Embryology MCQ

1- The greater omentum is derived from which of the following embryonic structures?

a. Dorsal mesoduodenum
b. Dorsal mesogastrium
c. Pericardioperitoneal canal
d. Pleuropericardial membranes

The Correct option is B

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

 Both the omental bursa and the greater omentum are derived from the dorsal
mesogastrium, which is the mesentery of the stomach region.
 The dorsal mesoduodenum (choice A) is the mesentery of the developing duodenum, which
later disappears so that the duodenum and pancreas come to lie retroperitoneally.
 The pericardioperitoneal canal (choice C) embryologically connects the thoracic and
peritoneal canals.
 The pleuropericardial membranes (choice D) become the pericardium and contribute to the
diaphragm.

2- From which of the following fetal vessels do the umbilical arteries arise?

a. Aorta
b. Carotid arteries
c. Ductus arteriosus
d. Iliac arteries

The Correct option is D

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

The paired umbilical arteries arise from the iliac arteries. They supply unoxygenated fetal blood to
the placenta. The single umbilical vein takes the newly oxygenated fetal blood from the placenta to
the liver and then to the inferior vena cava via the ductus venosus.

3- In a genotypic male, the testes fail to develop, and do not secrete testosterone or Müllerian
regression factor. Which of the following best describes the in-utero reproductive system
development of this individual?

a. Both male- and female-type internal reproductive tracts and male-type external genitalia
b. Female-type internal reproductive tract and female-type external genitalia
c. Female-type internal reproductive tract and male-type external genitalia
d. Male-type internal reproductive tract and female-type external genitalia
The Correct option is B

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

 The description is that of gonadal dysgenesis. In the absence of testosterone, the Wolffian
ducts will regress and fail to differentiate into normal male internal reproductive tracts. In
the absence of Müllerian regression factor, the Müllerian ducts will automatically
differentiate into oviducts and a uterus. Differentiation of the male external genitals is
dependent on adequate dihydrotestosterone (via an action of 5 α- reductase on
testosterone). In the absence of testosterone, female-type external genitalia will develop.
 Selective dysgenesis of the Sertoli cells could produce the situation described in choice A.
Normal Leydig cells would secrete testosterone and produce normal male-type internal and
external tracts. However, the absence of Müllerian regression factor, which is secreted by
the Sertoli cells, would allow formation of female-type internal structures as well.
 Female-type internal reproductive tract and male-type external genitalia (choice C) would
not be likely to occur under any circumstances.
 The situation described in choice D could occur with 5 α-reductase deficiency. Normal male-
type internal tracts can form because there is no requirement for dihydrotestosterone.
Müllerian regression factor will prevent differentiation of female-type internal tracts. Since
differentiation of the normal male external genitals requires dihydrotestosterone, 5 α-
reductase deficiency will lead to feminization.

4- The smooth part of the right atrium derives from which of the following embryonic
structures?

a. Bulbus cordis
b. Primitive atrium
c. Primitive ventricle
d. Sinus venosus

The Correct option is D

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

The smooth part of the right atrium (the sinus venarum) is derived from the sinus venosus. The
coronary sinus and the oblique vein of the left atrium also derive from the sinus venosus. The bulbus
cordis (choice A) gives rise to the smooth part of the right ventricle (conus arteriosus) and the
smooth part of the left ventricle (aortic vestibule). The primitive atrium (choice B) gives rise to the
trabeculated part of the right and left atria.The primitive ventricle (choice C) gives rise to the
trabeculated part of the right and left ventricles.

5- Which of the following characteristics is similar for spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

a. Age at which meiosis begins

b. Amount of cytoplasm retained
c. DNA replication during meiosis
d. Length of prophase I
The Correct option is C

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

The actual process of manipulation of DNA and chromosomes during meiosis is very similar in
spermatogenesis and oogenesis. However, the processes also differ in many other respects: In
oogenesis, the process of meiosis begins before birth, and arrests between birth and puberty in
prophase I. In contrast, spermatogenesis does not begin until puberty (see choice A). The egg retains
a large volume of cytoplasm (choice B), while nearly all the cytoplasm is stripped during formation of
a sperm. As noted above, in oogenesis, meiosis is arrested in prophase I, which is consequently very
prolonged in the female. In spermatogenesis, meiosis is completed in a much shorter time (choice
D).
NOTE: Both the egg and the sperm have mitochondria, but those of the sperm are left outside when
the sperm nucleus enters the egg, and consequently do not contribute to the mitochondrial genome
of the fetus. Instead, the mitochondria are transmitted from the egg to the fetus. Traits coded for by
mitochondrial DNA are therefore inherited in a matrilineal fashion.

6- At which of the following ages does fetal movement first occur?

a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 4 months
d. 6 months

The Correct option is B

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

Neuromuscular development is sufficient to allow fetal movement in the eighth week of life. Other
features of week 8 include the first appearance of a thin skin, a head as large as the rest of the body,
forward-looking eyes, appearance of digits on the hands and feet, appearance of testes and ovaries
(but not distinguishable external genitalia), and a crown-rump length of approximately 30 mm. By
the end of the eighth week, nearly all adult structures have at least begun to develop, and the fetus
"looks like a baby".

7- A patient, who appears to be female, is found to be 46, XY. The patient's vagina is very shallow,
ending in a blind pouch, and there are palpable masses in the labia. The diagnosis of testicular
feminization syndrome is made. Which of the following was most likely present during the early fetal
life of this individual?

a. A streak ovary
b. A uterus
c. Depressed levels of testosterone
d. MIF (Mullerian inhibitory factor)

The Correct option is D

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

Testicular feminization is a disorder of the androgen receptor. Phenotypically, the patient appears
female, but has a blindly ending vagina and lacks a uterus or other female internal reproductive
organs. The patient has an XY genotype. Since the gene for testes determining factor (TDF) is on the
Y chromosome, TDF will cause the indifferent gonad to develop into a testis containing Sertoli cells.
Sertoli cells at this stage will secrete MIF, a substance that suppresses the paramesonephric ducts,
preventing the formation of female internal reproductive organs. This patient would not have a
streak ovary, a finding in Turner's syndrome that is associated with a 45, XO genotype. In fact, the
patient would have testes, since the genetic complement contained a Y chromosome. The testes in
individuals with testicular feminization syndrome are often undescended and are usually removed
surgically. This patient would not possess a uterus. Both of these structures are derived from the
paramesonephric duct, which is suppressed by MIF. Depressed levels of testosterone would not
occur in this patient. In fact, individuals with testicular feminization syndrome have normal or even
slightly elevated levels of testosterone. The development of female external genitalia is the result of
defective androgen receptors, not depressed levels of testosterone.

8- Which of the pharyngeal pouches develops into the palatine tonsil?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

The Correct option is B

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

 The epithelial lining of the second pharyngeal pouch buds into the mesenchyme to form the
palatine tonsil. Part of the pouch remains in the adult as the tonsillar fossa.
 The first pharyngeal pouch (choice A) develops into the middle ear cavity and eustachian
tube.
 The third pharyngeal pouch (choice C) develops into the thymus and the inferior parathyroid
glands.
 The fourth pharyngeal pouch (choice D) gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands. Recall
that abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th pouches leads to DiGeorge syndrome and
results in hypocalcemia as well as abnormal cellular immunity and consequent susceptibility
to viral and fungal illnesses.
 The fifth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the C cells of the thyroid gland. These cells secrete
calcitonin–a hormone that lowers serum calcium.
8- During anatomy lab, a medical student notes a fibrous band that runs on the visceral surface of
the liver. It is attached on one end to the inferior vena cava and on the other end to the left branch
of the portal vein. In the embryo, this structure corresponds to the
a. Ductus venosus
b. Ligamentum teres
c. Ligamentum venosum
d. Umbilical arteries

The Correct option is A

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

  This question could have tricked you if you didn't catch the key words, "in the embryo." If
you read the question too quickly and thought you were going to be asked to identify the
structure described, you probably chose choice C (ligamentum venosum), since that is
indeed the structure in question.
 However, in the embryo, this fibrous band is actually the ductus venosus. The ductus
venosus is an embryonic vessel that allows blood to bypass the fetal liver; this prevents the
depletion of oxygen and nutrient-rich blood in the hepatic sinusoids. The embryonic
umbilical vein (choice E) actually becomes the fibrous ligamentum teres (choice B). The
ligamentum teres is located in the free margin of the falciform ligament. The embryonic
umbilical arteries (choice D) become the medial umbilical ligaments.

9- A 12-month-old child is diagnosed with an atrial septal defect. What is the most common
cause of such a congenital heart malformation?

a. Failure of formation of the septum primum

b. Failure of formation of the septum secundum
c. Incomplete adhesion between the septum primum and septum secundum
d. Malformation of the membranous interventricular septum

The Correct option is C

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

The most common form of atrial septal defect is located near the foramen ovale (not to be confused
with a patent foramen ovale, which is of little or no hemodynamic significance). They result from
incomplete adhesion between the septum primum and the septum secundum during development.
Atrial septal defects less commonly result from failures of formation of the septum primum (choice
A) and septum secundum (choice B). Malformations of the interventricular septum (choices D) cause
ventricular septal defects rather than atrial septal defects.

10- A newborn male child is noted to have hypospadiasis. A complete evaluation determines
that the child has no other genitourinary anomalies. Nonetheless, hypospadiasis repair will be
performed to prevent which of the following possible sequelae?

a. Bladder exstrophy
b. Hydrocele
c. Phimosis
d. Urinary tract infection

The Correct option is D

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

 Hypospadiasis, which is congenital displacement of the urethral opening onto the ventral
surface (underside) of the penis, is due to malformation of the urethral groove and canal.
Hypospadiasis frequently accompanies other genitourinary anomalies, especially
cryptorchidism. Isolated hypospadiasis is repaired because the abnormal opening is often
 constricted, leading to urinary retention and ascending urinary tract infections. Another
important consequence of hypospadiasis is sterility, which occurs if the opening is too close
to the base of the penis to permit normal ejaculation. Although hypospadiasis can occur in
isolation, it is strongly associated with other urogenital anomalies.
 Bladder exstrophy (choice A) is a completely unrelated congenital malformation in which the
abdominal wall and anterior bladder wall form incompletely, and the bladder mucosa is
exposed to the environment.
 Hydrocele (choice B) is a serous accumulation in the tunica vaginalis, often producing a
readily apparent scrotal mass. Hydrocele usually arises without any obvious cause.
 Phimosis (choice C) is the condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted over the head
of the penis. It is usually either a congenital malformation or a consequence of scarring.

11- A 25-year-old female presents to her obstetrician after taking a home pregnancy test with
a positive result. She states that twins run in her family and would like an ultrasound to
determine if she has a twin pregnancy. Radiographic studies confirm that the embryo has split
at the blastocyst stage. Splitting of the embryo at the blastocyst stage results in which of the
following?

a. Conjoined twins
b. Dizygotic twins
c. Fraternal twins
d. Monozygotic twins

The Correct option is D

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

Monozygotic twins, or identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg that subsequently splits
during either the blastomere or blastocyst stage. It is more common in the blastocyst stage at the
end of the first week. This results in two inner cell masses in the same blastocyst cavity. They usually
develop a common placenta and chorionic cavities but separate amniotic cavities. Splitting in the
second week usually results in shared amniotic cavities as well. Conjoined twins (choice A), or
Siamese twins, result from incomplete splitting of the embryo. Dizygotic twins (choice B) and
fraternal twins (choice C) are the same, and are the most common type of twins. They share the
same genetic relatedness as do siblings of separate pregnancies. This type of twinning occurs
because of simultaneous double ovulation followed by fertilization by two sperm. They each develop
their own placenta and membranes.

12- What is the length of the Human spermatozoa (Sperm)?

a. 50 micrometers
b. 100 micrometers
c. 200 micrometers
d. 500 micrometers

The Correct option is A

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

 The measurements of different parts of spermatozoon:-

 Head - 4.0 μm
 Neck - 0.3 μm
 Middle piece - 7 μm
 Principal piece - 40 μm
 End piece - 5-7μm
 Approximately 58.3μm
 As it is released from the wall of the seminiferous tubule into the lumen, the spermatozoon
is non-motile but structurally mature. Its expanded head contains little cytoplasm and is
connected by a short constricted neck to the tail.
 The tail is a complex flagellum and is divided into middle, principal and end pieces. The head
contains the elongated flattened nucleus with condensed, deeply staining chromatin and the
acrosomal cap anteriorly, which contains acid phosphatase, hyaluronidase, neuraminidase
and proteases necessary for fertilisation. In the centre of the neck, is a well formed centriole,
corresponding to the proximal centriole of the spermatid from which it differentiated. The
axonemal complex is derived from the distal centriole.
 A small amount of cytoplasm exists in the neck covered by plasma membrane continuous
with that of the head & tail.
 The middle piece - a long cylinder - consists of an axial bundle of microtubules, the axoneme,
outside which is a cylinder of nine dense outer fibres, surrounded by a helical mitochondrial
sheath.
 The annulus is an electron - dense body at the caudal end of the middle piece. The principal
piece - motile part of cell - The axoneme and the surrounding dense fibres are continuous
from the neck region through the whole length of the tail except for its terminal 5- 7μm, in
which the axoneme alone persists. The end piece has a typical structure of a flagellum, with
a simple nine plus two arrangement of microtubules.

13- Which of these statements about the thymus gland is false?

a. Develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch

b. Decreases in size with age
c. Is made up of cells of endodermal origin
d. Descends anterior to the brachiocephalic vein

The Correct option is A

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

The thymus lies within the anterior mediastinum. It develops with the inferior parathyroid gland
from the third pharyngeal pouch. The cells of the thymus are of endodermal origin. It is at its largest
in childhood and decreases in size with age.

14- A 7-year-old patient presents with a mass in the anterior midline of the neck, slightly
above the larynx. The mass is mobile and elevates upon protrusion of the tongue. This mass
is most likely a cyst that developed from which of the following embryonic structures?
a. First pharyngeal cleft
b. First pharyngeal pouch
c. Second pharyngeal cleft
d. Thyroglossal duct

The Correct option is D

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

The thyroglossal duct develops as an evagination of the floor of the pharynx in the region where the
tongue develops. The adult foramen cecum of the tongue marks the site of this evagination. The
distal end of this duct normally forms the thyroid gland; the proximal part of the duct normally
degenerates. Failure of a part of the duct to degenerate may lead to a thyroglossal duct cyst or
median cervical cyst, as seen in this patient.
 The first pharyngeal cleft (choice A) forms the external ear canal. This cleft normally remains
patent.
 The first pharyngeal pouch (choice B) forms the middle ear cavity and the auditory tube. This
pouch normally remains patent.
 The second pharyngeal cleft (choice C) normally does not remain patent. It is typically
covered over by the overgrowth of the second pharyngeal arch. If part of this pouch does
remain patent, it may form a lateral cervical cyst, which is seen on the lateral side of the
neck along the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
 The second pharyngeal pouch forms the tonsillar fossa of the pharynx. The pharyngeal
mucosa in this area arises from the endoderm of the pouch. Ingrowths of mesoderm cells
results in the formation of the palatine tonsil.

16-The heart of an embryo first begins beating at which of the following ages?

a. 2 weeks
b. 3 weeks
c. 4 weeks
d. 6 weeks

The Correct option is A

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

While the third-week embryo is a primitive trilaminar plate, in the fourth week, the heart begins to
form and begins beating almost immediately. Hematopoiesis occurs in the yolk sac, and a primitive
circulatory system connects the capillary plexuses of the yolk sac and chorion to the embryo.
Partitioning of the atrium also begins in the fourth week. During the fifth week, cardiac septa form
and the atrioventricular (AV) cushions fuse. By the sixth week, the heart is close to fully formed. This
early sequence for the heart explains why it is so difficult to try to prevent congenital malformations
of the cardiovascular system from occurring, since the mother of a 6-week-old fetus is only about 8
weeks from her last menstrual period, and may have assumed that she just missed a period" (a very
common phenomenon) for reasons other than pregnancy.

16- Closure of the neural tube occurs on around which day of the embryonic life period?
 a. 26
b. 38
c. 56
d. 74

The Correct option is A

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

As the neural tube forms, the closing process is critical, occurring from the cranial to the caudal end
as the anterior neuropore closes around day 24, the posterior around day 26. This is a critical event,
as defects in closure may result in spina bifida or other neural tube defects. The risk of a neural tube
defect can be decreased by folic acid supplements.

17- Which of the following respiratory system components is derived from neural crest?

a. Endothelial cells
b. Epithelium of primary bronchi
c. Laryngeal cartilage
d. Tracheal glands

The Correct option is C

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

 Laryngeal cartilages (e.g., the thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid cartilages) are derived from neural
crest.
 The endothelial cells in the simple squamous epithelium that lines the pulmonary capillaries
are derived from visceral mesoderm.
 The epithelial lining of primary bronchi is derived from endoderm.
 Tracheal glands and epithelium both derive from endoderm.
 Type I pneumocytes are derived from endoderm.

18- What is the origin of the definitive myocardium of the adult heart?

a. Endoderm
b. Somatopleuric mesoderm
c. Hypoblast
d. Splanchnopleuric mesoderm

The Correct option is D

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

 Myocardium - The myocardium or cardiac muscle arises from splanchnopleuric mesoderm

that invests the primary heart tube. The myocardium secretes the cardiac jelly and gives rise
to the conduction system.
  Epicardium (visceral pericardium) - This outer tunic of thin serous membrane covers the
myocardium. It is derived from splanchnopleuric mesoderm and also forms the coronary
vessels.
 Endocardium - This lining of the heart tube is derived from the lateral endocardial tubes. It
consists of endothelium and a thin subendothelial connective tissue.

19- When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:

a. Dedifferentiation
b. Redifferentiation
c. Transdifferentiation
d. Sub differentiation

The Correct option is C

Explanation with High Yield Facts:

Transdifferentiation: a non-stem cell transforms into a different type of cell, or when an already
differentiated stem cell creates cells outside its already established differentiation.
1. The change of a cell or tissue from one differentiated state to another.
2. The differentiation of a tissue-specific stem cell into another type of cell as, for example, a
bone marrow stem cell differentiating into a neuron.
 Transdifferentiation is a type of metaplasia, which includes all cell fate switches, including
the inter conversion of stem cells.
 Evidence for transdifferentiation in adult humans is given by Barrett's metaplasia in which
epithelial cells of the oesophagus switch to intestinal mucin-secreting goblet cells.
Differentiation:
1. The process by which cells become progressively more specialized;
 a normal process through which cells mature. This process of specialization for the cell
comes at the expense of its breadth of potential. Stem cells can, for example, differentiate
into secretory cells in the intestine.
2. In cancer, differentiation refers to how mature (developed) the cancer cells are in a tumour.
 Differentiated tumour cells resemble normal cells and tend to grow and spread at a slower
rate than undifferentiated or poorly differentiated tumour cells, which lack the structure and
function of normal cells and grow uncontrollably.
Dedifferentiation: Dedifferentiation is a cellular process where a partially or terminally differentiated
cell reverts to an earlier developmental stage.
 a loss of differentiation of cells and of their orientation to one another and to their axial
framework and blood vessels, a characteristic of tumour tissue; also called anaplasia.
Redifferentiation: the return of a dedifferentiated tissue or part to its original or another more or
less similar condition.
SUB-DIFFERENTIATION:
Further differentiation into sub-types e.g., T lymphocytes sub-differentiate into Helper, killer and
suppressor subsets.