Evolution MCQ

e from outer space and was brought to Earth by meteorites or comets
Chemical evolution theory : Oparin and Haldane - life originated from non-living matter through a series
of chemical reactions in the primitive Earth's atmosphere and oceans
1. According to the Big Bang theory, what happened after the huge explosion?
A) The universe contracted
B) The temperature increased
C) Gases expanded and formed galaxies
D) The universe remained static
E) None of the above
Answer: C) Gases expanded and formed galaxies.
Explanation: The Big Bang theory states that the universe began as a singularity and then expanded
rapidly, causing the temperature to decrease. As the universe cooled, hydrogen and helium formed,
and these gases eventually condensed under their own gravity to form galaxies.
2. What is the age of the universe according to the content?
A) 4.5 billion years
B) 20 billion years
C) 3 billion years
D) 500 million years
Answer: B) 20 billion years
Explanation: The content states that the origin of the universe is 20 billion years old.
3. How did the oceans form on Earth?
A) Volcanic eruptions
B) The atmosphere condensed
C) The universe expanded
D) Water vapour cooled and rained into depressions
Answer: D) Water vapour cooled and rained into depressions.

Explanation: The content states that the Earth's surface was covered with H2O, CH4, CO2, and NH3,
but there was no atmosphere. The sun's UV rays broke water into H2 and O2, and the O2 combined
with CH4 and NH3 to form H2O and CO2. The ozone layer formed, and water vapour cooled and
rained into depressions, forming the oceans.
4. Which theory states that life originated from non-living matter through a series of chemical reactions?
A) Theory of special creation
B) Cosmozoic theory
C) Panspermia
D) Chemical evolution theory
Answer: D) Chemical evolution theory
Explanation: The content states that Oparin and Haldane proposed the chemical evolution theory,
which suggests that life originated from non-living matter through a series of chemical reactions in the
primitive Earth's atmosphere and oceans.
5. When did non-cellular life originate according to the content?
A) 4 billion years ago
B) 3 billion years ago
C) 2 billion years ago
D) 500 million years ago
Answer: B) 3 billion years ago
Explanation: The content states that non-cellular life originated 3 billion years ago from giant molecules
such as RNA, proteins, and polysaccharides, which reproduced their molecules.
1. Which theory suggests that life came from outer space?
a) Theory of spontaneous generation
b) Theory of biogenesis
c) Cosmozoic theory
d) Chemical evolution
e) None of the above

Answer: c) Cosmozoic theory
Explanation: Cosmozoic theory, also known as panspermia, suggests that life originated from outer
space and was transferred to different planets through spores.
2. Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Oparin and Haldane
c) Miller
d) Early Greek thinkers
Answer: a) Louis Pasteur
Explanation: Louis Pasteur conducted experiments with pre-sterilized swan neck flasks and proved that
life only arises from pre-existing life, dismissing the theory of spontaneous generation.
3. Which theory suggests that life arose from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?
c) Cosmozoic theory
Answer: d) Chemical evolution
Explanation: Chemical evolution, proposed by Oparin and Haldane, suggests that life arose from
pre-existing non-living organic molecules such as RNA and proteins.
4. Who conducted the famous Miller-Urey experiment?
a) Louis Pasteur
c) Miller
Answer: c) Miller
Explanation: In 1953, American scientist Miller conducted the Miller-Urey experiment which simulated
the conditions of early Earth and produced amino acids, sugars, nitrogen bases, pigment, and fats,
supporting the theory of chemical evolution.
5. What were the first macromolecules in the formation of life?
a) DNA
b) Proteins
c) Carbohydrates
d) RNA
Answer: d) RNA
Explanation: The first macromolecules in the formation of life were RNA, according to current scientific
understanding.
1. Which of the following statements is true about the origin of life?
a) Life arose from living molecules through evolutionary forces
b) Life arose from non-living molecules through evolutionary forces
c) Life was created by a divine being
d) Life has always existed
Answer: b) Life arose from non-living molecules through evolutionary forces. Explanation: This is the
widely accepted theory of the origin of life.
2. What were the first macromolecules in the RNA world?
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Lipids
d) RNA
e) DNA
Answer: d) RNA. Explanation: The RNA world hypothesis suggests that RNA was the first
macromolecule to arise and play a role in the origin of life.
3. Which of the following organisms evolved to make their own food?
a) Chemoheterotrophs
b) Photoheterotrophs
c) Chemoautotrophs
d) Photoautotrophs
Answer: c) Chemoautotrophs. Explanation: Chemoautotrophs are organisms that can synthesize

organic molecules from inorganic molecules present in their environment.
4. What led to the formation of the ozone layer?
a) Accumulation of CO2
b) Accumulation of O2
c) Accumulation of N2
d) Accumulation of H2O
Answer: b) Accumulation of O2. Explanation: The accumulation of O2 in the atmosphere led to the
formation of the ozone layer, which protects the Earth from harmful UV rays.
5. Which theory of evolution of life forms is associated with Charles Darwin?
a) Chemogeny
b) Biogeny
c) Cognogeny
d) Darwinian theory
Answer: d) Darwinian theory. Explanation: Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection
explains how species evolve over time through the process of natural selection.
1. Which theory of evolution is based on the concept of natural selection?
a) Lamarckian theory
b) Mutation theory
c) Darwinian theory
d) Both a and b
Answer: c) Darwinian theory
Explanation: Darwinian theory is based on the concept of natural selection, which states that organisms
with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on those traits to their
offspring. This theory is supported by Darwin's observations during his voyage on the HMS Beagle and
his study of the geological and biological history of the Earth.
2. Which postulate of Darwinian theory explains the process of evolution?
a) Variations are small and directional
b) Variations in population which are heritable make resource utilization better
c) Fitness is the end result of ability to adapt and natural selection
d) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts
e) Habitat fragmentation and genetic drift lead to speciation
Answer: d) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts
Explanation: The postulate that explains the process of evolution in Darwinian theory is branching
descent and natural selection. This concept states that over time, species evolve and diverge from a
common ancestor through the process of natural selection, where advantageous traits are selected for
and passed on to future generations.
3. Which theory of evolution explains the inheritance of acquired characters?
a) Darwinian theory
b) Lamarckian theory
c) Mutation theory
d) Both a and b
Answer: b) Lamarckian theory
Explanation: Lamarckian theory is based on the concept of the inheritance of acquired characters,
which states that organisms can pass on traits that they acquire during their lifetime to their offspring.
This theory is supported by the example of giraffes evolving longer necks through the use and disuse of
their organs.
4. Which theory of evolution is based on the concept of genetic mutations?

a) Darwinian theory
c) Mutation theory
d) Both a and b
Answer: c) Mutation theory
Explanation: Mutation theory, proposed by Hugo de Vries, is based on the concept of genetic mutations
as the driving force behind evolution. This theory is supported by the example of the evening primrose
(Oenothera lamarckiana), which evolved into a new species through a genetic mutation.
5. What is a drawback of Darwinian theory?
a) It cannot explain the origin of variations
b) It cannot explain speciation
c) It ignores Mendel's work
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Darwinian theory has several drawbacks, including its inability to explain the origin of
variations, its inability to explain speciation, and its ignorance of Mendel's work on genetics. Despite
these drawbacks, Darwinian theory remains a foundational concept in the field of evolutionary biology.
ical (internal) evidence : homologous and analogous structures
Homologous structures - similar in structure and origin but different in function
Eg : forelimbs of humans, bats, whales, and birds
Analogous structures - similar in function but different in structure and origin
Eg : wings of birds and insects
Biochemical evidence : DNA and protein sequences
Similarities in DNA and protein sequences indicate evolutionary relationships
Eg : humans and chimpanzees have 98% similarity in DNA sequences

1. What is the reason for the evolution of long necks in giraffes?
a) To reach water sources
b) To attract mates
c) To forage leaves on tall trees
d) To protect themselves from predators
e) To regulate body temperature
Answer: c) To forage leaves on tall trees. Explanation: The evolution of long necks in giraffes is
believed to be due to their attempt to forage leaves on tall trees.
2. Who proposed the mutation theory of evolution?
a) Charles Darwin
b) Gregor Mendel
c) Hugo de Vries
d) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
e) Alfred Russel Wallace
Answer: c) Hugo de Vries. Explanation: Hugo de Vries proposed the mutation theory of evolution, which
suggests that new species can be formed due to mutations that are random, directionless, and
heritable.
3. What is saltation in evolution?
a) Gradual change over time
b) Multiple small mutations
c) Single step large mutation
d) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
e) Natural selection
Answer: c) Single step large mutation. Explanation: Saltation is a type of mutation that involves a single
step large mutation, which can lead to the formation of a new species.
4. How is the age of fossils determined?
a) By counting the number of fossils
b) By measuring the size of fossils
c) By analyzing the color of fossils

d) By using the radioactive dating method
e) By studying the sedimentary layers
Answer: d) By using the radioactive dating method. Explanation: The age of fossils is determined by
using the radioactive dating method, which involves measuring the amount of radioactive isotopes in
the fossil and calculating its age based on the rate of decay.
5. What is the Biogenetic Law proposed by Ernst Haeckel?
a) Similarities in DNA and protein sequences indicate evolutionary relationships
b) Similar structures and origin but different functions
c) Similar functions but different structures and origin
d) Features in embryonic stages absent in adults
e) Embryos pass through adult stages of other animals
Answer: e) Embryos pass through adult stages of other animals. Explanation: The Biogenetic Law
proposed by Ernst Haeckel suggests that embryos pass through adult stages of other animals, which is
disapproved by Karl Ernst Von Baer.
1. Which of the following is disapproved by Karl Ernst Von Baer?
a) Embryos pass through adult stages of other animals
b) Embryos don't pass through adult stages of other animals
c) Embryos pass through adult stages of all animals
d) Embryos don't pass through adult stages of some animals
e) Embryos pass through adult stages of only a few animals
Answer: b) Embryos don't pass through adult stages of other animals. Explanation: Karl Ernst Von Baer
disapproved the idea that embryos pass through adult stages of other animals.
2. Which type of evolution is represented by homologous structures?
a) Convergent evolution
b) Divergent evolution
c) Parallel evolution
d) Coevolution

Answer: b) Divergent evolution. Explanation: Homologous structures have a common ancestry and
represent divergent evolution.
3. Which of the following is an example of analogous structures?
a) Forelimbs of mammals
b) Heart of vertebrates
c) Thorn and tendrils of bougainvillea and cucurbita
d) Wings of birds and butterfly
e) Sweet potato and potato
Answer: d) Wings of birds and butterfly. Explanation: Analogous structures have different structures but
perform the same function, such as the wings of birds and butterfly.
4. What do vestigial organs represent?
a) Functional organs in ancestors
b) Remnants of organs functional in ancestors
c) Newly evolved organs
d) Organs with no function
Answer: b) Remnants of organs functional in ancestors. Explanation: Vestigial organs are remnants of
organs that were functional in ancestors but have lost their function over time.
5. Which type of evidence indicates common ancestry based on biochemical similarities?
a) Morphological evidence
b) Anatomical evidence
c) Molecular homology
d) Analogous structures
e) Vestigial organs
Answer: c) Molecular homology. Explanation: Molecular homology indicates common ancestry based
on similarities in proteins and genes.
1. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial organ in animals?

a) Body hair
b) Wisdom teeth
c) Hind limbs of python
d) Nictitating membrane in eye
e) All of the above
Answer: e) All of the above
Explanation: Vestigial organs are remnants of organs that were functional in ancestors but have lost
their original function over time. In animals, examples of vestigial organs include the reptilian jaw
apparatus, hind limbs of python, muscles of external ear, reduced tailbone, nictitating membrane in
eye, appendix of caecum, body hair, and wisdom teeth.
2. Which of the following is an example of anthropogenic action?
a) Natural selection
b) Non-directional nature of evolution
c) Artificial selection
d) Drug-resistant microbes
Answer: c) Artificial selection
Explanation: Anthropogenic action refers to actions taken by humans that affect the environment or
living organisms. Artificial selection is an example of anthropogenic action, where humans selectively
breed plants or animals to create desired traits.
3. Which of the following is an example of non-directional nature of evolution?
b) Drug-resistant microbes
c) Artificial selection
d) Vestigial organs
Answer: e) None of the above
Explanation: The non-directional nature of evolution refers to the fact that evolution is not directed in
determinism, but rather a stochastic process based on nature and mutations. Natural selection,
drug-resistant microbes, artificial selection, and vestigial organs are all examples of evolution, but not
necessarily of non-directional nature.
4. Which of the following is an example of natural selection?
a) Herbicide-resistant varieties
c) Breeding programme for dogs
d) Rudimentary pistil in sunflower
e) Melanised moths in industrialized areas
Answer: e) Melanised moths in industrialized areas
Explanation: Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their
environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. The example of melanised moths in
industrialized areas shows how the moths adapted to their environment by becoming darker in color to
blend in with the darkened tree trunks, which helped them avoid predators.
5. Which of the following is an example of modification in structures of microbes?
a) Herbicide-resistant varieties
c) Breeding programme for cows
d) Rudimentary pistil in sunflower
Answer: b) Drug-resistant microbes
Explanation: Drug-resistant microbes are an example of modification in structures of microbes. This

occurs when microbes develop resistance to drugs or antibiotics due to changes in their genetic
makeup, which allows them to survive and reproduce even in the presence of these drugs.
the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can indicate evolutionary processes at work.
1. What is the effect of modification in the structures of microbes?
a) It makes them more susceptible to pesticides
b) It makes them resistant to antibiotics
c) It makes them more adaptive to their environment
d) It makes them less adaptive to their environment

Answer: c) It makes them more adaptive to their environment. Modification in the structures of microbes
can help them survive and thrive in their environment by adapting to the changing conditions.
2. How do herbicide and pesticide resistant varieties survive?
a) They are immune to all pesticides and herbicides
b) They have a natural resistance to certain pesticides and herbicides
c) They have a genetic modification that makes them resistant
d) They have a symbiotic relationship with the pesticides and herbicides
Answer: c) They have a genetic modification that makes them resistant. Herbicide and pesticide
resistant varieties have been genetically modified to resist the effects of these chemicals, allowing them
to survive and reproduce.
3. What is adaptive radiation?
a) The evolution of different species from a geographical point radiating to other areas
b) The process of adapting to a new environment
c) The process of adapting to a new diet
d) The process of adapting to a new climate
Answer: a) The evolution of different species from a geographical point radiating to other areas.
Adaptive radiation occurs when a species evolves into multiple different species, each adapted to a
different environment or niche.
4. What did Darwin discover about the Darwin Finches?
a) They were all the same species
b) They were all different species
c) They all had the same beak shape
d) They all had the same diet
Answer: b) They were all different species. Darwin discovered that the Darwin Finches were actually
multiple different species, each with a different beak shape and diet, adapted to different environments
on the Galapagos Islands.
5. What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle?

a) The principle that all populations will eventually reach genetic equilibrium
b) The principle that allele frequencies are stable and constant from generation to generation
c) The principle that random mating will change gene frequency
d) The principle that selective mating will change gene frequency
Answer: b) The principle that allele frequencies are stable and constant from generation to generation.
The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that in a large population with random mating, the frequency of
alleles will remain constant from generation to generation, unless disturbed by evolutionary processes
such as natural selection or genetic drift.
1. Which of the following statements is true about g and gene frequency?
a) g changes gene frequency
b) g has no effect on gene frequency
c) g increases gene frequency
d) g decreases gene frequency
e) g is not related to gene frequency
Answer: b) g has no effect on gene frequency. Explanation: The content states that g does not change
gene frequency.
2. What is the sum of allelic frequencies?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0.5
e) 10
Answer: b) 1. Explanation: The content states that allelic frequencies sum up to 1.
3. If the frequency of A is p, what is the frequency of a?
a) p
b) q
c) 1
d) 0
e) cannot be determined
Answer: b) q. Explanation: The content states that the frequency of A is p and the frequency of a is q,
and p + q = 1.
4. What is the equation for the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a) P2 + 2pq + q2 = 0
b) P2 + 2pq + q2 = 2
c) P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
d) P2 - 2pq + q2 = 1
e) P2 - 2pq + q2 = 0
Answer: c) P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. Explanation: The content states the equation for the Hardy-Weinberg
principle.
5. Which of the following is NOT a factor that causes evolutionary change?
a) Gene migration
b) Genetic recombination
c) Mutation
d) Genetic drift
Answer: e) Natural selection. Explanation: The content states that natural selection is a mechanism of
evolution, not a factor that causes evolutionary change.
6. What is genetic drift?
a) The movement of genes from one population to another
b) The process of genetic recombination during gametogenesis
c) The occurrence of pre-existing advantageous mutations
d) The change in gene frequency in small isolated populations by chance
e) The inheritable variation enabling better survival
Answer: d) The change in gene frequency in small isolated populations by chance. Explanation: The
content defines genetic drift as the change in gene frequency in small isolated populations by chance.
7. What is the unit of natural selection?
a) Individual
b) Population
c) Species
d) Genus
e) Family
Answer: a) Individual. Explanation: The content states that the unit of natural selection is an individual.
8. What is stabilizing selection?
a) More individuals acquire a mean value character
b) More individuals acquire a value other than the mean character value
c) More individuals acquire peripheral character values to both ends of the distribution curve
d) More individuals acquire a new phenotype over generations
Answer: a) More individuals acquire a mean value character. Explanation: The content defines
stabilizing selection as a type of natural selection where more individuals acquire a mean value
character.
9. What is disruptive selection?
a) More individuals acquire a mean value character
b) More individuals acquire a value other than the mean character value
c) More individuals acquire peripheral character values to both ends of the distribution curve
d) More individuals acquire a new phenotype over generations
Answer: c) More individuals acquire peripheral character values to both ends of the distribution curve.
Explanation: The content defines disruptive selection as a type of natural selection where more
individuals acquire peripheral character values to both ends of the distribution curve.
10. When did cellular forms appear?
a) 3 billion years ago
b) 2 billion years ago

c) 1 billion years ago
d) 500 million years ago
e) 100 million years ago
Answer: b) 2 billion years ago. Explanation: The content states that cellular forms appeared 2 billion
years ago.
1. What is the significance of having two peaks in a distribution curve?
a) It indicates a normal distribution
b) It indicates a bimodal distribution
c) It indicates a skewed distribution
d) It indicates a uniform distribution
e) It indicates a random distribution
Answer: b) It indicates a bimodal distribution, which means that there are two distinct groups or
populations within the data.
2. When did invertebrates first appear?
c) 500 million years ago
Answer: c) 500 million years ago, during the Ordovician period.
3. Which group of animals evolved from lobefins?
a) Amphibians
b) Reptiles
c) Birds
d) Mammals
e) Fish-like reptiles
Answer: a) Amphibians, such as frogs and salamanders, evolved from lobefins.

4. What is the reason for the restricted distribution of pouched mammals in Australia?
a) Lack of competition
b) Predation by other animals
c) Unsuitable climate
d) Human interference
e) Disease outbreaks
Answer: a) Lack of competition is the reason for the restricted distribution of pouched mammals in
Australia, as they were not overridden by North American fauna due to the continent's isolation.
5. Which group of organisms were the first to invade land?
a) Invertebrates
b) Fish
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
e) Plants
Answer: e) Plants were the first organisms to invade land, during the Paleozoic era.
1. Which of the following is true about the evolution of plants?
a) All plants evolved during the same period
b) Chlorophyte ancestors are the ancestors of tracheophytes
c) Psilophytons are the ancestors of monocotyledons
d) Pteridophytes are still present today
e) Bryophytes are the ancestors of lycopods
Answer: b) Chlorophyte ancestors are the ancestors of tracheophytes. Explanation: Chlorophyte

ancestors gave rise to bryophytes and tracheophytes, while tracheophyte ancestors are lycopods.
2. Which of the following is true about the evolution of vertebrates?
a) Thecodonts are the ancestors of turtles, lizards, and snakes
b) Synapsids are the ancestors of crocodiles, birds, and extinct dinosaurs

c) Pelycosaurs are still present today
d) Sauropsida gave rise to mammals
e) Thecodonts are extinct
Answer: e) Thecodonts are extinct. Explanation: Thecodonts were the ancestors of crocodiles, birds,
and extinct dinosaurs, but they are no longer present today.
3. Which of the following is true about the evolution of the modern horse?
a) EOHIPPUS was the first on-toe horse
b) MERYCHIPPUS had well-developed teeth
c) MESOHIPPUS was the size of a fox
d) PLIOHIPPUS was the size of a sheep
e) EQUUS had two fingers and two toes
Answer: d) PLIOHIPPUS was the size of a pony. Explanation: PLIOHIPPUS was the first on-toe horse,
but it was the size of a modern pony, not a sheep.
4. Which of the following is true about Triceratops?
a) It had a bony frill around its neck
b) It had two horns
c) It was a mammal
d) It is still present today
e) It was a herbivore
Answer: a) It had a bony frill around its neck. Explanation: Triceratops had three horns, with one on its
nose and two on its forehead, and a bony frill around its neck.
1. Which of the following dinosaurs had triangular bony plates along its back?
a) Triceratops
b) Stegosaurus
c) Tyrannosaurus rex
d) Brachiosaurus
e) Pteranodon
Answer: b) Stegosaurus
Explanation: Stegosaurus had triangular bony plates along its back which were used for defense and
regulating body temperature.
2. Which of the following animals is considered the "missing link" between reptiles and birds?
a) Triceratops
b) Stegosaurus
d) Brachiosaurus
e) Archaeopteryx
Answer: e) Archaeopteryx
Explanation: Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil between non-avian dinosaurs and birds, and is
considered the "missing link" between reptiles and birds.
3. Which of the following hominids had a brain capacity of 1400 cc?
a) Homo habilis
b) Homo erectus
c) Neanderthal man
d) Australopithecines
e) Homo sapiens
Answer: c) Neanderthal man
Explanation: Neanderthal man had a brain capacity of 1400 cc, which is larger than that of modern
humans.
4. Which of the following animals had a long neck and one finger and one toe with two splints?
a) Triceratops
b) Stegosaurus
d) Brachiosaurus
e) Equus modern horse
Answer: e) Equus modern horse

Explanation: The Equus modern horse, which lived during the Pleistocene epoch, had a long neck and
one finger and one toe with two splints.
5. Which of the following hominids is considered the first human-like being?
a) Homo habilis
b) Homo erectus
c) Neanderthal man
e) Homo sapiens
Answer: a) Homo habilis
Explanation: Homo habilis is considered the first human-like being, or hominid, and had a brain
capacity of 650 to 800 cc.
1. Which species had a brain size of 1400 cc?
a) Homo sapiens
b) Prehistoric cave art
c) Missing links
d) Archaeopteryx lithographica
e) Reptilian charac
Answer: a) Homo sapiens.
Explanation: The content mentions that Homo sapiens had a brain size of 1400 cc.
2. When did agriculture start and human settlements begin?
a) 100,000 years ago
b) 75,000 years ago
c) 40,000 years ago
d) 18,000 years ago
e) 10,000 years ago
Answer: e) 10,000 years ago.

Explanation: The content states that agriculture started 10,000 years ago and human settlements
began around the same time.
3. What is a connecting link?
a) A living or fossil form that connects two different species
b) A type of bird with reptilian characteristics
c) A lizard-like body with feathers
d) A protozoan with chlorophyll
e) A type of annelid with arthropod characteristics
Answer: a) A living or fossil form that connects two different species.
Explanation: The content defines a connecting link as a living or fossil form that connects two different
species.
4. Which species had a shell, mantle, and muscular foot?
a) Neopilina
b) Peripatus
c) Proterospongia
d) Euglena
Answer: a) Neopilina.
Explanation: The content mentions that Neopilina had a shell, mantle, and muscular foot, which are
characteristics of mollusks.
5. Which species had a worm-like body and segmental nephridia?
a) Peripatus
b) Neopilina
c) Proterospongia
d) Euglena
Answer: a) Peripatus.
Explanation: The content states that Peripatus had a worm-like body and segmental nephridia, which
are characteristics of annelids.
1. Which of the following characteristics are unique to Ropoda?
a) Worm-like body and soft cuticle
b) Tubular heart with ostia and trachea
c) Segmental nephridia and unjointed legs
d) Non-chordates and chordates
e) Eye structure and haemocoel
Answer: b) Tubular heart with ostia and trachea.
Explanation: Ropoda is a subphylum of arthropods that possess a tubular heart with ostia and trachea
for respiration.
2. Which of the following characteristics are unique to Annelids?
Answer: a) Worm-like body and soft cuticle.
Explanation: Annelids are a phylum of segmented worms that have a worm-like body and a soft cuticle.
3. Which of the following characteristics are unique to Balanoglossus?
Answer: d) Non-chordates and chordates.
Explanation: Balanoglossus is a genus of hemichordates that includes both non-chordates and

chordates.
4. Which of the following characteristics are unique to Latimeria?
e) Fish and amphibian
Answer: e) Fish and amphibian.
Explanation: Latimeria is a genus of coelacanth fish that share some characteristics with amphibians.
5. Which of the following characteristics are unique to Chimaera?
e) Cartilaginous and bony fishes
Answer: e) Cartilaginous and bony fishes.
Explanation: Chimaera is a genus of fish that belongs to both cartilaginous and bony fishes.
6. Which of the following characteristics are unique to Ornithorhynchus and Echidna?
e) Egg-laying mammals, reptiles and mammals, mammalian glands and hair, cloaca present.
Answer: e) Egg-laying mammals, reptiles and mammals, mammalian glands and hair, cloaca present.
Explanation: Ornithorhynchus and Echidna are egg-laying mammals that share some characteristics
with reptiles and mammals, such as the presence of mammalian glands and hair, and a cloaca.
7. Which of the following periods is known as the "Age of Reptiles"?
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Quaternary
e) Tertiary
Answer: b) Mesozoic.
Explanation: The Mesozoic era is known as the "Age of Reptiles" because it was dominated by the
evolution and diversification of reptiles.
8. Which of the following periods is known as the "Age of Mammals"?
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Quaternary
e) Tertiary
Answer: c) Cenozoic.
Explanation: The Cenozoic era is known as the "Age of Mammals" because it was dominated by the
evolution and diversification of mammals.
9. Which of the following periods is known as the "Age of Invertebrates"?
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Quaternary
e) Tertiary
Answer: a) Paleozoic.
Explanation: The Paleozoic era is known as the "Age of Invertebrates" because it was dominated by
the evolution and diversification of invertebrates.
10. Which of the following periods is known as the "Age of Fishes"?
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Quaternary
e) Tertiary
Answer: d) Paleozoic.
Explanation: The Paleozoic era is known as the "Age of Fishes" because it was dominated by the
evolution and diversification of fishes.
1. Which of the following best describes the E Age?
A) A geological period characterized by the emergence of mammals
B) A period of time when the Earth's climate was extremely cold
C) A time when the Earth's continents were still forming
D) A period of time when the Earth's atmosphere was rich in oxygen
Answer: E) None of the above
Explanation: The E Age is not a recognized geological period.
2. When did humans first appear on Earth?
A) During the Jurassic period
B) During the Cretaceous period
C) During the Paleogene period
D) During the Neogene period
E) During the Holocene epoch
Answer: E) During the Holocene epoch
Explanation: The Holocene epoch began approximately 11,700 years ago and is characterized by the
emergence of human civilization.
3. What is the Holocene?
A) A geological period characterized by the emergence of mammals
B) A period of time when the Earth's climate was extremely cold
C) A time when the Earth's continents were still forming

D) A period of time when the Earth's atmosphere was rich in oxygen
E) The current geological epoch characterized by the emergence of human civilization
Answer: E) The current geological epoch characterized by the emergence of human civilization
emergence of human civilization.
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Holocene epoch?
A) The emergence of human civilization
B) The extinction of many large mammals
C) The development of agriculture
D) The rise of urbanization
E) The formation of the Earth's continents
Answer: E) The formation of the Earth's continents
Explanation: The formation of the Earth's continents occurred much earlier in geological history and is
not a characteristic of the Holocene epoch.
5. What impact has human activity had on the Holocene epoch?
A) It has caused the extinction of many large mammals
B) It has led to the development of agriculture and urbanization
C) It has caused significant climate change
D) It has had no impact on the Holocene epoch
Answer: B) It has led to the development of agriculture and urbanization
Explanation: Human activity, particularly the development of agriculture and urbanization, has had a
significant impact on the Holocene epoch.
e from outer space and was brought to Earth by comets or meteorites.
Chemical evolution theory : Life originated from non-living matter through a series of chemical
reactions.
1. According to the Big Bang theory, what happened after the huge explosion?
A. The universe contracted
B. The temperature increased
C. The universe remained the same size
D. Hydrogen and Helium formed
E. The universe became a black hole
Answer: D. Hydrogen and Helium formed. The Big Bang theory states that after the huge explosion, the
universe expanded and cooled down, allowing for the formation of hydrogen and helium, which
eventually led to the formation of galaxies.
2. What is the age of the universe according to the content?
A. 4.5 billion years
B. 20 billion years
C. 3 billion years
D. 500 million years
E. 4000 years
Answer: B. 20 billion years. The content states that the origin of the universe is 20 billion years old.
3. How did the oceans form on Earth?
A. Volcanic eruptions
B. The Big Bang
C. The cooling of the Earth's atmosphere
D. The formation of the ozone layer
E. None of the above
Answer: C. The cooling of the Earth's atmosphere. The content states that the Earth's surface was
covered with H2O, CH4, CO2, and NH3, and the sun's UV rays broke down the water into H2 and O2.
The O2 combined with CH4 and NH3 to form H2O and CO2, and the water vapor eventually cooled
and rained, filling depressions and forming oceans.
4. What is the theory of special creation?
A. Life originated from non-living matter through a series of chemical reactions
B. Life came from outer space and was brought to Earth by comets or meteorites
C. Living organisms today were created as such and diversity was always the same
D. Life originated from giant molecules such as RNA, proteins, and polysaccharides
E. None of the above
Answer: C. Living organisms today were created as such and diversity was always the same. The
content states that the theory of special creation is a religious theory that believes living organisms
today were created as such and diversity was always the same, and that the Earth is only 4000 years
old.
1. Which theory suggests that life came from outer space?
c) Cosmozoic theory
Answer: c) Cosmozoic theory
Explanation: Cosmozoic theory or panspermia suggests that life came from outer space and spores
were transferred to different planets.
2. Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
a) Oparin and Haldane
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Miller
Answer: b) Louis Pasteur
Explanation: Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of spontaneous generation by conducting experiments
with pre-sterilized swan neck flasks.
3. Which theory suggests that life arose from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?
c) Cosmozoic theory
Answer: d) Chemical evolution
Explanation: Chemical evolution, proposed by Oparin and Haldane, suggests that life arose from
pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
4. Who conducted the famous Miller-Urey experiment?
a) Louis Pasteur
c) Miller
Answer: c) Miller
Explanation: Miller conducted the famous Miller-Urey experiment in 1953, which showed that amino
acids, sugars, nitrogen bases, pigment, and fats could be formed from non-living organic molecules.
5. What was the first macromolecule in the formation of life?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Proteins
d) Lipids
Answer: b) RNA
Explanation: The first macromolecule in the formation of life was RNA, according to current scientific
understanding.
1. Which of the following is true about the origin of life?
a) Life arose from living molecules through evolutionary forces
b) Life arose from non-living molecules through evolutionary forces - accepted by the majority
c) Life arose from living molecules through divine intervention

d) Life arose from non-living molecules through divine intervention
Answer: b) Life arose from non-living molecules through evolutionary forces - accepted by the majority.
Explanation: The majority of scientists accept that life arose from non-living molecules through
evolutionary forces.
2. Which of the following events occurred in the formation of life?
a) First macromolecules were DNA
b) First macromolecules were proteins
c) First macromolecules were RNA
d) First macromolecules were lipids
Answer: c) First macromolecules were RNA.
Explanation: According to the RNA World hypothesis proposed by Walter Gilbert, the first
macromolecules were RNA.
3. Which of the following organisms evolved to make their own food?
a) Chemoheterotrophs
b) Photoheterotrophs
c) Chemoautotrophs
d) Photoautotrophs
Answer: c) Chemoautotrophs.
Explanation: Chemoautotrophs evolved to make their own food by synthesizing organic molecules from
inorganic molecules present in their environment.
4. What led to the formation of the ozone layer?
a) Accumulation of CO2
b) Accumulation of O2
c) Accumulation of N2
d) Accumulation of H2O
Answer: b) Accumulation of O2.
Explanation: The accumulation of O2 in the atmosphere led to the formation of the ozone layer, which
protects the Earth from harmful UV rays.
5. Which of the following theories explains the evolution of life forms?
a) Newtonian theory
b) Einstein's theory of relativity
c) Darwinian theory
d) Freudian theory
Answer: c) Darwinian theory.
Explanation: Darwin's theory of evolution explains the diversity of life forms on Earth through the
process of natural selection.
1. Which theory of evolution is based on the concept of natural selection?
a) Lamarckian theory
b) Mutation theory
c) Darwinian theory
d) Both a and b
Answer: c) Darwinian theory
Explanation: Darwinian theory is based on the concept of natural selection, which states that organisms
with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on those traits to their
offspring. This theory is supported by Darwin's observations during his voyage on the HMS Beagle and
his study of the geological and biological history of the Earth.
2. What is the role of variations in the process of evolution?
a) Variations are large and random
b) Variations are small and directional
c) Variations are not important in the process of evolution

d) Variations are only caused by mutations
Answer: b) Variations are small and directional
Explanation: According to Darwinian theory, variations in a population are small and directional,
meaning that they occur gradually and in a specific direction. These variations are heritable and can
lead to better resource utilization, allowing some individuals to outbreed others and pass on their
advantageous traits to their offspring.
3. What is the end result of natural selection?
a) Genetic drift
b) Habitat fragmentation
c) Reproductive fitness
d) Mutation
Answer: c) Reproductive fitness
Explanation: The end result of natural selection is reproductive fitness, which refers to an organism's
ability to survive and reproduce in its environment. Organisms with advantageous traits are more likely
to survive and reproduce, passing on those traits to their offspring and increasing their reproductive
fitness.
4. What are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory?
a) Use and disuse of organs and inheritance of acquired characters
b) Branching descent and natural selection
c) Variations and mutations
d) Genetic drift and habitat fragmentation
Answer: b) Branching descent and natural selection
Explanation: The two key concepts of Darwinian theory are branching descent and natural selection.
Branching descent refers to the idea that all living organisms are related and share a common
ancestor, while natural selection refers to the process by which advantageous traits are selected for
and passed on to future generations.
5. Which theory of evolution explains the inheritance of acquired characters?
a) Darwinian theory
c) Mutation theory
d) Both a and b
Answer: b) Lamarckian theory
Explanation: Lamarckian theory is based on the idea that organisms can pass on traits that they
acquire during their lifetime to their offspring. This theory is based on the concept of use and disuse of
organs, which states that organs that are used frequently become stronger, while those that are not
used become weaker. However, this theory has been largely discredited by modern science.
ical (internal) evidence :
Homologous structures - similar structures in different organisms with different functions - due to
common ancestry
Eg : forelimbs of humans, bats, whales, and birds
Analogous structures - similar structures in different organisms with similar functions - due to
convergent evolution
Eg : wings of birds and insects
Vestigial structures - structures that have lost their original function in the course of evolution
Eg : appendix in humans, hind limbs in whales and snakes
Question 1: What is the reason for the long neck of giraffes?
A) To attract mates
B) To reach tall trees for foraging
C) To defend against predators
D) To regulate body temperature
E) To store water
Answer: B) To reach tall trees for foraging. Explanation: The long neck of giraffes evolved as a result of
their attempt to forage leaves on tall trees.
Question 2: Who proposed the mutation theory of evolution?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Hugo de Vries
D) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
E) Alfred Russel Wallace
Answer: C) Hugo de Vries. Explanation: Hugo de Vries proposed the mutation theory of evolution,
which states that new species can be formed due to mutations that are random, directionless, and
heritable.
Question 3: What is saltation?
A) The process of natural selection
B) The process of genetic drift
C) The process of gene flow
D) The process of single-step large mutation
E) The process of gradual change over time
Answer: D) The process of single-step large mutation. Explanation: Saltation is a type of mutation that
involves a single-step large mutation, which can cause speciation.
Question 4: What is the method used to determine the age of fossils?
A) Carbon dating
B) Magnetic dating
C) Radioactive dating
D) Relative dating
E) Fossil dating
Answer: C) Radioactive dating. Explanation: The age of fossils is determined by using the radioactive
dating method, which measures the decay of radioactive isotopes in rocks.
Question 5: What is the Proterozoic era known for?
A) Abundant fossils of invertebrates, fishes, amphibians
B) Abundant mammalian fossils
C) Abundant dinosaur fossils
D) Less fossils
E) Abundant bird fossils

Answer: D) Less fossils. Explanation: The Proterozoic era is known for having less fossils compared to
other eras.
1. Which of the following is disapproved by Karl Ernst Von Baer?
a) Embryos pass through adult stages of other animals
b) Embryos don't pass through adult stages of other animals
c) Embryos pass through adult stages of all animals
d) Embryos don't pass through adult stages of some animals
e) Embryos pass through adult stages of only a few animals
Answer: b) Embryos don't pass through adult stages of other animals. Explanation: Karl Ernst Von Baer
disapproved the idea that embryos pass through adult stages of other animals.
2. Which type of evolution is represented by homologous structures?
a) Convergent evolution
b) Divergent evolution
c) Parallel evolution
d) Coevolution
Answer: b) Divergent evolution. Explanation: Homologous structures have a common ancestry and
represent divergent evolution.
3. Which of the following is an example of analogous structures?
a) Forelimbs of mammals
b) Heart of vertebrates
c) Thorn and tendrils of bougainvillaea and cucurbita
d) Wings of birds and butterfly
e) Sweet potato and potato
Answer: d) Wings of birds and butterfly. Explanation: Analogous structures have different structures but
perform the same function, such as the wings of birds and butterfly.
4. What do vestigial organs represent?
a) Functional organs in ancestors

b) Remnants of organs functional in ancestors
c) Newly evolved organs
d) Organs with no function
Answer: b) Remnants of organs functional in ancestors. Explanation: Vestigial organs are remnants of
organs that were functional in ancestors but have lost their function over time.
5. Which type of evidence indicates common ancestry based on biochemical similarities?
a) Morphological evidence
b) Anatomical evidence
c) Molecular homology
d) Analogous structures
e) Vestigial organs
Answer: c) Molecular homology. Explanation: Molecular homology indicates common ancestry based
on similarities in proteins and genes.
1. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial organ in animals?
a) Body hair
b) Wisdom teeth
c) Hind limbs of python
d) Nictitating membrane in eye
e) All of the above
Answer: e) All of the above
Explanation: Vestigial organs are remnants of organs that were functional in ancestors but have lost
their original function over time. In animals, examples of vestigial organs include reptilian jaw
apparatus, hind limbs of python, muscles of external ear, reduced tailbone, nictitating membrane in
eye, appendix of caecum, body hair and wisdom teeth.
2. Which of the following is an example of anthropogenic action?
b) Artificial selection
c) Non-directional nature of evolution
d) Drug resistant microbes
Answer: b) Artificial selection
Explanation: Anthropogenic action refers to actions taken by humans that affect the environment.
Artificial selection is an example of anthropogenic action, where humans selectively breed animals or
plants to create desired traits. Examples of artificially selected breeds include dogs, cows, sheep,
broccoli, kale, and cauliflower.
3. Which of the following is an example of non-directional nature of evolution?
c) Drug resistant microbes
d) Vestigial organs
Explanation: Non-directional nature of evolution refers to the idea that evolution is not directed in
determinism, but rather a stochastic process based on nature and mutations. Examples of directional
evolution include natural selection and artificial selection.
4. Which of the following is an example of natural selection?
a) Herbicide and pesticide resistant varieties
b) Drug resistant microbes
c) More black winged/melanised moths after industrialization
d) Rudimentary pistil in ray florets of sunflower
Answer: c) More black winged/melanised moths after industrialization
Explanation: Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their
environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. An example of natural selection is the change in
the color of moths in England after industrialization. Before industrialization, more white winged moths
were present as white lichens covered trees. However, after industrialization, more black
winged/melanised moths were present as tree trunks darkened, which helped in camouflage
adaptation.
5. Which of the following is an example of modification in structures of drug resistant microbes?
a) Expression of pre-existing genes
c) Non-directional nature of evolution
d) Vestigial organs
Answer: a) Expression of pre-existing genes
Explanation: Drug resistant microbes are microbes that have developed resistance to antibiotics or
other drugs. This resistance is often due to modifications in the structures of the microbes, such as the
expression of pre-existing genes that confer resistance.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium indicates that evolution is occurring.
1. Which of the following is an example of modification in microbial structures?
a) Use of pesticides
b) Expression of pre-existing genes
c) Herbicide resistant varieties
d) Antibiotic resistant microbes
Answer: b) Expression of pre-existing genes. Explanation: Microbes can modify their structures to
adapt to changing environments. This can include changes in gene expression to produce different
proteins or enzymes.
2. What is adaptive radiation?
a) The evolution of different species from a geographical point radiating to other areas
b) The use of pesticides to control pests
c) The development of herbicide resistant varieties
d) The survival of antibiotic resistant microbes
Answer: a) The evolution of different species from a geographical point radiating to other areas.
Explanation: Adaptive radiation is the process by which different species evolve from a common
ancestor in response to different environmental pressures.
3. Which of the following is an example of adaptive radiation based on locomotion?
a) Use of pesticides
b) Expression of pre-existing genes
c) Herbicide resistant varieties
d) Antibiotic resistant microbes
e) Cheetah, mole, kangaroo
Answer: e) Cheetah, mole, kangaroo. Explanation: Adaptive radiation can occur based on different
factors, including locomotion. In this case, different species have evolved different ways of moving
through their environment.
4. What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a) The use of pesticides to control pests
b) The development of herbicide resistant varieties
c) The survival of antibiotic resistant microbes
d) Allele frequencies are stable and constant from generation to generation
Answer: d) Allele frequencies are stable and constant from generation to generation. Explanation: The
Hardy-Weinberg principle is a mathematical model that describes how allele frequencies in a
population will remain constant over time if certain conditions are met.
5. What can disturb genetic equilibrium according to the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a) Selective mating
b) Random mating
c) Gene pool
d) Allelic frequencies
Answer: a) Selective mating. Explanation: The Hardy-Weinberg principle assumes random mating, so
any deviation from this can disturb genetic equilibrium. Selective mating, such as choosing mates
based on certain traits, can change allele frequencies in a population.
1. Which of the following statements is true about g and gene frequency?

a) g changes gene frequency
b) g has no effect on gene frequency
c) g increases gene frequency
d) g decreases gene frequency
e) g is not related to gene frequency
Answer: b) g has no effect on gene frequency. Explanation: The content states that g does not change
gene frequency.
2. What is the sum of allelic frequencies?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4
Answer: b) 1. Explanation: The content states that allelic frequencies sum up to 1.
3. What is the equation for allelic frequency, where frequency of A is p and frequency of a is q?
a) P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
b) p + q = 1
c) g + p = 1
d) q - p = 1
e) P2 - 2pq + q2 = 1
Answer: b) p + q = 1. Explanation: The content states that the equation for allelic frequency is p + q = 1.
4. Which of the following factors can result in speciation?
a) Gene migration
b) Genetic recombination
c) Mutation
d) Genetic drift
Answer: c) Mutation. Explanation: The content states that pre-existing advantageous mutations can
result in new phenotypes, which over generations can result in speciation.
5. What is genetic drift?
a) Change in gene frequency due to natural selection
b) Change in gene frequency due to gene migration
c) Change in gene frequency due to genetic recombination
d) Change in gene frequency in small isolated populations by chance
e) Change in gene frequency due to disruptive selection
Answer: d) Change in gene frequency in small isolated populations by chance. Explanation: The
content states that genetic drift is a change in gene frequency in small isolated populations by chance.
6. What is the unit of natural selection?
a) Individual
b) Population
c) Species
d) Genus
e) Family
Answer: a) Individual. Explanation: The content states that the unit of natural selection is an individual.
7. Which type of selection results in a peak shift?
a) Stabilising selection
b) Directional selection
c) Disruptive selection
d) Gene flow
e) Genetic drift
Answer: b) Directional selection. Explanation: The content states that directional selection results in a
peak shift.
8. When did cellular forms emerge in evolution?

c) 1 billion years ago
Answer: b) 2 billion years ago. Explanation: The content states that cellular forms emerged 2 billion
years ago in evolution.
1. What is the significance of having two peaks in a distribution curve?
a) It indicates a normal distribution
b) It indicates a bimodal distribution
c) It indicates a skewed distribution
d) It indicates an abnormal distribution
Answer: b) It indicates a bimodal distribution. A bimodal distribution means that there are two distinct
groups or populations within the data.
2. When did invertebrates first appear?
c) 500 million years ago
Answer: c) 500 million years ago. Invertebrates first appeared during the Cambrian period, which
began around 541 million years ago.
3. Which group of animals evolved into reptiles?
a) Jawless fishes
b) Lobe-finned fishes
c) Amphibians
d) Invertebrates

Answer: b) Lobe-finned fishes. Lobe-finned fishes evolved into amphibians, which then evolved into
reptiles.
4. What caused the extinction of the dinosaurs?
a) A meteor impact
b) Volcanic activity
c) Climate change
d) Overhunting by humans
Answer: a) A meteor impact. The Chicxulub impact, which occurred around 65 million years ago, is
believed to have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs.
5. Which group of animals were the first to invade land?
a) Invertebrates
b) Fish
c) Reptiles
d) Mammals
e) Plants
Answer: e) Plants. Plants were the first organisms to invade land, around 500 million years ago during
the Ordovician period.
1. Which of the following is true about the evolution of plants?
a) All plants evolved during the Paleozoic era
b) Chlorophyte ancestors are the ancestors of tracheophytes
c) Psilophytons are the common ancestors of monocotyledons and dicotyledons
d) Pteridophytes are the first plants to invade land
Answer: b) Chlorophyte ancestors are the ancestors of tracheophytes. Explanation: Chlorophyte

ancestors are the ancestors of bryophytes, which are the earliest plants to invade land. Tracheophytes
evolved later and have a vascular system that allows them to transport water and nutrients throughout
the plant.
2. Which of the following is true about the evolution of vertebrates?

a) Thecodonts are the common ancestors of turtles, lizards, snakes, and tuatara
b) Synapsids evolved from early reptiles
c) Pelycosaurs are the ancestors of crocodiles, birds, and extinct dinosaurs
d) Sauropsida evolved from extinct therapsids
Answer: a) Thecodonts are the common ancestors of turtles, lizards, snakes, and tuatara. Explanation:
Sauropsida evolved from thecodonts, which were a group of reptiles that lived during the Triassic
period. Synapsids evolved from early reptiles and eventually gave rise to mammals.
3. Which of the following is true about the evolution of the modern horse?
a) Eohippus was the first horse to evolve
b) Merychippus was the first horse to have a single toe
c) Pliohippus was the first horse to be the size of a modern pony
d) Equus has three toes and two splints
Answer: c) Pliohippus was the first horse to be the size of a modern pony. Explanation: Eohippus was
the first horse to evolve, but it was the size of a fox and had multiple toes. Merychippus had three toes
and was larger than Eohippus, but it was not the first horse to have a single toe. Equus has one toe and
two splints, not three toes and two splints.
1. Which of the following dinosaurs had triangular bony plates along its back?
a) Triceratops
b) Stegosaurus
d) Brachiosaurus
e) Pteranodon
Answer: b) Stegosaurus
Explanation: Stegosaurus had triangular bony plates along its back which were used for defense and
regulating body temperature.
2. Which of the following animals is considered the "missing link" between reptiles and birds?
a) Triceratops
b) Stegosaurus
d) Brachiosaurus
e) Archaeopteryx
Answer: e) Archaeopteryx
Explanation: Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil between non-avian dinosaurs and birds, and is
considered the "missing link" between reptiles and birds.
3. Which of the following hominids had a brain capacity of 1400 cc?
a) Homo habilis
b) Homo erectus
c) Neanderthal man
e) Homo sapiens
Answer: c) Neanderthal man
Explanation: Neanderthal man had a brain capacity of 1400 cc, which is larger than that of modern
humans.
4. Which of the following animals had a long neck and one finger and one toe with two splints?
a) Triceratops
b) Stegosaurus
d) Brachiosaurus
e) Equus modern horse
Answer: e) Equus modern horse
Explanation: The Equus modern horse, which lived during the Pleistocene epoch, had a long neck and
one finger and one toe with two splints.
5. Which of the following hominids was the first to be considered human-like?
a) Australopithecines
b) Homo habilis
c) Homo erectus
d) Neanderthal man
e) Homo sapiens
Answer: b) Homo habilis
Explanation: Homo habilis was the first hominid to be considered human-like, and is known as the
"handy man" due to its ability to make stone tools.
1. Which species had a brain size of 1400 cc?
a) Homo sapiens
b) Prehistoric cave art
c) Missing links
d) Archaeopteryx lithographica
e) Reptilian charac
Answer: a) Homo sapiens. Explanation: The content mentions that Homo sapiens had a brain size of
1400 cc.
2. When did agriculture begin and human settlements start?
a) 100,000 years ago
b) 75,000 years ago
c) 40,000 years ago
d) 18,000 years ago
e) 10,000 years ago
Answer: e) 10,000 years ago. Explanation: The content states that agriculture began 10,000 years ago
and human settlements started around the same time.
3. What is a connecting link?
a) A living or fossil form
b) A type of bird
c) A reptilian charac
d) A type of protozoa
e) An annelid charac
Answer: a) A living or fossil form. Explanation: The content defines a connecting link as a living or fossil
form that connects two different species or groups.
4. Which species had feathers, beak, wings, and hind limbs on avian plan?
a) Euglena
b) Proterospongia
c) Neopilina
d) Peripatus
e) Bird-like charac
Answer: e) Bird-like charac. Explanation: The content describes bird-like charac as having feathers,
beak, wings, and hind limbs on avian plan.
5. Which species had a worm-like body, eye structure, unjointed legs, and segmental nephridia?
a) Reptilian charac
b) Annelid charac
c) Peripatus
d) Euglena
e) Proterospongia
Answer: c) Peripatus. Explanation: The content mentions that Peripatus has a worm-like body, eye
structure, unjointed legs, and segmental nephridia.
1. Which of the following characteristics is unique to Ropoda?
a) Worm-like body
b) Tubular heart with ostia
c) Segmental nephridia
d) Soft cuticle
e) Eye structure
Answer: b) Tubular heart with ostia.

Explanation: Ropoda is a subphylum of arthropods that have a tubular heart with ostia, which allows for
the circulation of hemolymph (blood) throughout the body.
2. Which of the following animals is a member of the Hemichordata phylum?
a) Chimaera
b) Latimeria
c) Ornithorhynchus
d) Echidna
e) Balanoglossus
Answer: e) Balanoglossus.
Explanation: Balanoglossus is a marine animal that belongs to the Hemichordata phylum, which is a
group of worm-like organisms that are closely related to chordates.
3. Which of the following animals is a fish that is closely related to amphibians?
a) Latimeria
b) Chimaera
c) Ornithorhynchus
d) Echidna
e) Balanoglossus
Answer: a) Latimeria.
Explanation: Latimeria is a type of fish that is often referred to as a "living fossil" because it has many
characteristics that are similar to those of early amphibians.
4. Which of the following animals lays eggs but also has mammalian glands and hair?
a) Latimeria
b) Chimaera
c) Ornithorhynchus
d) Echidna
e) Balanoglossus
Answer: c) Ornithorhynchus.
Explanation: Ornithorhynchus, also known as the platypus, is a unique mammal that lays eggs but also
has many characteristics that are typically associated with mammals, such as mammary glands and
hair.
5. Which of the following periods is known as the "Age of Reptiles"?
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Tertiary
e) Quaternary
Answer: b) Mesozoic.
Explanation: The Mesozoic era, which lasted from approximately 252 to 66 million years ago, is often
referred to as the "Age of Reptiles" because it was a time when dinosaurs and other reptiles dominated
the Earth.
6. Which of the following epochs is known as the "Ice Age"?
a) Paleocene
b) Eocene
c) Oligocene
d) Miocene
e) Pleistocene
Answer: e) Pleistocene.
Explanation: The Pleistocene epoch, which lasted from approximately 2.6 million to 11,700 years ago,
is known as the "Ice Age" because it was a time when glaciers covered much of the Earth's surface.
1. Which of the following best describes the E Age?
a) A geological period characterized by the emergence of multicellular life forms
b) A period of time when the Earth's climate was extremely cold and glaciers covered much of the
planet
c) A time when the Earth's atmosphere was primarily composed of nitrogen and carbon dioxide
d) A period of time when the Earth's continents were still forming and separating

Explanation: The E Age is not a recognized geological period or era.
2. When did humans first appear on Earth?
a) During the Jurassic period, approximately 200 million years ago
b) During the Cretaceous period, approximately 145 million years ago
c) During the Paleogene period, approximately 66 million years ago
d) During the Neogene period, approximately 23 million years ago
e) During the Quaternary period, approximately 2.5 million years ago
Answer: e) During the Quaternary period, approximately 2.5 million years ago
Explanation: The Quaternary period is when the first humans, specifically Homo habilis, appeared on
Earth.
3. Which geological epoch are we currently in?
a) The Pleistocene epoch
b) The Holocene epoch
c) The Miocene epoch
d) The Pliocene epoch
e) The Eocene epoch
Answer: b) The Holocene epoch
relatively stable climate that allowed for the development of human civilization.

Evolution MCQ

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Evolution MCQ

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e from outer space and was brought to Earth by meteorites or comets

A) The universe contracted

B) The temperature increased

C) Gases expanded and formed galaxies

D) The universe remained static

E) None of the above

Answer: C) Gases expanded and formed galaxies.

2. What is the age of the universe according to the content?

A) 4.5 billion years

D) 500 million years

E) None of the above

Answer: B) 20 billion years

3. How did the oceans form on Earth?

B) The atmosphere condensed

C) The universe expanded

D) Water vapour cooled and rained into depressions

E) None of the above

Answer: D) Water vapour cooled and rained into depressions.

A) Theory of special creation

D) Chemical evolution theory

E) None of the above

Answer: D) Chemical evolution theory

5. When did non-cellular life originate according to the content?

A) 4 billion years ago

B) 3 billion years ago

C) 2 billion years ago

D) 500 million years ago

E) None of the above

Answer: B) 3 billion years ago

1. Which theory suggests that life came from outer space?

a) Theory of spontaneous generation

e) None of the above

2. Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?

b) Oparin and Haldane

d) Early Greek thinkers

e) None of the above

Answer: a) Louis Pasteur

a) Theory of spontaneous generation

e) None of the above

Answer: d) Chemical evolution

4. Who conducted the famous Miller-Urey experiment?

b) Oparin and Haldane

d) Early Greek thinkers

e) None of the above

5. What were the first macromolecules in the formation of life?

e) None of the above

1. Which of the following statements is true about the origin of life?

a) Life arose from living molecules through evolutionary forces

b) Life arose from non-living molecules through evolutionary forces

c) Life was created by a divine being

d) Life has always existed

e) None of the above

2. What were the first macromolecules in the RNA world?

e) None of the above

Answer: c) Chemoautotrophs. Explanation: Chemoautotrophs are organisms that can synthesize

4. What led to the formation of the ozone layer?

e) None of the above

5. Which theory of evolution of life forms is associated with Charles Darwin?

e) None of the above

1. Which theory of evolution is based on the concept of natural selection?

e) None of the above

Answer: c) Darwinian theory

2. Which postulate of Darwinian theory explains the process of evolution?