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1. Question 2 Points
In reference to ‘Coalition for Rainforest Nations (CfRN)’, consider the following statements.
1. Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Degradation (REDD+) is the innovative concept introduced by CfRN at UN Climate Summit
2. India is a member of this Coalition.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct code.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
It was tough today to find this question, but mil gya. Now you learn.
First statement is correct. It all started in 2005:
Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Degradation (REDD+) is the innovative concept introduced by CfRN at UN Climate Summit
(COP11) in 2005.
India is a member of coalition:

Consider the following statements about tropical cyclones in 2023.
1. Cyclone Freddy: It was one of the world’s longest-lived tropical cyclones, made major impact in Mozambique and Malawi.
2. Cyclone Mocha: It was one of the most intense cyclones ever observed in the Bay of Bengal.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
From the recent report of World Meteorological Organization (WMO),
3. Question 
2 Points
Which of the following country, recently announced by researchers, lost more than half of its glacier surface in just over half a century?

a) France
b) Bolivia
c) Peru
d) Australia
Not Selected
Solution: c
News:
Consider the following statements regarding Exit Polls.
1. RPA, 1951 regulates Exit polls.
2. Currently, there is no punishment for the violation rules regulating exit polls.
3. Government can ban the publishing of results of exit polls.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: a
Second and third is incorrect.
Section 126 A of the Representation of People Act, 1951 provides that no person shall conduct any exit poll and publish or publicise by
means of the print or electronic media or disseminate in any other mannerthe result of any exit poll during such period, as may be
notified by the Election Commission.
EC is empowered to ban the results. NOT GOVERNMENT.


Consider the following statements.
1. No individual party has ever secured more than 50% vote polled in a Lok Sabha election.
2. No individual party has ever secured more than 50% vote polled in any state assembly election.
3. If a party wins more than half of the total seats in Lok Sabha, it must gain more than 50 percent of the total votes polled.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Not Selected
Solution: a
From Election Commission of India report:
No individual party has ever secured more than 50% vote in a Parliamentary Election,
but in assembly elections, an individual party secured more than 50% of the vote on 42 occasions (including Gujarat 2022).
Out of the 42 times that a political party secured more than 50% of vote share, the most times it happened is in Sikkim (6 times).
Third statement is incorrect:
What is first-past-the-post (FPTP) system?
The first-past-the-post (FPTP) system is also known as the simple majority system.
In this voting method, the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency is declared the winner. This system is used in
India in direct elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. While FPTP is relatively simple, it does not always allow for
a truly representative mandate, as the candidate could win despite securing less than half the votes in a contest. In 2014, the National
Democratic Alliance led by the Bharatiya Janata Party won 336 seats with only 38.5% of the popular vote.
The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) received 31% of the vote and won 282 seats, while its National Democratic Alliance won a total of
336 seats.
Ladakh shares boundary with:
1. Pakistan
2. Afghanistan
3. China
4. Turkmenistan

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
Ladakh shares boundary with Pakistan, China and Afghanistan.

Who published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785 with the patronage of the then Governor-General of India, Warren Hasting?

a) Charles Wilkins
b) William jones
c) William Hawkins
d) Charles Hawkins
Not Selected
Solution: a

Charles Wilkins who published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785 with the patronage of the then Governor-
General of India, Warren Hastings.
Vishnudharmottara Purana, Citralaksana, Silparatnaare the texts belongs to:

a) Music
b) Dances
c) Paintings
d) Puppetry
Not Selected
Solution: c
Which of the following is/are the reasons of the formation of urban heat islands?
1. Evapotranspiration
2. dark surfaces and thermal bulk properties of the most abundant materials in cities
3. decrease in green and blue cover
4. due to anthropogenic heat generation and air pollution
Which of the following pairs is/are correct?

a) 1 , 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Not Selected
Solution: d 
Save
In reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), consider the following statements.
1. It is an intergovernmental Organization created at the Baghdad Conference.
2. The OPEC Secretariat is in Vienna.
3. Out of 13 members, 10 members of OPEC are from Middle East.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
Basic information about OPEC:
One news I found from September month, keep in mind.



In reference to United Nations Guiding Principles on Business and Human Rights (UNGPs), consider the following statements.
1. These guiding principles led the foundation for the formation UN Human Rights Council.
2. These Guiding Principles provided the first global standard for preventing and addressing the risk of adverse impacts on human rights linked to business
activity.
3. UNGPs encompass both, states, and corporates to implement framework to protect human rights.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
Badi mushkil se ye topic mila h UNFCCC website se. But you just learn today.
Developed by the Special Representative of the Secretary-General (SRSG), these Guiding Principles provided the first global standard
for preventing and addressing the risk of adverse impacts on human rights linked to business activity, and continue to provide the
internationally accepted framework for enhancing standards and practice regarding business and human rights.
First statement is incorrect:
In 2011, the United Nations Human Rights Council unanimously endorsed the UN Guiding Principles on Business and Human Rights, a
set of guidelines for States and companies to prevent and address human rights abuses committed in business operations.

Which of the following established, for the first time, a Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA framework), to enhance adaptative capacity, strengthen resilience and
reduce vulnerability to climate change?

a) 2015 Paris Agreement, UNFCCC
b) COP28, UNFCCC
c) UNCCCD 2023 COP
d) World Economic Forum 2003 ministerial meeting.
Not Selected
Solution: a
Read:
In reference to Fast Track Special Courts, consider the following statements.
1. Setting up and functioning of the Fast Track Courts in states falls within the domain of the Central Government.
2. For the robust implementation of the Scheme, this Department has created a framework for monthly monitoring of case statistics.
3. The Fast Track Special Court is a centrally sponsored scheme that has recently been extended up to 2026.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b 
News:
The Fast Track Special Court (FTSC), a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched in 2019, would now be extended up to March
31, 2026.
The total cost of running the scheme for the three-year period would be ?1,952.23 crore out of which ?1,207.24 crore would be borne by
the Centre and ?744.99 crore by the State. The Centre’s share would be taken from the Nirbhaya Fund.
Implemented by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, the scheme has established fast track courts across the
country, ensuring the swift disposal of cases related to rape and those coming under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences
(POCSO) Act.
A total of 30 States and Union Territories have participated in the scheme, operationalising 761 fast track courts including 414
dedicated POCSO courts, which have together resolved over 1,95,000 cases.
DISCLAIMER: Setting up and functioning of the FTSCs, Family Courts, Special Courts for MP/MLA and Fast Track Courts falls within the
domain of State Govt. in consultation with their respective High Courts which are set up as per their need and resources.
If you want see state wise courts, you can visit here: https://dashboard.doj.gov.in/fast-track-special-court/#
For the robust implementation of the Scheme, this Department has created an online monitoring framework for monthly monitoring of
case statistics. Regular review meetings with the Registrar Generals of High Courts and State functionaries are being undertaken.
With respect to Vice President, if the total number of valid votes polled is 790, then the quota required for getting elected is:

a) 394
b) 395
c) 396
d) 397
Not Selected
Solution: c
The winning candidate has to secure the required quota of votes to be declared elected, i.e., 50% of valid votes polled +1. For e.g., if the
total number of valid votes polled is 790, then the quota required for getting elected is

With respect to Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), consider the following statements.
1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development.
2. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
3. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country
Adoption, 1993.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: d
News:
Central Adoption Resource Authority
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.
It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country
adoptions.
CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague
Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption
agencies.
Consider the following.
1. Iran
2. Strait of Hormuz
3. Oman
4. UAE
Arrange the above from North to South.

a) 1-2-4-3
b) 2-3-1-4
c) 1-2-3-4
d) 1-3-2-4
Not Selected
Solution: c
Here also, you need to look map very carefully. If we recall map, UAE comes north to Oman, but this is not correct.

In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.
1. The maximum number of representatives of the States in the Rajya Sabha has been fixed at 250.
2. The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha is done in accordance with a Statutory law enacted by the Parliament of India.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
Read with full concentration. Abhi se adat ni daaloge (if you don’t do this now), you will suffer in end. No worries. Learn today.

The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, only 238 are to be the representatives of the States and Union
Territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the President. Question asked is about representatives of States and UTs. So,
read carefully.
The fourth schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories. It is not in
the accordance with the law made by the Parliament.
So, both are incorrect. Option c is right answer.
Which of the following factors goes as an input in determination of MSP in India?
1. demand and supply
2. cost of production
3. price trends in the market, both domestic and international
4. inter-crop price parity

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Not Selected
Solution: d
Explanation:

Who established Swadeshi Vastu Pracharini Sabha to carry the message of Swadeshi among masses?

a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Surendranath Banerjee
c) Bipin Chandra Pal
d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Not Selected
Solution: a
Explanation:

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
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Which of the following convention is related to ‘Protection of the Mediterranean Sea Against Pollution’?

a) Nairobi Convention
b) Vienna Convention
c) Barcelona Convention
d) Fortaleza Convention
Not Selected
Solution: c
Note: We are providing PDFs of these questions to all students registered for Prelims test Series 2024. If you are not part of Test, do make
your notes. These questions are extremely important. You won’t remember after two days if you don’t make notes.
News from UNEP website:
MAP was established in 1975 as a multilateral environmental agreement in the context of the Regional Seas Programme of the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Under the auspices of UNEP/MAP, a framework convention dedicated to the Protection of the Mediterranean Sea against Pollution was
adopted in 1976 and amended two decades later to encompass the key concepts adopted at the landmark 1992 Rio Conference and to
include coasts in its scope. The Convention for the Protection of the Marine Environment and the Coastal Region of the Mediterranean
(Barcelona Convention) was adopted in 1995.
Argentina's new President has promised replacing its own currency 'Peso' with 'US Dollars'. What are the advantages of Dollarization?
1. In case foreign currency Argentina can’t print which will prevent inflation.
2. Stable (foreign) Currency which will attract investment and growth.
3. Central banks will lose control on monetary policy and can't influence the money supply.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Not Selected
Solution: b
Dollarization means replacing a country's currency with US Dollar. Argentina's new President has promised replacing its own currency
'Peso' with 'US Dollars'.
Benefits:
1. Stable (foreign) Currency which will attract investment and growth.

2. As the foreign currency can be earned only through exports (and foreign capital inflows), it would incentivize to promote exports and
ease conditions for capital inflows.
3. Previous governments could have forced Central banks to print money (monetization of deficit) and spend on wasteful expenditure
but in case foreign currency they can’t print and Govt. can earn money only through tax and other resources which will prevent
inflation.
Negatives:
1. Central banks will lose control on monetary policy and can't influence the money supply
2. Central banks can't devalue currency to promote exports.
Consider the following statements regarding National Cadet Corps (NCC).

1. The National Cadets Corps came into existence under the National Cadet Corps Act, 1975.
2. It aims to provide a suitable environment to motivate the youth to take up a career in the Armed Forces.
3. It is mandatory for all students who want to be part of military activity in future.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: a
First and third are incorrect.
The National Cadets Corps came into existence under the National Cadet Corps Act XXXI of 1948 (passed in April, 1948; came into
existence on 16th July, 1948).
What is/are the Aim(s) of NCC?
1. To develop character, commandership, discipline, leadership, secular outlook, spirit of adventure and the ideals of selfless service
amongst the youth of the country.
2. To create a human resource of organized, trained and motivate youth to provide leadership in all walks of life and always available for
the service of the nation.
3. To provide a suitable environment to motivate the youth to take up a career in the Armed Forces.

MOTTO of NCC
“Unity and Discipline” as motto for the NCC was taken in the 12th CAC meeting held on 12 Oct 1980.
The “Breakthrough Agenda” is related to:

a) To enhance countries cooperation in key carbon emitting sectors.
b) To protects mangroves across coastal countries.
c) To regulate wildlife trade across counties
d) To precent ocean pollution from oil spills
Not Selected
Solution: a
News:
The Buildings Breakthrough is part of the Breakthrough Agenda, which provides a framework for countries, businesses and civil society
to join up and strengthen their actions every year in key emitting sectors, through a coalition of leading public, private and public-private
global initiatives

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368?

a) It can be done by a simple majority in both Houses of Parliament
b) It requires a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament
c) It can be done by a special majority in the Lok Sabha
d) It requires the consent of all State Legislatures
Not Selected
Solution: b
The correct answer is b.

West Bank doesn’t share boundary with which of the following?

a) Dead Sea
b) Jordon
c) Israel
d) Syria
Not Selected
Solution: d
See the map below. And also see other places too.

Consider the following pairs.
Protocols Related to
1. Cartagena Protocol on establishes an advance

Biosafety informed agreement (AIA)
2. Nagoya Protocol Control of Transboundary

Movements of Hazardous
Wastes and their Disposal
3. Basel Convention protect biological diversity

from the potential risks
posed by living modified
organisms
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
Protocols Related to
1. Cartagena Protocol on establishes an advance

Biosafety informed agreement
(AIA) and
protect biological
diversity from the
potential risks posed by
living modified
organisms
2. Nagoya Protocol Access to Genetic

Resources and the Fair
and Equitable Sharing of
Benefits Arising from
their Utilization to the
Convention on
Biological Diversity
3. Basel Convention Is related to Control of

Transboundary
Movements of
Hazardous Wastes and
their Disposal
Consider the following statements regarding Eucalyptus plantation in India.
1. The water use of a Eucalyptus plantation is much higher than paddy and cotton.
2. Eucalyptus plantations do not absorb ground water and have no adverse impact on the water table.
3. Eucalyptus is major source of paper and pulp industry. 

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: b
The water use of a Eucalyptus plantation has been found to be 785 litres/kg of total biomass, which is one of the lowest if compared
with tree species such as Acacia (1,323 litres/kg), Dalbergia (1,484 litres/kg) and agricultural crops such as paddy rice (2,000 litres/kg)
and cotton (3,200 litres/kg).
Other benefits:
(a) eucalyptus does not compete for ground water and other nutrients with crops in its vicinity;
(b) eucalyptus does not need plenty of water and does not drain away subsoil water;
(c) eucalyptus does not cause degradation of land and does not hamper soil fertility.
It is, therefore, critical that eucalyptus plantations are raised, given its significant impact on wood availability, livelihood generation and
carbon sequestration that addresses the challenges of global warming and climate change.
Third statement is correct.
Over the last two decades, to meet the growing wood requirement, state Forest Development Corporations (FDCs) and the pulp & paper
industry joined hands with farmers, leading to the creation of a sustained wood resource base of more than 3 million hectares of
plantations, under agro/farm forestry. About 70 per cent of these plantations are of eucalyptus.
With respect to ozone layer depletion, consider the following statements.
1. Nitrous oxide, which contributes to ozone layer depletion, is not controlled by the Montreal Protocol.
2. The size of the hole goes up and down depending on the temperature in the stratosphere.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
Factual, but important.
Because of the annual variability, the size of the hole goes up and down depending on the temperature in the stratosphere.
The presence of greenhouse gases, such as nitrous oxide, and other pollutants in the stratosphere are also impacting ozone layer
depletion. Nitrous oxide is not controlled by the Montreal Protocol.


Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Our Constitution only recognises the concept of “cooperative federalism”.
b) Our Constitution recognises the concept of “uncooperative federalism” along with “cooperative federalism”
c) Our Constitution does not recognise “uncooperative federalism”.
d) Our Constitution only recognises the concept of “uncooperative federalism”.
Not Selected
Solution: b
In Union of India and Anr versus M/s Mohit Minerals Through Director (2022), the Supreme Court discussed the concept of
"uncooperative federalism" along with "cooperative federalism" and observed that a degree of contestation between the Centre and
the States is also good for democracy.
"Indian federalism is a dialogue between cooperative and uncooperative federalism", observed the Court. The decision was in the
context of GST council recommendations.

Save
‘Gender-Responsive Just Transitions & Climate Action Partnership’ was recently launched by:

a) UNFCCC, COP 28
b) UNESCO Steering Committee meeting
c) UNDP Secretariat
d) WHO Intergovernmental negotiation committee
Not Selected
Solution: a
From UNFCCC website:
Recently, Garba of Gujarat inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity,
1. Inscription in the list means that the inscribed element has greater cultural importance than one that is not listed.
2. For safeguarding of intangible cultural heritage, there is a provision of funding for developing countries.
3. If an element inscribed on the Representative List no longer satisfies the selection criteria, UNESCO Committee can remove it from the Representative List.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None.
Not Selected
Solution: b
News: 
Moreover, inscription itself does not presume that an inscribed element has greater cultural importance than one that is not listed.
Respect for every heritage is therefore fundamental to the spirit of the Convention, and UNESCO’s awareness raising activities ensure
that such mutual respect is fully promoted.
Places in news location
1. Kasane Botswana
2. Isthmus of Kra connect the Gulf of Thailand with the

Strait of Malacca

a) 1 only
b) 2 only 
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: a
Second is incorrect.

1. A National Communication (NC) is a report that each Party prepares periodically in accordance with the guidelines developed by the Conference of the
Parties, UNFCCC.
2. India has not submitted its first NC report yet.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: a
India is going to submits its third NC report at COP28, UNFCCC.
Read:
The national communication is submitted to UNFCCC every four years since entering the Convention and captures national
circumstances, emissions, vulnerability, greenhouse gas inventory, capacity and finance needs, among others.
India’s first national communication was submitted in 2004 followed by the second one in 2012 based on emissions data from 2000.

A State action, which has no discriminatory intention, results in disadvantage to a particular group, infringing their rights.

a) The action is not unconstitutional because there is no discriminatory intent.
b) The action is unconstitutional because it has the effect of discrimination.
c) The State action cannot be challenged on the sole ground that it affects the right of only a particular group.
d) The State Action is not unconstitutional because only direct discrimination is prohibited under the Constitution. 
Not Selected
Solution: b
In Lt Col Nitisha vs. Union of India (2021), the Supreme Court explained the concept of "indirect discrimination" and held that an action
will be unconstitutional if it has a discriminatory effect on a particular section, though it was facially neutral and lacked discriminatory
intent.
Consider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
1. Under the Act, priority be given to women in such a way that at least one-third of the beneficiaries be women.
2. Currently, wage rates are notified based on Consumer Price Index-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) by the State Government.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: a
First statement is correct.
Second statement is incorrect:
A brief review of the history of how wages are determined is important.
The employment guarantee act gives the central government two options for determining the MNREGA wage rate. The first is that
MNREGA workers are paid the state minimum wage for agricultural labourers. The second is that the central government notifies
separate wage rates for MNREGA. Till 2008, MNREGA wages were fixed as per the first option. From 1 January 2009, the central
government switched to the second option.
Now, wage rates for workers under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005 are notified
and revised annually based on Consumer Price Index-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) by the Central Government in accordance with
the provisions of Section 6(1) of the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA.

Consider the following countries.
1. Eritrea
2. Yemen
3. Djibouti
4. Somalia
Which of the above countries share/s boundary with Red Sea?

a) 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
There are six countries (Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti) bordering the Red Sea.


Consider the following bodies.
1. Co-operative societies
2. Election Commissioners
3. Solicitor General
Which of the above is/are Constitutional bodies?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Not Selected
Solution: b
Right to form Co-operative societies is Constitutional Right. Co-operative societies are not Constitutional bodies.
Election Commissioner is also Constitutional.
Solicitor General is not a Constitutional Body.
Under Article 25, which test is applied to determine whether a belief constitutes a religion or not for the purpose of protection?

a) The Doctrine of Essential Practices
b) The Rational Nexus Test
c) The Public Order Test
d) The Morality Test
Not Selected
Solution: a
The doctrine of essentiality is a jurisprudence or a legal principle developed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court through various judicial
precedents. Essential religious practices are those rituals and customs which are important and necessary for a particular religion and
must be adhered to by people practising it.

Which of the above Harapan sites located near the coast?

a) Chanhudaro
b) Balakot
c) Banawali
d) Rakhigarhi
Not Selected
Solution: b
Explanation: 
Save
Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMO) recently seen in news is related to:

a) World Trade Agreement’s new rules for developing countries.
b) A new mechanism for the international emissions trading between Parties to the Paris Agreement.
c) Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)
d) Development of AI-powered solutions for climate action in developing countries.
Not Selected
Solution: b
Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMO) are units from the new mechanism for the international emissions trading
between Parties to the Paris Agreement.
About Zonal Councils in India, consider the following statements.

1. The idea of the creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru.
2. North Eastern states are not part of zonal councils established under the State Reorganization Act.
3. The Chief ministers in rotation act as chairman every year of zonal council meeting.
4. Governors of states are not part of zonal councils.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: c
News:

Only third is incorrect.
The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956.
In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up by States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present
composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:
1. The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National
Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
2. The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh;
3. The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;
4. The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra &
Nagar Haveli;
5. The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of
Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland
are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North
Eastern Council Act, 1972. The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide North Eastern Council
(Amendment) Act, 2002 notified on 23rd December 2002.
Each Zonal Council has set up a Standing Committee consisting of Chief Secretaries of the member States of their respective Zonal
Councils.
Chairman - The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
Vice Chairman - The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by
rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union
Territories included in the zone.
Advisers- One person nominated by the Planning Commission for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another
officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone.
Central Govt. has recently put restrictions on the export of onions till 31st March 2024. This has been done under?

a) As per WTO’s Trade rules.
b) Essential Commodities Act 1955
c) Import and Export of good and Services Act, 1964
d) Foreign Trade (Development & Regulation) Act 1992
Not Selected
Solution: d
News:
Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Govt. of India puts restrictions on export and
import of various commodities including agriculture commodities under Foreign Trade (Development & Regulation) Act 1992. Earlier
DGFT had notified Minimum Export Price (MEP) to curb the export of onions and increase domestic supply for inflation control. But on
7th Dec DGFT totally banned the export of onions under Foreign Trade (Development & Regulation) Act 1992 till 31st March 2024.
4. Question 
2 Points
In India, an indigenous technique called ‘khadeen’, is related to:

a) To protect crops from invasive species.
b) Rainwater harvesting
c) Craftsmanship
d) Converting agriculture residue into compost.
Not Selected
Solution: b
Read.
In reference to laws regarding Odour (a strong, mostly unpleasant smell), consider the following statements.
1. The World Health Organization has recognised odour as an air pollutant.
2. As per the Environment Act, 1986, all manufacturing industries are required to completely eliminate odour emission.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: a
Very important learning.
Air pollutants are usually classified into suspended particulate matter (dusts, fumes, mists, smokes), gaseous pollutants (gases and
vapors) and odours.
The World Health Organization has recognised odour as an air pollutant and noted that even though odour annoyance “cannot be
regarded as an adverse health effect in a strict sense” it does affect the quality of life. In fact, there has been extensive research on the
negative impact of odour on humans with the results ranging from mental fatigue to pathological outcomes.
At present, there is no comprehensive framework that governs odour in India. Only non-binding guidelines exist.
Schedule II and Schedule VI of the Environmental (Protection) Rules, 1986 state that efforts, as much as possible, to remove odours
should be made.
However, there are only two industries wherein odour removal is mandated as per industry-specific standards and those are the
fermentation and natural rubber industries.
Other major odour pollution-causing industrial sectors like paper, pesticide, petroleum etc., do have emission limit values set but these
values aren’t based on odour (though they might include odorous emissions at times).
As per the rule, a member of a House belonging to any political party shall be disqualified for being a member of the House if he has voluntarily given up his
membership of such political party. But why any member after been elected as a speaker of the house is not disqualified after he voluntarily give up his
membership?

a) As per the rules of House, he will not be disqualified after being elected as Speaker.
b) By convention. No such provision of protection is provided under any rule.
c) As pe the provision in the Constitution, he will not be disqualified after being elected as Speaker.
d) He is protected under Tenth Schedule.
Not Selected
Solution: d
The exemption is provided under Paragraph 5 of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, in order to protect the Speaker from
disqualification on the ground of defection.
The Tenth Schedule offers this exemption only if the Speaker does not, so long as she continues to hold such office thereafter, rejoin
that political party or become a member of another political party.
The Speaker who, having given up by reason of her election to such office her membership of the political party to which she belonged
immediately before such election, rejoins such political party after she ceases to hold such office, also enjoys the benefit of this
exemption.
1. Philippines
2. Qatar 
3. Bahrain
4. Kuwait
Which of the above countries does not share land boundaries with any country?

a) 4 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
Bahrain and Philippines don’t share boundary with any nation.
Kuwait and Qatar share boundaries with Saudi Arabia.
Which of the following food or Agri residues are used as a feedstock for textiles industry?
1. Bamboo

2. corn husk
3. aloe vera
4. sugarcane
5. milk
6. fish scales

a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
d) All of the above
Not Selected
Solution: d
Bamboo, corn husk, orange peels, pineapples, soya beans, eucalyptus, lotus stems, betel nut husks, nettle, hemp, aloe vera, rose
petals, sugarcane, milk and even fish scales are no longer food or Agri residues discarded as waste.
Fibres and textiles made from Agro-waste are a sustainable alternative to energy intensive oil-based fibres. Biodegradability, waste
management and water conservation are its key benefits.
Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

a) Third Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Twelfth Schedule
Not Selected
Solution: b
Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas. The Governor can make regulations to
prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes. So, B is the right answer.

Who was the first Indian to introduce the concept of a Constituent Assembly to draft the Constitution?

a) M.N. Roy
b) B R Ambedkar
c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
d) Rajendra Prasad
Not Selected
Solution: a
M.N. Roy in 1934.

Name:
Email:
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In reference to ‘2023 Asia Environmental Enforcement Awards’, consider the following statements.
1. India is one of recipients of 2023 Asia Environmental Enforcement Awards.
2. The 2023 Award is the result of partnership among INTERPOL, the Secretariat of the Basel Convention and other UN agencies.
3. The Awards are given to individuals or government organizations for preventing transboundary crimes affecting the environment.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Al three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: c
News:
The Asia Environmental Enforcement Awards (hereafter the ‘Awards’) publicly recognize and celebrate excellence in enforcement by
government officials and institutions or teams combating transboundary crimes that affect the environment.
This is the eighth time the Awards will be given, and this year’s Awards will be given to recipients who demonstrate excellence and
leadership in one or more of the following categories: collaboration; impact; innovation; integrity; and gender leadership. There will
also be a separate category for Africa-Asia cooperation in the area of illegal trade in wildlife.
Third statement is correct:

The thematic scope of the Awards covers any transboundary crime that affect the environment, including the illegal harvest, trade and
transport of endangered wildlife, timber, fish, minerals as well as the illegal trade and disposal of waste and the illegal trade in ozone-
depleting substances.
Second statement is also correct:
India is one the recipients:
1. COP28 Presidency and WHO announced ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’ to accelerate actions to protect people’s health from growing climate impacts.
2. This Declaration marks a world first in governments acknowledging the growing health impacts of climate change on countries.
3. Developing countries including India is against the Declaration.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
Only third is incorrect:

What you understand by ‘One Health’?
In reference to ‘Hangul found in India,’ consider the following statements. 
1. Hangul is herbivores animal.
2. It is given highest levels of protection in India under the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act.
3. Hangul is majorly seen in Dachigam National Park in India.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: c
An annual survey conducted by the Department of Wildlife Protection, Government of Jammu and Kashmir in March this year, found
that the hangul numbers in and around Dachigam National Park, which has the only viable population of hangul in that landscape, had
risen marginally, from 237 in 2019 and 261 in 2021 to 289 in 2023 (including 14 individuals in Shikargarh, known to be the second home
of the hangul).
The hangul has been given the highest levels of protection in India. It is listed as a Schedule I species under the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act and is fully protected within Dachigam National Park.
The Kashmir red stag is a herbivore animal. The hangul animal eats a wide variety of grass, herbs, shrubs, and foliage.
Also, it is a critically endangered Species as per IUCN.
1. The National Lok Adalat addressed the following types of cases (pre-litigation and Post-Litigation or Pending Cases).
2. National Lok Adalat is organized under the aegis of National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
3. National Level Lok Adalats are held for at regular intervals where on a single day Lok Adalats are held throughout the country.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None 
Not Selected
Solution: c
The 4th National Lok Adalat of the year 2023 was organized by the legal services authorities across the country under the aegis of
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
National Level Lok Adalats are held for at regular intervals where on a single day Lok Adalats are held throughout the country, in all
the courts right from the Supreme Court till the Taluk Levels wherein cases are disposed off in huge numbers. From February 2015,
National Lok Adalats are being held on a specific subject matter every month.
The National Lok Adalat addressed the following types of cases (pre-litigation and pending):
- Pre-litigation cases: N.I. Act Cases under Section 138, Bank Recovery Cases, Labour disputes cases, Electricity and water bills
(excluding non-compoundable), and others.
- Post-Litigation or Pending Cases in the Courts: Criminal Compoundable Offences, N.I. Act cases under Section 138, Bank Recovery
Cases, MACT cases, Labour Dispute Cases, Electricity and water bills (excluding non-compoundable), Matrimonial cases (except
divorce), Land Acquisition cases, and other Civil cases which can be disposed of in National Lok Adalat.
1. Malawi
2. Zimbabwe
3. Mozambique
4. South Sudan
5. Niger
Which of the above countries are land-locked?

a) 1, 4 and 5 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
Explanation:

Consider the following statements regarding Deputy Speaker.
1. The House of the People shall choose deputy speaker within one month of assemble of the house.
2. It is the duty of the Speaker to fix the date and initiate election of Deputy Speaker.
3. It is a parliamentary convention in India that the Deputy Speaker is elected from the opposition parties.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: d
First statement is INcorrect:

Article 93 of the Constitution of India provides that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the
House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant,
the House shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker.
Article 93 of the Constitution of India expressly does not put any rigid limitation in the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker by
the House of the People. However, in order to balance the time limit and discretion of the members of the House of the People in
electing the Speaker and Deputy Speaker, they used the expression "as soon as may". The expression "as soon as may be" is not defined
under the Indian Constitution. First statement is incorrect. ONE MONTH IS WRONG.
One more thing we will add here that: For president, framers of the Constitution has explicitly mentioned time limit under Article 62
(2).
Second statement is correct:
The elaborate procedure for the election is provided under Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. It
provides that the election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send
to every member notice of this date. It becomes clear here that the first duty to start the procedure for election of Deputy Speaker is
casted on the Speaker himself.
Third statement is correct:
It is a parliamentary convention in India that the Deputy Speaker is elected from the opposition parties (there have been fifteen
Deputy Speakers in India since independence, almost all of them from opposition parties). This has led opposition parties to raise
doubts over the integrity of the ruling party and Speaker of the House of the People. Vacancy in the office of the Deputy Speaker is an
anathema to the principles of democracy.
In the context of Critical 'Tiger' habitats (CTHs), consider the following statements.
1. CTHs are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972.
2. They are notified by the State Governments.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c

Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger reserves—are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA),
1972 based on scientific evidence that "such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without
affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers".
The notification of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose.
‘Inviolate’ is a general term used to indicate no human settlement and usage. This inevitably implies that establishing CTHs as inviolate
areas requires relocation of people living in such areas.
What would happen to the “money multiplier” in an economy, if the cash reserve ratio (CRR) is reduced?

a) The money multiplier would increase.
b) The money multiplier would decrease.
c) The money multiplier would remain constant.
d) There is no relationship between the money multiplier and the cash reserve ratio (CRR).
Not Selected
Solution: a
The money multiplier describes how an initial deposit leads to a greater final increase in the total money supply.
When an initial deposit is made in the banks, the banks can further lend loans by keeping a certain percentage as Cash Reserve Ratio
(CRR). For instance, if a deposit of Rs. 100 is made into the banks, then the banks would have to keep Rs. 10 as reserve (considering
CRR as 10%) and they may lend Rs. 90 in the form of loans.
Now, when this Rs. 90 is deposited into the bank again, the bank would keep Rs. 9 as reserves and lend remaining Rs. 81 in the form of
loans.
Thus, the initial deposit of Rs. 100 with the banks has led to the creation of money by the banks in the form of new loans. This is
referred to as “Money Multiplier”.
It is calculated as (1/R) where R is the “Reserve” requirement. Hence, the money multiplier is inversely proportional to the reserve
requirement, i.e., as the CRR is reduced, the money multiplier would increase.
Vaibhashika and Sautrantika belongs to which sect?

a) Jainism
b) Buddhism
c) Vaishnavism
d) Shaivism
Not Selected
Solution: b

Hinayana was later divided into two sects i.e., Vaibhashika and Sautrantika.
Of the seven to hold this office (the last being L.K. Advani) since independence, Sardar Patel was the first. Which post?

a) Home minister
b) Speaker of House
c) Ministry of Defence
d) Deputy Prime Minister
Not Selected
Solution: d
Some facts. Remember.

Save
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Yak Fibres (wool produced from the coat hair of yaks)’.
1. Yaks in India are found in Karnataka and Maharashtra region.
2. While the inner fibre is popular for preparation of different garments, the outer hair has limited use due to its slippery and coarse nature.
3. Chamar is one of the best products made from the coarse fibre of yak tail.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
Some new information.
From ICAR website:

As per the latest census, Yaks are found in Arunachal Pradesh, HP, and Jammu and Kashmir.
‘High Integrity’ Carbon Markets initiative was launched recently by:

a) UNEP Secretariat
b) UNDP Secretariat
c) WTO
d) World Economic Forum
Not Selected
Solution: b
News:
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) launched a ‘High Integrity Carbon Markets initiative’ at COP28 to support
developing countries’ access to carbon markets, mitigate social and environmental risks and promote accurate carbon accounting.
In reference to Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT), consider the following statements.
1. Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT) initiative is launched by India and Sweden. 
2. LeadIT brings together countries, companies and industry experts to achieve net-zero emissions from heavy industries by 2050.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
News:
LeadIT 2.0 was adopted at the annual LeadIT Summit at COP28 in Dubai on 9 December 2023.
The Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT) gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the
Paris Agreement.
It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by
the World Economic Forum.
LeadIT brings together countries, companies and industry experts to achieve net-zero emissions from heavy industries by 2050.
Consider the following,

1. Arthrobotrys oligospora: fungus that can transform into a carnivorous predator.
2. Honeyguide birds: Birds Adapt to Different Cultural Hunter Signals
3. Seagulls: birds with water desalination filters.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: d
See all images below.



Consider the following Nations. 

1. Turkmenistan
2. Syria
3. Pakistan
4. Afghanistan
Which of the above nations share boundaries with Iran?

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 4 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
There are seven countries that Iran shares this long land border with. These countries are Iraq, Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan,
Turkey, Armenia, and Azerbaijan. Of these countries, Turkmenistan shares the longest border with Iran.
With reference to India polity, who as per the rules, can add or reduce the numbers of standing Committees of Cabinet or modify the functions assigned to
them?

a) President
b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
c) Prime minister
d) Speaker/Chairman of House 
Not Selected
Solution: c
Read.
Which of the following provisions regarding Finance Commission is/are correct?
1. The President shall lay down recommendation made by the Finance Commission before each House of Parliament.
2. The Commission shall have all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
3. Members of Finance Commission are eligible for reappointment.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: d
All statements are correct.
First statement is a part of Indian Constitution.
Third statement is correct. But it is part of below mentioned Act. Not Constitution.

Second statement is correct. It is mentioned in Act, not Constitution. Remember this.
Capital of which of the following country is very near to Beijing?

a) Taiwan
b) North Korea
c) South Korea
d) Russia
Not Selected
Solution: b
Explanation:
Consider the following statements regarding impeachment of President and Removal of SC Judge. 
1. In both the cases, order of President is must for the removal.
2. Ground for the removal of President and SC Judge is same.
3. The Constitution provides of the procedure of Impeachment of President, but it doesn’t provide for SC Judge.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
First Statement is incorrect:
For SC Judge: Order of President is must for removal.
For President: Collective Authority of Parliament.
Second statement is wrong:
President removal on the grounds of: Violation of Constitution.
Judge of Supreme Court: Proved Misbehaviour and incapacity.
Third Statement is correct: Read both the procedure carefully.
Procedure for the impeachment of President is mentioned in Constitution:
SC Judge:

1. Upadesa Panchakam was composed by Adi Sankaracharya.
2. The verses of Upadesa Panchakam speaks about following and studying the Vedas.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
See below:

Name:
Email:
Save
In reference to the ‘privileges of the members of Parliament’. Consider the following statements.
1. A member of Parliament cannot be suspended from the House for any misconduct till the Committee of Privileges submits its report.
2. Disqualification of a member on ground of defection under Tenth Schedule can be referred to Privilege Committee by Speaker.
3. As per the Constitution, no member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in
Parliament.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
First statement is incorrect. I will give you recent example:
During the Motion of 'No Confidence' that was discussed and debated in the House from 08 to 10 August, 2023, Shri Adhir Ranjan
Chowdhury, MP deliberately tried to disturb the House and obstruct the proceedings whenever Hon'ble Prime Minister or any other
Minister spoke/replied to the debate.

Third Statement is correct:
Which of the following Multilateral Environmental Agreements (MEAs) are administered or provided secretariat functions by UNEP?
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
3. Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS)
4. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Not Selected
Solution: d
Read:

Consider the following pairs:
1. Rwenzori Mountains: South America
2. Myntdu and Lukha rivers: water bodies in Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: b
See below:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi together with UAE, co-hosted the High-level event on ‘Green Credit Initiative’ at COP-28, on 1 December 2023 in Dubai. Solve
one question this.
1. The Initiative has been conceptualized as a mechanism to incentivize voluntary pro-planet actions in response to the challenge of climate change.
2. It envisions the issue of Green Credits for plantations on waste/degraded lands to rejuvenate and revive natural eco-systems.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
News:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi together with UAE, co-hosted the High-level event on ‘Green Credits Programme’ at COP-28, on 1
December 2023 in Dubai. Prime Minister invited all nations to join this Initiative.
The Green Credit Initiative has been conceptualized as a mechanism to incentivize voluntary pro-planet actions, as an effective
response to the challenge of climate change. It envisions the issue of Green Credits for plantations on waste/degraded lands and river
catchment areas, to rejuvenate and revive natural eco-systems.
This global initiative aims to facilitate global collaboration, cooperation and partnership through exchange of knowledge, experiences
and best practices in planning, implementation and monitoring of environment positive actions through programs/mechanisms like
Green Credits.
Methotrexate (MTX) is:

a) Drug for Malaria
b) Persistent Organic Pollutant
c) Anti-cancer drug
d) A vaccine for Parkinson
Not Selected
Solution: c
News:

A new highly fluorescent material with exceptional optical properties has been developed using phosphorene, cystine, and gold (Ph-
Cys-Au) which can be used as a visual sensing platform for detecting anti-cancer drug MTX overdosage of which has toxic effect on
lungs, stomach, and heart.
Monitoring therapeutic drugs and their elimination is crucial because they may cause severe side effects on the human body.
Methotrexate (MTX) is a widely used anti-cancer drug. The MTX value of more than 10 µM in blood plasma is hazardous if it remains
in the system for more than 10 hours, resulting in poisoning effects on the lungs, ulcers of the stomach, and heart stroke.
MTX is highly expensive, and the detection of unwanted overdoses using traditional procedures is time-consuming and involves
complex instrumentation. Considering all these issues, the development of fast and sensitive detection using simple methodologies is
required.
1. Indian cultivation of sunflower has declined by 90% in the last 30 years.
2. India imports about 90% of sunflower oil from Russia and Ukraine.
3. Karnataka is the biggest sunflower cultivator in India.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: c
Sunflower cultivation in India has dropped by 90 per cent in the last three decades. Sunflower was cultivated on 26.68 lakh hectares in
India in 1993-94. This has now come down to 2.26 lakh hectares in 2020-21.
Seventy per cent of the sunflower oil imported by India comes from Ukraine, while 20 per cent comes from Russia. But imports have

been severely affected after the invasion of Ukraine.
Karnataka is the biggest cultivator. Karnataka earlier produced most of India’s sunflower crop in 1993-94 — 4.75 lakh tonnes on 14.69
lakh hectares. This has now come down to 1.08 lakh tonnes on 1.2 lakh hectares.
1. President is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961.
2. The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Parliament.
3. The Cabinet Secretariat is the custodian of the papers of the Cabinet meetings.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: c
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. Second statement is incorrect.
The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and
Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments.

Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) under Biological Diversity Act.
1. Every local body shall constitute a BMC within its area for the purpose of promoting sustainable use of biological diversity.
2. The BMC may levy charges from any person for collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within its territorial
jurisdiction.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
Explanation:
If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?
1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3. It may allow more disinvestment of organizations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only

d) 2 and 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: d
More than statements, here focus on “not do”.
Now, if we see statements,
RBI has nothing to do with Disinvestment. So, statement 3 is correct.
During the Expansionary Money / Cheap Money / Dovish Monetary Policy, RBI will try to increase the supply of money and/or reduce
the loan interest rates.
So, reducing the SLR, bank rate and repo rate will help in that regard. Therefore, it is wrong.
Increasing the MSF will raise the loan interest rates, so, if RBI pursues Expansionary policy, it’ll not do it. Statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3.
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Not Selected
Solution: b
2017 UPSC PRELIMS QUESTION.
Statement 2 is incorrect. If you are an experienced player, you can easily eliminate this question.
Sankirtana is one of the few important Indian heritages inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage
of Humanity.
Sankirtana performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur. So, both 1 and 3
are correct.

Today's Questions are part of GOALTIDE UPSC PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2024.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for choosing the ‘parliamentary system of democracy’ for India by our Founding Fathers?

a) Periodic assessment is done by the Electorate at the time of the election which may take place every five years.
b) The daily assessment is done by members of Parliament, through questions, Resolutions, No-confidence motions, Adjournment motions and Debates on
Addresses.
c) People of India are supreme in parliamentary system of democracy.
d) Judiciary is supreme and it prevents executive and legislature from arbitrary exercise of power.
Not Selected
Solution: b
See below:
Arrange the following events in chronological order of Indian history.

1. Rajendra Prasad elected as the first Permanent president of Constituent Assembly.
2. Announcement of Mountbatten Plan
3. Adoption of ‘Objective Resolution’ moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Announcement of cabinet Mission Plan

a) 2-3-1-4
b) 4-1-3-2
c) 4-3-1-2
d) 4-3-2-1
Not Selected
Solution: b
You will read the entire document posted below. Go slowly with solutions.




1. No title for being an academic distinction shall be conferred by the State.
2. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.
3. No person who is not a citizen of India, while he holds any office of profit under the State, accept any title from any foreign State without the consent of the
President.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
First statement is incorrect. Military and academic distinctions are exceptions.
If you see Article 18:

Who among the following before entering upon his office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of India?
1. President
2. Every person acting as President
3. Person discharging the functions of the President
4. Judge of a High Court
How many of the above options are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Not Selected
Solution: c
First three are correct:
Every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe an oath or
affirmation before the Governor of the State.
With respect to the “Procedure for impeachment of the President”, consider the following statements.
1. Impeachment proceedings could be initiated in either house of parliament but Lok Sabha has the power to investigate the charge preferred by any House.
2. After resolution is passed by both the Houses of Parliament on the motion to impeach President, President is given 14 days to defend himself/herself.
3. Resolution has to be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Select the correct code. 

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: d
Read the complete Article and then see solution below:
Read each word carefully.
First House (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) initiate and second House investigate. Lok Sabha is not given sole power. Any House can
initiate and investigate.
Second statement is incorrect.
As soon as resolution is passed in second House, President is said to be impeached. No 14 days’ time is given after resolution is
passed by second House.
If the other House investigates the charge and two-thirds majority of that house find him guilty, the President stands impeached from
the office from the date of passing of the resolution.
Such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. NOT PRESENT AND
VOTING.
Under which of the following circumstances, Vice President acts as the President of India?
1. Death of the President
2. President is absent due to illness
3. Removal of President
4. Resignation of President
How many of the above reasons is/are correct? 
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only one
d) All four
Not Selected
Solution: b
Ok, understand this. There is difference between acting and discharging functions. See the article below:
Second option is incorrect. It discharges during illness, not Act.
As pe the Constitution, the words ‘shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal’ are used while authorizing the President for
appointment of:
1. Governor
2. judges of the Supreme Court
3. judges of the High Court
4. CAG
5. Prime Minister
How many of the above options is/are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) Only four
Not Selected
Solution: d
Prime Minister is incorrect option.
The words ‘shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal’ are used while authorizing the President for
appointment of the judges of Supreme Court and the High Court (Articles 124 and 217), the CAG (Article 148) and for appointment of
the Governor (Article 155).

Similar words have been used in Articles 338, 338A and 338B authorising the President for appointing Chairman and members of the
National Commissions for SCs, STs and BCs.
1. The term (5 years) of the Governor is not provided in the Constitution, he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2. Governor shall continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
3. A person eligible for appointment as Governor must be qualified for election as a member of the House of people.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
The third statement is incorrect:

1. The advice tendered by Council of Minister is binding on President and President cannot asked for reconsideration of such advice.
2. The total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members in both houses of Parliament.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: d
President can ask for reconsideration of such advice. First statement is incorrect.
Second statement is incorrect: Its only House of People, not both houses of Parliament.

It is obligatory as per the Constitution to appoint a Minister-in-Charge of Tribal Welfare of which of the following states?
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Odisha
4. Bihar
How many of the above states is/are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Not Selected
Solution: b
See below.

Abolition of Legislative councils require:
1. Amendment under Article 368
2. State passes a resolution by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly
3. State passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
First is incorrect. Rest two are correct statements.
Enroll: https://www.goaltideias.com/details-of-upsc-prelims-exam-2024 
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Which of the following correctly defines ‘Focal Points Forum on Nairobi work programme (NWP)’.

a) It evaluates policy alternatives for regional development plans towards sustainable tourism development and other natural resource management for
mountain ecosystems in the region.
b) It’s an annual programme under CITES to regulate wildlife trade and implement policies and sustainable financing to affected regions.
c) to financially assist developing countries that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change in responding to extreme weather
events and slow onset events.
d) It aims to enhance implementation of adaptation action by closing gaps in knowledge on adaptation and resilience identified by UNFCCC Parties in line
with the objectives of the Paris Agreement.
Not Selected
Solution: d
Recently, NWP 16th Focal Point Forum was organized at COP 28.
Basic aim is: to addressing knowledge gaps and enhancing adaptation action in developing countries;
The Focal Point Forum was initially mandated for the secretariat to regularly organize focal point forums with representatives from
interested Parties during the sessions of the Conference of Parties (COP).
In reference to ‘Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB)’ consider the following statements.
1. It is a joint initiative of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the UNCTAD.
2. India has been recently chosen as the Partner Administration to the TIWB upcoming programme to provide tax experts in strengthening tax administration.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Not Selected
Solution: b
Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB), a joint initiative of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation
for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD).
It launched a programme in Saint Lucia on 14th December, 2023. India has been chosen as the Partner Administration and will provide
Tax Experts for this programme.
This programme is expected to be of 12-18 months’ duration in which India aims to aid host Saint Lucia in strengthening its tax
administration by transferring technical knowledge and skills to its tax administration, and through sharing of best practices.
The focus of the programme will be on effective use of automatic exchange of information under the Common Reporting Standard
(CRS) framework.
In reference to PACE Mission, consider the following statements.

1. It is a mission of NASA.
2. One of the objectives is to explain how aerosols fuel phytoplankton growth in the surface ocean.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: c
News:
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is soon to glean into and boost our understanding of Earth's atmosphere with
its Plankton, Aerosol, Cloud, ocean Ecosystem (PACE) mission. The mission is slated for a launch in early 2024.

1. Cost of Production is the only important factor which determines MSP of crop.
2. The concept of MSP started in India after LPG reforms.
3. Government is legally bound to pay MSP even if open market rates for the said produce are ruling below their announced floor prices.
How many of the above statements is/are INcorrect?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: c
Firs statement is incorrect:
Determinants Of MSP
While recommending price policy of various commodities under its mandate, the Commission keeps in mind the various Terms of
Reference given to CACP in 2009. Accordingly, it analyses


The MSP based system has its origin in the rationing system that was introduced by the British during the World War-II. In the year 1942,
a food department was introduced by the British administration which was later upgraded into the ministry of food.
In the mid-60s, India faced acute food shortages and started shoring up its food reserves. The concept of MSP was first mooted in
1966-67, during green revolution, to incentivise the Punjab farmers.
In the year 1964, Food Corporation of India (FCI) was established to procure food grains at remunerative prices from the farmers. In
1965, the Agriculture Prices Commission (APC) was established to regulate the pricing of procured food grains. In 1985, the APC was
renamed as Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP).
Government is not legally bound to pay MSP even if open market rates for the said produce are ruling below their announced floor
prices.
With respect to Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Scheme, consider the following statements.
1. Currently, DBT mission is administered by Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure.
2. Aadhaar is not mandatory in DBT schemes.
3. Currently, DBT is applicable on more than 300 schemes.
How many of the above statements is/are INcorrect?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: a
DBT Mission was created in the Planning Commission to act as the nodal point for the implementation of the DBT programmes. The
Mission was transferred to the Department of Expenditure in July, 2013 and continue to function till 14.9.2015.
To give more impetus, DBT Mission and matters related thereto has been placed in Cabinet Secretariat under Secretary (Co-ordination
& PG) w.e.f. 14.9.2015.
Second and third statements are correct:
Aadhaar is not mandatory in DBT schemes. Since Aadhaar provides unique identity and is useful in targeting the intended beneficiaries,
Aadhaar is preferred and beneficiaries are encouraged to have Aadhaar.
If you travel from Uttar Pradesh to Andhra Pradesh, what is the minimum number of states you need to cross between two states?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Not Selected
Solution: a
One needs to cross one state between Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.
Uttar Pradesh-Chhattisgarh-Andhra Pradesh

1. Unlike in the President of India’s election, the value of the vote of each MP in the Vice-President’s election is one.
2. Nominated members cannot vote for election of President, but for Vice President, they can vote.
3. The election happens through a ballot paper, that contains names of the contesting candidate and election symbol.
4. The nomination paper of a candidate has to be signed by at least twenty (20) eligible voters as proposers and at least twenty (20) eligible voters as
seconders. 

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Not Selected
Solution: a
First and second statements are correct.
What is the value of vote of each MP?
Unlike in the President of India’s election, the value of the vote of each MP in the Vice-President’s election is ONE. It has to be noted
that nominated members of both the Lok Sabha & the Rajya Sabha are also eligible to vote in the Vice-President’s election. The total
number of voters in the Vice-Presidential election is 790. The number of voters from the Lok Sabha is 545 (543 elected & 2 nominated)
while the number of voters from the Rajya Sabha is 245 (233 elected & 12 nominated).
The election happens through a ballot paper, that contains names of the contesting candidate. The ballot paper does not contain any
election symbol. There will be two columns in the ballot paper, Column 1 of the ballot paper contains the heading “Name of Candidate”,
and Column 2 contains the heading “Mark order of preference”.
Each voter can mark as many preferences, as the number of candidates contesting the election. These preferences for the candidates
are to be marked by the voter, by marking the figures 1,2,3, 4, 5 and so on, against the names of the candidates, in the order of
preference.
Fourth statement is correct:
The nomination paper of a candidate has to be signed by at least twenty (20) eligible voters as proposers and at least twenty (20)
eligible voters as seconders. Here the voters are the MPs of the both the houses and not citizens. A voter cannot propose or second
more than one candidate.
Which of the following are listed as disabilities under Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016? 
1. Intellectual disability
2. Sickel Cell Disease
3. Acid Attack victims
4. Blindness
5. AIDS

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 5 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Not Selected
Solution: a
According to Census 2011, there are 2.68 crore persons with disabilities (PwD) in India which accounts for 2.2% of India’s population.
This number is expected to increase significantly as the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 has come into force, under which
the government has added more types of disabilities, increasing the number of types from 7 in the 1995 Act to 21. See below once.


‘NOTA’ option is available to voters in which of the following elections:
1. Lok Sabha elections
2. Rajya Sabha elections
3. State Assembly elections
4. State Council elections
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Not Selected
Solution: a
''NOTA'' or ''none of the above'' is a ballot option provided in the elections to Indian voters. Through NOTA, a citizen has the right to not
vote for any candidate contesting the elections.
NOTA is an option is direct elections like Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. Whereas elections to Rajya Sabha and State Councils are
Indirect elections. Hence Option ‘B’ and ‘D’ can’t be the Answer.
Option C has only Lok Sabha, so this is also eliminated.

Which of the following aspects can lead to appreciation in the exchange rate of the Rupee?
1. Increase in foreign tourists coming to India.
2. Indian citizens investing abroad.
3. A decrease in crude oil prices.
4. Increase in exports by Indian pharmaceutical companies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: b
Increase in foreign tourists coming to India would increase the demand for Rupee. This would lead to an appreciation in the rupee
value. So, statement (1) is correct.
Indian citizens investing abroad would demand foreign currency in exchange for Rupee. This would lead to the price of the foreign
currency increasing relative to the rupee, leading to a depreciation in the value of the rupee. So, statement (2) is not correct.
A decrease in crude oil prices would reduce the import bill of India as India imports about 70 per cent of its crude requirements. This
would reduce the demand for foreign currency, which in turn would lead to an increase in the value of the rupee. So, statement (3) is
correct.
Increase in exports by Indian pharmaceutical companies would bring foreign exchange in India. The price of foreign currency would
reduce in terms of the rupee. This would lead to a depreciation in the value of the foreign currency and an appreciation in the value of
the rupee. So, statement (4) is correct.

Recently UN rights chief calls for action to address Central Mediterranean Sea migrant crisis. With respect to this, which of the following African country
doesn't border Mediterranean sea:

a) Algeria
b) Libya
c) Liberia
d) Tunisia
Not Selected
Solution: c
Morocco, Algeria, Libya, Tunisia and Egypt are the African countries that border the Mediterranean Sea.
Liberia is a country on the West African coast and doesn't border the Mediterranean sea.
How many of the following pairs of Places in the News and their country are correctly matched?
1. Kairouan: Tunisia
2. Reykjanes: Ireland
3. Kaas: India
Select the correct code:

a) Only 1 statement
b) Only 2 statements
c) Only 3 statements
d) None 
Not Selected
Solution: b
1 and 3 are correct.
In a tragic incident, three masons lost their lives while undertaking repairs on the ancient walls encircling the Old City of Kairouan in
Tunisia—a UNESCO World Heritage site
A state of emergency was declared in Iceland after powerful earthquakes rocked the Reykjanes peninsula.

A recent study conducted by the Agharkar Research Institute in Pune, Maharashtra, has revealed significant climate and environmental
changes on the Kaas Plateau. The Kaas Plateau, is a UNESCO World Natural Heritage Site (2012).
Rafah crossing point ,recently in news is between which of the following countries.
1. Syria
2. Gaza
3. Egypt
4. Lebanon

a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2
Not Selected
Solution: b
Explanation :

Which is the disputed island between Taiwan, China and Vietnam located in the South China Sea. China has been reportedly building an airstrip on this Island.

a) Spratly Island
b) Scarborough Shoal
c) Triton island
d) Senkaku islands
Not Selected
Solution: c

Explanation: Triton Island is the westernmost and southernmost of the Paracel Islands in the South China Sea.
Consider the following Central American Countries.

1. Costa Rica
2. Nicaragua
3. Panama
4. Guatemala
Arrange the above countries from East to West.

a) 4-3-1-2
b) 2-1-4-3
c) 3-1-2-4
d) 3-2-1-4
Not Selected 
Solution: c
The correct order of countries from East to West:
Panama- Costa Rica- Nicaragua- Gautemala
Which of the following countries does Tropic of Capricorn doesn’t pass?

a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) Madagascar
d) Chile

Not Selected
Solution: b
Check map:
Consider the following:
1. Monte Desert: Europe
2. Mojave Desert: South America
3. Gobi Desert: Asia

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: d
Check map:
Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

a) Andaman and Nicobar
b) Nicobar and Sumatra
c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
d) Sumatra and Java
Not Selected
Solution: a
The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the following places does Equator passes?
1. Sahara Desert
2. Amazon forest

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Not Selected
Solution: b
The equator passes through 13 countries: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic
Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.
Now, Amazon Forest clearly visible, equator will pass (see countries). See all maps below. Equator doesn’t pass through any.

Consider the following Pairs.
Gulf/Channels Location
1. Gulf of Bothnia Between Finland and Sweden
2. Gulf of Finland Between Finland and Estonia
3. English Channel Separates United Kingdom and

Denmark

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Not Selected
Solution: d
Check map:
Gulf/Channels Location
Gulf of Bothnia Between Finland and Sweden
Gulf of Finland Between Finland and Estonia
English Channel Separates United Kingdom and

France

Save
In the context of Parole (release of prisoner) in India, consider the following statements.
1. As per the Act, only Central Government (Home Ministry) can make rules regarding the release of prisoners on parole.
2. When a prisoner is on parole his period of release does not count towards the total period of the sentence.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: b
‘Prisons’ is a State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
The management and administration of prisons fall exclusively in the domain of state governments and are governed by the Prisons
Act, 1894, and the Prison Manuals of the respective state governments.
The Prisons Act further says that only states can make rules regarding the release of prisoners on furlough, parole and remission, as
part of the correctional process in jail reforms. However, the Centre too can put out non-binding guidelines.
Also, as laid down by the Supreme Court in the State of Haryana vs Mohinder Singh (2000), “when a prisoner is on parole his period of
release does not count towards the total period of the sentence, while when he is on furlough, he is eligible to have the period of
release counted towards the total period of his sentence undergone by him”.
Section 432 of Cr.P.C deals with Power to Suspend or Remit Sentences. However, Supreme Court, in Sunil Fulchand Shah v. Union of
India, reported in AIR 2000 SC 1023, has categorically observed that "parole does not amount to suspension of sentence''.
There is no uniform legislation to deal with furlough or parole. Different states have their own acts governing the two forms of
release.

1. The UN General Assembly established The Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights in 1993 after Vienna declaration.
2. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is designed to ensure equal treatment for every country when their human rights situations are assessed.
3. The objective of the UPR is to review the fulfillment of the human rights commitments of all UN member states as set out in the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights.
How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: d
These facts are very important. You must know.
Read below:
With respect to elections in India, consider the following statements. 

1. Model Code of Conduct in India has does not have statutory or constitutional backing.
2. Model Code of Conduct is valid for Legislative Assembly elections and General Election to Lok Sabha, not Legislative Councils.
3. Model Conduct of Conduct is not valid for by-elections as it is not possible to implement rule for entire state.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
Second and third statements are incorrect:
For State Legislative Assembly elections and General Election to Lok Sabha, MCC stays in operation till completion of the election
process, for the former, throughout the state and for the latter, throughout the country.
MCC is even applicable to Legislative council elections from Local Bodies Graduates and Teacher's constituencies.
But in the case of bye-elections, MCC's application is limited to the specific assembly constituency segment (when it is a part of state
capital/metropolitan city/municipal corporation) and in other cases, Model Code is applicable to the entire district, encompassing the
constituency going for bye-election.
MCC doesn’t have statutory or constitutional backing, as was accorded to the Election Commission by the Constitution Makers.
However, there is a legislative enactment punishing certain violations of the Model Code of Conduct in the form of Representation of
People's Act, 1951, under provisions like Section 123, 126, 126A, 133 etc. where prohibition and punishments for violation of code of
conduct guidelines have been laid down.
Which of the following countries is/are part of Amazon basin?
1. Bolivia
2. Chile
3. Ecuador
4. Peru
How many of the above location falls under correct option?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) All four
Not Selected
Solution: c
See two beautiful images below.



1. Spiders can build webs in space.
2. Spider can be both, carnivores, or herbivores.
3. Spider venoms contains proteins and polypeptides that perform various functions including antimicrobial functions.
How many of the above statement sis/are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
First and third are correct.
Spider venoms are known to contain proteins and polypeptides that perform various functions including antimicrobial, neurotoxic, 
analgesic, activities.
Second is incorrect:
Spiders are carnivores. One two exceptions cannot describe them herbivores.
Consider the following statements with respect to Asian Development Bank (ADB).
1. India is a founding member of ADB.
2. Equal voting rights for all members in ADB.
3. All members of ASD are from within Asia and the Pacific region.
4. ADB was established after 1973 global oil crisis.
How many of the statements· given above are correct?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: a
First see the origin of the bank: Fourth statement is incorrect.
A major landmark was the establishment in 1974 of the Asian Development Fund to provide low-interest loans to ADB's poorest
members.
In 1995, ADB became the first multilateral organization to have a Board-approved governance policy to ensure that development
assistance fully benefits the poor. Policies on involuntary resettlement and indigenous peoples were also put in place.
Members

From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68 members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the
Pacific and 19 outside. Third statement is incorrect.
India is a member since 1966. First statement is only correct.
If interest rate in market decreases:
1. price of bond increases
2. return (yield) on that bond increases.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: a
Suppose Rs.100 bond (this is called issue price or Face Value) is issued @ interest rate 10% (which means that interest in the market is
around 10%). Now if interest rate in the market decreases (the interest rate is decreasing in the market but the bond which has been

issued @10% interest rate. This interest rate is fixed and it will never change) then the new bonds which will be issued will be issued at
less interest rate (say 8%).
Now if you want to purchase previously issued bond of Rs. 100 face value, the holder of the bond will not give you in Rs. 100, rather he
will ask for more rupees, i.e., the price of the previously issued bond will increase and suppose you purchase this bond in Rs. 125 then
for your annual RETURN will be = (Rs. 10/Rs. 125)*100 = 8%. This 8% is yield.
So, to conclude, if interest rate in market decreases, price of bond increases and return (yield) on that bond decreases.
Consider the following statements:
1. Buddha did not believe in the existence of soul.
2. The first human statues worshiped in India were those of the Buddha.
3. He opened the gates of his sangha to both men and women.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: d
Buddha was a rationalist, who tried to explain things in the light of reason and not on the basis of blind faith. In this sense, he was
against any social distinctions.
Also, he did not make a direct attack on the caste system, rather he threw open his order to all people of any caste.
The first human statues worshiped in India were those of the Buddha. The devotees of the religion portrayed the various events in the
life of Buddha in stone.
When Buddha started Sangha, the Buddhists predominantly consisted of men. Women did not participate in the early beginnings of
Sangha, therefore, many women wanted to join the Sangha and yearned for equality. However, they could not get easy access as there
was no tradition of assimilation. But later it happened…Don’t get misguided by nay notes. Women were part of it.
Example: In the Therig?tha (The Songs of the Women Elders)
The Buddhist community comprised monks and nuns known as the Bhikkus and the Bhikunnis.

1. The president has power to pardon the punishment or sentence of an individual by a Court Martial.
2. If election of a President is declared void by Supreme Court, all acts of President before this decision of Supreme Court is declared as invalidated.
Which of the above statements is correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: a
We will see here article 71 and 72.

Consider the following rivers.
1. Chenab
2. Jhelum
3. Indus
4. Satluj
Which of the above rivers flow through newly formed Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Not Selected
Solution: b
Only Chenab and Jhelum pass through Jammu and Kashmir UT.

Name:
Email:
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Coalition for High Ambition Multilevel Partnerships (CHAMP) recently seen in news is related to:

a) Cooperation in Disasters warning system
b) Climate Action
c) Removing trade barriers for least developed countries
d) Protecting Pollinators
Not Selected
Solution: b
News:
With respect to notification of Tiger Reserves in India, consider the following statements.
1. The State Government prepare a Tiger Conservation Plan (TCP) including staff development and deployment plan for the proper management of Tiger
Reserve.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority notifies Tiger Reserve after approval from State Government.
3. The State Government on the recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority, notify an area as a tiger reserve.
4. Central Government notifies Tiger Reserve in State after recommendation from National Tiger Conservation Authority.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1 only
Not Selected
Solution: b
Tiger Reserves are notified by State Governments as per provisions of Section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 on advice of the
National Tiger Conservation Authority.


1. Karnataka is the leading producer of silk in India.
2. The Central Silk Board is a Statutory Body functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textiles.
3. India is the largest producer of silk in the world.
4. Among the four varieties of silk produced in India, Mulberry accounted for more than 70 percent production.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Not Selected
Solution: c
First statement is correct.
Karnataka is the leading producer of silk in India.

Second statement is correct.
Third is incorrect and fourth is correct.
China is the largest producer.
With respect to Eklavya residential schools (ERS), consider the following statements.
1. Every block with more than 50% ST population and 30 percent SC population will have ERS.
2. Every block with at least 20,000 tribal persons will have ERS.
3. The schools are aimed to provide primary and secondary level education.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
First statement is incorrect. Ther is no role of SC population ONLY ST.
EMRS started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas in order to enable them to avail of
opportunities in high and professional educational courses and get employment in various sectors. The schools focus not only on
academic education but on the all-round development of the students. Grants were given for construction of schools and recurring
expenses to the State Governments under Grants under Article 275 (1) of the Constitution.
In order to give further impetus to EMRS, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an
EMRS.
Eklavya schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalaya and will have special facilities for preserving local art and culture besides
providing training in sports and skill development.
Consider the following Central American Countries.
1. Costa Rica
2. Nicaragua
3. Panama
4. Guatemala
Arrange the above countries from West to East.

a) 2-1-3-4
b) 2-1-4-3
c) 4-2-1-3

d) 4-1-2-3
Not Selected
Solution: c
The correct order of countries from West to East:
Guatemala- Nicaragua- Costa Rica- Panama
In the context of Indian Constitution, Consider the following statements.
1. President can be impeached on the basis of incapacity and proved misbehaviour.
2. Procedure for the impeachment of President is mentioned in the Constitution.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Not Selected
Solution: b
Under article 56 Of the Constitution, Violation of Constitution is the only ground for the impeachment of President. As per the
Constitution, President cannot be impeached on the basis of incapacity and proved misbehaviour. See the image below:

Article 61 mentions the procedure for the impeachment of the President. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Central Water Commission.

1. Central Water Commission was established in 1945 by the Government on the advice of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
2. It responsible for strengthening international cooperation on matters relating to trans-boundary rivers.
3. It is headed by Union Minister.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Not Selected
Solution: a
Central Water Commission (erstwhile Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission) was established in 1945 by the
Government on the advice of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Member (Labour) in Viceroy's Executive Council . Since then, CWC has evolved as a

premier technical organization in the country in the field of Water Resources and is functioning as an attached office of the Department
of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
The CWC is responsible for strengthening international cooperation on matters relating to trans-boundary rivers by way of assistance
in water resource development projects, hydrological observation and flood forecasting and operation of bilateral treaties and
agreements.

1. The highest number of Tiger Reserves is in the state of Karnataka.
2. The highest number of Tigers is in Kaziranga Tiger Reserve.
3. The Tiger Density is highest in Corbett Tiger Reserve.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Not Selected
Solution: c
As per the latest report (Forest Report):
Consider the following statements regarding Question Hour.
1. After zero hour, first hour of a sitting of Lok Sabha is called Question Hour.
2. Speaker of the House has the power to decide whether the question asked in Question Hour is to be treated as starred or unstarred.
3. Short Notice Question during question has to be mandatorily answered in written form.
Seelct the correct code.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None
Not Selected
Solution: b
First statement is incorrect.
Zero hour is after Question Hour.
Second statement is corret:
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the
period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.

In the context of Ancient Indian sculptures, The Ardhaparyanka asana and Achamana Mudra are associated with which of these popular Indian deities?

a) Krishna
b) Shiva
c) Vishnu
d) Brahma
Not Selected
Solution: b
The bronze casting technique and making of bronze images of traditional icons reached a high stage of development in south India
during the medieval period.
Among the Pallava period bronze of the 8th century, the best one is the icon of Shiva seated in Ardhaparyanka asana (one leg kept
dangling). The right hand is in the Achamana Mudra gesture, suggesting that he is about to drink poison.

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