useful materials and 27. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
excretion of wastes and therefore they receive 20% of the
(a) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
heart’s output of blood (as much as the heart and brain
(b) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
combined). On a percentage basis which substance is most
completely reabsorbed by the kidneys? (c) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin.
(a) Water (b) Glucose (d) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.
(c) Urea (d) Sodium 28. The part of the nephron that helps in active reabsorption
18. The site and principal mechanism for the passage of of sodium is
glucose into the bloodstream in the human kidney is the (a) bowman’s capsule
(a) collecting duct, by active secretion. (b) distal convoluted tubules
(b) distal convoluted tubule, by passive diffusion. (c) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(c) glomerulus, by selective reabsorption. (d) proximal convoluted tubules
(d) proximal convoluted tubule, by selective 29. Which region of the kidney nephron is the main site of
reabsorption. amino acid reabsorption?
19. The part of the nephron impermeable to water is (a) Glomerulus
(a) proximal tubule (b) Bowman’s capsule
(b) distal tubule (c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(c) ascending limb of Henle’s loop (d) Distal convoluted tubule
(d) collecting duct 30. Which of the following hormone is secreted from kidney ?
20. Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerular filtrate in (a) ANF (b) Erythropoietin
kidney tubule occurs by (c) Rennin (d) Aldosterone
(a) active transport (b) diffusion 31. Which of the following is directly responsible for
(c) osmosis (d) brownian movement increasing glomerular blood pressure and hence GFR?
21. Colloidal osmotic pressure in blood plasma is mainly due (a) Aldosterone (b) ANF
to (c) Angiotensin II (d) Renin
(a) albumin (b) globulin 32. In the renal tubules the permeability of the distal
(c) fibrinogen (d) sodium chloride convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water is
22. The ascending loop of Henle is permeable for controlled by
(a) ammonia (b) glucose (a) aldosterone (b) vasopressin
(c) sodium (d) water (c) growth hormone (d) renin
23. Loop of Henle takes part in absorption of 33. The function of renin is
(a) potassium (b) glucose (a) degradation of angiotensinogen
(c) water (d) urea (b) stimulation of corpus luteum
24. In comparison to blood plasma, percentage of glucose in (c) to reduce blood pressure
glomerular filtrate is
(d) vasodilatation
(a) higher (b) equal 34. Volume of urine is regulated by
(c) lower (d) nil (a) aldosterone
25. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy individual is (b) aldosterone and ADH
approximately (c) aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(d) ADH alone
EBD_7209
164 Biology
35. The hormone that promotes reabsorption of water from 43. Which one of the following statements in regard to the
glomerular filtrate is excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(a) oxytocin (b) vasopressin (a) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to
(c) calcitonin (d) relaxin electrolytes.
36. Juxta-glomerular cells of renal cortex synthesizes an (b) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to
enzyme called water.
(a) ADH (b) oxytocin (c) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing
(c) renin (d) urochrome HCO3–.
37. Which one is an important constituent of renin (d) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is
angiotensinogen-aldosterone system? reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
(a) JGA cell (b) Macular cell 44. Which one of the following statements is correct with
(c) Erythropoetin (d) Plasma cell respect to kidney’s function and regulation?
38. The voluntary response to the distension of urinary (a) During summer when body loses lots of water by
bladder is evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.
(a) polyurea (b) micturition (b) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is
(c) mellitus (d) menstruation suppressed.
(c) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
release.
39. Which of the following statement is correct? (d) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates
(a) Vasa recta is not present in cortical nephrons. formation of Angiotensin II.
(b) Maximum number of nephrons in kidney are juxta- 45. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
medullary type. urine formation?
(c) DCT of many nephrons open into collecting tubule. (a) Filtration and reabsorption takes place before
(d) All of the above secretion.
40. Which of the following statement is not correct with (b) Filtration an d secretion takes place before
respect to human kidney? reabsorption.
(a) The peripheral region is called cortex and central (c) Secretion takes place before reabsorption and
medulla. filtration.
(b) Malpighian capsules are present in the cortex region. (d) Reabsorption takes place before filtration and
(c) Blood enters glomerulus through efferent arterioles. secretion.
(d) The concave part of kidney is called hilus. 46. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
41. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron
(a) Counter-current flow of blood in vasa recta helps to
which of the following event is to be expected ?
retain the reabsorbed sodium in the renal medulla.
(a) There will be no urine formation.
(b) Glomerular filterate is protein free plasma.
(b) There will be hardly any change in the quality and
quantity of urine formed. (c) Vasa recta carry glomerular filterate from distal
convoluted tubule to the collecting duct.
(c) The urine will be more concentrated.
(d) The urine will be more dilute. (d) Glomerular filterate in Bowman’s capsule is isotonic
to the plasma.
42. Almost all the aquatic animals excrete ammonia as the
nitrogenous waste product. Which of the following 47. Which of the following statements are correct?
statement is not in agreement with this situation? (i) Glucose has high threshold value.
(a) Ammonia is easily soluble in water. (ii) Urine is concentrated in Henle’s loop.
(b) Ammonia is released from the body in a gaseous (iii) Haemodialyser removes urea, uric acid, glucose and
state. proteins.
(c) Ammonia is highly toxic and needs to be eliminated (iv) In glomerulus, urea, uric acid, water, glucose and
as and when formed. plasma proteins are filtered out.
(d) Ammonia gets converted into a less toxic form called
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
urea.
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iii)
48. Which of the following statements is/are true? MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(i) Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule.
55. Match the excretory functions given in column-I with the
(ii) When the urine passes into the collecting tubule,
parts of the excretory system in column-II. Choose the
it becomes hypotonic. correct combination from the given options.
(iii) Urine is isotonic in proximal convoluted tubule. Column-I Column-II
(iv) Urine becomes more and more hypotonic as it passes (Function) (Parts of excretory systems)
through the Henle’s loop. A. Ultra filtration I. Henle’s loop
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. Concentration II. Ureter
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (iii) only of urine
C. Transport of III. Urinary bladder
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS urine
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed D. Storage of urine IV. Malpighian corpuscle
by a statement of Reason. V. Proximal convoluted
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is tubule
the correct explanation of the Assertion. (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 56. Match the disorders given in column-I with their feature
49. Assertion : Aquatic animals like whales and seals are given in column-II and choose the correct option.
said to be ureotelic animals. Column-I Column-II
Reason : It is because of the fact that their main (Disorders) (Feature)
A. Uremia I. Excess of protein in urine
nitrogeneous waste product is urea.
B. Hematuria II. Presence of high ketone
50. Assertion : Kidney maintains the osmotic concentration bodies in urine
of the blood. C. Ketonuria III. Presence of blood cells
Reason : Kidney eliminates either hypotonic or hypertonic in urine
urine according to the need of the body. D. Glycosuria IV. Presence of glucose in
urine
51. Assertion : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the
E. Proteinuria V. Excess of urea in blood
urine is hypertonic, whereas in ascending limb of loop of
(a) A - V; B -III; C - II; D - IV; E - I
Henle, the urine is hypotonic. (b) A - IV; B - V; C - III; D - II; E - I
Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to sodium, while (c) A - V; B -III; C - IV; D - II; E - I
ascending limb is impermeable to water. (d) A - III; B -V; C - II; D - I; E - IV
57. Which of the following parts of the nephron given in
52. Assertion : Secreting hypotonic urine is effective in column I is correctly matched with their functions given
reducing urinary loss of water. in column II?
Reason : Hypotonic urine is more concentrated and higher Column-I Column-II
in osmotic pressure than the blood. (Parts of the nephron) (Functions)
53. Assertion : Aldosterone is a steroid hormone and is A. Proximal convoluted I. Sodium is reabsorbed
tubules actively in this region.
important in the control of sodium and potassium ion
B. Distal convoluted II. Sodium and water are
concentration in mammals. tubules reabsorbed under the
Reason : It upgrades sodium ion concentration in the influence of hormone
ECF by promoting reabsorption of sodium ions from renal in this region.
tubules and excretion of potassium ions in urine. C. Descending limb III. Primary site of glucose
54. Assertion : Main constituent of human urine is ammonia. and amino acid
reabsorption.
Reason : If human urine is allowed to stand for some time, D. Ascending limb IV. Major substance
it smells strongly of ammonia. reabsorbed here is
water by osmosis.
EBD_7209
166 Biology
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV CO2 (18 litres/day) and
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III also significant quantities
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I of water every day
(d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
D. Kidney IV. Remove wastes (metabolic
58. Which of the following hormone/enzyme is/are correctly
by-products) and regulate
paired with its function?
I. Renin – Enzyme that catalyses the formation of pH, ion concentration,
angiotensin I. volume and osmolarity of
II. Aldosterone – Regulates water reabsorption at the blood
distal convoluted tubule. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
III. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) – It is a powerful (b) A – II; B – I; C – II; D – IV
vasoconstrictor that stimulates the secretion of (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
aldosterone. (d) A – IV; B – IV; C – III; D – I
IV. Angiotensin II – Promotes reabsorption of sodium 62. Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in
at distal convoluted tubule. column I with its location given in column II.
(a) Only I (b) Only III Column I Column II
(c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
A. Fall in GFR I. Activate the JG cells to
59. Which of the following is correctly matched with its
function of a specific part of a human nephron? release renin
(a) Afferent arteriole – Carries the blood away from the B. Angiotensin II II. Increases the glomerular
glomerulus towards renal vein. blood pressure and
(b) Podocytes – Create minute spaces (slit pores) for thereby GFR
the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule. C. Renin III. Carries out the conversion
(c) Henle’s loop – Reabsorption of the major substances of angiotensinogen in the
from the glomerular filtrate. liver to angiotensin I.
(d) Distal convoluted tubule – Reabsorption of K+ ions D. Aldosterone IV. Causes reabsorption of
into the surrounding blood capillaries.
Na+ and water from the
60. Select the option which shows correct matching of animal
distal parts of the tubule.
with there excretory organs and excretory product.
This also leads to an
Excretory Excretory increase in blood
Animal pressure and GFR.
organs product
(a) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid E. An excessive loss of V. Activate osmoreceptors
(b) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial tubes Ammonia fluid from the body which stimulate the
(c) Salamander Kidney Urea
hypothalamus to release
ADH from the
(d) Peacock Kidney Urea
neurohypophysis
61. Select the correct match of the types of organs given in (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
column I with their role in excretion given in column II. (b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – I
Column I Column II (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – IV
(Types of organ) (Role in excretion) (d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II
A. Lungs I. Secretes bile-containing
substances like bilirubin, DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
biliverdin, cholesterol,
63. The label X and Y in the given diagram of human urinary
degraded steroid hormones,
system represents
vitamins and drugs.
B. Liver II. Eliminates water and salts
in sweat and substances
like sterols, hydrocarbons
and waxes through sebum. (X)
C. Skin III. Remove large amounts of
(Y)
(a) X- Urethra, Y- Ureter 66. The label X represents ___________ that function in
______________.
(b) X- Ureter, Y- Urethra
(a) Vasa recta- Reabsorption of water, minerals and
(c) X- Bladder, Y- Urethra digestive end products.
(d) X- Ureter, Y- Bladder (b) Henle's loop- Filtration of plasma leaving the blood.
(c) Vasa recta- Filtration of plasma leaving the blood.
64. Which is the correct order for the path taken by urine
(d) Henle's loop- Reabsorption of water, minerals and
after it leaves the kidney?
digestive end products.
67. Which blood component would not usually pass through
the membranes from region A to region B?
(a) Mineral salts (b) Red blood cells
(c) Urea (d) Water
68. After the blood enters the kidney, it travels to the
II ____________.
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Directions for (Q. 69 to 72): Refer the given figure of nephron
III
showing blood vessels and duct and answer the questions.
I
(a) I ® II ® III (b) III ® I ® II
(c) II ® III ® I (d) II® I ® III
65. The given figure shows the longitudinal section of kidney
with few structures labelled as I, II, III & IV identify renal
vein in the given figure.
IV
I
II
III
69. Which parts in the above figure have minimum
reabsorption and play a significant role in the maintenance
of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(a) I (b) II (c) 5 and 6 (d) 7 and 8
(c) III (d) IV 70. Cells of which part is lined by simple cuboidal brush border
Directions for (Q. 66 to 68): Refer the given diagrammatic epithelium that increases the surface area for reabsorption?
representation of a nephron of human excretory system and Identify the name also.
answer the following questions. (a) 3, Descending limb of loop of Henle
(b) 5, Vasa recta
(c) 6, Proximal convoluted tubule
A (d) 7, Collecting duct
B
71. Which part is capable of reabsorption of HCO3 - and
C
selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and
NH3 to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in
E blood?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
D
72. Which structures have an ability to produce the
concentrated urine?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 5
X (c) 6, 7, 8 (d) 2, 4, 7
EBD_7209
168 Biology
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 82. In nephron water absorption is maximum in

(a) proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
73. Workers in deep mines usually suffer from dehydration (b) ascending limb of Henle.
because (c) descending limb of Henle.
(a) water is lost due to evaporation. (d) distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
(b) water is lost due to defecation. 83. Human urine contains
(c) water is lost in the form of urine. (a) 95% water, 2.6% urea, 2% salts and some uric acid.
(d) water is lost along with salts in the form of sweat. (b) 99% water and 1% urea.
74. Which of the following sets of animals produce the same (c) 92% water and 8% salts.
substances as their chief excretory product?
(d) 90% water, 8% uric acid and 2% proteins.
(a) Fish, pigeon and frog
84. Glomerular filtrate contains
(b) Camel, housefly and snake
(c) Frog, monkey and dog (a) blood without blood cells and proteins
(d) Amoeba, ant and antelope (b) plasma without sugar
75. Filtration slits are formed by (c) blood with proteins but without cells
(a) endothelial lining of glomerular capillaries. (d) blood without urea
(b) inner epithelium of Bowman’s capsule. 85. __i___ and ___ii___ carries the waste products.
(c) basement membrane. (a) i- Renal artery, ii- Renal vein
(d) the participation of all of these. (b) i- Renal vein, ii- Urethra
76. The cells named podocytes occur in (c) i- Renal vein, ii- Ureter
(a) inner wall of Bowman’s capsule (d) i- Renal artery, ii-Ureter
(b) outer wall of Bowman’s capsule 86. The urine under normal conditions does not contain
(c) in the wall of glomerulus glucose because
(d) in the wall of Henle’s loop (a) the normal blood sugar is fructose.
77. Ultrafiltration occurs in a glomerulus when (b) glucose of blood is not filtered in the glomerulus.
(a) hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure.
(c) glucose in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the
(b) osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure.
uriniferous tubules.
(c) capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds glomerular
hydrostatic pressure. (d) glucose in glomerular filtrate is converted into
(d) colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pressure glycogen.
remain less than glomerular hydrostatic pressure. 87. When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption,
78. Filtration fraction is the ratio of which one of the following will not help in maintenance of
(a) glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to renal plasma flow blood volume?
(RPF) (a) increased ADH secretion.
(b) glomerular filtrate to urine (b) decreased glomerular filtration.
(c) haemoglobin to oxyhaemoglobin (c) increased arterial pressure in kidneys.
(d) O2 to CO2 (d) decreased arterial pressure in kidneys.
79. In a mammalian kidneys, Bowman’s capsules occur in 88. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is released in response to
(i) while loops of Henle are situated in (ii) . the increase in blood volume and blood pressure. Which
(a) (i) – cortex, (ii) – medulla of the followings is not the function of ANF? It
(b) (i) – medulla, (ii) – cortex (a) stimulates aldosterone secretion.
(c) (i) – cortex, (ii) – pelvis (b) inhibits the release of renin from JGA.
(d) (i) – pelvis, (ii) – medulla (c) stimulates salt loss in urine.
80. Urine is hypertonic (d) inhibits sodium reabsorption from collecting duct.
(a) in Bowman’s capsule. 89. Through the thick segment of ascending limb of Henle’s
(b) in PCT. loop the
(c) in the middle of descending & ascending limb of (a) NaCl can pass by active transport from filtrate to the
Henle’s loop. interstitial fluid.
(d) at the end of ascending limb of Henle’s loop. (b) NaCl can pass by passive transport into interstitial
81. Diuresis is a condition characterized by fluid.
(a) increase in urine volume. (c) NaCl cannot pass from the filtrate to interstitial fluid.
(b) increased glucose excretion. (d) Water can pass freely from filtrate to interstitial fluid.
(c) decrease in urine volume. 90. Which of the following is likely to accumulate in
(d) decrease in electrolyte balance. dangerous proportion in the blood of a person whose
kidney is not working properly?
(a) Ammonia (b) Urea (c) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of K+ ions
(c) Lysine (d) Sodium chloride into the surrounding blood capillaries.
91. If excess water passes out from tissues without being (d) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the
restored by kidneys, the cells would glomerular towards renal vein.
(a) burst open and die 100. Which one of the following enables the mammalian kidney
(b) not be affected at all to regulate water reabsorption during states of
dehydration?
(c) extract water from plasma
(a) The cells of the tubules detect the osmotic pressure
(d) shrivel and die
of the blood.
92. There is no sugar in urine. The blood entering the kidney (b) Water is extracted from the glomerular filtrate in the
has more sugar than leaving the kidney because proximal tubules.
(a) sugar is used by kidney cells in metabolism. (c) The kidney produces a hypotonic urine.
(b) sugar is absorbed by bladder. (d) Hormones increase the permeability of the collecting
(c) sugar is absorbed by proximal convoluted tubule. ducts.
(d) sugar is absorbed in Loop of Henle. 101. If the afferent arteriole that supplies blood to the
93. In human beings the capsular urine entering the Proximal glomerulus becomes dilated,
Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is (a) the protein concentration of the filtrate decreases.
(a) isotonic to blood (b) hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus decreases.
(b) hypotonic to blood (c) the glomerular filtration rate increases.
(c) hypertonic to blood (d) all of the above
(d) isotonic to sea water 102. "X" causes reabsorption of "Y" and water from the distal
94. If the diameter of afferent renal arteriole is decreased and parts of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in "Z"
and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
that of efferent renal arteriole increased, ultra filtration will
Identify X, Y and Z.
(a) be faster
(a) X: ADH; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure
(b) be slower (b) X: ADH; Y: K+; Z: Blood pressure
(c) not take place (c) X: Aldosterone; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure
(d) take place in the same speed (d) X: Aldosterone; Y: K+; Z: Ionic concentration
95. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary 103. Under normal conditions which one is completely
bladder wall are totally removed? reabsorbed in the renal tubule?
(a) There will be no micturition (a) Salts (b) Urea
(b) Urine will not collect in the bladder (c) Glucose (d) Uric acid
(c) Micturition will continue 104. Identify the parts mentioned below which constitute a
(d) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder part of single uriniferous tubule.
96. In a kidney machine, which of the following passes from i. Loop of Henle.
the blood to the dialysis fluid? ii. Collecting duct
(a) Glucose (b) Plasma protein iii. Bowman's capsule
(c) Red blood cells (d) Urea iv. Distal convoluted tubule
97. Excretion means (a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv
(a) removal of substances which have never been a part (c) i, iii and iv (d) All of the above
of body. 105. A patient was diagnosed that one process of his excretory
(b) removal of faecal matter from the body. system was not functioning properly due to which his
(c) removal of substances not required in the body. urine is not concentrating.
(d) all of the above. Identify the organ of the excretory system on which
98. Urine of a human suffering from diabetes inspidus is concentration of urine depends.
(a) concentrated with glucose (a) Collecting duct
(b) concentrated without glucose (b) Bowman's capsule
(c) watery with glucose (c) Length of loop of Henle
(d) watery without glucose (d) Proximal convoluted tubules
99. Which one of the following correctly explains the function 106. Which are the following group of hormones participate in
of a specific part of a human nephron ? the regulation of the renal function?
(a) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the (a) ADH, TSH and ANF
filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule. (b) PCT, TSH and ANF
(b) Henle’s loop : Most reabsorption of the major (c) ADH, DCT and Aldosterone
substances from the glomerular filtrate. (d) ADH, ANF and Aldosterone

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FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. Crypts of lieberkuhn are present in

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DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS

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Breathing and Exhange of Gases 149

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Breathing and Exhange of Gases 151

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9. Rh factor is named after

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Excretory Products and Their Elimination 163

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