RAVI MATHS TUITION CENTRE , WHATSAPP - 8056206308

Time : 180 Mins MOCK TEST 1 Marks : 800

1. 1.5 μF capacitor is charged of 60 V. The charging battery is then disconnected and a 15 mH coil is connected in
series with the capacitor so that LC oscillations occur. Assuming that the circuit contains no resistance, the
maximum current in this coil shall be close to :
a) 0.8 A b) 0.6 A c) 1.4 A d) 1.2 A
2. In which medium sound has maximum velocity
a) In gases b) In liquids c) In solids d) In vacuum
2πct 2πx
3. The equation of the stationary wave is: y = 2A sin ( ) cos ( ). Which of the following statements is
λ λ

wrong?
a) The unit of ct is same as that of λ b) The unit of x is same as that of λ
c) The unit of 2πc/λ. is same as that of 2πx/λt d) The unit of c/λ is same as that of x/λ
4. If the orbital velocity of the moon is increased by 41.4% of its present value, then the:
a) moon will orbit around the earth with double velocity b) radius of moon's orbit will become double
c) moon will become a stationary satellite d) moon will leave its orbit and escape into space

5. A particle having a mass of 10−2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10−8 C. The particle is given an initial horizontal
velocity of 10 ms−1 in the presence of electric field E⃗ and magnetic field B⃗ . To keep the particle moving in a
5

horizontal direction, it is necessary that__

(1) B⃗ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and E⃗ should be along the direction of velocity.
(2) Both B⃗ and E⃗ should be along the direction of velocity.
(3) Both B⃗ and E⃗ are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
(4) B⃗ should be along the direction of velocity and E⃗ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible?
a) (2) and (4) b) (1) and (3) c) (3) and (4) d) (2) and (3)
6. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of
proportionality are:
a) kg ms-1 b) kg ms-2 c) kg s-1 d) kg s
7. From a 10 m high building a stone 'A' is dropped, and simultaneously another identical stone 'B' is thrown
horizontally with an initial speed of 5 ms-1. Which one of the following statements is true?
a) It is not possible to calculate which one of the two stones will reach the ground first
b) Both the stones ('A' and 'B') will reach the ground simultaneously
c) 'A' stone reaches the ground earlier than 'B' d) 'B' stone reaches the ground earlier than 'A'
8. Assertion: Two sinusoidal waves on the same string exhibit interference.
Reason: These waves, add or cancel out according to the principle of superposition
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
 c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.

9. The thickness of ice on a lake is 10 cm and the temperature of air is -10oC. If rate of cooling of water inside lake
is 20000 cal min-1 through each square metre surface, then K for ice is
a) 14 b) 10 c) 3 d) 4
10. The direction of ray of light incident on a concave mirror is shown by PQ while directions in which the ray would
travel after reflection is shown by four rays marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 (figure). Which of the four rays correctly shows
the direction of reflected ray?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
11. In the question number 72, the change in potential energy is
GME m GME m GME m GME m
a) b) c) d)
8RE 16RE 2RE 4RE

12. A real image of half the size is obtained in a concave spherical mirror with a radius of curvature of 40cm. The
distance of object and its image will be
a) 30cm and 60cm b) 60cm and 30cm c) 15cm and 30cm d) 30cm and 15cm
13. Three particles are projected vertically upward from a point on the surface of earth with velocities
−−− − −−
2gR −
−− 4gR
v1 = √ ; v2 = √gR ; v3 = √
3 3

respectively, where g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth. If the maximum height attained are
h1> h2 and h3 respectively, then h1 : h2 : h3 is
a) 1:2:3 b) 2:3:4 c) 1:2:4 d) 1:3:5
14. The coefficient of performance of refrigerator, whose efficiency is 25% is:
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
15. A body is located on a wall. Its image of equal size is to be obtained on a parallel wall with the help of a convex
lens. The lens is placed at a distance 'd' ahead of second wall, then the required focal length will be___
a) only d/4 b) only d/2 c) more than d/4 but less than d/2 d) less than d/4
16. Two equal masses ml and m2 moving along the same straight line with velocities +3 m/s and -5 m/s respectively,
collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively:
a) +4 m s-1 for both b) -3 m s-1 and +5 m s-1 c) 4 m s-1 and +4 m s-1 d) -5 m s-1 and +3 m s-1
17. A jar has a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gases in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of mean kinetic energies of
hydrogen and oxygen molecules is:
a) 1:16 b) 1:4 c) 1:5 d) 1:1
18. Which of the following is not true for stationary satellite of the earth?
a) Its time-period is 24 hrs b) Its angular speed is equal to that of the earth about its own axis
c) It is stationary in space d) It revolves from west to east

19. IF both the temperature and the volume of an ideal gas are doubled , the pressure:
1
a) Increases by a factor of 4 b) is also doubled c) remains unchanged d) is diminshed by a factor
4

20. The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to
higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds
to the transition between:
 a) n = 3 to n = 1 states b) n = 2 to n = 1 states c) n = 4 to n = 3 states d) n = 3 to n = 2 states
21. If two liquids of same volume but different densities p1 and p2 are mixed, then density of mixture is given by:
p1 p2 p1 +p2 2p1 p2 p1 p2
a) p =
2
b) p =
2p p
c) p =
p1 +p2
d) p =
p1 +p2
1 2

22. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then the original
fundamental frequency n of the string is given by:
−− −− −−
a) 1

n
=
1

n1
+
1

n2
+
1

n3
b) 1
=
1
+
1
+
1
c) √n = √n1 + √n2 + √n3
√n √n1 √n2 √n3

d) n = n1 + n2 + n3

23. A simple harmonic motion having an amplitude A and time period T is represented by the equation:
y = 5sin π (t+4)m
Then, the values of A (in m) and T (in see) are
A=5;T=2
a) A = 5; T = 2 b) A = 10; T = 1 c) A = 5; T=1 d) A = 10; T = 2
24. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of Balmer
series for hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is :
a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
25. An electrical device draws 2 kW power from ac mains voltage 223 V(rms). The current differs lag in phase by ϕ =
tan-1 (− 3 ) as compared to voltage. The resistance R in the circuit is
4

a) 15 Ω b) 20 Ω c) 25 Ω d) 30 Ω
26. The speed of sound in hydrogen at NTP is 1270 m/s. Then, the speed in a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen in the
ratio 4: 1 by volume will be:
a) 317 m/s b) 635 m/s c) 830 m/s d) 950 m/s
27. Through which character we can distinguish the light waves from sound waves
a) Interference b) Refraction c) Polarisation d) Reflection
28. A car moving with a speed of 50 km h-1 can be stopped by applying brakes after moving atleast 6 m. If the same
car is moving at a speed of 100 km h-1 the minimum stopping distance is :
a) 6 m b) 12 m c) 18 m d) 24 m
29. The viscosity of an ideal liquid is:
a) 1 b) 0.5 c) zero d) infinite
30. Assertion (A) : Newton's first law is not merely a special case (a = 0) of the second law (F = ma) .
Reason (R) : Newton's first law defines the frame from where Newton's second law F ⃗ = ma⃗ is applicable.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
e) If assertion is false but reason is true
31. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Bohr gave theory of hydrogen atom and Yukawa, the theory of nuclear forces.
b) Law of gravitation was discovered by Newton and principle of inertia by Galileo.
c) Laws of photoelectric effect were discovered by Einstein and laws of electromagnetic induction by Faraday.
d) Neutron was discovered by J.J. Thomson and electron was discovered by James Chadwick.
32. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R and 3 R respectively as shown in the figure. When some potential
difference is applied between X and. Y the voltmeter readings are VA, VB and VC respectively. Then ________.
 a) VA ≠ VB = VC b) VA = VB ≠ VC c) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC d) VA = VB = VC

33. The profile of advancing liquid in a tube is a:

a) straight line b) circle c) parabola d) hyperbola

34. In the following question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice
as :
Assertion: Simple harmonic motion is the projection of uniform circular motion on the diameter of the circle in
which the latter motion occurs.
Reason : Simple harmonic motion is a uniform motion
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false.

35. There are two coils A and B as shown in the figure. A current starts flowing in B as shown, when A is moved
towards B and stops when A stops moving. The current in A is counterclockwise. B is kept stationary when A
moves. We can infer that

a) there is a constant current in the clockwise direction of A. b) there is a varying current in A.

c) there is no current in A. d) there is a constant current in the counterclockwise direction in A.
36. (A) Even when orbit of a satellite is elliptical, its plane of rotation passes through the centre of earth.
(R) According to law of conservation of angular momentum plane of rotation of satellite always remain same.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
e) If assertion is false but reason is true.

37. One of the modes of resonance in a tube containing water at one end has been shown. The tube in the present
case is in

a) first harmonic b) third harmonic c) fifth harmonic d) seventh harmonic

38. Assertion : For the scattering of α-particles at large angles, only the nucleus of the atom is responsible.
Reason : Nucleus is very heavy in comparison to electrons.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertionand reason are true but reason is not the correct explanationof assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
39. A boy of height 1 m stands in front of a convex mirror. His distance from the mirror is equal to its focal length.
The height of his image is
a) 0.25 m b) 0.33 m c) 0.5 m d) 0.67 m
40. Assertion : If the head of a right handed screw rotates with the body, the screw advances in the direction of the
angular velocity.
Reason: For rotation about a fixed axis, the angular velocity vector lies along the axis of rotation
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false
41. A cylinder contains 10 kg of gas at a pressure of 107 N m-2. The quantity of gas taken out of the cylinder, if final
pressure is 2.5 x 106 N m-2 is
a) 9.5 kg b) 7.5 kg c) 14.2 kg d) zero
42. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on the earth's surface and T2 when taken to a height 2R above the
earth's surface, where R is the radius of the earth. The value of (T1/T2) is:
a) 1/9 b) 1/3 c) √3 d) 9 e) 3
43. Two cells ε1 and ε2 connected in opposition to each other as shown in figure. The cell ε1 is of emf 9 V and
internal resistance 3 Ω the cell ε2 is of emf 7 V and internal resistance 7 Ω. The potential difference between the
points A and B is

a) 8.4V b) 5.6V c) 7.8V d) 6.6V

44. An object kept on a smooth inclined plane of 1 in 1 can be kept stationary relative to the incline by giving a
horizontal acceleration to the inclined plane given by:
a) g sin θ b) g cos θ c) g tan θ d) none of these
45. Terminal velocity depends on radius of drop rand viscosity η according to:
η 2

a) vT ∝ rη b) vT ∝ r2η c) vT ∝ d) vT ∝
r
2 η
r

46. (A) Cars and aeroplanes are streamlined.

(R) Bernoulli's theorem hold for incompressible, non-viscous fluids.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false
e) If assertion is false but reason is true

47. Two resistors of resistances R1 = (100 ± 3) Ω and R2 = (200 ± 4) Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent
resistance of the parallel combination is :
a) (66.7 ± l.8) Ω b) (66.7 ± 4.0) Ω c) (66.7 ± 3.0) Ω d) (66.7 ± 7.0) Ω
48. (A) When a rigid body is rotating about a fixed axis, every particle of the rigid body have same angular velocity
and angular acceleration.
(R) For every pair of particles in a rigid body, there is no velocity of separation or approach between the particles.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
e) If assertion isfalse but reason is true.
49. A uniform horizontal magnetic field of 7.5 x 10-2 T is set up at an angle of 30° with the axis of a solenoid and the
magnetic moment associated with it is 1.28 JT-1.Then the torque on it is
a) 4.8 x 10-2 N m b) 1.6 x 10-2 N m c) 1.2 x 10-2 N m d) 4.8 x 10-4 N m
50. A disc revolves in horizontal plane at a steady rate of 3 rev/so A coinjust remains on the disc ifkept at a distance
of 2 cm from the axis of rotation. What is the coefficient of friction between the coin and the disc?
a) 0.5 b) 0.65 c) 0.7 d) 0.75
51. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?
a) Phenyl acetaldehyde b) 2-Methylpentanal c) Benzaldehyde d) I-Phenylpropanone

52. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with negative
sign) of given atomic species?
a) F < Cl < O < S b) S < O < Cl < F c) O < S < F < Cl d) Cl < F < S < O
53. Free radicals of which of the following compounds are responsible for causing break down of ozone into oxygen
due to use of CFCs?
a) O b) Cl c) CH3 d) OH
54. Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers like silicones. The chain length of silicone polymer can be
controlled by adding
a) MeSiCl3 b) Me2SiCl2 c) Me3SiCl d) Me4Si
55. Assertion: Coordination number of Fe and Co in [Fe(C2O4)3]3- and [Co(en)3]3+ respectively is 6.
2−
Reason: C2 O4 and en (ethane-1,2-diamine) are didentate ligands.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertiona nd reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false.
56. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding the energies of orbitals?
a) The lower the value of (n + I) for an orbital, lower is its energy
b) Electrons in the same subshell have equal energy
c) Energy of s-orbital is lower than the p-orbital and that of p-orbital is lower than the d-orbital
d) If two orbitals have same value for (n + I), the orbital with higher value of n will have lower energy
57. The best oxidising agent among the following oxides is :
a) SnO2 b) PbO2 c) HgO d) MgO
58. If, ∆E is the heat of reaction for C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) ⟶ 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) at constant volume, the ∆H (heat of
reaction at constant pressure), then the correct relation is :
a) ∆H = ∆E + RT b) ∆H = ∆E - RT c) ∆H = ∆E - 2RT d) ∆H = ∆E + 2RT
59. The substance used as a smoke screen in warfare is ____________ .
a) SiCl4 b) PH3 c) PCl5 d) Acetylene
60. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal moles of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was
found 1 atm, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is :
a) 0.8 atm b) 0.9 atm c) 1 atm d) 0.5 atm
61. Which of the following statements is correct about the given Daniell cell?

a) This cell converts the electrical energy liberated during the redox reaction to chemical energy.
b)
This cell has an electrical potential greater that 1.1 V when concentration of Zn2+ and Cu2+ ions is unity (1 mol
dm-3)
c) In this cell, copper is acting as cathode and zinc is acting as anode.
Redox reaction occurring in this cell is
2+ 2+
d) Cu(s) + Zn
(aq)
⟶ Cu
(aq)
+ Zn(s)

62. Assuming complete ionisation, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount of
acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation?
a) FeSO3 b) FeC2 O4 c) Fe(NO2 )2 d) FeSO4
63. The ratio of wavelength values of series limit lines(n2=∞) of Balmer series and paschen series are
a) 4:9 b) 9:4 c) 2:3 d) 3:2
64. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced by using the assumption that:
a) the adsorption takes place in multi-layers
b) the adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles.
c) the heat of adsorption varies with coverage d) the adsorbed molecules interact with each other
65. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in
which of the following order? (Atomic number Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe =26, Co = 27)
a) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr b) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr c) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe d) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
66. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
a) Methane b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrous oxide d) Ammonia
67. The pH of 0.001 M Ba(OH)2 solution will be
a) 2.7 b) 2 c) 8.4 d) 11.3
68. In the following transition metals, the maximum number of oxidation states are exhibited by
a) chromium (Z = 24) b) manganese (Z = 25) c) iron (Z = 26) d) titanium (Z = 22)
69. In electrometallurgy of aluminium, what will happen if graphite rods are not used as anode and are replaced by
some other metal
a) Ozliberated at anode will react with aluminium to give back Al2O3
b) F2 will be liberated at anode instead of O2
c) The process of electrometallurgy will become non -spontaneous
d) Aluminium oxide splits into Al3+ and O2- ions only in presence of graphite.
70. The Correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of Rubidium (Z = 37) is
a) 5, 0, 0, +1/2 b) 5, 1, 0, +1/2 c) 5, 1, 1, +1/2 d) 6, 0, 0, +1/2
71. If the radius of first Bohr orbit is x pm, then the radius of the third orbit would be
a) (3 × x) pm b) (6 × x) pm c) ( 1 × x) pm d) (9 × x) pm
2

72. An organic compound on analysis gave the following results: C = 54.5%, O = 36.4%, H = 9.1%. The Empirical
formula of the compound is
a) CHO2 b) CH2O c) C2H8O d) C2H4O

73. Which of the following has been arranged in order of increasing bond strength?
a) Zn2+2 < Hg2+2 < Cd2+2 b) Cd2+2< Hg2+2< Zn2+2 c) Zn2+2 < Cd2+2< Hg2+2 d) Hg2+2< Cd2+2< Zn2+2
74. Identify the polynuclear aromatic compound which is aromatic.

a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iii) c) (i), (ii) and (iii) d) (i) and (iii)
75. The position of - Br in the compound in CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2 can be classified as________________
a) allyl b) aryl c) vinyl d) secondary
76. The combination of two layers of opposite charges around the colloidal particle is called Helmholtz electrical
double layer. The potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charge is called
a) electrode potential b) zeta potential c) adsorption potential d) diffused potential.
77. Sulphates of Be and Mg are readily soluble in water but sulphates of Ca, Sr and Ba are insoluble. This is due to the
fact
a) the greater hydration enthalpies of Be2+ and Mg2+ overcome the lattice enthalpy
b) high lattice enthalpy of Be2+ and Mg2+ makes them soluble in water
c) solubility decreases from BeSO4 to BaSO4 due to increase in ionic size
d) BeSO4 and MgSO4 are ionic in nature while other sulphates are covalent
78. In which of the following cases lattice energy of resulting product will be highest?
a) X and Y both are monovalent b) X and Y both are divalent c) X is monovalent and Y is divalent
d) X is divalent and Y is monovalent
79. Combination that obeys Dalton's law
A = CO, B = CI2, C = F2, D = Xe
a) A, B b) B, C c) B, D d) A, C
80. Match the compounds given in column I with the IUPAC names given in column II and mark the appropriate
choice
Column I Column II

(A) (i) 3, 7- Dimethylocta -1, 3, 6- triene

(B) (ii) 4-Methyl-5- oxohexanoic acid

(C) (iii) 3, 3, 5-Trimethylhex-1-en-2-ol

 Column I Column II

(D) (iv) 4-Hydroxy-4- methylpentan - 2-one

a) (A)→ (ii), (B)→ (i), (C) → (iii), (D)→ (iv) b) (A)→ (iv), (B) → (ii), (C)→(i), (D)→ (iii)
c) (A) → (i), (B)→ (iii), (C) → (ii), (D)→(iv) d) (A)→ (iii), (B) → (iv), (C)→ (ii), (D)→ (i)
81. Identify the products (A) and (B) in the reactions.
RX+ AgCN ⟶. ____________
(A)
+ AgX
RX + KCN ⟶ ____________
(B)
+ KX
a) (A)→ RCN, (B) → RCN b) (A) → RCN, (B) → RNC c) (A) → RNC, (B)→ RCN
d) (A)→RNC, (B) → RNC
82. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is :
−−
1 h h 1 h
a) √ b) √ 2π c) √ d) √ h
2m π m π π

83. Which one of the following compounds is resistant to nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions?
a) Methyl acetate b) Acetonitrile c) Dimethyl ether d) Acetamide
84. Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
a) SO2 is reduced. b) Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed. c) The solution turds blue.
d) The solution is decolourised
85. Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins?
a) Thioester b) Thioether c) Thiol d) Thiolactone
86. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by
elimination of water. The reagent is; _______.
a) a Grignard reagent b) hydrazine in presence offeebly acidic solution c) hydrocyanic acid
d) sodium hydrogen sulphite
87. Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability.
(I) H3C-C≡C-
(II) H-C≡C-
(III) H3C - CH2-
a) I > II > III b) II > I> III c) III > II > I d) III > I > II
88. Match the vitamins given in column I with the deficiency diseases caused by it given in column II and mark the
appropriate choice.
Column - I Column - II
(A) Vitamin B1 (i) Convulsions
(B) Vitamin B2 (ii) Pernicious anemia
(C) Vitamin B12 (iii) Beri beri
(D) Vitamin B6 (iv) Cheilosis
a) (A)→ (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii) b) (A) → (i), (B) → (iv), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)
c) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii) d) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
89. What is the entropy change (in JK-1 mol-1) when one mole of ice is converted into water at 00C? (The enthalpy
change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is 6.0 kJ mol-1 at 00C)
a) 2.198 JK-1 mol-1 b) 21.98 JK-1 mol-1 c) 21.98 JK-1 mol-1 d) 2.013 JK-1 mol-1
90. What will be the uncertainty in velocity of a bullet with a mass of 10 g whose position is known with ± 0.01 mm?
a) 5.275 x 10-33 m s-1 b) 5.275 x 10-25 m s-1 c) 5.275 x 10-5 m s-1 d) 5.275 x 10-28 ms-1
 91. Given ire following entropy values ( in JK
−1
mol
−1
) at 298

K and 1 atm : H2 ( g) : 130.6, Cl2 ( g) : 223.0, HCl(g) : 186.7 The entropy change (in JK-1 mol- l) for the
reaction H2(g) +Cl2 ( g) → 2HCl(g), is
a) +540.3 b) +727.0 c) -166.9 d) +19.8
92. Assertion: Cross aldol condensation of ethanal and propanal gives a mixture of four products.
Reason: Ethanal and propanal, both contain a-hydrogen atom.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false

93. Assertion: Ice cube floats on water.

Reason: Density of ice is less than that of water.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
94. The unit of surface tension is
a) dynes cm-2 b) ergs/cm c) joules m-1 d) N.m-1
95. In a thermite process________ is used as reducing agent.
a) Zn b) Al c) Mn d) Fe
96. Which of the following elements will have highest ionisation energy?
a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

97. Assertion: In tetrahedral complexes low spin configurations are rarely observed.
4
Reason: △t = ( ) △0
9

a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
98. Group 13 elements show:
a) only +1 oxidation state b) only +3 oxidation state c) +1 and +3 oxidation states
d) +1, +2 and +3 oxidation states
99. Which among the following is paramagnetic?
a) Cl2 O b) ClO2 c) Cl2 O7 d) Cl2 O6
100. 2, 3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid?
a) (CH3)3 C - CH = CH2 b) (CH3)2 C = CHCH2CH3 c) (CH3)2CHCH2CH = CH2 d) (CH3)2CH - CH - CH = CH2
|

CH3

101. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
A.C4 plants (i) Succulents
B.Chlorophyll b(ii) Accessory photosynthetic pigment
C.PSII (iii)Photooxidation of H2O
D. CAM (iv)Kranz anatomy
a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iii), D-(iv) d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

102. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are_______ .

a) random and directionless b) small and directional c) small and directionless
d) random and directional
103. How many recombinant therapeutics worldwide have been approved for human use?
a) 13 b) 25 c) 30 d) 40
104. CO2 combines with RuBP in the presence of enzyme RuBisCO to form 3-PGA. This process of Calvin cycle is
included under
a) carboxylation b) oxygenation c) reduction d) regeneration
105. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle?
a) Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
b) Transcription from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
c) Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast.
d) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes.
106. The first non-cellular form of life could have originated___________billion years back
a) 3 b) 8 c) 10 d) 1
107. Meiosis occurs in organisms during:
a) sexual reproduction b) vegetative reproduction c) both sexual and vegetative reproduction
d) none of these.
108. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of water in____
a) Pistia b) Pea c) Wheat d) Sunflower
109. Removial of calcium form freshly collected blood would_____
a) cause delayed clotting b) prevent clotting c) cause immediate clotting
d) prevent destruction of hemoglobin
110. Amides are transported to the other parts of the plant via
a) phloem parenchyma b) phloem companion cells c) xylem vessels d) phloem fibre

111. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is _____________ .

a) Malonate b) Oxaloacetate c) m-ketoglutarate d) Malate
112. If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in each cell of
the root will be
a) 8 b) 4 c) 16 d) 24
113. Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important products.
Bacterium Product
(i) Aspergillus niger (A) Lactic acid
(ii) Acetobacter aceti (B) Butyric acid
(iii) Clostridium butylicum(C) Acetic acid
(iv) Lactobacillus (D) Citric acid
a) i-(B), ii-(C), iii-(D), iv-(A) b) i-(B), ii-(D), iii-(C), iv-(A) c) i-(D), ii-(C), iii-(B), iv-(A) d) i-(D), ii-(A), iii-(C), iv-(B)

114. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through

a) Runners b) Rhizome c) Offsets d) Bulbils
115. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Fats made of three fatty acid chains attached to glycerol(i) Glycogen
B. Glycolysis metabolite made from glycerol (ii) Glyceraldehyde
C. Storage form of glucose (iii) Triglycerides
D. Common respiratory substrate of glycolysis (iv) Glucose
a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
116. Assertion: During pregnancy the levels of hormones like estrogens and progestrogens are increased.
Reason: The increased production of these hormones is essential for fetal growth.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
117. Identify the given figure and select the correct option.
a) It is photosynthetic protist. b) It is saprophytic protist. c) It is chemosynthetic bacteria
d) Both (a) and (b)
118. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes
Column I Column II
AStele (i) Innermost layer of cortex
BEndodermis (ii) Suberin
CCasparian strips(iii)All the tissues outer to vascular cambium
DBark (iv)All the tissues inner to endodermis
a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) c) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
119. Assertion: Pasteur coined Contagium Vivum Fluidum.
Reason: Pasteur found that virus infected plant of tobacco can cause infection in healthy plant.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
120. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is _____________ .
a) Chitin b) Peptidoglycan c) Cellulose d) Hemicellulose,
121. Linkage is a tendency of alleles of different genes to assort together in :
a) Meiosis b) Mitosis c) X-Y linkage d) Inversion

122. Assertion : Hydrophily constitutes a major mode of pollination in most of the aquatic angiospermous plants.
Reason : Almost all the aquatic dicot and monocot plants require water for the transport of male gametes and for
fertilisation.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false
123. The significance of Melosis is that it -
M itosis F ertilization M eiosis M eiosis F ertilization M itosis
a) 2n ⟶ n ⟶ 2n ⟶ 2n b) 2n ⟶ 2n ⟶ 2n ⟶ n

M eiosis F ertilization M itosis F ertilization M ciosis M eiosis

c) 2n ⟶ n ⟶ 2n ⟶ 2 n d) 2n ⟶ (n) ⟶ 2n ⟶ n

124. Which of the followinq figures shows tubectomy?

a) A only b) B only c) Either A or B d) None of these

125. Which gland atrophies in adults?
a) Pancreas gland b) Thymus gland c) Adrenal gland d) Thyroid gland
126. During winter a person died during sleep, the room was closed and a container with burnt charcoal was found in
the room. What may be the possible reason of his death?
a) Non-availability of oxygen b) Hb has more affinity to combine with carbon monoxide
c) Hb has more affinity to combine with carbon dioxide d) Combined effect of both (a) and (b)

127. If the percentage of thymine Is 35% In DNA double helix, then the percentage of guanine will be
a) 35% b) 70% c) 30% d) 15%

128. Cyanobacteria are

a) heterotrophs b) chemotrophs c) autotrophs d) organotrophs

129. In turmeric, stem is a

a) Tuber b) Bulb c) Rhizome d) Corm
130. The factor which is not limiting in normal conditions for photosynthesis is
a) water b) chlorophyll c) light d) carbon dioxide
131. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
(i) hCG
(ii) hCS
(iii) hCT
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii) c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i),(ii) and (iii)
132. Assertion: Bell shaped age pyramid represents a stable population.
Reason : In a stable population, proportion of individuals in reproductive age group is higher than the individuals
in pre-reproductive age group.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.

133. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by______

a) Cycas b) Nostoc c) Green sulphur bacteria d) Chara
134. Which of the following measure is taken to realise the yield potential of cattle?
a) Proper housing b) Adequate supply of water and fodder c) Stringent cleanliness a~d hygiene
d) All of these

135. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant
plasmid using:
a) Eeo RI b) Taq polymerase c) Polymerase III d) Ligase
136. Assertion : Gymnosperms do not produce fruit.
Reason : Ovules of gymosperms are enclosed within the ovaries.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
137. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Common Name Scientific name
(i) Bombay duckHarpadon
(ii) Pomphret Stromateus
(iii) Salmon Anguilla
(iv) Sardine Aluitheronema
(v) Singhi Heteropneustes
 a) (ii) and (v) b) (iii) and (v) c) (i) and (iii) d) (iii) and (iv)

138. Bundle sheath chloroplast of C4 plant are

a) Large & agranal b) Large & granal c) small & agranal d) small & granal

139. Which of the following is the most suitable indicator of S02 pollution in the environment?
a) Lichens b) Conifer c) Algae d) Fungi
140. Which of the following options contains the end products formed during anaerobic respiration in yeast?
a) H2O, CO2 and energy b) H2S, C6H12O6 and energy c) CO2, C2H5OH and energy d) H2O and CO2

141. Fitness according to Darwin refers to

a) number of species in a community b) useful variation in population c) strength of an individual
d) reproductive fitness of an organism

142. Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing.
a) Inspiration is a passive processwhereas expiration is active
b) Inspiration is an active processwhereas expiration is passive
c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes
143. In glycolysis net gain of ATP directly is
a) 2 ATP b) 6 ATP c) 8 ATP d) 1 ATP

144. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:
a) acetocarmine in UV radiation b) ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
c) acetocarmine in bright blue light d) ethidium bromide in UV radiation
145. Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are not found in which of the following blood group?
a) AB b) A c) O d) B
146. In which one of the following, male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existence?
a) Polytrichum b) Cedrus c) Pteris d) Funaria
147. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is:
a) Pristis b) Torpedo c) Trygon d) Scoliodon
148. What is true about telophase stage of mitosis?
a) Chromosomeslosetheir identity as discrete elements b) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
c) Nuclear envelope, nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform. d) All of these
149. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of _____
a) Malaria b) pneumonia c) Tuberculosis d) Typhoid
150. Swelling of wooden plants and door-penals during the rainly season is due to
a) Imbibition b) Endosmosis c) Deplasmolysis d) Diffusion

151. The structure that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and for host tissues are :
a) Holdfast b) Rhizoids c) Fimbriae d) Mesosomes
152. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding algal blooms?
a) Algal blooms are formed by blue-green algae. b) Growth of Eichhornia crassipes causes colouration.
c) Increased growth of algae causes depletion of O2 in water.
d) Algal blooms cause deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.

153. Given below are four statements each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks
in any two statements.
(A) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a (i).
(B) Embedding of the (i) in the endometrium of the uterus is called implantation and it leads to.(ii).
 (C) After implantation, finger like projections appear on the trophoblast called (i) which are surrounded by
the (ii) and maternal blood.
(D) Inner cell mass contains certain cells called (i) cells which have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and
organs.
a) (A)-(i) blastula, (C)-(i) chorionic villi, (ii)-uterine tissue b) (B)-(i) blastocyst, (ii) pregnancy, (D)-(i) stem
c) (A)-(i) morula, (D)-(i) Sertoli d) (B)-(i) morula, (ii) parturition, (C)-(i) fimbriae, (ii)-embryonic tissue

154. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the Fallopian tube of another female who cannot
produce an ovum, is called as GIFT.
Statement 2: Transfer of early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube of the female, is called
ZIFT.
a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

155. Long ducts of collecting tubules extend from

a) cortex to inner part of medulla b) medulla to outer cortex c) medulla to inner cortex
d) cortex to outer part of medulla.

156. Perisperm is present in

a) Beet b) Black papper c) Both 1 & 2 d) All angiosperms
157. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement 1: Lymphatic capillaries are free and blind at one end
Statement 2: Lymph does not flow in a circular manner
a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

158. What is common among silver fish, scorpion, crab and honeybee?
a) Compound eyes b) Poison glands c) Jointed appendages d) Metamorphosis
159. Acetabulum is located in
a) collar bone b) hip bone c) shoulder bone d) thigh bone

160. If an organism's body pattern resembles its environment making it difficult to spot, it is called as
a) camouflage b) mimicry c) warning colouration d) both (a) and (b)

161. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
A. Ultrafiltration (i) Henle's loop
B. Concentration of urine(ii) Ureter
C. Transport of urine (iii) Urinary bladder
D. Storage of urine (iv) Malpighian corpuscle
(v) Proximal Convoluted tubule
a) b) c) d)
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(v)(iv)(i)(ii) (iv)(i)(ii)(iii) (iv)(v)(ii)(iii) (v)(iv)(i)(iii)
162. The exponential growth can be mathematically expressed as
a) Lt=L0+rt b) W1=W0+ert c) W1=W0ert d) Lt=L0-rt

163. In which of the following interactions both partners adversely affected?

 a) Predation b) Parasitism c) Mutualism d) Competition
164. The given figure shows female reproductive system. Which wall of the uterus (A, B or C) sloughs off during
menstruation?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of these
165. Which of the following pair is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?
a) Oxygen and nitrogen b) Phosphorous and sulphur c) Phosphorous and nitrogen
d) Phosphorus and carbon dioxide
166. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement 1 : Many plants are propagated vegetatively even though they bear seeds
Statement 2 : Sweet potatoes multiply vegetatively by root tubers
a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct. d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
167. Identify X, Y and Z in the given diagram representing steps of citric acid cycle and select the correct option.

a) b) c) d)
X Y Z X Y Z X Y Z X Y Z
GTPNADH2 FADH2 FADH2 NADH2 GTP NADH2 FADH2 GTP CO2 NADH2 ADP
168. The symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants is referred to as
a) lichen b) mycorrhiza c) biofertiliser d) biocontrol agent

169. Melanocyte stimulating hormone in frog is released by

a) Hypothalamus b) Hypothalamus c) Pars distails d) Pars intermedia

170. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by_______
a) Lipase b) Trypsin c) Rennin d) Pepsin
171. The biggest constraint of plant breeding is
a) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives b) infrastructure c) trained manpower
d) transfer of genes from unrelated sources.
172. Who confirmed communities with more species tend to be more stable than those with less species?
a) Alexander von Humboldt b) David Tilman c) Paul Ehrlich d) Edward Wilson

173. Finely dissected leaf may be an adapta

a) xerophytes b) psammophytes c) halophytes d) hydrophytes
174. In nematode resistance by RNA interference, some specific genes were introduced which form dsRNA. These
were introduced in-
a) Nematode b) Host plant c) Agrobacterium d) All of these

175. Complete the following sentence by selecting the correct option.

The breathing rhythm is generated in the ____(i)_____and is influenced by variation in levels of____(ii)_____in the
blood.
a) b) c) d)
(i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii)
medullaCO2 medullaO2 frontal lobeCO2 and O2 frontal lobeCO2
176. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen?
a) Nostoc b) Azotobacter c) Spirogyra d) Anabaena
177. Algae have cell wall made up of:
a) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins b) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
c) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins d) Pectins, cellulose and proteins
178. Which one of the following is a mismatched pair of the drug and its effect?
a) Amphetamines - CNS stimulants b) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) - Psychedelic (hallucinogen)
c) Heroin - Depressant, slows down body functions d) Barbiturates - Tranquilliser

179. The given experimental set-up demonstrates

a) photosynthesis b) aerobic respiration c) anaerobic respiration d) ascent of sap

180. Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?
a) Colour and large six of flower b) Nectar and pollen grains c) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
d) Pollen pellicle and stigmatic exudates
181. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are:
a) n = 7 and x = 21 b) n = 21 and x = 21 c) n = 21 and x = 14 d) n = 21 and x = 7

182. A place has very scanty rainfall, the nommam plants there may be:
a) Opuntia b) Nymphaea c) Asparagus d) both (a) and (c)
183. In the given figure of maize grain certain regions are labelled as A, B, C and D. Match them with the codes (1, 2, 3
and 4) given below and select the correct option.

(1) The main nutritive tissue

(2) Shield shaped cotyledon
(3) Protection sheath of radicle
(4) The proteinaceous layer
a) A-(l), B-(3), C-(4), D-(2) b) A-(2), B-(3), C-( 1), D-(4) c) A-(l), B-(2), C-(3), D-(4) d) A-(4), B-(2), C-(3), D-(l)
184. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by:
a) Restriction mapping b) Centrifugation c) Polymerase chain reaction d) Electrophoresis

185. Krebs' cycle occurs in ________ .

a) mitochondria b) cytoplasm c) chloroplast d) ribosomes
186. Knee joint and elbow joints are examples of
a) saddle joint b) ball and socket joint c) pivot joint d) hinge joint.
187. Cortex is the region found between _____________ .
a) Epidermis and stele. b) Pericycle and endodermis c) Endodermis and pith.
d) Endodermis and vascular bundle.
188. Ground nut belongs to family
a) Fabaceae b) Malvaceae c) Liliaceae d) Cucurbitaceae
189. In the following question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice
as :
Assertion: Beer and wine are called soft liquors while gin, rum etc., are hard liquors.
Reason: Beer and wine are made without distillation.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.

190. Which is an example of offset?

a) Cynodon dactylon b) Eichhornia c) Fragaria d) Mentha
191. An adult human excretes, on an average____________litres of urine per day.
a) 1 to 1.5 b) 2 to 2.5 c) 2.5 to 3 d) 3 to 3.5

192. Assertion: The cymose type of inflorescence has limited growth.

Reason: In cymose inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false
193. Which of the below mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?
a) Tropics b) Temperates c) Alpines d) Both (a) and (b)
194. Which one of the following is not typical of the class-mammalia?
a) Seven cervical vertebrae b) Thecodont dentition c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves d) Alveolar lungs
195. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products:
(a) i gene - (i) β− galactosidase
(b) z gene - (ii) Permease
(c) a gene - (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene - (iv) Transacctylase
Select the correct option.
a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
196. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
a) Nostoc b) Mycobacterium c) Saccharomyces d) Oscillatoria.
197. Respiratory substrates are the organic substances which are _______ during respiration to liberate energy.
a) oxidised b) reduced c) synthesised d) both (a) and (b)

198. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Pteris (i) Bryophyte
B. Cedrus (ii) Pteridophyte
C. Sonchus (iii) Gymnosperm
D. Marchantia(iv) Angiosperm
a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D- (iii) c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv). D-(ii) d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
199. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show
a) host specificity b) narrow spectrum applications c) effects on non-target pathogens
d) utility in IPM programme.

200. Read the following four statements (i) - (iv) with certain mistakes in two of them.
(i) A water breather expends much more energy in ventilating its respiratory surface than an airbreathing one.
(ii) Lungs become empty after forceful expiration.
(iii) Exchange of gases in the lungs is interrupted during expiration.
(iv) Respiratory movements are controlled by CO2 concentration of arterial blood.
Which of the above two statements have mistakes?
a) (i) and (iv) b) (ii) and (iii) c) (i) and (ii) d) (iii) and (iv)