Professional Documents
Culture Documents
103. Which of the following is wrongly matched pair? 107. In which portion of the chloroplast, pH is higher in
(1) Chlamydomonas - Unicellular and flagellated the presence of sunlight?
(2) Laminaria - Unbranched leaf like thallus (1) Stroma
(3) Spirogyra - Filamentous structure (2) At thylakoid membrane
(4) Volvox - Colonial form. (3) Space enclosed by the inner and outer
membrane
(4) Space enclosed by the thylakoid membrane
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[15]
108. Select the wrongly matched pair. 112. Find the wrong statements about bacterial cells.
(1) Alternate phyllotaxy – Sunflower P. Pili are elongated tubular structures made of a
(2) Opposite phyllotaxy – Calotropis specific protein
(3) Whorled phyllotaxy – Guava. Q. Bacterial cell wall prevents the bacterium from
(4) Reticulate venation – Petunia bursting or collapsing
R. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is made up
109. How many of the given happens during Z-scheme? of only a single layer of lipid.
P. H2O splitting (1) P and Q
Q. O2 release (2) Q and R
R. NADPH formation (3) Only R
S. ATP consumption (4) Only Q
(1) Four
(2) Three 113. Cell organelle which divides the intracellular space
(3) Two into luminal and extra luminal compartments and
(4) One has rough surface is frequently observed in the cells
actively involved in
110. Which of the following is the right equation for (1) Protein synthesis
exponential growth curve? (2) Lipid synthesis
(1) (3) Carbohydrate synthesis
(4) r-RNA synthesis
(2)
114. Choose the wrong option with respect ATP
Synthase.
(3) (1) Involve in photophosphorylation
(2) Involve in oxidative phosphorylation
(4) (3) Involve in substrate level phosphorylation
(4) Break proton gradient
111. Which of the following statements is/are true for 115. Select the wrong statement from the following
Opuntia?
about bryophytes.
P. Leaves modified into spines
(1) The plant body of liverworts is differentiated
Q. Stem modified into photosynthetic organ
into rhizoids, stem and leaves
R. Presence of green succulent stem
(2) Mosses have upright, slender axis bearing
S. Presence of phyllode
spirally arranged leaves in gametophyte
(1) Only P and Q
(2) P, Q and R (3) Their spores germinate to form gametophyte
(3) Only P and R (4) The zygote undergoes mitosis to produce a
(4) P, R and S sporophyte eventually
[16]
116. The principal function of Golgi apparatus is 121. Peat used as a biofuel is obtained from
(1) Synthesis of lipids and proteins (1) Marchantia
(2) Detoxification of drugs (2) Funaria
(3) Modification of nucleic acids (3) Sphagnum
(4) Packaging of materials to be delivered inside (4) Riccia
the cell or outside the cell
122. Read the statements given below and select the true
117. Female gametophyte in gymnosperm is found in answer
(1) Ovule P. Ligase : Joins short segments of DNA together
(2) Pollen grain Q. DNA polymerase : Cuts DNA at specific DNA
(3) Microsporangia sequence
(4) Pollen cones R. Helicase: Unwinds DNA strands during DNA
replication.
118. Which one of the following phytohormone plays (1) All P, Q and R, are correct
important role in seed development, maturation and (2) Only P is incorrect
dormancy? (3) Only R is incorrect
(1) ABA (4) Only Q is incorrect
(2) IAA
(3) GA 123. Read the following statements
(4) CK P. C3 plants show carboxylase and oxygenase
activity of RuBisCO
119. Which one of the following statements is true? Q. Leaves of Sorghum have kranz anatomy
(1) Cyanobacteria are classified under plantae in R. Carboxylation and reduction are first two steps
five kingdom classification of Calvin cycle
(2) Desmids are included in chrysophytes S. C3 plants show higher optimum temperature as
(3) Eubacteria are only gram positive bacteria compared to C4 plants because of the presence
(4) Phycomycetes are also called imperfect fungi of cold sensitive enzyme PEP synthetase
Which of the given statements are true?
120. How many of the following organisms do not fix the (1) P, R & S
atmospheric nitrogen in free living condition? (2) P, Q & R
Anabaena, Rhodospirillum, Beijerinckia, (3) Q, R & S
Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Nostoc (4) P, Q & S
(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three
[17]
124. How many of the following traits of pea plant 129. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of I which
express themselves in both homozygous and occurs due to II .
heterozygous condition? (1) I - Silent mutation, II - Deletion of gene
Round seed, green seed colour, full pod shape, (2) I - Point mutation, II – Transition
yellow pod colour, terminal flower position, white (3) I - Frame shift mutation, II -Substitution
flower colour. reaction
(1) 2 (4) I - Substitution mutation, II – Transversion
(2) 1
(3) 3
130. In a grasshopper, the mechanism of sex
(4) 4
determination is
125. In the given list how many features are related to (1) XX-XY-type
Down's syndrome? (2) XX-XO-type
Gynaecomastia, Mental retardness, Leukemia,
Congenital heart disease. (3) ZZ-ZW-type
(1) 4 (4) ZO-ZZ-type
(2) 3
(3) 2
131. The given pedigree chart could be related with
(4) 1
inheritance of :
[18]
133. Which of the following codons not code glycine? 138. Number of hotspots in India are
(1) GGU (1) 3
(2) CUG (2) 5
(3) GGG (3) 25
(4) GGA (4) 34
135. Match the given columns and select the correct 140. Which one of the following features ensures
option. autogamy?
Column-I Column-II (1) Self incompatibility
a. UTRS (i) High degree of (2) Dioecy
polymorphism (3) Cleistogamy
(4) Dichogamy
b. VNTR (ii) Permease
c. ESTs (iii) Efficient translation 141. Which of the following biological phenomenon
d. lac y (iv) Exonic sequence helps preserving vigour in hybrid plants generation
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) to generation?
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (1) Bioprospecting (2) Apomixis
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Emasculation (4) Hybridisation
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
142. Maize crop is resistant to stem borers due of
SECTION - B (1) Having solid stem
(2) Having hairy leaves
136. Vast majority of organisms are restricted to P range
(3) Having high aspartic acid, low nitrogen and
of temperatures and are called Q.
sugar content
P Q
(4) Having low aspartic acid, high nitrogen and
(1) Wide Eurythermal
sugar content
(2) Narrow Eurythermal
(3) Narrow Stenothermal
143. Crucial step for the success of any breeding
(4) Wide Stenothermal
programme is
(1) Testing, release and commercialisation of new
137. Which of the following group of organisms belong
cultivars
to second trophic level?
(2) Collection of genetic variability
(1) Grasses, grasshopper, wolf
(3) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
(2) Zooplankton, grasshopper, cow
(4) Selection of superior recombinants
(3) Phytoplanktons, birds, fishes
(4) Trees, wolf, birds
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[19]
144. Which microbial product is used as an (4) 1040
immunosuppressive agent and therefore, prevents 148. Select the true statement related to angiospermic
rejection reactions in organ transplantation? plants.
(1) Statin (1) An embryo sac represents megasporangium
(2) Streptokinese (2) The vegetative cell of pollen grain gives rise to
(3) Cyclosporin A two male gametes
(4) Lipase (3) Xenogamy brings genetically different types of
pollen grains to the stigma
145. Important autotrophic biofertilizers in paddy field (4) Cleistogamous flowers do not produce seeds.
are
(1) Glomus, Nostoc, Azotobacter
149. The entire sequence of communities that
(2) Clostridium, Oscillatoria, Azospirillum
(3) Oscillatoria, Nostoc, Anabaena successively change in a given area are
(4) Glomus, Azotobacter, Klebsiella called…………….
(1) Climax community
146. The scientific name of makoi is correctly written as (2) Ecological succession.
(1) Solanum Nigrum (3) Sere(s)
(2) solanum nigrum (4) Scondary succession.
(3) Solanum nigrum
(4) SOLANUM NIGRUM
150. Biochemical nature of genetic material was not
147. If the chromosome number in a gamete of a fern, defined from experiments of:
Ophioglossum is 630, then what will be the (1) Transforming Principle
chromosome number in its meiocyte? (2) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn
(1) 630 McCarty
(2) 1260 (3) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(3) 840 (4) None of these.
SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A 152. Stomach located on the upper left portion of
151. Read the following statements abdominal cavity has three parts, a ___A___
A. The cells of germinal epithelium are cuboidal
portion into which the oesophagus open, a
B. The main function of stratified squamous
epithelium is protection ___B___ region and a ___C___ portion, which
C. The cilliated epithelium is found in trachea opens into small intestine.
and fallopian tubes Identify A, B and C
D. The transitional epithelium is found in renal
cortex (1) A-cardiac, B-fundic, C-pyloric
(1) All are correct (2) A-fundic, B-cardiac, C-pyloric
(2) Only A & B are correct (3) A-pyloric, B-cardiac, C-fundic
(3) Only A, B & C are correct
(4) A-pyloric, B-fundic, C-cardiac
(4) Only B, C & D are correct
[20]
153. Which of the following options correctly identifies 156. Mark the incorrect statement
the structural formula shown in the figure? (1) Each Testis has about 250 compartments
called testicular lobules
(2) Each testicular lobule has 1-3 highly coiled
seminiferous tubules
(3) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside
by male germ cells only
(4) Leydig cells are found in the interstitial spaces
of testicular lobules
[21]
158. Match the disease in column I with the appropriate (1) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
items (pathogen/ prevention/ treatment) in column (2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)
II (3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(ii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)
Column I Column II (4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
(1) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
161. Which of the following statements are correct?
Use only sterilized
(2) Diphtheria (ii) I. Frenulum is the fold by which tongue is
food and water
attached to the floor of mouth or oral cavity.
(3) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine II. Lower surface of the tongue has little
Use oral rehydration projection which bears taste buds.
(4) Syphilis (iv) III. Pharynx is the common passage for food and
therapy
(1) A – (i), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv) air.
(2) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) IV. A muscular sphincter (gastro-oesophageal)
(3) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) regulates the opening of oesophagus into the
(4) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii) stomach
(1) I, II and IV
159. Statement A: Inbreeding exposes harmful (2) II and IV
recessive genes that are eliminated by selection (3) I, II, III, IV
Statement B: Inbreeding increases homozygosity (4) I, III and IV
(1) Statement A is correct and statement B is
incorrect
(2) Statement B is correct and statement A is 162. Find the incorrect matching
incorrect (1) Essential oils – Lemon grass oil
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Terpenoids – Monoterpenes, diterpenes
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Polymeric substances – Rubber, gums,
cellulose
160. Match the following cell structure with its (4) Drugs – Carotenoids, anthocyanins
characteristic feature
Column-1 Column-II
Cement neighbouring 163. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
Tight correct option out of the options given below:
(a) (i) cells together to form
junctions
sheet Assertion: The sensation of different colours are
Transmit information produced by various combinations of five types of
junctions cones found in our eyes.
(b) Adhering (ii)
through chemical to Reason: Cones are responsible for vision in dim
another cells
light
Establish a barrier to (1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
Gap
(c) (iii) prevent leakage of fluid the reason is a correct explanation of the
junctions
across epithelial cells
assertion.
Cytoplasmic channels to (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
Synaptic facilitate reason is not a correct explanation of the
(d) (iv)
junctions communication between assertion.
adjacent cells (3) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[22]
164. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that 167. Match column I with column II and select the
P. Cleave the 5' terminal nucleotides from duplex correct option from the given codes
DNA molecules Column I Column II
A. Saltation (i) Darwin
Q. Make sequence-specific cuts in both strands of
Formation of life
duplex DNA molecules
was preceded by
R. Promote circularisation of the duplex DNA B. (ii) Louis Pasteur
chemical
molecule by removal of the 5' terminal evolution
nucleotides Reproductive
C. (iii) Hugo de Vries
fitness
S. Generate 3' hydroxyl and 5' phosphate ends in
Life comes from Oparin and
the cut DNA strands D. (iv)
pre-existing life Haldane
(1) P, Q (A) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) P, R (B) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) Q, S (C) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) P, Q, R, S (D) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
165. Identify the true and false statements 168. Consider the following statements regarding
lymphocytes
(a) According to the 2001 census report, the
I. T- lymphocytes form cell mediated immune
population growth rate was still around 1.7% system (CMIS)
per year II. The T-lymphocyte cells do not secrete
(b) Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill antibodies, but help the B-lymphocyte cells to
(c) Family planning programme was initiated in produce them
1971 (1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(d) Emergency IUDs should be implanted 72
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
hours before coitus
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(1) (a) and (b) are true; (c) and (d) are false
(2) (a) is true; (b), (c) and (d) are false 169. An___ A ___in the pulmonary volume ___ B___
(3) (a) and (c) are true; (b) and (d) are false the intra pulmonary pressure to less than the
(4) All statements are false atmospheric pressure which forces the air from ___
C___ to move into the lungs, i.e. ___ D___
Choose the correct options for the blanks A, B, C
166. Which gene isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and D to complete the above statement
has been known to control the insect population of (1) A – increase, B – decrease, C – outside, D –
corn borer? expiration
(1) HLA - gene (2) A – decrease, B – increase, C – outside, D –
expiration
(2) Cry I Ab - gene
(3) A – decrease, B – increase, C – inside, D –
(3) Cry I Ac - gene inspiration
(4) Cry II Ab - gene (4) A – increase, B – decrease, C – outside, D –
inspiration
[23]
170. Fill in the blanks by option for the correct 173. ____A____ of hormones by ____ B _____ alters
combination of A to E ____C____ metabolism causing acute weakness
I. Endocrine glands secrete______ A _______ and fatigue leading to a disease called ____D____
II. The columnar epithelium is composed of (1) Under-production, adrenal cortex,
single layer of ______ B _______ and ______ carbohydrate, Addison’s disease
C ______ cells. (2) Over-production, adrenal medulla,
III. _____ D ______ covers dry surfaces of the carbohydrate, Addison’s disease
skin (3) Under-production, adrenal cortex, protein,
IV. _____ E _______ performs cementing to keep Cushing's syndrome
neighboring cells together (4) Under-production, adrenal medulla,
(1) A-Mucus, B-Cuboidal, C-Flattened, carbohydrates, Addison’s disease
D-Compound epithelium, E-Tight junction
(2) A-Hormones, B-Tall, C-Slender, 174. Study the following statements regarding
D-Compound epithelium, E-Adhering inbreeding and select the incorrect ones
junction (i) The inbreeding strategies allow the desirable
(3) A-Oil and sweat, B-Oval, C-Round qualities of two different breeds to be
D-Squamous epithelium, E-Gap junction combined
(4) A-Saliva, B-Rounded, C-Tall, D-Cuboidal (ii) It increases homozygosity
epithelium, E-Mucus (iii) It also helps in the elimination of less desirable
genes
171. Match the following columns (iv) Continued inbreeding increases fertility and
Column-I Column-II productivity
a. Biomacromolecul i. Alimentary canal (1) (i) & (ii)
es of food and associated (2) (i) & (iv)
gland (3) (ii) & (iii)
b. Human digestive ii. Embedded in jaw (4) (iii) & (iv)
system bones
c. Stomach iii Outer wall of 175. Match the following
. visceral organs Column – I Column – II
d. Thecodont iv Converted into
I. Tidal A. 2500-3000 ml of
. simple substances
Volume air
e. Serosa v. J-shaped bag like
II. Inspiratory B. 1000-1100 ml of
structure
reserve air
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-iv
volume
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v III. Expiratory C. 500 ml of air
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v reserve
volume
172. Statement A: Monosaccharides and disaccharides IV. Residual D. 3500-4600 ml of
are crystalline and sweet in taste volume air
Statement B: Polysaccharides are tasteless, V. Vital E. 1100-1200 ml of
amorphous and insoluble in water capacity air
(1) Statement A is correct (1) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A, V-E
(2) Statement B is correct (2) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E, V-D
(3) Both statements are correct (3) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-E, V-B
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) I-E, II-A, III-B, IV-E, V-D
[24]
176. Statement A: Mesoglea is present in between 179. Which of the following statement is not correct
ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia regarding malarial infection?
Statement B: Taenia is a diploblastic animal (1) Plasmodium enters the human body as
(1) Both A & B are correct sporozoites through the bite of freshly
(2) Both A & B are incorrect moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (2) High fever recurring every three to four days
(4) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect (3) Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver
cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in
their rupture
177. Which of the following option is correct? (4) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an
(i) An increase in body fluid volume → Switch infected person, these parasites enter the
off the osmoreceptorss → Suppresses the mosquito’s body and undergo further
ADH release development
(ii) ADH → Constricting effect on blood vessels
→ High BP → More glomerular blood flow 180. Examine the figure (a), (b) and (c). In which one of
→ More GFR the four options all the items, (a), (b) and (c) are
(iii) Angiotensinogen → Angiotensin-I → correct?
Angiotensin II → Adrenal cortex →
Aldosterone
(iv) Angiotensin → ADH → More GFR →
Aldosterone → High BP
(1) i, ii & iii
(2) i, ii & iv
(3) i, iii & iv
(4) iii, iv & ii
[25]
182. I. Catla 185. In this figure, which kind of selection does A, B
II. Hilsa and C represent respectively?
III. Rohu
IV. Sardines
V. Common carp
VI. Mackerel A
VII. Pomfrets
Select the freshwater fishes from the above list
(1) I, III & VI
(2) IV, V & VI
B
(3) I, III & V
(4) I, II & V
[26]
(1) ATP is the carrier protein in the transport (ii) The spatial arrangement of juxta medullary
system nephrons
(2) Energy for Na+ - K+ exchange pump comes (iii) Diffusion of urea from the collecting duct
from ATP (iv) Diffusion of salt from the ascending limb of
(3) ATP is hydrolysed by ATPase to release the loop of Henle
energy (v) Diffusion of salt from the descending limb of
(4) Na+ - K+ exchange pump operates in the cell the loop of Henle
(1) Only iv
188. Study carefully the given flowchart and fill in the (2) Only v
blanks (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). (3) ii & iii
(4) iv & v
A B C D E
(1) Cell- Bilateral Radial Pseudo- Coelom A B C D E
ular symmetry symmetry coelomates ates (1) Z-line Sarcomere I-band H-zone A-band
level
(2) Cell- Radial Bilateral Coelomates Pseudo- (2) M-line A-band I-band Z-line Sarcomere
ular symmetry symmetry coeloma
level tes (3) Z-line A-band I-band H-zone Sarcomere
(3) Cell- Bilateral Radial Coelomates Pseudo-
ular symmetry symmetry coeloma (4) Z-line Sarcomere M-line H-zone A-band
level tes
(4) Cell- Radial Bilateral Pseudo- Coelom
ular symmetry symmetry coelomates ates
192. Read the following statements and choose the
level
correct option
A. The presence or absence of hymen is not a
189. Which of the following statement is incorrect? reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
(1) A person of O blood group has anti A and anti experience
B antibodies in his blood plasma B. The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.
(2) A person of B blood group cannot donate However, it can also be broken by a sudden
fall or jolt, insertion of a vaginal tampon etc.
blood to a person of A blood group
(1) Both statements are correct
(3) Blood group is designated on the basis of the (2) Both statements are incorrect
presence of antibodies in the blood plasma (3) A is correct and B is incorrect
(4) A person of AB blood group is universal (4) A is incorrect and B is correct
recipient 193. Consider the following statements
190. The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is I. In microinjection method, recombinant DNA
maintained by all of the following except is directly injected into the nucleus of an
(i) Active transport of salt from the upper region
of the ascending limb animal cell
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[27]
II. Microinjection method is used in oocytes, (1) Shape of Cylindrical Spindle Cylindrical
eggs and embryo. Muscle Shaped
III. Electroporation is the formation of temporary fibre
pores in the plasma membrane of host cell by (2) Striations Present Absent Present
using lysozyme or calcium chloride (3) Branching Present Absent Present
Which of the statements given above are correct? in muscle
(1) I & II (2) I, II & III fibre
(3) II & III (4) I & III (4) Intercalated Absent Absent Present
194. Which of the following statement is false? 197. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
I. Insulin was originally extracted from pancreas correct option from the codes given below
of slaughtered cattle and pigs Column I Column II
II. Animal insulin is identical to human insulin (A) FSH (i) Transported axonally
III. Non-human insulin caused some patients to to neurohypophysis
develop allergy from hypothalamus
IV. Recombinant insulin is actually obtained from (B) MSH (ii) Acts on melanocytes
Bacillus thuringiensis and regulates
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and IV pigmentation of skin
(3) Only III (4) Only IV (C) Vasopressin (iii) Stimulates the growth
(ADH) and development of
195. Identify the true statements and choose the correct ovarian follicles in
option accordingly female
I. Blood vessel leading to the glomerulus is (D) Pars intermedia (iv) In human, it is almost
called efferent arteriole merged with pars
II. Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries and distalis
glomerulus, all have blood (1) A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iv)
III. Cortical nephrons have highly reduced vasa
(2) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)
recta (3) A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
IV. Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle’s loop in (4) A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
the juxta-medullary nephron
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV
[28]
198. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the 200. The accompanying diagram shows the uterine
correct option out of the options given below: tubes of four women (P, Q, R and S)
Assertion: The amount of CO2 that can diffuse
through the diffusion membrane per unit difference
in partial pressure is much higher when compared
to that of O2.
Reason: The solubility of CO2 is 20 to 25 times
higher than that of O2.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not a correct explanation of the In which of two women, fertilisation is impossible
assertion. at present?
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (1) P and Q
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. (2) Q and R
(3) R and S
199. Spermatogonia give rise to (4) S and P
(1) 100 primary spermatocytes, 400 secondary
spermatocytes, 600 spermatids, 400
spermatozoa
(2) 100 primary spermatocytes, 400 secondary
spermatocytes, 800 spermatids, 800
spermatozoa
(3) 100 primary spermatocytes, 200 secondary
spermatocytes, 400 spermatids, 400
spermatozoa
(4) 100 primary spermatocytes, 200 secondary
spermatocytes, 400 spermatids, 800
spermatozoa
[29]
Rough Work
Rough Work
Rough Work