Inorganic Chemistry Practice Booklet-1

JEE MAIN
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
PYQ 2020-21-22
Table of Contents
S.No. Chapter Name Pg. No.
1. Periodic Table 01-06
2. Chemical Bonding 06-13
3. Coordination Compound 13-20
4. Metallurgy 21-27
5. Hydrogen, compound 28-30
6. S-Block 30-36
7. d and f Block Elements 36-41
8. p-block elements 41-52
9. Environmental Chemistry 52-57
10. Quantum Number 57-59
11. Salt Analysis 59-61

Chapter: Periodic Table Year 2020
1. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively
are:
(1) – 333, – 349, – 325 and – 296 (2) –296, – 325, – 333 and – 349
(3) – 333, – 325, – 349 and – 296 (4) –349, – 333, – 325 and – 296
2. Within each pair of elements of F & Cl, S & Se, and Li & Na, respectively, the elements that
release more energy upon an electron gain are–
(1) F, Se and Na (2) F, S and Li (3) Cl, S and Li (4) Cl, Se and Na
3. The first ionization energy (in kJ/mol) of Na, Mg, Al and Si respectively, are:
(1) 496, 737, 577, 786 (2) 786, 737, 577, 496
(3) 496, 577, 737, 786 (4) 496, 577, 786, 737
4. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is:
(a) C (b) O (c) F (d) Cl (e) Br
(1) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a) < (e) (2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e)
(3) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e) (4) (c) < (b) < (a) < (d) < (e)
5. B has a smaller first ionization enthalpy than Be. Consider the following statements:
(I) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron
(II) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons than
the 2s electrons of Be.
(III) 2s electron has more penetration power than 2p electron.
(IV) atomic radius of B is more than Be
(Atomic number B = 5, Be = 4) The correct statements are:
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) (I), (III) and (IV) (4) (I), (II) and (IV)
6. The correct order of the ionic radii of

O2–, N3–, F–, Mg2+, Na+ and Al3+ is:
(1) Al3+ < Na+ < Mg2+ < O2–< F– < N3– (2) N3– < O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
(3) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3– (4) N3– < F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+ < Al3+
7. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are 788 kJ mol–1 and 4 kJ mol–1,
respectively. The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is:
(1) –780 kJ mol–1 (2) –784 kJ mol–1 (3) 780 kJ mol–1 (4) 784 kJ mol–1
8. The process that is NOT endothermic in nature is:

2
(1) Ar(g) + e–  Ar(g) (2) H(g) + e–  H(g) (3) Na(g) + Na(g)  e– (4) O(g) + e–  O(g)
   
9. The ionic radii of O2–, F–, Na+ and Mg2+ are in the order:
(1) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+ (2) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
(3) O2– > F– > Mg2+ > Na+ (4) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
10. The elements with atomic numbers 101 and 104 belong to, respectively:
(1) Group 11 and Group 4 (2) Actinoids and Group 4
(3) Actinoids and Group 6 (4) Group 6 and Actinoids
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11. The five successive ionization enthalpies of an element are 800, 2427, 3658, 25024 and
32824 kJ mol–1. The number of valence electrons in the element is:
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
12. Among the statements (I – IV), the correct ones are:

(I) Be has smaller atomic radius compared to Mg.
(II) Be has higher ionization enthalpy than Al.
(III) Charge/radius ratio of Be is greater than that of Al.
(IV) Both Be and Al form mainly covalent compounds.
(1) (I), (II) and (IV) (2) (II), (III) and (IV) (3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (I), (III) and (IV
13. The atomic number of the element unnilennium is:

(1) 119 (2) 108 (3) 102 (4) 109
14. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and
Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The correct order of the atomic numbers
of X, Y and Z is:
(1) Z < Y < X (2) X < Z < Y (3) X < Y < Z (4) Y < X < Z
15. In general, the property (magnitudes only) that shows an opposite trend in comparison to
other properties across a period is
(1) Electronegativity (2) Electron gain enthalpy
(3) Ionization enthalpy (4) Atomic radius
16. The atomic number of Unnilunium is ___.

ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (4) 16. (101.00)
1. Consider the elements Mg, Al, S, P and Si the correct increasing order of their first ionization
enthalpy is:
(1) Al < Mg < Si < S < P (2) Al < Mg < S < Si < P
(3) Mg < Al < Si < S < P (4) Mg < Al < Si < P < S
2. The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen is :

(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
3. Match List-I with List-II

List – I List – II
Electronic configuration of elements  iH in kJ mol–1
(a) 1s22s2 (i) 801
(b) 1s22s22p4 (ii) 899
(c) 1s 2s 2p
2 2 3
(iii) 1314
(d) 1s 2s 2p
2 2 1
(iv) 1402
(1) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (i) (2) (a) − (iv), (b) − (i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iii)
(3) (a) − (i), (b) − (iv), (c) − (iii), (d) − (ii) (4) (a) − (i), (b) − (iii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (ii)

4. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is:
(1) S > Se > Te > O (2) O > S > Se > Te (3) S > O > Se > Te (4) Te > Se > S > O
5. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion A: In TII3 isomorphous to CsI3 the metal is present in +1 oxidation state.
Reason R: TI metals has fourteen electrons in its electronic configuration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but is correct
(3) Both and are correct is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) is correct but is not correct
6. Identify the elements X and Y using the ionisation energy values given below:
Ionization energy (kJ/mol)
1st 2nd
X 495 4563
Y 731 1450
(1) X = Na;Y = Mg (2) X = Mg;Y = F (3) X = Mg;Y = Na (4) X = F;Y = Mg
7. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83
are:
(1) and are metalloids and is a metal.
(2) is a metalloid, is a non-metal and is a metal.
(3) X, and are metals.
(4) and are non-metals and is a metalloid
8. The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy of halogens satisfies:

(1) I > Br > Cl > F (2) Cl > Br > F > I (3) Cl > F > Br > I (4) F > Cl > Br > I
9. Which of the following compound CANNOT act as a Lewis base?

(1) NF3 (2) PCl5 (3) SF4 (4) ClF3
10. The set of elements that differ in mutual relationship from those of the other sets is:
(1) Li −Mg (2) B – Si (3) Be – Al (4) Li – Na
11. The ionic radius of Na+ ions is 1.02\AA. The ionic radii (in\AA ) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively,
are
(1) 1.05 and 0.99 (2) 0.72 and 0.54 (3) 0.85 and 0.99 (4) 0.68 and 0.72
12. The first ionization energy of magnesium is smaller as compared to that of elements X and
Y, but higher than that of Z. the elements X, Y and Z, respectively, are:
(1) chlorine, lithium and sodium (2) argon, lithium and sodium
(3) argon, chlorine and sodium (4) neon, sodium and chlorine
13. Which one of the following statements for D.I. Mendeleeff, is incorrect?
(1) He authored the textbook Principles of Chemistry.
(2) At the time, he proposed Periodic Table of elements structure of atom was known.
(3) Element with atomic number 101 is named after him.
(4) He invented accurate barometer.

14. The ionic radii of F– and O2– respectively are 1.33 A and 1.4Å….., while the covalent radius of
is 0.74Å.. The correct statement for the ionic radius of N3– from the following is:
(1) It is smaller than F– and N
(2) It is bigger than O2– and F–
(3) It is bigger than F– and N, but smaller than of O2–
(4) It is smaller than O2– and F–, but bigger than of N
15. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases on moving
from left to right in a period.
Reason (R): It is due to increase in ionisation enthalpy and decrease in electron gain
enthalpy, when one moves from left to right in a period.
given below:
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (2)
1. The correct order of increasing ionic radii is

(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < p– < O2– < N3– (2) N3– < O2– < p– < Na+ < Mg2+
(3) p– < Na+ < O2– < Mg2+ < N3– (4) Na+ < p– < Mg2+ < O2– < N3–
2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other 1s labelled
as Reason(R)
Assertion (A): The ionic radii of O2– and Mg2+ are same.
Reason (R): Both O2– and Mg2+ are isoelectronic species
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
3. Which of the following elements in considered as a metalloid?

(1) Sc (2) Pb (3) Bi (4) Te
4. The IUPAC nomenclature of an element with electronic configuration [Rn]5f146d17s2 is:

(A) Unnilbium (B) Unnilunium
(C) Unnilquadium hon (D) Unniltrium

5. Outermost electronic configurations elements A, B, C, D are given below:
(A) 3s2 (B) 3s2 3p1 (C) 3s2 3p3 (D) 3s2 3p4
The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for them is:
(1) (A)< (B) < (C) < (D) (2) (B) <(A)< (D) < (C)
(3) (B) < (D) <(A)< (C) (4) (B) <(A)< (C) < (D)
6. The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si, respectively, are: 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1.
The first ionization enthalpy (kJ mol–1) of Al is:
(1) 487 (2) 768 (3) 577 (4) 856
7. Metals generally melt at very high temperature. Amongst the following, the metal with the
highest melting point will be
(1) Hg (2) Ag (3) Ga (4) Cs
8. The correct order of electron gain enthalpies of Cl, F, Te and Po is

(1) F < Cl < Te < Po (2) Po < Te < F < Cl
(3) Te < Po < Cl < F (4) Cl < F < Te < Po
9. Element "E" belongs to the period 4 and group 16 of the periodic table. The valence shell
electron configuration of the element, which is just above 'E' in the group is
(1) 3s2 . 3p4 (2) 3d10. 4s2, 4p4
(C) 4d10. 5s2, 5p4 (D) 2s2, p4

List-I (Oxide) List-II (Nature)
(A) Cl2O7 (I) Amphoteric
(B) Na2O (II) Basic
(C) Al2O3 (III) Neutral
(D) N2 O (IV) Acidic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
11. Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion A and other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : The first ionization enthalpy for oxygen is lower than that of nitrogen.
Reason R : The four electrons in 2p orbitals of oxygen expenence more electron-electron
repulsion.
In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and Rare correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
12. The IUP AC nomenclature of an element with electronic configuration [Rn]5f146d17s2 is:
(1) Unnilbium (2) Unnilunium (3) Unnilquadium (4) Unniltrium
13. The first ionization enthalpies of Be, B, N and 0 follow the order
(1) 0 < N < B < Be (B) Be < B < N < 0 (C) B < Be < N < O (D) B < Be < 0 < N

14. Given two statements below:
Statement I: In Cl2 molecule the covalent radius is double of the atomic radius of chlorine.
Statement II: Radius of anionic species is always greater than their parent atomic radius.
Choose the most appropriate answer from options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I 1s correct but Statement II 1s incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
15. In which of the following gain enthalpies of constituent elements are nearly the same or
identical?
(A) Rb and Cs (B) Na and K (C) Ar and Kr (D) I and At
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B) and (C) only (3) (A) and (C) only (4) (C) and (D) only
16. The correct decreasing order for metallic character is

(1) Na > Mg > Be > Si > P (2) P > Si > Be > Mg > Na
(3) Si > P > Be > Na > Mg (4) Be > Na > Mg > Si > P
17. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded
octet molecule?
(1) BCl3 and SF6 (2) NO and H2SO4 (3) SF6 and H2SO4 (4) BCl3 and NO
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (4)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2)
Chapter: Chemical Bonding Year 2020

1. The dipole moments of CCl4, CHCl3 and CH4 are in the order:
(1) CH4 = CCl4 < CHCl3 (2) CH4 < CCl4 < CHCl3
(3) CCl4 < CH4 < CHCl3 (4) CHCl3 < CH4 = CCl4
2. The relative strength of interionic/ intermolecular forces in decreasing order is:

(1) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole (2) dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > ion-ion
(3) ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-ion (4) ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole
3. The bond order and the magnetic characteristics of CN– are:

1
(1) 3, diamagnetic (2) 2 , paramagnetic
2
1
(3) 3, paramagnetic (4) 2 , diamagnetic
2

4. The predominant intermolecular forces present in ethyl acetate, a liquid, are:
(1) hydrogen bonding and London dispersion
(2) Dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
(3) London dispersion and dipole-dipole
(4) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
5. Arrange the following bonds according to their average bond energies in descending order:
C–Cl, C–Br, C–F, C–I
(1) C–I > C–Br > C–Cl > C–F (2) C–Br > C–I > C–Cl > C–F
(3) C–F > C–Cl > C–Br > C–I (4) C–Cl > C–Br > C–I > C–F
6. 'X' melts at low temperature and is a bad conductor of electricity in both liquid and solid
state. X is:
(1) Carbon tetrachloride (2) Mercury
(3) Silicon carbide (4) Zinc sulphide
7. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be:

(1) O2 or O2 (2) O2 or O2 (3) O2 or O2 (4) O2, O2 or O2
     
8. The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides, respectively, are:

(1) MgO, Cl2O, Al2O3 (2) Cl2O, CaO, P4O10 (3) Na2O, SO3, Al2O3 (4) N2O3, Li2O, Al2O3
9. The number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene is:

(1) 24 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 18
10. Among the sulphates of alkaline earth metals, the solubilities of BeSO4 and MgSO4 in water,
respectively, are:
(1) high and high (2) poor and poor (3) high and poor (4) poor and high
11. The number of CI = O bonds in perchloric acid is. “________”.
12. The increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds is:
(1) I < IV < III < II (2) IV < I < II < III (3) I < III < IV < II (4) III < I < II < IV
13. The compound that has the largest H—M—H bond angle (M=N, O, S, C), is:
(1) H2O (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) H2S
14. Hydrogen peroxide, in the pure state, is:

(1) non-planar and almost colorless (2) linear and almost colorless
(3) planar and blue in color (4) linear and blue in color

15. The structure of PCl5 in the solid state is
(1) square pyramidal
(2) tetrahedral [PCl4]+ and octahedral [PCl6]–
(3) square planar [PCl4]+ and octahedral [PCl6]–
(4) trigonal bipyramidal
16. Among the following compounds, which one has the shortest C—Cl bond?
(1) H3C–Cl (2)
(3) (4)
17. The reaction in which the hybridisation of the underlined atom is affected is:
H 
(1) NH3  (2) XeF4 + SbF5 
420K Disproportionation
(3) H2SO4 + NaCl 
 (4) H3PO2 
18. Of the species, NO, NO+, NO2+, NO–, the one with minimum bond strength is:
(1) NO2+ (2) NO+ (3) NO (4) NO–
19. In a molecule of pyrophosphoric acid, the number of P–OH, P=O and P–O–P bonds/
moiety(ies) respectively are:
(1) 3, 3 and 3 (2) 2, 4 and 1 (3) 4, 2 and 0 (4) 4, 2 and 1
20. Match the type of interaction in Column A with the distance dependence of their interaction
energy in Column B:
A B
1
(I) ion -ion (a)
r
1
(II) dipole – dipole (b) 2
r
1
(III) London dispersion (c)
r3
1
(d) 6
r
(1) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c) (2) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(d)
(3) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d) (4) (I)-(b), (II)-(d), (III)-(c)
21. The molecular geometry of SF6 is octahedral. What is the geometry of SF4 (including lone
pair(s) of electrons, if any)?
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) Square planar
(3) Tetrahedral (4) Pyramidal
22. If AB4 molecule is a polar molecule, a possible geometry of AB4 is:

(1) Square pyramidal (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Square planar (4) Rectangular planar

23. The shape/structure of [XeF5]– and XeO3F2, respectively, are:
(1) pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal
(2) trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar
(3) octahedral and square pyramidal
(4) trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (3.00) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (1)

1. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second row elements of periodic
table. Based on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is 2.5. The total number of
electrons in AX is____ (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
2. Which of the following are isostructural pairs?

(A) SO24 and CrO24 (B) SiCl4 and TiCl4 (C) NH3 and NO3 (D) BCl3 and BrCl3
(1) A and C only (2) A and B only (3) B and C only (4) C and D only
3. The correct shape and I-I-I bond angles respectively in I3 ion are:
(1) Trigonal planar; 120° (2) Distorted trigonal planar; 135° and 90°
(3) Linear; 180° (4) T-shaped; 180° and 90°
4. According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist
is:
(1) He2 (2) He2 (3) O22 (4) Be2
2
5. Which among the following species has unequal bond lengths?

(1) XeF4 (2) SiF4 (3) BF4 (4) SF4
6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Dipole-dipole interactions are the only non-covalent interactions, resulting in
hydrogen bond formation
Reason R: Fluorine is the most electronegative element and hydrogen bonds in HF are
symmetrical In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of

7. Match List-I with List-II.
list-I list-II
(Molecule) (Bond order)
(a) Ne2 (i) 1
(b) N2 (ii) 2
(c) F2 (iii) 0
(d) O2 (iv) 3
(1) (a) − (iii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (iii) (2) (a) − (i), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv)
(3) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iv), (d) − (iii) (4) (a) − (iv), (b) − (iii), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i)
Reason R:
Assertion A: The H − O − H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5°
Reason R: The lone pair − lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair -
bond pair repulsion.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
9. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single bonds.
The shape of this molecule is:
(1) see-saw (2) planar triangular
(3) T-shaped (4) trigonal pyramidal
10. Amongst the following, the linear species is:

(1) NO2 (2) Cl2O (3) O3 (4) N3
11. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second row elements of periodic table.
Based on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is 25 . The total number of electrons
in AX is____ (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
12. The oxide that shows magnetic property is:

(1) SiO2 (2) Mn3O4 (3) Na2O (4) MgO
13. In the following molecules,
Hybridisation of carbon a, b and c respectively are:

(1) sp3, sp, sp (2) sp3, sp2, sp (3) sp3, sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp, sp2
14. The number of species below that have two lone pairs of electrons in their central atom
is_______ (Round off to the Nearest integer)
SF4, BF4 CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6
ANSWER KEY
1. 15.00 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. 15.00 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2)

1. Amongst BeF2, BF3, NH3, CCl4 the number of molecules with non-zero net dipole moment
is____.
2. Consider the species CH4, NH4+ and BH4–. Choose the correct option with respect to the there
species:
(1) They are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures
(2) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(3) Only two are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(4) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures
3. The total number of acidic oxides from the following list is:
NO, N2O, B2O3, N2O5, CO, SO3, P4O10
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
4. Amongst the following the number of oxide(s) which are paramagnetic in nature is
Na2O, KO2, NO2, N2O, ClO2, NO, SO2, Cl2O
5. The number of molecule(s) or ion(s) from the following having non-planar structure is
NO3 , H2O2, BF3, PC13, XeF4, SF4, XeO3, PH4 , SO3, [Al(OH)4]–
6. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Zero orbital overlap is an out of phase overlap.
Reason: It results due to different orientation/direction of approach of orbitals.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
7. The correct order of bound orders of C22  ,N22 and O22 is, respectively.
(1) C22  N22  O22 (2) O22  N22  O22 (3) C22  N22  O22 (4) N22  N22  O22
8. Bonding in which of the following diatomic molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of
MO Theory, by removal of an electron?
(1) NO (2) N2 (3) O2 (4) C2 (5) B2
9. Consider the ions/molecule

O2 ,O2 ,O2 ,O22
For increasing bond order the correct option is :
(1) O22  O2  O2  O2 (2) O2  O22  O2  O2
(3) O2  O22  O2  O2 (4) O2  O22  O2  O2
10. The oxide which contains an odd electron at the nitrogen atom is
(1) N2O (2) NO2 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
11. Amongst SF4, XeF4, CF4 and H2O, the number of species with two lone pairs of electrons ____

12. Based upon VSEPR theory, match the shape (geometry) of the molecules in List-I with the
molecules in List-II and select the most appropriate option
List-I List-II
(Shape) (Molecules)
(A) T-shaped (I) XeF4
(B) Trigonal planar (II) SF4
(C) Square planar (III) ClF3
(D) See-saw (IV) BF3
(1) (A) -1, (B) - (11), (C) - (111), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (Ill), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (Ill), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
13. Identify the incorrect statement for PCl5 from the following.
(A) In this molecule, orbitals of phosphorous are assumed to undergo sp3 d hybridization.
(B) The geometry of PCl5 is trigonal bi pyramidal.
(C) PCl5 has two axial bonds stronger than three equatorial bonds.
(D) The three equatorial bonds of PCl5 lie in a plane.
14. The correct order of increasing intermolecular hydrogen bond strength is

(1) HCN < H2O < NH3 (2) HCN < CH4 < NH3
(3) CH4 < HCN < NH3 (4) CH4 < NH3 < HCN
15. The hybridization of P exhibited in PF5 is spxdy The value of y is
16. In the structure of SF4, the lone pair of electrons on ‘S’ is in:
(1) equatorial position and there are two lone pairbond pair repulsions at 90°
(2) equatorial position and there are three lone pair-bond pair repulsions at 90°
(3) axial position and there are three lone pair - bond pair repulsion at 90°.
(4) axial position and there are two lone pair - bond pair repulsion at 90°.
17. Number of lone pair (s) of electrons on central atom and the shape of BrF3 olecule
respectively, are:
(1) 0, triangular planar. (2) 1, pyramidal.
(3) 2, bent T-shape. (4) 1, bent T -shape
18. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:
(A) LiCl (B) NaCl (C) KCl (D) CsCl
Question: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A)> (C) > (B)> (D) (2) (B) >(A)> (C) > (D)
(3) (A)> (B) > (C) > (D) (4) (A)> (B) > (D) > (C)
19. Consider the species CH4, NH4 and BH4 Choose the correct option with respect to the there
species:
(1) They are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures
(2) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(3) Only two are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(4) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures

ANSWER KEY
1. 03.00 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. 04.00 5. 06.00 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. 01.00 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2)
Chapter: Coordination Compound Year 2020

1. The theory that can completely/properly explain the nature of bonding in [Ni(CO)4] is:
(1) Werner's theory (2) Crystal field theory
(3) Valence bond theory (4) Molecular orbital theory
2. The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is:

(1) Diammine (methanamine) chlorido platinum (II) chloride
(2) Bisammine (methanamine) chlorido platinum (II) chloride
(3) Diamminechlorido (aminomethane) platinum(II) chloride
(4) Diamminechlorido (methanamine) platinum (II) chloride
3. Among the statements(a)-(d), the incorrect ones are–

(a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have very high magnetic moments
(b) When 0 < P, the d-electron configuration of Co(III) in an octahedral complex is teeg4 eg2
(c) Wavelength of light absorbed by [Co(en)3]3+ is lower than that of [CoF6]3–
(d) If the 0 for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is 18,000 cm–1, the t for its tetrahedral
complex with the same ligand will be 16,000 cm–1
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only
4. The number of possible optical isomers for the complexes MA2B2 with sp3 and dsp2
hybridised metal atom, respectively, is:
Note: A and B are unidentate neutral and unidentate monoanionic ligands, respectively
(1) 0 and 0 (2) 0 and 2 (3) 0 and 1 (4) 2 and 2
5. The complex that can show fac-and mer-isomers is:

(1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (3) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (4) [CoCl2(en)2]
6. The volume (in mL) of 0.125 M AgNO3 required to quantitatively precipitate chloride ions in
0.3 g of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is.
M
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 = 267.46 g/mol
M
AgNO3 = 169.87 g/mol
7. Among (a) – (d) the complexes that can display geometrical isomerism are:
(a) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]+ (b) [Pt(NH3)Cl5]– (c) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] (d) [Pt(NH3)4ClBr]2+
(1) (d) and (a) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
8. The correct order of the calculated spin-only magnetic moments of complexes (A) to (D) is:
(A) Ni(CO)4 (B) [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (C) Na2[Ni(CN)4] (D) PdCl2(PPh3)2
(1) (A)  (C)  (D) < (B) (2) (A)  (C) < (B)  (D)
(3) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) (4) (C)  (D) < (B) < (A)
9. Complexes (ML5) of metals Ni and Fe have ideal square pyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
grometries, respectively. The sum of the 90°, 120° and 180° L-M L angles in the two
complexes is _____.

10. [Pd(F)(Cl)(Br)(I)]2– has n number of geometrical isomers. Then, the spin-only magnetic
moment and crystal field stabilisation energy [CFSE] of [Fe(CN)6]n–6, respectively, are:
[Note: Ignore the pairing energy]
(1) 2.84 BM and –1.6 0 (2) 1.73 BM and –2.0 0
(3) 0 BM and –2.4 0 (4) 5.92 BM and 0
11. Complex X of composition Cr(H2O)6Cln has a spin only magnetic moment of 3.83 BM. It reacts
with AgNO3 and shows geometrical isomerism. The IUPAC nomenclature of X is:
(1) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium (III) chloride dihydrate
(2) Hexaaqua chromium (III) chloride
(3) Dichloridotetraaqua chromium (IV) chloride dihydrate
(4) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium (IV) chloride dihydrate
12. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moments of the following complexes is:
(I) [Cr(H2O)6]Br2 (II) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(III) Na3[Fe(C2O4)3] (0 > P) (IV) (Et4N)2[CoCl4]
(1) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV) (2) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II)
(3) (II)  (I) > (IV) > (III) (4) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)
13. The isomer(s) of [Co(NH3)4Cl2] that has/have a Cl–Co–Cl angle of 90°, is/are:
(1) meridional and trans (2) cis and trans
(3) trans only (4) cis only
14. The species that has a spin only magnetic moment of 5.9 BM, is–
(1) Ni(CO)4(Td) (2) [MnBr4]2–(Td)
(3) [NiCl4]2–(Td) (4) [Ni(CN)4]2– (square planar)
15. For a d4 metal ion in an octahedral field, the correct electronic configuration is:
4 0
(1) t2g eg when 0< P (2) t2ge2g
2
when 0< P
(3) t32geg1 when 0 < P (4) t32geg1 when 0 > P
16. Considering that 0 > P, the magnetic moment (in BM) of [Ru(H2O)6]2+ would be________.
17. Consider the complex ions, trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+(A) and cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (B). The correct
statement regarding them is:
(1) both (A) and (B) can be optically active
(2) both (A) and (B) cannot be optically active
(3) (A) can be optically active, but (B) cannot be optically active
(4) (A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active
18. The total number of coordination sites in ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA4–) is _______.
19. The values of the crystal field stabilization energies for a high spin d6 metal ion in octahedral
and tetrahedral fields, respectively, are:
(1) –0.4 0 and –0.27 t (2) –1.6 0 and –0.4 t
(3) –0.4 0 and –0.6 t (4) –2.4 0 and –0.6 t
20. The molecule in which hybrid MOs involve only one d-orbital of the central atom is:
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [CrF6]3– (3) BrF5 (4) XeF4

21. The one that can exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour among the following is:
gly = glycinato; bpy = 2, 2'-bipyridine
(1) [Pd(gly)2] (2) [Ti(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Co(OX)2(OH)2] (0 > P)
–
(4) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+
22. The crystal Field stabilization Energy (CFSE) of [CoF3(H2O)3] (0 < P) is:
(1) –0.8 0 (2) –0.4 0 + P (3) –0.8 0 + 2P (4) –0.4 0
23. The pair in which both the species have the same magnetic moment (spin only) is:
(1) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)]2+ (2) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2–
(3) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(OH)4]2– and [Fe(NH3)6]2+
24. The number of isomers possible for [Pt(en)(NO2)2] is:

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
25. Complex A has a composition of H12O6Cl3Cr. If the complex on treatment with conc. H2SO4
loses 13.5% of its original mass, the correct molecular formula of A is:
[Given: atomic mass of Cr = 52 amu and Cl = 35 amu]
(1) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 · H2O (2) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3] · 3H2O
(3) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl · 2H2O (4) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
26. The d-electron configuration of [Ru(en)3]Cl2 and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2, respectively are:

4 2
(1) t2g eg and t62ge0g (2) t62ge0g and t62ge0g (3) t62ge0g and t2g
4 0
eg 4 0
(4) t2g 4 0
eg and t2g eg
27. The electronic spectrum of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ shows a single broad peak with a maximum at 20,300
cm–1. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of the complex ion, in kJ mol–1, is:
(1) 242.5 (2) 83.7 (3) 145.5 (4) 97
28. The complex that can show optical activity is:

(1) trans-[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]– (2) cis-[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]–
(3) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2] (ox = oxalate)
3–
(4) trans-[Cr(Cl2)(ox)2]3–
29. The one that is not expected to show isomerism is:

(1) [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+ (2) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (4) [Ni(en)3]2+
30. For octahedral Mn(II) and tetrahedral Ni(II) complexes, consider the following statements:
(I) both the complexes can be high spin
(II) Ni(II) complex can very rarely be low spin.
(III) with strong field ligands, Mn(II) complexes can be low spin.
(IV) aqueous solution of Mn(II) ions is yellow in color.
The correct statements are:
(1) (I), (III) and (IV) only (2) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(3) (I), (II) and (III) only (4) (I) and (II) only
31. Consider that a d6 metal ion (M2+) forms a complex with aqua ligands, and the spin only
magnetic moment of the complex is 4.90 BM. The geometry and the crystal field stabilization
energy of the complex is:
(1) tetrahedral and –1.6 t + 1P (2) tetrahedral and –0.6 t
(3) octahedral and –1.6 0 (4) octahedral and –2.40 + 2P

32. The oxidation states of iron atoms in compounds (A), (B) and (C), respectively, are x, y and
z. The sum of x,y and z is.
Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS)] Na4[FeO4] [Fe2(CO)9]
(A) (B) (C)
33. Simplified absorption spectra of three complexes Mn+ ((i), (ii) and (iii)) of ion are provided
below; their max values are marked as A, B and C respectively. The correct match between
the complexes and their max values is:
(i) [M(NCS)6](–6+n) (ii) [MF6]n+ (iii) [M(NH3)6]n+

(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii) (2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (26.60 to 27.00)

7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (20) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (4)
14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (00) 17. (4) 18. (6) 19. (3) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4)
28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (6) 33. (2)

1. The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) for species [FeCl4]2−, [Co(C2O4)3]3− and
MnO24 respectively are:
(1) 5.92,4.90 and 0 BM (2) 5.82, O and 0 BM
(3) 4.90,0 and 1.73 BM (4) 4.90,0 and 2.83 BM
2. The hybridization and magnetic nature of [Mn(CN)6]4− and [Fe(CN)6]3−, respectively are:
(1) d2dp3 and paramagnetic (2) sp3d2 and paramagnetic
(3) d dp and diamagnetic
2 3
(4) sp3d2 and diamagnetic
3. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The identification of Ni2+ is carried out by dimethyl glyoxime in the presence of
NH4OH
Statement II: The dimethyl glyoxime is a bidentate neutral ligand.
below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false

4. If which of the following order the given complex ions are arranged correctly with respect
to their decreasing spin only magnetic moment?
(i) [FeF6]3− (ii) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (iii) [NiCl4]2− (iv) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) (2) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) (4) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)
5. The spin only magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous solution (atomic number 29) is
____ BM.
6. Number of bridging CO ligands in [Mn2(CO)10] is
7. The number of stereoisomers possible for [Co(Ox)2(Br) (NH3)]2− is ____ [Ox = oxalate]
8. The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the
coordination sphere of the trans-complex of CoCl3·4NH3 is____.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
9. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ absorbs light of wavelength 498 nm during a d − d transition. The octahedral

splitting energy for the above complex is ___ × 10−19 J. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
h= 6.626 × 10−34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms−1
10. Match List-I with List-II:

List I List II
(a) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] (i) Linkage isomerism
(b) [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3] (ii) Solvate isomerism
(c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (iii) Co-ordination isomerism
(d) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2] 3–
(iv) Optical isomeris
(1) (a) − (iii), (b) − (i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iv) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
11. The correct structures of trans-[NiBr2(PPh3)2] and meridonial-[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3], respectively,

are
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
12. The total number of unpaired electrons present in the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is____.
ANSWER KEY
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. 02.00 6. 00.00 7. 03.00

8. 02.00 9. 04.00 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (3)

1. Match List - I with List – II
List-I List-II
2–
(A) [PtCl4] (I) sp3d
(B) BrF5 (II) d2sp3
(C) PCl5 (III) dsp2
(D) [Co(NH 3)6 (IV) sp3d2
(1) (A)(II), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (III)
(2) (A) (III) , (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
(3) (A) (III), (B) (I), (C) (IV), (D) (II)
(4) (A) (II) , (B) (I), (C) (IV), (D) (III)
2. In the cobalt-carbonyl complex: [Co2(CO)8], number of Co–Co bonds is "X" and terminal CO
ligands is "Y". X + Y =__
3. Transition metal complex with highest value of crystal field splitting (0) will be
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Mo(H2O)6]3+ (3) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Os(H2O)]3+
4. White precipitate of AgCl dissolves in aqueous ammonia solution due to formation of:
(1) [Ag(NH3)4]Cl2 (2) [Ag(Cl)2(NH3)2] (3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (4) [Ag(NH3)Cl]Cl
5. If [Cu(H2O)4]2+ absorbs a light of wavelength 600 nm for d-d transition, then the value of
octahedral crystal field splitting energy for [Cu(H2O)6]2+ will be_______ × 10–21 J.
(Nearest Integer) (Given: h = 6.63 x 10–34Js and c = 3.08 x 108 ms–1)
6. Amongst FeCl3.3H2O, K3[Fe(CN)6] and [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, the spin-only magnetic moment value of
the inner-orbital complex that absorbs light at shortest wavelength is _____ B.M.
[nearest integer]
7. Which statement is not true with respect to nitrate ion test?

(1) A dark brown ring is formed at the junction of two solutions.
(2) Ring is formed due to nitroferrous sulphate complex.
(3) The brown complex is [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4.
(4) Heating the nitrate salt with cone. H2SO4, light brown fumes are evolved.
8. The spin-only magnetic moment value of an octahedral complex among CoCl3.4NH3,

NiCl2.6H2O and PtCl4.2HCl, which upon reaction with excess of AgNO3 gives 2 moles of AgCl
is ____ B.M. (Nearest Integer)
9. Reaction of [Co(H2O)6]2+ with excess ammonia and in the presence of oxygen results into a
diamagnetic product. Number of electrons present in t2g orbitals of the product is____.
10. Which of the following will have maximum stabilization due to crystal field?
(1) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Co(CN)6]3– (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
11. Arrange the following coordination compounds in the increasing order of magnetic moments.
(Atomic numbers: Mn= 25; Fe= 26)
(A) [FeF6]3– (B) [Fe(CN)6]3– (C) [MnCl6]3– (high spin) (D) [Mn(CN)6]3–
(1) A < B < D < C (2) B < D < C < A (3) A< C < D < B (4) B < D < A < C

Statement I: [Ni(CN)4]2– is square planar and diamagnetic complex. with dsp2 hybridization
for Ni but [Ni(CO)4] is tetrahedral. paramagnetic and with sp3-hybridication for Ni.
Statement II: [NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CO)4] both have same d-electron configuration have same
geometry and are paramagnetic.
In light the above statements. choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false .
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
13. Number of complexes which will exhibit synergic bonding amongst, [Cr(CO)6], [Mn(CO)5] and
[Mni(CO)10] is______.
14. [Fe(CN)6]4– [Fe(CN)6]3– [Ti(CN)6]3– [Ni(CN)4]2– [Co(CN)6]3–

Among the given complexes, number of paramagnetic complexes is____.
15. (a) CoCl3·4NH3 (b) CoCl3·5NH3 (c) COCl3·6NH3 and (d) COCl(NO3)2·5NH3
Number of complex(es) which will exist in cis trans is/are
16. Given below are two statements.

Statement I: In CuSO4.5H2O, Cu-O bonds are present.
Statement II: In CuSO4.5H2O, ligands coordinating with Cu(II) ion are O-and S-based ligands.
below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
17. Spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr6]4– is _____B.M. (round off to the closest integer)
18. Consider the following metal complexes:

[Co(NH3)]3+ [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ [Co(CN)6]3– [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+
The spin-only magnetic moment value of the complex that absorbs light with shortest
wavelength is B.M. (Nearest integer)
19. The correct order of energy of absorption for the following metal complexes is
A: [Ni(en)3]2+, B: [Ni(NH3)6]2+, C: [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(1) C < B < A (2) B < C < A (3) C < A < B (4) A < C < B
20. The difference between spin only magnetic moment values of [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 and [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
is.
21. The metal complex that is diamagnetic is (Atomic number: Fe, 26; Cu, 29)
(1) K3[Cu(CN)4] (2) K2[Cu(CN)4] (3) K3[Fe(CN)4] (4) K4[FeCl6]
22. The conductivity of a solution of complex with formula CoCl3(NH3)4 corresponds to 1 : 1

electrolyte, then the primary valency of central metal ion is

23. Low oxidation state of metals in their complexes are common when ligands:
(1) have good  -accepting character (2) have good  -donor character
(3) are havind good  -donating ability (4) are havind poor  -donating ability
24. Fe3+ cation gives a prussian blue precipitate on addition of potassium ferrocyanide solution
due to the formation of:
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]2 [Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]2
(3) Fe3[Fe(OH)2(CN)4]2 (4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
25. The spin only magnetic moment of the complex present In Fehling' s reagent is _____ B.M.
(Nearest integer).
26. Total number of relatively more stable isomer(s) possible for octahedral complex
[Cu(en)2(SCN)2] will be______.
27. Match List I with List II

List II
List I (Complex)
(Hybridization)
A Ni(CO)4 I sp3
B [Ni(CN)4 ]2– II sp3d2
C [CO(CN)6]3– III d2sp3
D [CoF6]3– IV dsp 3
(1) A-IV, B-1, C-III, D-II (2) A-1. B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-1. B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-1, C-II. D-III
28. [Fe(CN)6]3– should be an inner orbital complex. Ignoring the pairing energy, the value of
crystal field stabilization energy for this complex is (—)____0- (Nearest integer)
29. Octahedral complexes of copper (II) undergo structural distortion (Jahn-Teller). Which one
of the given copper (II) complexes will show the maximum structural distortion?
(en-ethylenediamine; H2N—CH2—CH2—NH2)
(1) [Cu(H2O)6]SO4 (2) [Cu(en)(H2O)4]SO4
(3) cis-[Cu(en)2Cl2] (4) trans-[Cu(en)2Cl2]
30. Sum of oxidation state (magnitude) and coordination number of cobalt in Na[Co(bpy)Cl4]
is____.
(Given bpy = )
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (7) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (745) 6. (02.00) 7. (2)

8. (03.00) 9. (06.00) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (03.00) 14. (02.00)
15. (01.00) 16. (3) 17. (06.00) 18. (00.00) 19. (1) 20. (00.00) 21. (1)
22. (03.00) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (02.00) 26. (03.00) 27. (2) 28. (02.00)
29. (1) 30. (09.00)

Chapter: Metallurgy Year 2020
1. The purest form of commercial iron is
(1) scrap iron and pig iron (2) wrought iron
(3) cast iron (4) pig iron
2. The refining method used when the metal and the impurities have low and high melting
temperatures, respectively, is–
(1) zone refining (2) liquation
(3) vapour phase refining (4) distillation
3. Among the reactions (a) - (d), the reaction(s) that does/do not occur in the blast furnace
during the extraction of iron is/are:
(a) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (b) 3Fe2O3 + CO  2Fe3O4 + CO2
1
(c) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3 (d) FeO  Fe + O2
2
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (d) (3) (d) (4) (a)
4. According to the following diagram, A reduces BO2 when the temperature is:
(1) < 1400 °C (2) > 1400 °C

(3) < 1200 °C (4) > 1200 °C but < 1400 °C
5. The element that can be refined by distillation is:

(1) nickel (2) zinc (3) gallium (4) tin
6. Boron and silicon of very high purity can be obtained through:

(1) vapour phase refining (2) electrolytic refining
(3) liquation (4) zone refining
7. An Ellingham diagram provides information about:

(1) the pressure dependence of the standard electrode potentials of reduction reactions
involved in the extraction of metals.
(2) the kinetics of the reduction process.
(3) the temperature dependence of the standard Gibbs energies of formation of some metal
oxides.
(4) the conditions of pH and potential under which a species is thermodynamically stable.
8. The processes of calcination and roasting in metallurgical industries, respectively, can lead
to:
(1) Global warming and acid rain
(2) Photochemical smog and ozone layer depletion
(3) Global warming and photochemical smog
(4) Photochemical smog and global warming

9. Among statements (a) -(d), the correct ones are:
(a) Lime stone is decomposed to CaO during the extraction of iron from its oxides.
(b) In the extraction of silver, silver is extracted as an anionic complex.
(c) Nickel is purified by Mond's process.
(d) Zr and Ti are purified by Van Arkel method.
(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
10. Cast iron is used for the manufacture of:

(1) wrought iron and pig iron
(2) wrought iron and steel
(3) wrought iron, pig iron and steel
(4) pig iron, scrap iron and steel
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (2)

1. The process that involves the removal of sulphur from the ores is:
(1) Smelting (2) Roasting (3) Leaching (4) Refining
2. Which of the following reduction reaction CANNOT be carried out with coke?
(1) Al2O3  Al (2) ZnO  Zn (3) Fe2O3  Fe (4) Cu2O  Cu
3. The point of intersection and sudden increase in the slope, in the diagram given below,
respectively, indicates:
(1) G = 0 and melting or boiling point of the metal oxide

(2)G > 0and decomposition of the metal oxide
(3)G < 0and decomposition of the metal oxide
(4)G = 0 and reduction of the metal oxide

4. Match List-I and List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Haematite (i) Al2O3.xH2O
(b) Bauxite (ii) Fe2O3
(c) Magnetite (iii) CuCO3. Cu(OH)2
(d) Malachite (iv) Fe3O4
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(1), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
5. The chemical that is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the
extraction of aluminium is:
(1) Cryolite (2) Bauxite (3) Calamine (4) Kaolite Official
6. Match list-I with list-II:

List-I List-II
(a) Mercury (i) Vapour phase refining
(b) Copper (ii) Distillation refining
(c) Silicon (iii) Electrolytic refining
(d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:
(1) a − i, b − iv, c − ii, d − iii (2) a − ii, b − iii, c − i, d − iv
(3) a − ii, b − iii, c − iv, d − i (4) a − ii, b − iv, c − iii, d − i
7. Which of the following ore is concentrated using group 1 cyanide salt?

(1) Sphalerite (2) Siderite (3) Malachite (4) Calamine
8. The major components in "Gun Metal" are:

(1) Al,Cu,Mg and Mn (2) Cu, Sn and Zn (3) Cu, Zn and Ni (4) Cu, Ni and Fe
9. Al2O3 was leached with alkali to get X. The solution of X on passing of gas Y, forms Z.
respectively are:
(1) X = Na [Al(OH)4] , Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3 ⋅ xH2O
(2) X = Na [Al(OH)4] , Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3
(3) X = Al(OH)3, Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3 ⋅ xH2O
(4) X = Al(OH)3, Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3

List - I List-II
(Metal) (Ores)
(a) Aluminum (i) Siderite
(b) Iron (ii) Calamine
(c) Copper (iii) Kaolinite
(d) Zinc (iv) Malachite
(1) (a) − (iv), (b) − (iii), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i) (2) (a) − (i), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv)
(3) (a) − (iii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iv), (d) − (ii) (4) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (iii)
11. Ellingham diagram is a graphical representation of:

(1) G vs T (2) (G – TS)vsT (3) G vs T (4) G vs P

12. The major components of German Silver are:
(1) Cu, Zn and Ag (2) Ge, Cu and Ag (3) Zn, Ni and Ag (4) Cu, Zn and Ni
13. The method used for the purification of Indium is:

(1) van Arkel method (2) vapour phase refining
(3) zone refining (4) Liquation

List-I List-II
(Ore) (Element Present)
(a) Kemite (i) Tin
(b) Cassiterite (ii) Boron
(c) Calamine (iii) Fluorine
(d) Cryolite (iv) Zinc
(1) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (iii) (2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iv), (d) − (iii)
(3) (a) − (i), (b) − (iii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (ii) (4) (a) − (iii), (b) − (i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iv)

List-I List-II
(a) Siderite (i) Cu
(b) Calamine (ii) Ca
(c) Malachite (iii) Fe
(d) Cryolite (iv) Al
(v) Zn
(1) (a) − (i), (b) − (ii), (c) − (v), (d) − (iii) (2) (a) − (iii), (b) − (v), (c) − (i), (d) − (iv)
(3) (a) − (i), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv) (4) (a) − (iii), (b) − (i), (c) − (v), (d) − (ii)
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (2)

Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(1) (A) - (IV), (B)- (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (2) (A) - (IV), (B)- (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (II), (B)- (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (4) (A) - (III), (B)- (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

2. Which of the following chemical reactions represents Hall-Process?
(1) Cr2O3 + 2Al Al2O3 + 2Cr (2) 2Al2O3 + 3C AAl + 3CO2
 2
(3) FeO + CO Fe + CO2 (4) 2 Au(CN)2  (aq)  Zn(s)  2Au(s)  zn(CN4 )
3. (a) Baryte, (b) Galena, (c) Zinc blende and (d) Copper Pyrites. How many of these minerals
are sulphide based?
4. Leaching of gold with dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in presence of oxygen gives complex
[A], which on reaction with zinc forms the elemental gold and another complex [B]. [A] and
[B], respectively are:
(1) [Au(CN)4]– and [Zn(CN)2 (OH)2]2– (2) [Au(CN)2]– and [Zn(OH)4]2–
(3) [Au(CN)2]– and [Zn(CN)4]2– (4) [Au(CN)4]2– and [Zn(CN)6]4–

Statement I: During electrolytic refining, blister copper deposits precious metals
Statement II: In the process of obtaining pure copper by electrolysis method, copper blister
is used to make the anode.
below.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Statement I: According to the Ellingham diagram, any metal oxide with higher G° is more
stable than the one with lower G°.
Statement II: The metal involved in the formation of oxide placed lower in the Ellingham
diagram can reduce the oxide of a metal placed higher in the diagram.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option
given below:
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
7. The role of depressants in Troth Floation method is to

(1) selectively prevent one component of the ore from coming to the froth.
(2) reduce the consumption of oil for froth formation.
(3) stabilize the forth.
(4) enhance non-wettability of the mineral particles.

List-I List-II
(A) Concentration of (I) Aniline gold ore
(B) Leaching of alumina (II) NaOH
(C) Froth stabiliser (III) SO2
(D) Blister copper (IV) NaCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) (2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV) (4) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) s – (I)

9. Statement I: Leaching of gold with cyanide ion in absence of air /O2 leads to cyano complex
of Au(III).
Statement II: Zinc is oxidized during the displacement reaction carried out gold extraction.
below.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are scorrect
10. Given are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Magnesium can reduce Al2O3 at a temperature below 1350°C, while above 1350°C
aluminum below 1350°C, while above 1350°C aluminum can reduce MgO
Reason R: The melting and boiling points of magnesium are lower than those of aluminium.
In light of above statements. choose most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct. and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct. but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct. R is correct.s
11. In the metallurgical extraction of copper, following reaction is used:

FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3
FeO and FeSiO3 respectively are.a
(1) gangue and flux (2) flux and slag
(3) slag and flux (4) gangue and slag
12. In isolation of which one of the following metals from their ores, the use of cyanide salt is
not commonly involved?
(1) Zinc (2) Gold (3) Silver (4) Copper
13. Match List I with List II.

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
14. The compound(s) that is(are) removed as slag during the extraction of copper is :
(1) CaO (2) FeO (3) AhO3 (4) ZnO (5) NiO
(1) (3) (4) Only (2) (1), (2), (5) Only (3) (1), (2) Only (4) (2) Only

Statement I: Pig iron is obtained by heating cast iron with scrap iron.
Statement II: Pig iron has a relatively lower carbon content than that of cast iron. In the
light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are not correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(4) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.
16. Refining using liquation method 1s the suitable for metals with:
(1) Low melting point
(2) High boiling point
(3) High electrical conductivity
(4) Less tendency to be soluble in melts than impurities
17. The metal that is not extracted from its sulphide ore is:
(1) Aluminium (2) Lead (3) Iron (4) Zinc
18. Which of the fallowing methods are not used to refine any metal?
(A) Liquation (B) Calcination
(C) Electrolysis (D) Leaching (E) Distillation
(1) B and D only (2) B, D and E only
(3) A, B, D and E only (4) A, C and E only
19. Among the following ores Bauxite, Siderite, Cuprite, Calamine, Haematite, Kaolinite,
Malachite, Magnetite, Sphalerite, Limonite, Cryolite, the number of principal ores if (of) iron
is___
20. Which of the reaction is suitable for concentrating ore by leaching process?
(1) 2Cu2S + 302  2Cu2O + 2SO2 (2) Fe3O4 +CO  3FeO+CO2
(3) Al2O3 + 2NaOH + 3H20  2Na[ Al(OH)4 (4) Al2O3 +6Mg  6Mg0+4Al
21. In metallurgy the term "gangue" is used for:

(1) Contamination of undesired earthy materials.
(2) Contamination of metals, other than desired metal
(3) Minerals which are naturally occuring in pure form
(4) Magnetic impurities in an ore.
22. In liquation process used for tin (Sn), the metal:

(1) is reacted with acid
(2) is dissolved in water
(3) is brought to molten form which is made to flow on a slope
(4) is fused with NaOH.
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (04.00) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (3)

Chapter: Hydrogen, compound Year 2020
1. Dihydrogen of high purity (> 99.95%) is obtained through:
(1) the electrolysis of warm Ba(OH)2 solution using Ni electrodes.
(2) the reaction of Zn with dilute HCl
(3) the electrolysis of brine solution.
(4) the electrolysis of acidified water using Pt electrodes.
2. The one that is NOT suitable for the removal of permanent hardness of water is:
(1) Treatment with sodium carbonate
(2) Calgon's method
(3) Clark's method
(4) Ion-exchange method
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (2)

Reason R.
Assertion A: Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the Universe, but it is not the most
abundant gas in the troposphere.
Reason R: Hydrogen is the lightest element.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the given below
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
2. Which of the following equation depicts the oxidizing nature of H2O2 ?

(1) Cl2 + H2O2  2HCl + O2 (2) KIO4 + H2O2  KIO3 + H2O + O2
(3) 2I– + H2O2 + 2H+ I2 + 2H2O (4) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH–  2I– + 2H2O + O2
3. Statement about heavy water are given below

A. Heavy water is used in exchange reactions for the study of reaction mechanisms
B. Heavy water is prepared by exhaustive electrolysis of water
C. Heavy water has higher boiling point than ordinary water
D. Viscosity of H2O is greater than D2O
(1) A and B only (2) A and D only (3) A, B and C only (4) A and C only
4. Calgon is used for water treatment. Which of the following statement is NOT true about
calgon?
(1) Calgon contains the 2nd most abundant element by weight in the earth's crust.
(2) It is also known as Graham's salt.
(3) It is polymeric compound and is water soluble.
(4) It doesnot remove Cat ion by precipitation.
5. Which of the following forms of hydrogen emits low energy β− particles?

(1) Proton H+ (2) Deuterium 21H (3) Protium 11H (4) Tritium 31 H

Statement I: H2O2 can act as both oxidising and reducing agent in basic medium.
Statement II: In the hydrogen economy, the energy is transmitted in the form of dihydrogen.
below:
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is truea
7. The correct statements about H2O2

(A) used in the treatment of effluents.
(B) used as both oxidising and reducing agents.
(C) the two hydroxyl groups lie in the same plane.
(D) miscible with water.
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) (B), (C) and(D) only (4) (A), (C) and(D) only
8. The INCORRECT statement(s) about heavy water is (are)

(a) used as a moderator in nuclear reactor
(b) obtained as a by-product in fertilizer industry.
(c) used for the study of reaction mechanism
(d) has a higher dielectric constant than water
(1) (B) only (2) (C) only (3) (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only
9. In basic medium, H2O2 exhibits which of the following reactions?

Mn2+  Mn4+ l2  l– PbS PbSO4
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (C) only (2) (A) only (3) (B) only (4) (A), (B) only
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (4)

1. The highest industrial consumption of molecular hydrogen is to produce compounds of
element:
(A) Carbon (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Chlorine
2. In the industrial production of which of the following, molecular hydrogen is obtained as a

byproduct?
(1) NaOH (2) Na metal (3) NaCl (4) Na2CO3
3. Boiling of hard water is helpful in removing the temporary hardness by converting
calciumhydrogen carbonate and magnesium hydrogen carbonate to
(1) CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2 (2) CaCO3 and M2CO3
(3) Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3 (4) Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2

4. Hydrogen has three isotopes protium (1H), deuterium (2H or D) and tritium (3H or T). They
have nearly same chemical properties but different physical properties. They differ in
(1) number of protons (2) atomic number
(3) electronic configuration (4) atomic mass
5. Which one of the following reactions indicates the reducing ability of hydrogen peroxide in
basic medium?
(1) HOCl + H2O2  H3O + + Cr+ O2
(2) PbS + 4H2O2  PbSO4 + 4H2O
(3) 2MnO4 +3H2O2  2MnO2 +3O2 +2H2O+2OH–
(4) Mn2+ + H2O2  Mn4+ + 2OH–
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3)
Chapter: S-Block Year 2020
1. In the following reactions products(A) and (B), respectively, are:

NaOH + Cl2  (A) + side products
(hot and conc.)
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2  (B) + side products
(dry)
(1) NaClO3 and Ca(OCl)2 (2) NaOCl and Ca(ClO3)2
(3) NaClO3 and Ca(ClO3)2 (4) NaOCl and Ca(OCl)2
2. When gypsum is heated to 393 K, it forms:

(1) Dead burnt plaster (2) Anhydrous CaSO4
(3) CaSO4.5H2O (4) CaSO4.0.5H2O
3. A metal (A) on heating in nitrogen gas gives compound B. B on treatment with H2O gives a
colourless gas which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a dark blue-violet coloured
solution. A and B respectively, are:
(1) Mg and Mg3N2 (2) Na and NaNO3
(3) Mg and Mg(NO3)2 (4) Na and Na3N
4. Among the statements (a)-(d) the correct ones are:

(a) Lithium has the highest hydration enthalpy among the alkali metals.
(b) Lithium chloride is insoluble in pyridine.
(c) Lithium cannot form ethynide upon its reaction with ethyne.
(d) Both lithium and magnesium react slowly with H2O.
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only

5. Match the following compounds (Column-I) with their uses (Column-II):
(1) (I)-(D), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(B) (2) I)-(B), (II)-(C), (III)-(D), (IV)-(A)
(3) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A) (4) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(C)
6. An alkaline earth metal 'M' readily forms water soluble sulphate and water insoluble
hydroxide. Its oxide MO is very stable to heat and does not have rock-salt structure. M is:
(1) Ca (2) Be (3) Mg (4) Sr
7. On combustion Li, Na and K in excess of air, the major oxides formed, respectively, are:
(1) Li2O, Na2O and K2O2 (2) Li2O, Na2O2 and K2O
(3) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2 (4) Li2O2, Na2O2 and K2O2
8. If you spill a chemical toilet cleaning liquid on your hand, your first aid would be:
(1) aqueous NH3 (2) vinegar
(3) aqueous NaHCO3 (4) aqueous NaOH
9. The metal mainly used in devising photoelectric cells is:

(1) Na (2) Rb (3) Li (4) Cs
10. Two elements A and B have similar chemical properties. They don't form solid
hydrogencarbonates, but react with nitrogen to form nitrides. A and B, respectively, are:
(1) Na and C (2) Li and Mg (3) Cs and Ba (4) Na and Rb
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2)

1. Number of amphoteric compounds among the following is
(A) BeO
(B) BaO
(C) Be(OH)2
(D) Sr(OH)2

2. Match List–I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) LiCl (i) 455.5 nm
(b) NaCl (ii) 970.8 n,
(c) RbCl (iii) 780.0 nm
(d) CsCl (iv) 589.0 nm
(1) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iv), (d) − (iii) (2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (iii), (d) − (i)
(3) (a) − (iv), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iii), (d) − (i) (4) (a) − (i), (b) − (iv), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iii)
3. The Correct set from the following in which both pairs are in correct order of melting point
is
(1) LiF > LiCl; NaCl > MgO (2) LiF > LiCl; MgO > NaCl
(3) LiCl > LiF; NaCl > MgO (4) LiCl > LiF; MgO > NaCl
4. Among the following, number of metal/s which can be used as electrodes in the
photoelectric cell is ____ (Integer answer).
(A) Li (B) Na (C) Rb (D) Cs

Statement I: Both CaCl2 6H2O and MgCl2.8H2O undergo dehydration on heating.
Statement II: is amphoteric whereas the oxides of other elements in the same group are
acidic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
6. Statement I: Sodium hydride can be used as an oxidising agent.

Statement II: The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic.
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below:
(2) Statement is true but statement II is false
7. The correct order of conductivity of ions in water is :

(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(3) K+ > Na+ > Cs+ > Rb+ (4) Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+
8. The functional groups that are responsible for the ion-exchange property of cation and anion
exchange resins, respectively, are:
(1) −SO3H and −NH2 (2) −SO3H and −COOH
(3) −NH2 and −COOH (4) −NH2 and −SO3H
9. One of the by-products formed during the recovery of NH3 from Solvay process is :
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) NaHCO3 (3) CaCl2 (4) NH4Cl

List-I List-II
(a) Ca(OCI)2 (i) Antacid
1
(b) CaSO4. H2O (ii) Cement
4
(c) CaO (iii) Bleach
(d) CaCO3 (iv) Plaster of paris
(1) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii (2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i (4) a – iii, b – ii, c – I, d – iv
11. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as R
reason
Assertion A: During the boiling of water having temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is converted
to MgCO3
Reason R: The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is greater than that of MgCO3.
given below:
(1) Both and are true but is not the correct explanation of A
(2) is true but is false
(3) Both A and are true and is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false and is also false
12. The secondary valency and the number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) in CuSO4 
5H2O, respectively, are
(1) 6 and 4 (2) 4 and 1 (3) 6 and 5 (4) 5 and 1
13. Match List-I with List- II :

List-I List-II
(a) Be (i) Treatment of cancer
(b) Mg (ii) Extraction of metals
(c) Ca (iii) Incendiary bombs and signals
(d) Ra (iv) Windows of X-ray tubes
(v) Bearings for motor engines.
Choose the most appropriate answer the option given below:
(1) a − iv, b − iii, c − i, d − ii (2) a − iv, b − iii, c − ii, d − i
(3) a − iii, b − iv, c − v, d − ii (4) a − iii, b − iv, c − ii, d – v
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (2)

1. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol.
(B) The oxides Li2O and MgO combine with excess of oxygen to give superoxide.
(C) LiF is less soluble in water than other alkali metal fluorides.
(D) Li2o is more soluble in water than other alkali metal oxides.
(1) (A) and (C) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (C) only
2. Which one of the following compounds is used as a chemical in certain type of fire
extinguishers?
(1) Baking Soda (2) Soda ash (3) Washing Soda (4) Caustic Soda
3. In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green flame with blue centre was observed. Which
one of the following cations may be present?
(1) Cu2+ (2) Sr2+ (3) Ba2+ (4) Ca2+
4. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal ions has the highest ionic mobility in its
aqueous solution?
(1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Sr2+
5. The correct order of melting point is:

(1) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr (2) Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
(3) Be > Ca > Mg > Sr (4) Be > Ca > Sr > Mg
6. s-block element which cannot be qualitatively confirmed by the flame test is

(1) Li (2) Na (3) Rb (4) Be
7. Addition of H2SO4 to BaO2 produces:

(1) BaO, SO2 and H2O (2) BaHSO4 and O2
(3) BaSO4, H2 and O2 (4) BaSO4 and H2O2
8. BeCl2 reacts with LiAlH4 to give

(1) Be+ Li[AICl4] + H2 (2) Be + AIH3 + LiCI + HCI
(3) BeH2 + LiCI + AICl3 (4) (D) BeH2 + Li[AIC14]
9. BeO reacts with HF in presence of ammonia to give [A] which on thermal decomposition
produces [B] and ammonium fluorides. Oxidation state of Be in [A] is _________
10. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Metal) (Emitted light wavelength)
(A) Li (I) 670.8
(B) Na (II) 589.2
(C) Rb (III) 780.0
(D) Cs (IV) 455.5
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

11. Amongst baking soda, caustic soda and washing soda carbonate anion is present in:
(1) washing soda only.
(2) washing soda and caustic soda only.
(3) washing soda and baking soda only.
(4) baking soda, caustic soda and washing soda.
12. Choose the correct order of density of the alkali metals:

(1) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs (2) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(3) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li (4) Li < Na < K < Cs < Rb
13. The correct order of density is

(1) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr (2) Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
(3) Sr > Be > Mg > Ca (4) Be > Sr > Mg > Ca
14. Which of the following can be used to prevent the decomposition of H2O2?
(1) Urea (2) Formaldehyde (3) Formic acid (4) Ethanol
15. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: LiF is sparingly soluble in water.
Reason R: The ionic radius of Li+ ion is smallest among its group members, hence has least
hydration enthalpy.
given below.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
16. An element A of group 1 shows similarity to an element B belonging to group 2. If A has

maximum hydration enthalpy in group 1 then B is:
(1) Mg (2) Be (3) Ca (4) Sr
17. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Low solubility of LiF in water is due to its small hydration enthalpy.
(2) KO2 is paramagnetic.
(3) Solution of sodium in liquid ammonia is conducting in nature.
(4) Sodium metal has higher density than potassium metal
18. The products obtained during treatment of hard water using Clark's method are:
(1) CaCO3 and MgCO3 (2) Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2
(3) CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3
19. Statement I: An alloy of lithium and magnesium is used to make aircraft plates.
Statement II: The magnesium ions are important for cell-membrane integrity.
In the light the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

20. Lithium nitrate and sodium nitrate, when heated separately, respectively, give :
(1) LiNO2 and NaNO2 (2) Li2O and Na2O
(3) Li2O (4) LiNO2 and Na2O
21. Portland cement contains 'X' to enhance the setting time. What is 'X'?
1
(1) CaSO4. H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O (3) CaSO4 (4) CaCO3
2
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (2)
Chapter: d and f Block Elements Year 2020

K2 Cr2O7 (s) dil.H2 SO4
1. NaCl  (A) 
Conc.H2 SO4
 (B) 
 (C)
NaOH
H2 O2
Determine total number of atoms in per unit formula of (A), (B) & (C)
2. Among the following least 3rd ionization energy is for

(1) Mn (2) Co (3) Fe (4) Ni
3. Assertion: It has been found that for hydrogenation reaction the catalytic activity increases
from group- 5 to group-11 metals with maximum activity being shown by groups 7-9
elements of the periodic table.
Reason: For 7-9 group elements adsorption rate is maximum.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct exp I an ation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true & reason is false.
(4) Both are incorrect
4. Total number of Cr–O bonds in Chromate ion and dichromate ion is.
5. The oxidation states of transition metal atoms in K2Cr2O7, KMnO4 and K2FeO4, respectively,
are x, y and z. The sum of x, y and z is
6. The incorrect statement is

(1) Manganate and permanganate ions are paramagnetic
(2) Manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral
(3) Manganate ion is green in colour and permanganate ion is purple in colour
(4) In manganate and permanganate ions, the  -bonding takes place by overlap of p-orbitals
of oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese
7. The incorrect statement(s) among (a) - (c) is (are)

(a) W (VI) is more stable than Cr (VI).
(b) In the presence of HCI, permanganate titrations provide satisfactory results.
(c) Some lanthanoid oxides can be used as phosphors.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (b) only
8. The correct electronic configuration and spinonly magnetic moment (BM) of Gd3+ (Z = 64)
respectively, are
(1) [Xe]5f7 and 8.9 (2) [Xe]4f7 and 7.9 (3) [Xe]5f7 and 7.9 (4) [Xe]4f7 and 8.9

9. The lanthanoid that does NOT show + 4 oxidation state is
(1) Tb (2) Dy (3) Ce (4) Eu
10. Mischmetal is an alloy consisting mainly of

(1) lanthanoid and actinoid metals (2) actinoid and transition metals
(3) lanthanoid metals (4) actinoid metals
11. The electronic configurations of bivalent europium and trivalent cerium are:
(atomic number : Xe = 54, Ce= 58, Eu= 63)
(1) [Xe] 4f7, [Xe] 4f1 (2) [Xe] 4f7 6s2, [Xe] 4f1
(3) [Xe] 4f 6s , [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
7 2 1 1 2
(4) [Xe] 4f7, [Xe] 4f15d16s2
12. The sum of the total number of bonds between chromium and oxygen atoms in chromate
and dichromate ions is
ANSWER KEY
1. 18.00 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. 12.00 5. 19.00 6. (1) 7. (4)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. 12.00

1. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(1) VOSO4 is a reducing agent
(2) Red colour of ruby is due to the presence of CO3+
(3) Cr2O3 is an amphoteric oxide
(4) RuO4 is an oxidizing agent
2. What is the correct order of the following elements with respect to their density ?
(1) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn (2) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe
(3) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr (4) Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu
3. In which of the following pairs, the outer most electronic configuration will be the same ?
(1) Fe2+ and Co+ (2) Cr+ and Mn2+ (3) Ni2+ and Cu+ (4) V2+ and Cr+
4. On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4, gas X is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 paper
acidified with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound Y. X and Y respectively are :
(1) X = SO2, Y = Cr2(SO4)3 (2) X = SO2, Y = Cr2O3
(3) X = SO3, Y = Cr2O3 (4) X = SO3, Y = Cr2(SO4)3
5. Which one of the following lanthanoids does not form MO2?

[M is lanthanoid metal]
(1) Nd (2) Yb (3) Dy (4) Pr
6. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation number of Cr in the product formed is :

7. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A: Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion.
Reason R: The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.
below
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Statement I: The E° value of Ce4+ /Ce3+ is +1.74 V
Statement II: Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state than Ce3+ state.
given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
9. When 35 mL of 0.15M lead nitrate solution is mixed with 20 mL of 0.12M chromic sulphate
solution, ___ × 10–5 moles of lead sulphate precipitate out. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Statement I: Potassium permanganate on heating at 573 K forms potassium manganate.
Statement II: Both potassium permanganate and potassium manganate are tetrahedral and
paramagnetic in nature.
given below:
11. The common positive oxidation states for an element with atomic number 24 , are :
(1) +2 to +6 (2) +1 and +3 to +6 (3) +1 and +3 (4) +1 to +6
12. On complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in aqueous solution containing KOH, resulted
in the formation of product A. The secondary valency of Fe in the product A is ____
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. 06.00 7. (4)

8. (4) 9. 525.00 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. 06.00

1. The difference in oxidation state of chromium in chromate and dichromate salts is
2. Manganese (VI) has ability to disproportionate in acidic solution. The difference in oxidation
states of two ions it forms in acidic solution is
3. Cerium (IV) has a noble gas configuration. Which of the following is correct statement about
it?
(1) It will not prefer to undergo redox reactions.
(2) It will prefer to gain electron and act as an oxidizing agent
(3) It will prefer to give away an electron and behave as reducing agent
(4) It acts as both, oxidizing and reducing agent.
4. Among the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent?

(1) Mn3+ (2) Fe3+ (3) Ti3+ (4) Cr3+
5. The metal ion (in gaseous state) with lowest spin- only magnetic moment value is
(1) V2+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Cr2+ (4) Fe2+
6. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the most basic oxide of vanadium among V2O3,
V2O4 and V2O5 is ____ B.M. (Nearest Integer)
7. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is + 3. Which of the following is
likely to deviate easily from+ 3 oxidation state?
(1) Ce (At. No. 58) (2) La (At. No. 57) (3) Lu (At. No. 71) (4) Gd (At. No. 64)
8. The number of statement(s) correct from the following for copper (at no. 29) is/are ___
(1) Cu(II) complexes are always paramagnetic
(2) Cu(I) complexes are generally colourless
(3) Cu(I) is easily oxidized
(4) In Fehling solution, the active reagent has Cu(I)
9. Acidified potassium permanganate solution oxidises oxalic acid. The spin-only magnetic
moment of the manganese product formed from the above reaction 1s B.M. (Nearest Integer)
10. The 'f orbitals are half and completely filled, respectively in lanthanide ions
(Given: Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66]
(1) Eu2+ and Tm2+ (2) Tb4+ and Yb2+ (3) Sm2+ and Tm3+ (4) Dy3+ and Yb3+
11. Dihydrogen reacts with CuO to give

(1) CuH2 (2) Cu (3) Cu2O (4) Cu(OH)2
12. Which one of the lanthanoids given below is the most stable in divalent form? :
(1) Ce (Atomic Number 58) (2) Sm (Atomic Number 62)
(3) Eu (Atomic Number 63) (4) Yb (Atomic Number 70)
13. The number of terminal oxygen atoms present in the product B obtained from the following
reaction is _____.
FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3+ O2  A+ Fe2O3 + CO2 A+ Ir  B+ H2O + Na+

14. An acidified manganate solution undergoes disproportionation reaction. The spin-only
magnetic moment value of the product having manganese in higher oxidation state is
_____B.M. (Nearest integer)
15. The reaction of H2O2 with potassium permanganate In acidic medium leads to the formation
of mainly:
(1) Mn2+ (2) Mn4+ (3) Mn3+ (4) Mn6+
16. Among Co3+, Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ ions, one if used as a reagent cannot liberate H2 from dilute
mineral acid solution, its spin-only magnetic moment In gaseous state is ...... B.M.
(Nearest integer)
17. The products obtained from a reaction of hydrogen peroxide and acidified potassium
permanganate are
(1) Mn4+, H2O only (2) Mn2+, H2O only
(3) Mn4+, H2O, O2 only (4) Mn2+, H2O, O2 only
18. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the compound with strongest oxidizing ability
among MnF4, MnF3 and MnF2 is B .M. [Nearest integer]

Statement I: Iron (111) catalyst, acidified K2Cr2O7 and neutral KMnO4 have the ability to oxidise
I– to I2 independently.
Statement II: Manganate ion is paramagnetic nature and involves p -p bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options.
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are ture
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are false
20. The total number of Mn = 0 bonds in Mn2O7 is n

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3
21. In the titration of KMnO4 and oxalic acid in acidic medium, the change in oxidation number
of carbon at the end point is_______
22. In neutral or alkaline solution, MnO4 oxidises thiosulphate to:

(1) S2O72 (2) S2O82 (3) SO23  (4) SO24
23. The oxidation state of manganese in the product obtained in a reaction of potassium
permanganate and hydrogen peroxide in basic medium is __________
24. Which of the following has least tendency to liberate H2 from mineral acids?
(1) Cu (2) Mn (3) Ni (4) Zn
25. The disproportionation of MnO24 in acidic medium resulted in the formation of two
manganese compounds A and B. If the oxidation state of Mn in B is smaller than that of A,
then the spin-only magnetic moment (μ) value of B in BM is ____________. (Nearest Integer)

26. Which of the following pair 1s not isoelectronic species?
(At. no. Sm, 62; Er, 68: Yb, 70: Lu, 71; Eu, 63: Tb, 65; Tm, 69)
(1) Sm2+ and Eu3+ (2) Yb2+ and Lu3+ (3) Eu2+ and Tb4+ (4) Tb2+ and Tm4+
27. The reaction of zinc with excess of aqueous alkali, evolves hydrogen gas and gives :
(1) Zn(OH)2 (2) ZnO (3) [Zn(OH)4]2– (4) [ZnO2]2–
28. In following pairs, the one in which both transition metal ions are colourless is :
(1) Sc3+, Zn2+ (2) Ti4+, Cu2+ (3) V2+, Ti3+ (1) Zn2+, Mn2+
29. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 being a powerful oxidant can oxidize,
thiosulphate almost quantitatively, to sulphate. In this reaction overall change in oxidation
state of manganese will be:
(1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 3
30. Which of the following 3d-metal ion will give the lowest enthalpy of hydration (hydH) when
dissolved in water?
(1) Cr2+ (2) Mn2+ (3) Fe2+ (4) Co2+
ANSWER KEY
1. (00.00) 2. (03.00) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (03.00) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (06.00) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (06.00) 14. (00.00)
15. (A) 16. (05.00) 17. (4) 18. (05.00) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (01.00)
22. (4) 23. (04.00) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (2)
Chapter: p-block elements Year 2020

1. Chlorine reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH and produces compounds (X) and (Y).
Compound (X) gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution. The average bond order
between Cl and O atoms in (Y) is ___.
2. The redox reaction among the following is:

(1) Combination of dinitrogen with dioxygen at 2000 K
(2) Formation of ozone from atmosphereic oxygen in the presence of sunlight
(3) Reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
(4) Reaction of [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 with AgNO3
3. Among the statements (a) - (d), the correct ones are–

(a) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide gives dioxygen
(b) Like hydrogen peroxide, compounds, such as KClO3, Pb(NO3)2 and NaNO3 when heated
liberated dioxygen
(c) 2-Ethylanthraquinone is useful for the industrial preparation of hydrogen peroxide.
(d) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the manufacture of sodium perborate
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) , (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
4. The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen atoms in S2O82– and the number of bonds
between sulphur and sulphur atoms in rhombic sulphur, respectively, are:
(1) 4 and 8 (2) 4 and 6 (3) 8 and 8 (4) 8 and 6

5. White Phosphorus on reaction with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of
CO2 gives phosphine and compound (X). (X) on acidification with HCl gives compound (Y).
The basicity of compound (Y) is:
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
6. The reaction of H3N3B3Cl3 (A) with LiBH4 in tetrahydrofuran gives inorganic benzene (B).
Further, the reaction of (A) with (C) leads to H3N3B3(Me)3. Compounds (B) and (C) respectively,
are:
(1) Boron nitride and MeBr (2) Borazine and MeMgBr
(3) Borazine and MeBr (4) Diborane and MeMgBr
7. The reaction of NO with N2O4 at 250 K gives:

(1) N2O5 (2) NO2 (3) N2O (4) N2O3
8. Reaction of ammonia with excess Cl2 gives:

(1) NH4Cl and N2 (2) NCl3 and NH4Cl (3) NH4Cl and HCl (4) NCl3 and HCl
9. The correct statement with respect to dinitrogen is:

(1) liquid dinitrogen is not used in cryosurgery.
(2) it can be used as an inert diluent for reactive chemicals.
(3) it can combine with dioxygen at 25°C
(4) N2 is paramagnetic in nature.
10. The equation that represents the water-gas shift reaction is:
673 K
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g) 
Catalyst
 CO2(g) + H2(g)
1270 K
(2) CH4(g) + H2O(g) 
Ni
 CO(g) + 3H2(g)
1270 K
(3) C(s) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + H2(g)
1273 K
(4) 2C(s) + O2(g) + 4N2(g)  2CO(g) + 4N2(g)
11. On heating, lead(II) nitrate gives a brown gas (A). The gas (A) on cooling changes to a
colourless solid/liquid (B). (B) on heating with NO changes to a blue solid (C). The oxidation
number of nitrogen in solid (C) is:
(1) +5 (2) +2 (3) +4 (4) +3
12. The statement that is not true about ozone is:

(1) in the stratosphere, it forms a protective shield against UV radiation.
(2) it is a toxic gas and its reaction with NO gives NO2.
(3) in the atmosphere, it is depleted by CFCs.
(4) in the stratophere, CFCs release chlorine free radicals (Cl)& which reacts with O3 to give
chlorine dioxide radicals.
13. On heating compound (A) gives a gas (B) which is constituent of air. This gas when treated
with H2 in the presence of a catalyst gives another gas (C) which is basic in nature.
(A) should not be:
(1) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (2) Pb(NO3)2 (3) NaN3 (4) NH4NO2

ANSWER KEY
1. (1.66 to 1.67) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (2)

7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4)
13. (2)

1. Find A, B and C in the following reaction:
NH3 + A + CO2  (NH4)2CO3
(NH4)2CO3 + H2O + B  NH4HCO3
NH4HCO3 + NaCl  NH4Cl + C
(1) A − H2O; B − CO2; C − NaHCO3 (2) A − H2O; B − O2; C − Na2CO3
(3) A − O2; B − CO2; C − Na2CO3 (4) A − H2O; B − O2; C − NaHCO3
2. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature?

(1) N2O, BaO (2) CaO, SiO2 (3) B2O3, CaO (4) B2O3, SiO2
3. Match List-I with List-II.

List I List II
(1) Sodium Carbonate (i) Deacon
(2) Titanium (ii) Caster-Callner
(3) Chlorine (iii) Van-Arkal
(4) Sodium hydroxide (iv) Solvay
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) (1) − (iii), (2) − (ii), (3) − (i), (4) − (iv) (2) (1) − (iv), (2) − (iii), (3) − (i), (4) − (ii)
(3) (1) − (iv), (2) − (i), (3) − (ii), (4) − (iii) (4) (1) − (i), (2) − (iii), (3) − (iv), (4) − (ii)

List I List II
Industrial Process Application
(1) Haber’s process (i) HNO3 synthesis
(2) Ostwald’s process (ii) Aluminium extraction
(3) Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis
(4) Half-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis
(1) (1) − (ii), (2) − (iii), (3) − (iv), (4) − (i) (2) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii)
(3) (1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(iv), (4)-(ii) (4) (1) − (iv), (2) − (i), (3) − (ii), (4) − (iii)
5. A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing power
among group 15 hydrides. The element is:
(1) Sb (2) P (3) As (4) Bi
6. The number of ionisable hydrogens present in the product obtained from a reaction of
phosphorus trichloride and phosphonic acid is:
(1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 1

7. The INCORRECT statement regarding the structure of C60 is:
(1) The six-membered rings are fused to both six and five-membered rings.
(2) Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.
(3) The five-membered rings are fused only to six-membered rings.
(4) It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24 five-membered rings.

List – I List - II
Name of oxo acid Oxidation state of ‘P’
(a) Hypophosphorous acid (i) +5
(b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4
(c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3
(d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2
(v) +1
(1) (a) − (v), (b) − (i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iii) (2) (a) − (iv), (b) − (i), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iii)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (v), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii) (4) (a) − (v), (b) − (iv), (c) − (ii), (d) − (iii)
9. Fex2 and Fey3 are known when x and y are:

(1) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br (2) x = F, Cl, Br and y = F, Cl, Br, I
(3) x = Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I (4) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I
10. The reaction of white phosphorus on boiling with alkali in inert atmosphere resulted in the
formation of product 'A'. The reaction 1 mol of 'A' with excess of AgNO3 in aqueous medium
gives _____ mol(s) of Ag. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
11. The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides of nitrogen is:
(1) NO and N2O (B) N2O and N2O3 (3) N2O and NO2 (4) NO and NO2

(a) Deacron’s process (i) ZSM-5
(b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2
(c) Cracking of hydrocarbons (iii) Particles ‘Ni’
(d) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (iv) V2O5
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below –
(1) a − ii, b − iv, c − i, d − iii
(2) a − i, b − iii, c − ii, d − iv
(3) a − iii, b − i, c − iv, d − ii
(4) a − iv, b − ii, c − i, d – iii
13. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2, N2O and NO3 are in the order of :
(1) NO3 > NO2 > NO > N2O
(2) NO2 > NO3 > NO > N2O
(3) N2O > NO2 > NO > NO3
(4) NO > NO2 > N2O > NO3
14. A xenon compound 'A' upon partial hydrolysis gives XeO2F2. The number of lone pair of
electrons present in compound A is________ (Round off to the Nearest integer)

Statement I: Colourless cupric metaborate is reduced to cuprous metaborate in a luminous
flame.
Statement II: Cuprous metaborate is obtained by heating boric anhydride and copper
sulphate in a nonluminous flame. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(2) Statement is true but Statement II is false.
16. Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the number of allotropic forms, which will
show paramagnetism is
(1)  -sulphur (2)  -sulphur (3) S2 -form
17. The correct statement about B2H6 is:

(1) All B-H-B angles are of 120°.
(2) Its fragment, BH3, behaves as a Lewis base.
(3) Terminal B-H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridging bonds.
(4) The two B – H – B bonds are not of same length.
18. Among the following, the number of halide(s) which is/are inert to hydrolysis is
(A) BF3 (B) SiCl4 (C) PCl5 (D) SF3

Statement I:  and  forms of sulphur can change reversibly between themselves with slow
heating or slow cooling.
Statement II: At room temperature the stable crystalline form of sulphur is monoclinic
sulphur. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
20. Which of the following compound is added to the sodium extract before addition of silver
nitrate for testing of halogens?
(1) Nitric acid (2) Sodium hydroxide
(3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Ammonia
21. Compound A used as a strong oxidizing agent is amphoteric in nature. It is the part of lead
storage batteries compound is:
(1) Pb3O4 (2) PbO2 (3) PbSO4 (4) PbO
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. 19.00
15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (2)

1. The most stable trihalide of nitrogen is:
(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (3) NBr3 (4) NI3
2. The number of bridged oxygen atoms present in compound B formed from the following
reactions is
673 K
Pb(NO3)2 
 A+ PbO + O2
Dimerise
A   B
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
3. Aqueous solution of which of the following boron compounds will be strongly basic in
nature?
(1) NaBH4 (2) LiBH4 (3) B2H6 (4) Na2B4O7
Reason R.
Assertion A: Boric acid is a weak acid
Reason R: Boric acid is not able to release H+ ion on its own. It receives OH– ion from water
and releases H+ ion.
given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
5. Match List - I with List - II.

List-I (Processes/Reactions) List-II (Catalyst)
(1) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) (I) Fe(s)
(2) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) (II) Pt(s)–Rh(s)
(3) N2(g) + 3Hi(g) 2NH3(g) (III) V2O5
(4) Vegetable oil(l) + H2 Vegetable ghee(s) (IV) Ni(s)
(1) (1) - (III), (2) - (I), (3) - (II), (4) - (IV) (2) (1) - (III), (2) - (II), (3) - (I), (4) - (IV)
(3) (1) - (IV), (2) - (III), (3) - (I), (4) - (II) (4) (1) - (IV), (2) - (II), (3) - (III), (4) - (I)
6. White phosphorus reacts with thionyl chloride to give

(1) PCl5, SO2 and S2Cl2 (2) PCl3. SO2 and S2Cl2
(3) PCl3, SO2 and Cl2 (4) PCl5 , SO2 and Cl2
7. On reaction with stronger oxidizing agent like KIO4, hydrogen peroxide oxidizes with the
evolution of O2. The oxidation number ofl in KIO4 changes to_____.
8. Match list - I with List - II

(1) N2(g) +3H2(g)  2NH3(g) (I) Cu
(2) CO(g) +3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H2O(g) (II) Cu/ZnO – Cr2O3
(3) CO(g) + H2(g)  HCHO(g) (III) FexOy + K2O + Al2O3
(4) CO(g) + 2H2(g)  CH3OH(g) (IV) Ni
(1) (1) - (II), (2) - (IV), (3) - (I), (4) - (III) (2) (1) - (II), (2) - (I), (3) - (IV), (4) - (III)
(3) (1) - (III), (2) - (IV), (3) - (I), (4) - (II) (4) (1) - (III), (2) - (I), (3) - (IV), (4) - (II)

9. The geometry around boron in the product 'B' formed from the following reaction is
BF3  NaH 
450K
 A  NaF
A + NMe3  B
(1) trigonal planar (2) tetrahedral (3) pyramidal (4) square planar
10. Borazine, also known as inorganic benzene, can be prepared by the reaction of 3-equivalents
of "X" with 6-equivalents of "Y". "X" and "Y", respectively are:
(1) B(OH)3 and NH3 (2) B2H6 and NH3 (3) B2H6 and HN3 (4) NH3 and B2O3
11. The metal that has very low melting point and its periodic position is closer to a metalloid
is:
(1) Al (2) Ga (3) Se (4) In

Statement I: The chlorides of Be and Al have Cl-bridged structure. Both are soluble 1n
organic solvents and act as Lewis bases.
Statement II: Hydroxides of Be and Al dissolve in excess alkali to give beryllate and aluminate
ions. In the light of the above statements. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are false
13. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (1): Boron is unable to form BF63
Reason (R): Size of B is very small. In the light of the above statements, choose correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
14. When borax is heated with CoO on a platinum loop, blue coloured bead formed is largely
due to:
(1) B2O3 (2) Co(BO2)2 (3) CoB4O7 (4) Co[B4O5(OH)4]
15. Number of electron deficient molecules among the following PH3, B2H6, CCl4, LiH and BCl3 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
16. Choose the correct stability order of group 13 elements in their +1 oxidation state.
(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) Tl < In< Ga < Al
(3) Al < Ga< Tl < In (4) Al < Tl < Ga < In

17. Match the List-I with List- II.
List – I List – II
(Metal) Application
(A) Cs (I) High temperature thermometer
(B) Ga (II) Water repellent
(C) B (III) Photoelectric cells
(D) Si (IV) Bullet proof vest
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(1), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
18. The interhalogen compound formed from the reaction of bromine with excess of fluorine is
a:
(1) hypohalite (2) halate (3) perhalate (4) halite
19. The number of non-ionisable protons present in the product B obtained from the following
reaction is. _______ C2H5OH + PCl3  C2H5Cl + A
A + PCl3  B
20. The incorrect statement is

(1) The first ionization enthalpy of K is less than that of Na and Li
(2) Xe does not have the lowest first ionization enthalpy in its group
(3) The first ionization enthalpy of element with atomic number 37 is lower than that of the
element with atomic number 38.
(4) The first ionization enthalpy of Ga is higher than that of the d-block element with atomic
number 30.
21. Which oxoacid of phosphorous has the highest number of oxygen atoms present in its
chemical formula?
(1) Phrophosphotrous acid (2) Hypophosphoric acid
(3) Phosphoric acid (4) Pyrophosphoric acid
22. Match List – I with List - II

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

23. Match List -I with List–II, match evolved during each reaction.

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D)- (IV) (2) (1) - (III), (2) - (I), (3) - (IV), (4) - (II)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (4) (1) - (III), (2) - (IV), (3) - (I), (4) - (II)
24. The number of interhalogens from the following having square pyramidal structure is :
ClF3, IF7, BrF5, BrF3, I2Cl6, IF5, ClF, ClF5
25. Concentrated HN03 reacts with Iodine to give

(1) HI, NO2 and H2O (2) HIO2, N2O and H2O
(3) HIO3, NO2 and H2O (4) HIO4, N2O and H2O
26. Dinitrogen and dioxygen. the main constituents of air do not react with each other in
atmosphere to form oxides of nitrogen because
(1) N2 is unreactive in the condition of atmosphere.
(2) Oxides of nitrogen are unstable.
(3) Reaction between them can occur in the presence of a catalyst.
(4) The reaction is endothermic and require very high temperature.
27. Dinitrogen is a robust compound, but reacts at high altitude to form oxides. The oxide of
nitrogen that can damage plant leaves and retard photosynthesis is :
(1) NO (2) NO3 (3) NO2 (4) NO2
28. Consider the following Sulphure based oxoacids.

H2SO3, H2SO4, H2S2O8 and H2S2O7
Amongst these oxoacids, the number of those with peroxo(O-O) bond is ______.
29. Given below are the oxides:

Na2O, As2O3, N2O, NO and Cl2O7
Number of amphoteric oxides is:
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
30. Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those given below.
(A) In B2H6, all B-H bonds are equivalent.
(B) In B2H6 there are four 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(C) B2H6 is a Lewis acid.
(D) B2H6 can be synthesized form both BF3 and NaBH4.
(E) B2H6 is a planar molecule.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (E) only (3) (C) and (D) only
(2) (A), (C) and (E) only (4) (C) and (E) only
31. Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth?
(1) Ca2+ (2) P3+ (3) F– (4) P5+

32. PCl5 is well known. but NCl5 is not. Because.
(1) nitrogen is less reactive than phosphorous.
(2) nitrogen doesn't have cl-orbitals in its valence shell.
(3) catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen than phosphorous.
(4) size of phosphorous is larger than nitrogen.
33. Consider the following reactions:

PCl3 + H2O  A + HCl
A + H2O  B + HCl
number of ionizable protons present in the product B ________.
34. Consider the following reaction :

(1)Electroltsis
2HSO4 (aq) 
(2)Hydrolysis
 2HSO4  2H  A
The angle in product A in its solid phase at 110 K is :
(1) 104° (2) 111.5° (3) 90.2° (4) 111.0°
35. The correct order of melting points of hydrides of group 16 elements is:
(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O (2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(3) H2S < H2Te < H2Se < H2O (4) H2Se < H2S < H2Te < H2O
36. Consider the following reaction:

A + alkali  B (Major Product)
If B is an oxoacid of phosphours with no P–H bond, then A is:
(1) white P4 (2) Red P4 (3) P2O3 (4) H3PO3
37. Polar stratospheric clouds facilitate the formation of:

(1) ClONO2 (2) HOCl (3) ClO (4) CH4

List-I List-II
(Si-Compounds) (Si-Polymeric/other products)
(A) (CH3)4Si (I) Chain silicone
(B) (CH3) Si(OH)3 (II) Dimeric silicone
(C) (CH3)2Si(OH)2 (III) Silane
(D) (CH3)3Si(OH) (IV) 2D - Silicone
(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
39. Heating white phosphorus with cone. NaOH at solution gives mainly
(1) Na3P and H2O (2) H3PO and NaH
(3) P(OH)3 and NaH2PO4 (4) PH3 and NaH2PO2
40. The gas produced by treating an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride with sodium nitrite
is
(1) NH3 (2) N2 (3) N2O (4) Cl2

Reason R.
Assertion A: Flourine forms one oxoacid.
Reason R: Flourine has smallest size amongst all halogens and is highly electronegative In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
42. On the surface of polar stratospheric clouds, hydrolysis of chlorine nitrate gives A and B
while its reaction with HCl produces B and C. A, B and C are, respectively
(1) HOCl, HNO3, Cl2 (2) Cl2, HNO3, HOCl
(3) HClO2, HNO2, HOCl (4) HOCl, HNO2, Cl2O
43. Nitrogen gas is obtained by thermal decomposition of

(1) Ba(NO3)2 (2) Ba(N3)2 (3) NaNO2 (4) NaNO3
44. Given below are two statements :

Statement -I :The pentavalent oxide of group- 15 element. E2O5. is less acidic than trivalent
oxide. E2O3. of the same element.
Statement -II :The acidic character of trivalent oxide of group 15 elements. E2O3. decreases
down the group.
In light of the above statements. choose most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(3) Statement I true. but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
45. Among the following basic oxide is :

(1) SO3 (2) SiO2 (3) CaO (4) Al2O3
46. Among the given oxides of nitrogen; N2O, N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5, the number of compound/(s)
having N–N bond is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
47. Which of the following oxoacids of Sulphur contains "S" in two different oxidation states?
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O6 (3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S2O8
48. The oxoacid of phosphorus that is easily obtained from a reaction of alkali and white
phosphorus and has two P-H bonds, is :
(1) Phosphonic acid (2) Phosphinic acid
(3) Pyrophosphorus acid (4) Hypophosphoric acid
49. The acid that is believed to be mainly responsible for the damage of Taj Mahal is
(1) Sulfuric acid (2) Hydrofluoric acid (3) Phosphoric acid (4) Hydrochloric acid

ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (05.00)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (1)
Chapter: Environmental Chemistry Year 2020

1. Which of the following are "green house gases" ?
(a) CO2 (b) O2 (c) 01 (d) CFC (e) H20
(1) a, b and d (2) a, b, c and d (3) a, c and d (4) a , c, d and e
2. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is defined as ............ in ppm of O2.

(1) Required to sustain life
(2) The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic matter present in
a certain volume of a sample of water.
(3) The amount of oxygen required by anaerobic bacteria to break down the inorganic matter
present in a certain volume of a sample of water.
(4) Required photochemical reaction to degrade waste.
3. The statement that is not true about ozone is

(1) In the stratosphere, CFCs release chlorine free radicals (Cl) which reacts with O3 to give
chlorine dioxide radicals
(2) It is a toxic gas and its reaction with NO gives NO2
(3) In the atmosphere, it is depleted by CFCs
(4) In the stratosphere, it forms a protective shield against UV radiation
4. Thermal power plants can lead to

(1) Eutrophication (2) Ozone layer depletion
(3) Blue baby syndrome (4) Acid rain
5. The incorrect statement(s) among (a) - (d) regarding acid rain is (are)
(a) It can corrode water pipes.
(b) It can damage structures made up of stone.
(c) It cannot cause respiratory ailments in animals.
(d) It is not harmful for trees
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (c) only
6. The condition that indicates a polluted environment is

(1) 0.03% of CO2 in the atmosphere (2) pH of rain water to be 5.6
(3) eutrophication (4) BOD value of 5 ppm
7. he presence of soluble fluoride ion upto 1 ppm concentration in drinking water, is

(1) safe for teeth (2) harmful to skin (3) harmful for teeth (4) harmful to bones

8. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of oxygen required (in ppm):
(1) For the photochemical breakdown of waste present in 1m3 volume of a water body.
(2) for sustaining life in a water body.
(3) by bacteria to break-down organic waste in a certain volume of a water sample.
(4) by anaerobic bacteria to breakdown inorganic waste present in a water body.
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A)

8. (C)

1. The gas released during anaerobic degradation of vegetation may lead to:
(1) Global warming and cancer (2) Acid rain
(3) Corrosion of metals (4) Ozone hole

Statement I : The value of the parameter "Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)" is important
for survival of aquatic life.
Statement II : The optimum value of BOD is 6.5 ppm.
given below.

Statement-I : An allotrope of oxygen is an important intermediate in the formation of
reducing smog.
Statement-II : Gases such as oxides of nitrogen and sulphur present in troposphere
contribute to the formation of photochemical smog. In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Statement I is true about Statement II is false

Statement I : The pH of rain water is normally ~ 5.6.
Statement II : If the pH of rain water drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(4) Statement is true but statement II is false
5. The presence of ozone in troposphere :

(1) generates photochemical smog (2) Protects us from the UV radiation
(3) Protects us from the X-ray radiation (4) Protects us from greenhouse effect

6. The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence O3 of is:
(1) Reducing smog (2) Oxidising smog (3) Global warming (4) Acid rain Official
7. The green house gas/es is (are):

(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen (C) Water vapour (D) Methane
(1) (A) and (C) only (2) (A) only (3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (A) and (B) only
8. Reducing smog is a mixture of:

(1) Smoke, fog and O3
(2) Smoke, fog and SO2
(3) Smoke, fog and CH2 = CH – CHO
(4) Smoke, fog and N2O3
9. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) incorrect reason for eutrophication?

(A) excess usage of fertilisers
(B) excess usage of detergents
(C) dense plant population in water bodies
(D) lack of nutrients in water bodies that prevent plant growth
(1) (A) only (2) (C) only (3) (B) and (D) only (4) (D) only
10. The satements that are TRUE :

(A) Methane leads to both global warming and photochemical smog
(B) Methane is generated from paddy fields
(C) Methane is a stronger global warming gas than CO2
(D) Methane is a part of reducing smog
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (A) and (B) only (3) (B), (C), (D) only (4) (A), (B), (D) only

Statement I : Non-biodegradable wastes are generated by the thermal power plants.
Statement II : Bio-degradable detergents leads to eutrophication.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option
given below
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (4)

1. Some gases are responsible for heating of atmosphere (green house effect). Identify from
the following the gaseous species which does not cause it.
(1) CH4 (2) O3 (3) H2O (4) N2
2. The eutrophication of water body results in :

(1) loss of Biodiversity (2) breakdown of organic matter
(3) increase in biodiversity (4) decrease in BOD.
Reason R
Assertion A: Polluted water may have a value of BOD of the order of 17 ppm.
Reason R: BOD is a measure of oxygen required to oxidise both the biodegradable and
nonbiodegradable organic material in water.
given below.
(1) Both A and Rare correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

Statement I: Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a reducing mixture of smoke,
fog and sulphur dioxide
Statement II: Photochemical smog has components, ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein,
formaldehyde, PAN etc.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options give
below
(3) Statement I IS correct but statement II IS incorrect
5. Which amongst the following is not a pesticide ?

(1) DDT (2) Organophosphates
(3) Dieldrin (4) Sodium arsenite
6. Correct statement about photo-chemical smog is :

(1) It occurs in humid climate.
(2) It is a mixture of smoke, fog and SO2
(3) It is reducing smog.
(4) It results from reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
7. Sulphur dioxide is one of the components of polluted air. S02 is also a major contributor to
acid rain. The correct and complete reaction to represent acid rain caused by SO2 is :
(1) 2 SO2 + O2  2 SO3 (2) SO2 + O3  SO3 + O2
(3) SO2 + H2O2  H2SO4 (4) 2 SO2 + O2 + 2 H2O  2 H2SO4
8. The mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol is an example of:

(1) antiseptic (2) pesticide (3) disinfectant (4) narcotic analgesic

9. The photochemical smog does not generally contain:
(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) SO2 (4) HCHO

List I List II
Pollutant Source
A. Microorganisms I. Strip mining
B. Plant nutrients II. Domestic sewage
C. Toxic heavy metals III.Chemical
fertilizer
D. Sediment IV. Chemical factory
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
11. Match List I with List II List I List II

List I List II
Pollutant Disease /sickness
A. Sulphate (>500 ppm) I. Methemoglobinemia
B. Nitrate (>50 ppm) II. Brown mottling of teeth
C. Lead (> 50 ppb) III. Laxative effect
D. Fluoride (>2 ppm) IV. Kidney damage
(1) A-IV, B -I, C-II, D-III (2) A-III, B -I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B -IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B -IV, C-III, D-I

Statement I : The non bio-degradable fly ash and slag from steel industry can be used by
cement industry.
Statement II : The fuel obtained from plastic waste is lead free.
given below:
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I : In polluted water values of both dissolved oxygen and BOD are very low.
Statement II : Eutrophication results in decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen.
given below:
14. Which among the following pairs has only herbicides ?

(1) Aldrin and Dieldrin (2) Sodium chlorate and Aldrin
(3) Sodium arsinate and Dieldrin (4) Sodium chlorate and sodium arsinite.

15. Which of the following compounds is an example of hypnotic drug ?
(1) Seldane (2) Amytal (3) Aspartame (4) Prontosil
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (4)
15. (2)
Chapter: Quantum Number Year 2020

1
1. The number of orbitals associated with quantum numbers n=5, ms = + is :
2
(1) 11 (2) 25 (3) 15 (4) 50
2. The number of subshells associated with n = 4 and ml = –2 quantum numbers is :

(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 16
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (2)

1. The number of orbitals with n = 5, m1 = +2 is ___
2. What is the spin-only magnetic moment value (BM) of a divalent metal ion with atomic
number 25, in it's aqueous solution?
(1) 5.92 (2) 5 (3) zero (4) 5.26
3. In the ground state of atomic Fe(Z = 26), the spin-only magnetic moment is ____ ×10−1 BM.
[Given: 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41]
ANSWER KEY
1. (03.00) 2. (1) 3. (49.00)

1. Consider the following pairs of electrons
1
(A) (a) n = 3, 1 = 1, ml = 1. ms = +
2
1
(b) n = 3, 1 = 2, ml = 1, ms = +
2
1
(B) (a) n = 3, 1 = 2, ml = – 2, ms = –
2
1
(b) n = 3, 1 = 2, ml = –1, ms = –
2
1
(C) (a) n = 4, 1 = 2, ml = 2, ms = +
2
1
(b) n = 3, 1 = 2, ml = 2, ms = +
2
The pairs of electron present in degenerate orbitals is/are:
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) (B) and (C)

2. The pair, in which ions are isoelectronic with Al3+ is :
(1) Br– and Be2+ (2) Cl– and Li+ (3) S2– and K+ (4) O2– and Mg2+
3. Consider the following set of quantum numbers

n l ml
A. 3 3 –3
B. 3 2 –2
C. 2 1 +1
D. 2 2 +2
The number of correct sets of quantum numbers is _______
4. Consider the following statements :

(A) The principle quantum number ‘n’ is a positive integer with values of ‘n’ = 1, 2, 3, ……..
(B) The azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ for a given ‘n’ (principal quantum number) can have
values as ‘l’ = 0, 1, 2, ….. n
(C) Magnetic orbital quantum number ‘ml’ for a particular ‘l’ (azimuthal quantum number)
has (2l + 1) values.
(D) ± 1/2 are the two possible orientations of electron spin.
(E) For l = 5, there will be a total of 9 orbital.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E)
(3) (A), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
5. The electronic configuration of Pt (atomic number 78) is:

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d9 6s1 (2) [Kr] 4f14 5d10 (3) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 (4) [Xe] 4f14 5d8 6s2
6. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed ?

1 1
(1) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, s = + (2) n = 3, l = 2, ml = – 2, s = +
2 2
1 1
(3) n = 3, l = 3, ml = – 3, s = – (4) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, s = –
2 2
7. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen atom is greater than that of 2s orbital of
lithium.
Reason R : Energies of the orbitals in the same subshell decrease with increase in the atomic
number.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
8. The correct decreasing order of energy, for the orbitals having, following set of quantum
numbers:
(A) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0 (B) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0
(C) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0 (D) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1
(1) (D) > (B) > (C) > (A) (2) (B) > (D) > (C) > (A)
(3) (C) > (B) > (D) > (A) (4) (B) > (C) > (D) > (A)

9. Given below are the quantum numbers for 4 electrons.
A. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = + 1/2
B. n = 4 l = 1 ml = 0, ms = + 1/2
C. n = 4 l = 2 ml = – 2 ms, = – 1/2
D. n = 3, l = 1, ml = – 1, ms = + 1/2
The correct order of increasing energy is :
(1) D < B < A < C (2) D < A < B < C (3) B < D < A < C (4) B < D < C < A
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (2)
Chapter: Salt Analysis Year 2020

1. Reaction of an inorganic sulphite X with dilute H2SO4 generates compound Y. Reaction of Y
with NaOH gives X. Further, the reaction of X with Y and water affords compound Z. Y and
Z, respectively, are:
(1) S and Na2SO3 (2) SO2 and NaHSO3
(3) SO3 and NaHSO3 (4) SO2 and Na2SO3
2. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is

Assertion (A): When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are mixed, they react together extremely
quickly to give a solid.
Reason (R): The equilibrium constant of Cu2+ (aq) + S2– (aq) CuS(s) is high because the
solubility product is low.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is false and (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the explanation for (A)
3. Chlorine reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH and produces compound (X) and (Y).
Compound (X) gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution. The average bond order
between Cl and O atoms in (Y) is:
4. Consider the following reactions:

NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 (A) + side products
(conc.)
(A) + NaOH (B) + side products
(B) + H2SO4 + H2O2 (C) + side products
(dilue)
The sum of the total number or atoms in one molecule each of (A), (B) and (C) is –
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. 1.67 4. 18

1. Find A, B and C in the following reactions :

NH3 + A + CO2  (NH4)2CO3
(NH4) 2CO3 + H2O + B  NH4HCO3
NH4HCO3 + NaCI NH4CI + C
(1) A–O2 ; B–CO2 ; C-Na2CO3 (2) A – H2O ; B–CO2 ; C–Na2CO3
(3) A–H2O ; B–O2 ; C–NaHCO3 (4) A – H2O ; B–CO2 ; C–NaHCO3

Statement-I : Colourless cupric metabomte is reduced to cuprous metaborate in a luminous
name.
Statement-II : Cuprous metaborate is obtained by heating boric anhydride and copper
sulphate in a non-luminous name.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropria1e answer from the options
given below.
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(2) Both Statement and Statement are false
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
3. Which of the following compound is added to the sodium extract before addition of silver
nitrate for testing of halogens?
(1) Nitric acid (2) Ammonia (3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Sodium hydroxide
4. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulphanilic acid in acetic acid is used for the detection of:
(1) N2O (2) NO3 (3) NO (4) NO2
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4)

1. During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+ , addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline
solution of the salt gives a bright red precipitate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+)
present respectively are:
(1) Dimethylglyoxime and Ni2+ (2) Dimethylglyoxime and Co2+
(3) Nessler‟s reagent and Hg2+ (4) Nessler‟s reagent and Ni2+

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (1)

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JEE MAIN

S.No. Chapter Name Pg. No.

1. Periodic Table 01-06

2. Chemical Bonding 06-13

3. Coordination Compound 13-20

5. Hydrogen, compound 28-30

7. d and f Block Elements 36-41

8. p-block elements 41-52

9. Environmental Chemistry 52-57

10. Quantum Number 57-59

11. Salt Analysis 59-61

6. The correct order of the ionic radii of

8. The process that is NOT endothermic in nature is:

JEE Mains (Previous Year Questions) 2020-21-22 1

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12. Among the statements (I – IV), the correct ones are:

13. The atomic number of the element unnilennium is:

16. The atomic number of Unnilunium is ___.

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2)

Chapter: Periodic Table Year 2021

2. The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen is :

3. Match List-I with List-II

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8. The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy of halogens satisfies:

9. Which of the following compound CANNOT act as a Lewis base?

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15. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)

Chapter: Periodic Table Year 2022

1. The correct order of increasing ionic radii is

3. Which of the following elements in considered as a metalloid?

4. The IUPAC nomenclature of an element with electronic configuration [Rn]5f146d17s2 is:

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8. The correct order of electron gain enthalpies of Cl, F, Te and Po is

10. Match List-I with List-II

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16. The correct decreasing order for metallic character is

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)

Chapter: Chemical Bonding Year 2020

2. The relative strength of interionic/ intermolecular forces in decreasing order is:

3. The bond order and the magnetic characteristics of CN– are:

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7. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be:

8. The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides, respectively, are:

9. The number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene is:

11. The number of CI = O bonds in perchloric acid is. “________”.

14. Hydrogen peroxide, in the pure state, is:

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(1) H3C–Cl (2)

22. If AB4 molecule is a polar molecule, a possible geometry of AB4 is:

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1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1)

Chapter: Chemical Bonding Year 2021

2. Which of the following are isostructural pairs?

5. Which among the following species has unequal bond lengths?

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10. Amongst the following, the linear species is: