Form Number : Paper Code

(1001CMD303029230136) )1//1CMD3/3/2923/136)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024)

SRG PRACTICE SHEET(SPS)

Test Type : SRG Test Pattern : NEET(UG)

TEST DATE : 05 - 01 - 2024

Time : 80 Minutes Maximum Marks : 320

TOPIC

Physics : Capacitor

Chemistry : PC (Ionic Equilibrium)

Biology : Reproductive Health

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : ___________________________________________________________

Form Number : in figures : __________________________________________________________________

: in words ___________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ___________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : _____________________

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET (UG)-2024

Page 1/16
 2 English

SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : Capacitor

1. Assertion : When battery remains connected, 4. The energy stored in a parallel plate condenser
electric potential energy will increase if of plate separation d and plate area of cross-
dielectric material is inserted between plates of section A such that the uniform electric field
capacitor. between the plates is E :-
Reason : When battery remains connected, (1) ∈ 0 E 2 Ad
charge on plates of capacitor remains same.
1
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason (2) ∈ 0 E 2 Ad
2
is a correct explanation of the assertion. 1
(3) ∈ 0 E 2 /Ad
2
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. (4) ∈ 0 E 2 /Ad

(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false. 5. A parallel capacitor having capacitance C farad
is connected with a battery of emf V volts.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false. Keeping the capacitor connected with the
2. Assertion :- Two adjacent conductors carrying battery, a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K
the same charge can be at different potentials. is inserted between the plates. The dimensions of
Reason :- The conductors may have different the slab are such that it fills the space between
sizes and hence different capacitances. the capacitor plates. Then :-
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the reason (1) Charge on the capacitor plates remains the
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. same
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason (2) Charge on the plates increases K times
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) Potential difference between plates
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false becomes V/K.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false (4) All of the above
3. Assertion (A) : If three capacitors of 6. Charge 2Q and – Q are placed on two plates of a
capacitances C1 < C2 < C3 are connected in parallel plate capacitor, if capacitance of
series and parallel, then Cparallel > Cseries. capacitor is C, find potential difference between
Reason (R) : Cseries= C1 + C2 + C3 and the plates :-
1 1 1 1
= + + Q 3Q
Cparallel C1 C2 C3 (1) V = (2) V =
C 2C
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason 2Q 2Q
(3) V = (4) V =
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. 3C C
7. 1000 drops of same size are charged to a
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
potential fo 1V each. If they coalesce to form a
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. single drop, its potential would be :
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) V (2) 10 V
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) 100 V (4) 1000 V
PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS)
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8. A charged parallel plate capacitor of distance (d) 12.
has U0 energy. A slab of dielectric constant (K)
and thickness (d) is then introduced between the
plates of the capacitor. The new energy of the
system is given by :
(1) KU0 (2) K2U0 (3) U0 U0
(4)
K K2
9. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 are
charged with charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. On
bringing them in contact there is :
(1) always a decrease in energy of the system
(2) an increase in the energy of the system if
Q1R2 ≠ Q2R1
(3) no change in the energy of the system
13.
(4) a decrease in energy of the system if Q1R2 ≠ Q2R1
10. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery
as shown in figure. Consider two situations:
14.
A: Key K is kept closed and plates of capacitors
are moved apart using insulating handle.
B: Key K is opened and plates of capacitors are
moved apart using insulating handle.
(1) In A : Q remains same but C changes.
15.
(2) In B : V remains same but C changes.
(3) In A : V remains same and hence Q changes.
(4) In B : Q remains same and hence V remains
constant.
11. If we increase the distance between two plates of
the capacitor, the capacitance will
(1) decrease
(2) remain same
(3) increase
(4) first decrease then increase
PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS)
05-01-2024
A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then the
battery is disconnected. When the plates of the
capacitor are brought closer, then
(i) energy stored in the capacitor decreases
(ii) the potential difference between the plates
decreases
(iii) capacitance increases
(iv) electric field between the plates decreases.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iv)
Three capacitance 2 µF, 12 µF and 6 µF are
connected in series with a 30 volt battery, then
charge on 2 µF capacitor is :
(1) 5 µC (2) 40 µC
(3) 45 µC (4) 20 µC
A condenser having capacity 2.0 μ F is charged
to 200 volt and then the plates of the capacitor
are connected to a resistance wire. Thus, heat
produced (in Joule) will be-
(1) 2 × 10−2 J (2) 4 × 10−2 J
(3) 4 × 1010 J (4) 4 × 104 J
Statement-I : The potential difference between the
plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor can be
increased without the help of a battery.
Statement-II : The charge on an isolated capacitor
is conserved and capacitance can be changed.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true and
statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true and
statement-II is not the correct explanation.
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
1001CMD303029230136
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16. Match the pairs: 18. Assertion :- A charged capacitor is disconnected

from a battery. Now if its plates are separated
Capacitor Capacitance
further, the potential energy will fall.
(A) Cylindrical capacitor (i) 4 π ∈ 0R Reason :- Energy stored in a capacitor is equal to
KA ∈ 0 the work done in charging it.
(B) Spherical capacitor (ii)
d
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Parallel
Reason is a correct explanation of the
plate capacitor 2π ∈0 ℓ Assertion.
(C) (iii)
ℓ n rr21
having dielectric (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
between its plates Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Isolated 4 π ∈ 0 r1 r2
(D) (iv) (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
r2 − r1
spherical Conductor
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) A-(iii) B-(iv) C-(ii) D-(i) 19. Match the pairs
(2) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)
(3) A-(iii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(ii) Column-I Column-II

(4) A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(i) D-(ii) (A) Capacitance (P) Q/A ∈ 0

17. Assertion (A) :- Circuits containing high
capacity capacitors, charged to high voltages Electric field between ½
(B) (Q)
should be handled with caution, even when the plates A ∈ 0E2
current in the circuit is switched off.
Reason (R) :- When an isolated capacitor is Energy density between
touched by hand or any other part of the human (C) (R) ½ ∈ 0E2
plates
body, there is an easy path to the ground
available for the discharge of the capacitor. (D) Force between plates (S) A ∈ 0/d
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (1) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S

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20. The potential difference across a 3 μ F capacitor 22. In the circuit shown in the figure. At steady state
is 12 V when it is not connected to anything. It is
then connected in parallel with an uncharged
6 μ F capacitor. At equilibrium, the charge and Column-I Column-II
potential difference across the capacitor 3 μ F and 0
(A) Current in the 100 Ω resistor (Amp.) (P)
6 μ F are listed in list I. Match it with list II. (Zero)

List -I List -II (B) Current in the 50 Ω resistor (Amp.) (Q) 12

12 Potential difference across 10μF

(C) (R) 0.12
(P) charge on 3 μ F capacitor (1) capacitor (volts)
μC
Potential difference across 50 Ω resistor
(D) (S) None
24 (volts)
(Q) charge on 6 μ F capacitor (2)
μC (1) (A) → (P); (B) → (Q); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
potential difference across 3 (2) (A) → (R); (B) → (P); (C) → (Q); (D) → (P)
(R) (3) 8 V (3) (A) → (R); (B) → (Q); (C) → (P); (D) → (S)
μ F capacitor
(4) (A) → (R); (B) → (Q); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
potential difference across 6
(S) (4) 4 V 23. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is
μ F capacitor placed between the plates then compare electric
fields E1, E2 and E3
(1) P →1; Q →1; R →4; S →4;
(2) P →1; Q →2; R →3; S →4;
(3) P →1; Q →2; R →4; S →4;
(4) P →1; Q →2; R →4; S →3;
21. Assertion :- Polar molecules have permanent
dipole moment. (1) E1 = E2 = E3 (2) E1 = E3 > E2
Reason :- In polar molecules, the centre of (3) E1 < E2 < E3 (4) E1 = E3 < E2
positive and negative charges coincides when
24. Capacitance of the capacitor does not depend on :-
there is no external field.
(1) Charge (2) Voltage
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(3) Size of capacitor (4) Both (1) & (2)
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. 25. Two copper spheres of same radii, one hollow
and the other solid, are charged to the same
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
potential. Which will hold more charge ?
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (1) Solid sphere
(2) Hollow sphere
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) Both will hold equal charge
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (4) Nothing can be predicted
PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS)
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 6 English
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : PC (Ionic Equilibrium)
26. The pH of a buffer containing equal molar
concentrations of a weak base and its chloride
(Kb for weak base = 2 × 10 – 5, log 2 = 0.3) is
(1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 4.7 (4) 9.3
27. Consider the following reactions-
Select the correct statement -
(1) X is an acid in I and base in II
(2) X is a base in I and acid in II
(3) X is a base in I and II both
(4) X is an acid in I and II both
28. Statement-1 : pH of hydrochloric acid solution is
less than that of acetic acid solution of the same
concentration.
Statement-2 : In equimolar solutions, the number
of titrable protons present in hydrochloric acid is
less than that present in acetic acid.
(1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
Statement 2 is a correct explanation of
Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
(4) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
29. Which of the following match is incorrect
(1) Strong acid : HClO4, HCl, HBr, HI, HNO3,
H2SO4
(2) Strong base : LiOH, NaOH, KOH, CsOH,
Ba(OH)2
(3) Lewis acid : AlCl3,BCl3, H+, Co+3, Mg+2
(4) Lewis base : H2O, NH3, OH-, BF3
PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS)
1001CMD303029230136
30. Which is correct statement-
(1) H2O act as Lewis base, nucleophilic
reagent as well as ligand in complex
compound
(2) The pH of decinormal solution of KOH is 1
(3) To a solution containing equimolar mixture
of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) and acetic
acid (CH3COOH). If some more amount of
sodium acetate solution is added then the
pH of mixture solution decrease
(4) None of these
31. Which one of the following statements is not
true
(1) The conjugate base of H2PO4 – is HPO42 –
(2) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions at
25°C
(3) The pH of 1 × 10 – 8 M HCl(aq.) is 8
(4) The conjugate acid of H2 PO4 – is H3PO4
32. Assertion (A) : In the reaction
HCl + H2O ⇋ H3O+ + Cl – , HCl and Cl – are
conjugate acid - base pair.
Reason (R) : By Bronsted-Lowry theory,
chemical species that differ by a proton are
called conjugate acid - base pair.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
05-01-2024
 English 7
33. Column-I Column-II 37. When 10 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid (pKa = 5.0) is
(A) HClO4 (1) Weak base titrated against 10 ml of 0.1 M ammonia solution
(B) HNO2 (2) Strong base (pKb = 5.0), the pH at equivalence point will be :
(C) OH – (3) Weak Acid (1) 9.0 (2) 6.0 (3) 5.0 (4) 7.0
(D) ClO4 – (4) Strong Acid 38. Which of the following salt solution is almost
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 neutral and can also act as buffer solution?
(1) NaCl (2) NH4CN
(2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(3) NH4Cl (4) CH3COONa
(3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
39. Assertion : On mixing 500 mL of 10 – 6 M Ca2+ ion
and 500 mL of 30 × 10 – 6 M F – ion, the precipitate
34. Which of the following is amphiprotic?
of CaF2 will be obtained (Ksp of CaF2 = 10 – 8)
(1) H2 P O−2 (2) HP O2−
3 Reason : If Ksp is greater than ionic product, a
(3) HP O2−
4 (4) All of these precipitate will develop.
35. Assertion : Solubility of sparingly soluble salt (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the
decreases due to common ion effect. Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Reason : Value of solubility product does not
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason
depend on common ion effect.
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is false
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion 40. In aqueous solution the hydroxyl ion is further
hydrated to give species-
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is false
(1) H3 O−2 (2) H5 O−3 (3) H7 O−4 (4) All
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False
41. Statement-1 : The degree of ionization of water is
36. Assertion : Solubility of AgCN in acid solution less at 25°C, only about one of every 55.55 × 107
is greater than that in pure water. molecules in pure water is ionized at any instant.
Reason : Solubility equilibrium of AgCN in Statement-2 : In pure water at 25°C, the molar
acidic solution is shifted in forward direction due concentration of water is essentially constant.
to formation of HCN. (1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Statement 2 is a correct explanation of
Statement 1.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion Statement 1.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is false (3) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False (4) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
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42. What concentration of HCOO – is present in a 47. The number of H+ ions are present in 1 ml of a
solution of 0.01 M HCOOH (Ka = 1.8 × 10 – 4) solution whose pH = 4 (NA = Avogadro's
and 0.01 M HCl?
number) :
(1) 1.8 × 10 – 3 (2) 10 – 2
(1) 10 – 7 NA (2) 10 – 8 NA
–4 –4
(3) 1.8 × 10 (4) 10
(3) 10 – 16 NA (4) 10 – 14 NA
–4
43. CH3NH2 (0.1 mole, Kb = 5 × 10 ) is added to
48. Using Gibb's free energy change,
0.08 moles of HCl and the solution is diluted to
one litre. The resulting hydrogen ion Δ G0 = 57.34 kJ mol – 1, for the process,
concentration is – X2Y(s) ⇌ 2X+(aq) + Y2 – (aq), calculate the
(1) 1.6 × 10 – 11 (2) 8 × 10 – 11 solubility product of X2Y at 300K
(3) 5 × 10 – 5 (4) 8 × 10 – 2 (R = 8.3 J K – 1 mol – 1)

44. Which of the following represents hydrolysis : (1) 10 – 10

(1) HCO3 – + H2O ⇌ CO32 – + H3O+ (2) 10 – 12
(2) HCO3 – + H2O ⇌ H2CO3 + OH – (3) 10 – 14
(3) H3BO3 + H2O ⇌ H2BO3 – + H3O+ (4) can not be calculated
(4) H2PO4 – + H2O ⇌ HPO42 – + H3O ⊕ 49. The solubility product of chalk is 9.3 × 10 – 8.
Calculate its solubility in gram per litre -
45. Assertion : In a titration of weak acid with strong
(1) 0.3040 gram/litre
base, the pH at the half equivalence point is pKa.
Reason : At half equivalence point, it will form (2) 0.0304 gram/litre
acidic buffer at it’s maximum capacity where (3) 2.0304 gram/litre
[acid] = [salt] (4) 4.0304 gram/litre
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the 50. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
Reason is the correct explanation of the answer from the code given below –
Assertion List-II List-II
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the (A) Normal salt (a) NaHCO3
Reason is not the correct explanation of the (B) Acid salt (b) NaNH4HPO4
Assertion
(C) Complex salt (c) Na2HPO3
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is false (D) Mixed salt (d) CuSO4.4NH3
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False
(1) A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b
46. Maximum efficiency of cationic hydrolysis will
(2) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d
be shown by-
(1) A ℓ +3 (2) Ga+3 (3) A-b, B-c, C-a, D-d

(3) T ℓ +1 (4) T ℓ +3 (4) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c

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 English 9
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY
Topic : Reproductive Health

51. Below a diagram of contraceptive method is 55. Weekly pills for females are :-
given. (1) Mala D
(2) Mala N
(3) Saheli
Choose the incorrect one for this method :- (4) Gossypol
(1) A barrier method which prevents physical 56. Identify the diagram given below :-
meeting of sperm and ovum
(2) It can prevent conception
(3) It provides benefit of protecting the user
from contracting STDs and AIDS.
(4) This method is generally advised for the
male/female partner as a terminal method
to prevent any more pregnancies.
52. Due to inability of the male partner to inseminate
(1) Vasectomy
the female, which ART method could be used?
(2) Oophrectomy
(1) ICSI
(3) Hysteractomy
(2) AI
(4) Tubectomy
(3) GIFT
57. Which technologies in the list given below are
(4) ZIFT
showing in-vivo fertilisation ?
53. Which is not a suitable method for population GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IUT, AI, IUI, IVF
control?
(1) GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IUT
(1) Oral pills
(2) GIFT, AI, IUI
(2) I.U.C.D
(3) IUT, AI, IUI, IVF
(3) Condoms
(4) ZIFT, ICSI, IUT
(4) M.T.P
58. In assisted reproductive technology (ART), the
54. In which technique fertilisation occurs inside the method in which a sperm is directly injected into
body of female ? the ovum is called____:
(1) Z.I.F.T (1) GIFT
(2) I.U.T. (2) ET
(3) I.C.S.I (3) ZIFT
(4) G.I.F.T (4) ICSI
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59. In 2011, population growth rate was - 64. In the context of MTP, which of the following
(1) Less than 2% statement is incorrect ?

(2) Less than 1 % (1) Medical termination of pregnancy during

(3) More than 2% second trimester is generally safe.
(4) Equals to 2% (2) MTP is an intentional or voluntary
60. termination of pregnancy.
Choose correctly matched option –
(1) 2 billion Indian population in 2011 (3) Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are
performed in a year all over the world.
(2) 6 billion World population in 2000
(4) MTP help in getting rid of unwanted
(3) 7.2 billion World population in 1900
pregnancies.
(4) 1.2 billion Indian population in 1950
65. Which one of the following is not a
61. Rapid population growth rate is due to : contraceptive method ?
(1) ↓ Death rate (1) ZIFT
(2) ↓ MMR (2) IUD
(3) ↓ IMR
(3) Implant
(4) All of the above
(4) Vasectomy
62. Identify following contraceptive :-
66. Embryo with upto 8 blastomeres formed due to
in vitro fertilization is transferred into -
(1) Uterus

(2) Ovary
(1) Saheli
(2) Injection (3) Fallopion tube

(3) IUD (4) Cervix

(4) Implants 67. Find out the mode of action of Intra Uterine
63. Which contraceptive method does not rely on Devices ?
any type of hormonal mechanism ? (1) Increase phagocytosis of sperms.
(1) Implant
(2) Supress sperm motility.
(2) LNG – 20
(3) Condom (3) Supress fertilization capacity of sperms.
(4) Lactational amenorrhea (4) All of these

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68. 71. If a couple is failed to fertilize even when AI
technique is already done then which advance
technique will be preferred next ?
(1) ET
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI
What is the figure given above showing in (4) IUT
72. Identify the contraceptive device shown below as
particular ?
well as the related right place of its implantation
(1) Vasectomy into a woman and select the correct option for
the two together :
(2) Tubectomy

(3) Hysterectomy

(4) Orchidectomy

69. Which of the following is a hormone releasing

intra uterine device (IUD) ?

(1) Lippes loop

Contraceptive Site of
(2) Multiload - 375 device implant
(3) LNG - 20 Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube
(4) Vaults
(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall
70. In vitro fertilization (IVF) means - (3) Copper – T Uterine cavity

(1) Fertilization outside the body in almost (4) Multiload 375 Oviduct
similar conditions as that in the body. 73. Which may be a complication problem of STD,
(2) Fusion of gametes within the female body. when it is not timely detected –
(1) PID
(3) Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor
(2) Still Birth
into the fallopian tube.
(3) Infertility
(4) Transfer of sperms into the uterus. (4) All of these

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74. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by :- 76. Which of the following statement is not correct
about the saheli ?
(1) Killing the sperms in uterus
(1) High contraceptive value with few side
(2) Forming barriers between sperms and ova. effects

(3) Preventing ovulation (2) Developed by CDRI, Lucknow

(4) Killing the ova (3) Daily pill

75. (4) Non- steroidal preparation

Match the following and give the answer for
correct match:
More than 8 blastomere
A ZIFT i
stage transfer into the uterus
Sperm is directly injected
B IUT ii
into the cytoplasm of ovum.
Zygote upto 8 blastomere
C GIFT iii could be tranfer into the
fallopian tube.
Transfer of an ovum collected
77. Natural method of contraception include the
following ?
(1) Coitus interruptus, periodic abstinence
(2) Lactational amenorrhea, IUD
(3) Periodic abstinence, Diaphragms
(4) All of these
78. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by
the females. Choose the correct option from the
statements given below :-
(i) They are introduced into the uterus
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region.

D ICSI iv from ovary into the fallopian (iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm
entry.
tube
(iv) They act as spermicidal agent.
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv (1) (i) & (ii)
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i (2) (i) & (iii)

(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii (3) (ii) & (iii)

(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii (4) (iii) & (iv)

PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS)

1001CMD303029230136 05-01-2024
 English 13
79. Which of the following is protozoan STD. 80. Which sexually transmitted disease is curable ?
(1) Syphilis (1) AIDS
(2) Gonorrhoea (2) Hepatitis B
(3) Trichomoniasis (3) Genital herpes
(4) Genital herpes (4) Genital warts

PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS)

05-01-2024 1001CMD303029230136
 14 English

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS)

1001CMD303029230136 05-01-2024
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg

PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS) 1001CMD303029230136

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 Read carefully the following instructions :

1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point
pen only.

2. The test is of 80 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 80 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology:

3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 320.

4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer
Sheet.

5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE
Copy) to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has
not signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the
Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations
of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.

ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE Pvt. Ltd.

Registered & Corporate Office : ‘SANKALP’, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
Ph. : +91-744-3556677, +91-744-2757575|E-mail : info@allen.in|Website : www.allen.ac.in

PHASE - ENTHUSE SRG PRACTICE SHEET (SPS) 1001CMD303029230136

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