Practice Set- 01

1. Consider a triangular section with base b and 8. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and 10 mm thick. A
height h as shown in the figure. rivet of nominal diameter of 18 mm is driven.
The net sectional area of plate is
(a) 18.00 cm2 (b) 28.20 cm2
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(c) 28.05 cm (d) 32.42cm2
9. Maximum strain theory for the failure of a
material at the elastic limit is known as:
(a) Haig's theory
(b) Guest's or Tresca's theory
(c) Rankine's theory
The shape factor will be nearly (d) Saint Venant's theory
(a) 2.3 (b) 3.2 10. Match the List-I with List-II and select your
(c) 4.1 (d) 5.0 correct answer using the codes given below:
2. Web buckling occurs in a beam due to List-I List-II
excessive (Name of the (Method)
(a) Direct tensile stress in the web associated with the
(b) Bending tensile stress in the web methods)
(c) Torsional shear stress in the web A. G.N. Maney 1. Moment
(d) Compressive stress in the web distribution
3. Considering the nature of loading on gantry B. Hardy cross 2. Slope deflection
girders, which type of loadings are gantry method
girders usually designed to resist? C. Euler 3. Theorem of three
(i) Gantry load moments
(ii) Lateral loads
(iii) Longitudinal loads D. Clapeyron 4. Crippling load on
column
(iv) Wind loads
Select the correct answer using the codes given A B C D
below : (a) 2 1 4 3
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) 1 2 3 4
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) 1 2 4 3
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) 2 1 3 4
(d) (ii), (iii) and (ii) 11. The bending equation is :
4. The lacing bars in a steel column should be T τ Cθ T τ Cθ
designed to resist : (a) = = (b) = =
J r ℓ J r ℓ
(a) Bending moment due to 2.5% of the column M σ E ℓ τ Cθ
load. (c) = = (d) = =
(b) Shear force due to 2.5% of the column load I y R r J ℓ
(c) 2.5% of the column load only 12. For a beam, Shear span is defined as the zone where:
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Shear force is constant
(b) Shear force is zero
5. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of
(c) Bending moment is constant
tension members liable to reversal of stress due (d) Bending moment is zero
to action of wind and earthquake is- 13. The resultant of two forces each equal to P and
(a) 300 (b) 350 acting at right angles is
(c) 400 (d) 425
6. A butt weld is specified by (a) P/ 2 (b) P/2
(a) effective throat thickness (c) P/2 2 (d) 2 P
(b) plate thickness 14. Consider below statements,
(c) size of weld A. According to principle of transmissibility,
(d) penetration thickness "force can be applied at any point on the
7. In case of staggered pitch, pitch may be object in its line of action, which creates
___________ of values specified for not same moment about the considered point"
staggered pitch. B. According to Varignon's theorem "Moment of
(a) increased by 20% resultant force of a system of force acting on a
(b) increased by 50% body about a point is inversely proportional to
(c) decreased by 20% moment of all the forces acting on same object
(d) decreased by 50% about the same point."
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 Identify the correct statement's 23. Geodetic Surveying is used for-
(a) Statement B is true A is false (a) Detailing the topography for a large area
(b) Both statements are false (b) Getting control points for horizontal control
(c) Both statements are true (c) Finding the elevation of points precisely
(d) Statement A is true B is false (d) Finding the latitude and longitude of points
15. A symmetrical two-hinged parabolic arch when 24. The scale of a given plan is written as 1:200. If
subjected to a uniformly distributed load on an original length of 10 cm on the plan has now
the entire horizontal span, is subjected to shrunk to 9.8 cm. determine the actual distance
(a) radial shear alone denoted by a line which currently measures 10
(b) normal thrust alone cm.
(c) normal thrust and bending moment (a) 20.4 m (b) 19.4 m
(d) normal thrust, radial shear and bending (c) 21.9 m (d) 18.9 m
moment 25. An engineering survey is proposed in a
16. The number of independent equations to be highway alignment project. The survey include
satisfied for static equilibrium of a space following stages:
structure is : 1. Preliminary Survey
(a) 1 (b) 2 2. Reconnaissance
(c) 3 (d) 6 3. Map study
17. In theodolite survey, the telescope is said to be 4. Final location & detailed Survey.
inverted, if the The sequential order of the stages in which the
(a) Vertical circle is to the right of the observer engineering survey is carried out is : (Use
and the bubble of the telescope is up Codes 1 to 4 for answering)
(b) Vertical circle is to the right of the observer (a) 2 - 1 – 3 - 4 (b) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4
and the bubble of the telescope is down (c) 2 - 3 – 1 - 4 (d) 3 – 2 – 1 - 4
(c) Vertical circle is to the left of the observer 26. Two parallel railway lines are to be connected
and the bubble of the telescope is up by a reverse curve, each section having the
(d) Vertical circle is to the left of the observer same radius. If the lines are 12 m apart and the
maximum distance between tangent points
and the bubble of the telescope is down
measured parallel to the straights is 48m, then
18. In a vertical curve, an upgrade of 3% is
the maximum allowable radius will be
followed by a downgrade of 2%. The rate of (a) 51.1 m (b) 52.3 m
change of grade is 0.06% per 20 m chain. The (c) 53.5 m (d) 54.7 m
length of the vertical curve will be : 27. If the sleeper density is N+6, then what will be
(a) 83.33 chains (b) 41.66 chains the number of sleepers required for
(c) 44 chains (d) 22 chains constructing a 500 m broad gauge track (rail
19. If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed as length = 13 m) ?
0.75 m from a tacheometer with the line of (a) 925 (b) 741
sight horizontal, fitted with anallatic lens, the (c) 1026 (d) 886
horizontal distance between the tacheometer 28. The ratio of the soil reaction to the deflection at
and the staff station is- any point is defined as the :
(a) 0.75 m (b) 7.5 m (a) modulus of subgrade reaction
(c) 75 m (d) 750 m (b) coefficient of deflection
20. The indirect method of contouring has all the (c) elastic limit of the soil
following advantages over direct method (d) bearing capacity of the soil
except 29. VG30 grade of bitumen is suitable for 7-days
(a) Economy average maximum air temperature (degree C)
(b) Suitability for hilly terrain of:
(c) Accuracy (a) <30 (b) 30-38
(d) Suitability for large projects (c) >45 (d) 38-45
21. If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place in 30. The compensated gradient on a horizontal
noon in Southern hemisphere is 167°, the curve of 100 m radius, if the ruling gradient
magnetic declination at that place is: provided on the road is 4% is
(a) 77° N (b) 23° S (a) 2.7% (b) 3%
(c) 13° E (d) 13° W (c) 3.25% (d) 4%
22. Correction due to sag of a tape is 31. The transition curve used in the horizontal
(a) always positive alignment of highways as per IRC re-
(b) always negative commendation is
(c) sometimes negative and sometimes positive (a) Spiral (b) Lemniscates
(d) dependent on the temperature conditions (c) Cubic parabola (d) Any of the above
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32. According to the recommendations of Nagpur
Conference, the width formation of an ideal
National Highway (N.H.) in hard rock cutting
is:
(a) 8.9 m (b) 7.9 m
(c) 6.9 m (d) 6.5 m
33. The maximum spacing for vertical stirrups of
shear reinforcements shall not exceed
(a) 0.75 d (b) 0.45 d
(c) d (d) 0.6 d
34. Read the following statements for RCC
column/compression members?
(i) A compression member may be considered as
short when the maximum slenderness ratio is
less than 12.
(ii) For a compressive member, the unsupported
length between end restrains shall not exceed
60 times the least lateral dimension.
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) Only (i) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct 38. Which of the following are the desirable
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect properties for efficient functioning in design for
35. Which of the following statements are correct movement joint of water tank ?
with reference to ensuring minimum shrinkage 1. The joint should accommodate repeated
of pre-stressed concrete? movement of the structure without loss of
1. The water-cement ratio and proportion of water-tightness
cement paste should be kept minimum to 2. The design should provide for exclusion of
reduce shrinkage. grit and debris which would prevent the
2. Aggregates of larger size, well graded for closing of the joint.
minimum void, need a smaller amount of 3. The material used in the construction of
cement paste, and attendant shrinkage will movement joint should not slump unduly
be smaller. in hot weather or become brittle in cold
3. Harder and denser aggregates of low water weather.
absorptions and high modulus of elasticity (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
will exhibit small shrinkage. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 39. Determine the slab area of which load is acting
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 on supporting beams A and B
36. Consider the following statements regarding
suspension cables :
1. The horizontal component of the cable
tension in a suspension bridge is constant at
every point along the length of the cable
2. Stiffening girders in a suspension bridge
carry only the live load
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 5.5 m2 and 7.0 m2 (b) 4.0 m2 and 5.5 m2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2
(c) 7.0 m and 4.0 m 2
(d) 4.0 m2 and 7.0 m2
37. For a tall building, which framing system from 40. The size of the rectangular section is fixed and
the following, column placement is most the moment of resistance of a singly reinforced
economical for resisting lateral loads: section is less than design moment. the beam
shall be designed as :
(a) Under-reinforced (b) Over-reinforced
(c) Doubly reinforced (d) Compressive
41. Working stress of mild steel is determined from
the
(a) upper yield stress (b) ultimate stress
(c) fracture stress (d) lower yield stress
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42. In under-reinforced section 51. The standard Proctor compaction curve of a
(a) the depth of the actual neutral axis is less than clay is depicted in the figure. Points A, B and
the balanced neutral axis depth C correspond to three compaction states of the
(b) the depth of the actual neutral axis is more soil, which fall on this curve. For which point(s)
than the balanced neutral axis depth is the coefficient of permeability minimum?
(c) the concrete reaches maximum permissible
stress first
(d) both concrete and steel reach maximum
permissible stresses simultaneously
43. The main element for the initial hardening of
cement paste is:
(a) Tetra calcium aluminate
(b) Dicalcium silicate
(c) calcium oxide
(d) Tricalcium silicate (a) A and C (b) A
(c) B (d) C
44. What is the maximum permissible acid soluble
52. Match List-I (Test) with List-II (property) and
chloride content (kg/cum) for reinforced
select the correct answer using the codes given
concrete? below the lists :
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.6 List - I (Test) List- II (property)
(c) 0.4 (d) 3 A. Proctor Test 1. Grain Size Analysis
45. The top diameter, bottom diameter and the B. Vane Test 2. Shear Strength
height of a slump mould are ........... C. Penetration Test 3.Bearing Capacity
(a) 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm D. Hydrometer Test 4.Compaction
(b) 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm Code:
(c) 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm A B C D
(d) 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm (a) 2 4 1 3
46. Which of the following properties is not (b) 4 2 1 3
required for concrete mix design, as per the (c) 4 2 3 1
guidelines given by the Indian Standard? (d) 2 4 3 1
(a) Specific gravity of cement 53. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Density of aggregate permeability of soils:
(c) Maximum size of aggregate 1. Permeability of coarse grained soil is
(d) Characteristic strength of concrete inversely proportional to the specific surface
47. Strength of cement concrete mainly depends at a given porosity.
upon :- 2. Direct measurement of permeability of a soil
(a) Quality of water specimen at any stage of loading in
(b) Quantity of aggregate Oedometer test can be made only in fixed-
(c) Quantity of cement ring type Oedometer.
(d) Water cement ratio 3. The permeability of an aquifer increases
48. The striping time for the Reinforced Concrete with decrease in temperature of water
slab spanning less than 4.5 m and using fly ash moving through it.
as an admixture should be– Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 7 days (b) 10 days (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 14 days (d) 21 days (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
49. An unsupported vertical cut may be made in 54. The property of the soil mass which permits
cohesive soil to a height of : the seepage of water through its
2C  φ 2q u  φ interconnecting voids, is called
(a) tan  450 +  (b) tan  450 +  (a) capillarity (b) permeability
γ  2 γ  2 (c) porosity (d) none of these
4q u  φ  4C  φ  55. In comparison to Atterberg limits of normal
(c) tan  450 −  (d) tan  450 + 
γ  2 γ  2 soil, the expansive soils which of the following :
50. A clay layer of thickness 10 cm and initial void (i) More liquid limit
ratio 0.5 undergoes settlement so that the final (ii) Less plastic limit
void ratio is 0.2. The settlement of the layer in (iii) Less shrinkage limit
cm is (iv) More volumetric shrinkage
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 Select the correct answers using the codes given
(c) 2 (d) 2.5 below :
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 (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (iii) Floor area is equal to plinth area minus
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) area occupied by walls
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Now, choose the correct answer from the
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) following
56. If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of (a) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity (b) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
and void ratio respectively are (c) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(a) 1.0 and 0.0 (b) 0.0 and 1.0 (d) All (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) 0.5 and 1.0 (d) 1.0 and 0.5 65. Floor Area Index (FAI) is
Covered area of all floors
57. If ‘A’ = the maximum void ratio of the soil in (a) × 100
the loosest condition, ‘B’ is the minimum void Plot area
ratio of the soil in the densest condition and ‘C’ Covered area of ground floors
(b) × 100
is the void ratio in the natural state, then the Plot area
relative density is given by– Plot area
(a) (A – C) / (A – B) (b) (A – B) / (A – C) (c) × 100
Covered area of ground floors
(c) (B – C) / (B – A ) (d) (B – A) / (B – C )
Plot area
58. When the products of rock weathering are not (d) × 100
transported as sediments but remain in place, Covered area of all floors
the soil is known as : 66. Direction : Match list-I with list-II and select
(a) alluvial soil (b) aeolian soil the correct answer using code given below the
(c) residual soil (d) glacial soil two list in each question.
List I List II
59. What is the quantity of cement (in kg) and of
A. Valuation 1. Determining price
dry sand (in cubic meter) respectively required of property
for preparing 1 cubic meter of wet cement B. Mortgage 2. Charges levied on
mortar of 1:5 proportion? property
(a) 270 and 1.00 (b) 290 and 1.04 C. Taxation 3. Security taken for
(c) 290 and 1.00 (d) 310 and 1.04 giving load
60. The unit of measurement for earthwork in D. Specification 4. Mode of describing
surface excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width as nature and class of
well as 10 sqm on plan but not exceeding 30 cm work
in depth, is in- Code:
(a) cu. m (b) sq. m A B C D
(c) 10 sq.m (d) R.mt (a) 1 2 3 4
61. While submitting tender by three envelope (b) 1 3 2 4
method, which envelope contains rates/ amount (c) 4 3 2 1
offered by the tenderer? (d) 3 4 2 1
(a) Envelope : 3 67. Cost slope is the ratio of
(b) Envelope nos. : 1 and 2 (a) increase in cost by increase in time
(c) Envelope : 1 (b) decrease in cost by increase in time
(d) None of the above (c) increase in cost by decrease in time
62. Calculate the earthwork (cum) required to fill (d) decrease in cost by decrease in time
a trapezoidal cross-section that has breadth of 68. The relationship between the capital recovery
formation as 20m, center height as 4 m and side factor and sinking fund factor in a uniform
slopes as 1 vertical to 2 horizontal. The length series of payments is given by
of this section is 2km: (a) Capital recovery factor = Sinking fund factor
(a) 168000 (b) 224000 – Interest rate
(c) 246400 (d) 268800
(b) Capital recovery factor = Sinking fund factor
63. As per IS 1200, in the measurement of
– (Interest rate)2
brickwork, no deductions shall be made for :
(a) Opening up to 0.1 sq. m in area (c) Capital recovery factor = Sinking fund factor
(b) Opening up to 0.01 sq. m in area + (Interest rate)2
(c) Opening up to 0.001 sq. m in area (d) Capital recovery factor = Sinking fund factor
(d) Opening up to 1.0 sq. m in area + Interest rate
64. Read the following statements carefully 69. The short circulating occurring in a
(i) Plinth area is calculated by taking the sedimentation tank is represented by
external dimensions of the building at the floor (a) surface loading
level excluding plinth offsets if any. (b) displacement efficiency
(ii) Balconies and cantilever projections are not (c) recirculation ratio
included in the plinth area (d) detention time
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70. Consider the below statements with respect to 76. Coincident draft in relation to water demand is
Air pollution control : based on:
A. Dispersion of air pollutants through long (a) Peak hourly demand
chimneys helps in diluting the air (b) Maximum daily demand
pollutants near their source. (c) Maximum daily demand + fire demand
B. Dispersion of air pollutants through long (d) Greater of (a) and (c)
chimneys, reduce long term undesirable 77. If ‘p’ is the precipitation, ‘a’ is the area
effects on the community as a whole. represented by a rain gauge, and ‘n’ is the
Identify the correct statement/s. number of rain gauges in a catchment area,
(a) Both statements are true then the weighted mean rainfall is
(b) Statement A is true B is false
∑ ap3 ∑ ap
(c) Statement B is true A is false (a) 2
(b)
(d) Both statements are false ∑a n
71. Which one of the following methods would be ∑ ap ∑ ap5
best suited for disposal of plastic and rubber (c) (d)
∑a ∑ a3
waste ?
(a) Composting 78. Tropical grasslands receive............cm of annual
(b) Incineration precipitation.
(c) Pyrolysis (a) 25–100 (b) 30–45
(d) Sanitary landfill (c) upto 150 (d) 200–210
72. Calculate the diameter of a circular sewer laid 79. The pressure on the phreatic line in case of
at a slope of 1 in 400 when it is running half full homogeneous earthen dam
with a velocity of 1.9m/s. Take Manning's (a) is positive
constant, n = 0.012. (b) is atmospheric
(a) 5.61 m (b) 3.42 m (c) is negative
(c) 1.23 m (d) 2.73 m (d) depends on condition of soil
73. The most economical and hygienic privy for
80. Silt excludes are provided
rural areas is
(a) A pit privy (b) An aqua privy (a) near the canal head regulator
(c) A soak pit (d) A septic tank (b) at the lowest portion of the dam
74. Surface loading or overflow rate of a (c) near the afflux bunch
sedimentation tank, passing a discharge Q and (d) below the spillway
having length = L, Depth= D, Width = B, is 81. The available moisture of soil is equal to its
given by (a) the moisture content at permanent wilting
(a) Q/B D (b) Q/B L point
(c) Q/B D (d) Q/B D.L (b) the difference in the moisture content of the
75. List-I contains some properties of water/ soil between field capacity and permanent
wastewater and List-II contains some tests on wilting point
water/wastewater. Match the property with (c) the maximum moisture holding capacity
corresponding test and select the correct (d) all of the above
answer using the codes given below the Lists-
82. Drag force is a function of :
List-I
A. Suspended solids concentration (1) projected area of the body
B. Metabolism of biodegradable organics (2) mass density of the fluid
C. Bacterial concentration (3) velocity of the body
D. Coagulant dose
The correct answer is :
List-II
1. BOD (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2. MPN (c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above
3. Jar 83. Name the ratio of power available at the shaft
4. Turbidity
of a turbine to the power delivered by water to
Codes :
A B C D the runner.
(a) 2 1 4 3 (a) volumetric efficiency
(b) 4 1 2 3 (b) overall efficiency
(c) 2 4 1 3 (c) mechanical efficiency
(d) 4 2 1 3 (d) hydraulic efficiency
12
84. Discharge through a single acting reciprocating (c) Indicates the water absorption of the
pump is: aggregates
(a) Q = ALN/60 (b) Q = ALN (d) Indicates the modulus of elasticity of the
(c) Q = 2ALM/60 (d) Q = 2ALN aggregates
85. In which of the following types of flow, the 94. The central part of a tree is called
losses are maximum? (a) Heart wood (b) Cambium
(a) Laminar flow (b) Turbulent flow (c) Sap wood (d) Pith
(c) Critical flow (d) Transition flow 95. Match list I with list II in question and select
86. In a friction loss in pipe flow, the expression for the correct answer by using code given below:
coefficient of friction (f) in terms of shear stress List I List II
is : A. Aluminium paint 1. For resisting
τ0 2 τ0 corrosive reaction
(a) (b)
ρV 2 V2 B. Anti corrosive paint 2. For painting iron
2τ0 2 τ0 work under water
(c) (d) C. Bituminous paint 3. For painting
ρV 2 ρV surfaces exposed to
87. In a barrage, crest level is kept high temperature
(a) high with small gates D. Cellulose paint 4. For painting oil
(b) low with small gates storage tank
(c) low with large gates Code:
(d) high with large gates A B C D
88. The value of friction factor for smooth pipes (a) 1 2 3 4
for Reynolds number equal to 106 is (b) 3 2 4 1
approximately (c) 4 1 2 3
(a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001 (d) 1 3 2 4
(c) 0.01 (d) 0.1 96. Consider the following methods of preservation
89. The metacentric height of an object is related of timber
to period of oscillation by the relation : 1. Pressure application
k 2
h.g 2. Brush application
(a) 2π (b) 2π 2 3. Dipping
h.g k 4. Open tank application
1 k 2
1 h.g The correct sequence of these methods in the
(c) (d) increasing order of their effectiveness is
2π h.g 2π k 2
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1
where, k = radius of gyration of the floating (c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
body about its centre of gravity 97. A first class brick should have a minimum
h = meta-centric height of the floating body. crushing strength of :
90. A hand pump is a type of (a) 7 MN/m2 (b) 10.5 MN/m2
2
(a) Centrifugal pump (c) 12.5 MN/m (d) 14 MN/m2
(b) Reciprocating pump 98. What is determined by conducting an abrasion
(c) Rotary pump test?
(d) Jet pump (a) aggregate crushing value
(b) toughness
91. Jhama bricks are
(c) hardness
(a) Well burnt having smooth and even surface (d) soundness
(b) Slightly over burnt having rough surface 99. Which one of the correct sequence of various
(c) Under burnt and can be easily broken operations of preparation of Brick Earth
(d) Over burnt with irregular shape I. Blending II. Digging
92. Rocks behave as _______ masses towards III. Weathring IV. Unsoiling
operating stresses. V. Tempering
(a) inelastic (b) elastic (a) IV, II, III, V, I (b) IV, II, III, I, V
(c) isotropic (d) anisotropic (c) II, IV, V, III, I (d) II, III, IV, V, I
93. The fineness modulus of aggregates 100. Which of the following pairs is not matched
approximately correctly?
(a) Is directly proportional to the average size of Cement test Apparatus
the particles (a) Fineness 1. Nurse and Blains
(b) Consistency 2. Vicat
(b) Is inversely proportional to the average size
(c) Soundness 3. Le-Chatelier
of the particles
(d) Sp. Gravity 4. Lea and Nurse
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