TOPIC 1: INTRODUCTION TO URINALYSIS
random specimen
1.Which of the following is the urine specimen of
choice for cytology studies?
a. first morning specimen
b. random specimen
c. midstream "clean catch" collection
d. timed collection
2. Which of the following specimens usually
eliminates contamination of the urine with entities
from the external genitalia and the distal urethra?
a. first morning specimen
b. midstream "clean catch" specimen
c. random specimen
d. 4-hour timed collection
3. Substances that show diurnal variation in their
urinary excretion pattern are best evaluated using a:
a. first morning specimen
b. midstream "clean catch" specimen
c. random specimen
d. timed collection
4. Which of the following will NOT cause erroneous
results in a 24-hour timed urine collection?
a. the collection starts and ends in the
evening
b. two first morning specimens are included
in the collection
c. multiple collection containers are not
mixed together before specimen testing
d. a portion of the collection is removed
before total volume measurement
5. A 30-year-old woman complains of painful
urination and is suspected of having a urinary tract
infection. Which of the following specimens should
be collected for routine urinalysis and urine culture?
a. first morning specimen
b. timed collection
c. midstream "clean catch" specimen
d.
6. A 35-year old diabetic woman is suspected of
developing renal insufficiency. Which of the
following specimens should be obtained to
determine the amount of creatinine being excreted
in the urine?
a. 2-hour postprandial
b. 12-hour timed collection
c. 24-hour timed collection
d. midstream "clean catch”
7. An unpreserved urine specimen collected at
midstream is kept at room temperature until the
morning hospital shift. Which of the following
changes will most likely occur?
a. decrease in urine color and clarity
b. decrease in pH and specific gravity
c. decrease in glucose and ketones
d. decrease in bacteria and nitrite
8.Which of the following is the most common
method used to preserve urine specimen?
a. acid addition
b. thymol addition
c. freezing
d. refrigeration
9.If refrigeration is used to preserve a urine
specimen, which of the following may occur?
a. cellular or bacterial glycolysis will be
enhanced
b. formed elements will be destroyed
c. amorphous crystals may precipitate
d. bacteria will proliferate
10. Which of the following urine preservatives is
acceptable for both urinalysis and urine culture?
a. boric acid
b. chlorhexidine
 c. Dowicil 200
d. formalin
11. How much urine is usually required for a
manually performed routine urinalysis?
a. 5-10 mL
b. 10-15 mL
c. 20-30 mL
d. 50-100 mL
12.Which of the following substances is higher in
urine than in any other body fluid?
a. chloride
b. creatinine
c. glucose
d. protein
13. A 44 year old diabetic woman is suspected
Of developing renal insufficiency. Which of the
following specimens should be obtained to
determine the amount of creatinine being excreted
in the urine?
A. 2 hour postprandial
B. 12 hour timed collection
C. 24 hour timed collection
D. Midstream " clean catch"
14. Formation of the ultrafiltrate in the glomerulus is
driven by the
A. Hydrostatic blood pressure
B. Oncotic pressure of the plasma proteins
C. Osmotic pressure of the solutes in the
ultrafiltrate
D. Pressure exerted by the glomerular filtration
barrier
E. None of the above
15. The kidney play an important role in the
1. Excretion of waste products
2. Regulation of water and electrolytes
3. Maintenance of acid- base equilibrium
4. Control of blood pressure and fluid balance
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 1 and 3 are correct
C. 4 is correct
D. All are correct
E. None of the choices
16. What differentiates tubular reabsorption from
tubular secretion in the nephron?
A. The direction of movement of the substance
being absorbed or secreted is different
B. Reabsorption is an active transport process,
whereas secretion is a passive transport
process
C. Cell membrane- binding sites are different
for the reabsorption and secretion of a
solute
D. The location of the epithelium in the
nephron determines which process occurs
17. substances bound to plasma proteins in the
blood can be eliminated in the urine by
A. Glomerular secretion
B. Glomerular filtration
C. Tubular secretion
D. Tubular reabsorption
E. None of the choices
18. The renal threshold level for glucose is 160 to
180 mg/dl. This corresponds to the
A. Rate of glucose reabsorption by the renal
tubules
B. Concentration of glucose in the tubular
lumen fluid
C. Plasma concentration above which tubular
reabsorption of glucose occurs
D. Plasma concentration above which glucose
is excreted in the urine
 E. None of the above 23. True of the urine as an ultrafiltrate of plasma

A. It is normally free of protein except for about

19. Water reabsorption occurs throughout the
nephron except in the
A. Cortical collecting tubules
B. Proximal convoluted tubules
C. Ascending limb of the loops of henle
D. Descending limb of the loops of henle
E. None of the choices
10 mg/ dl of low molecular weight proteins
B. It doesn't have a similar composition to that
of blood plasma
C. The composition of the filtered products
does not include water, glucose,
electrolytes, amino acids, urea, uric acid,
creatinine and ammonia
D. Plasma filtration in the kidneys is the last
step in urine formation

E. All of the above

20. The process solely responsible for water
reabsorption throughout the nephron is
24. The concept of ADH control, if the body
A. The urea cycle hydration is increased, then ADH secretion is
B. Osmosis A. Remains the same
C. The countercurrent exchange mechanism B. Decreased
D. The countercurrent multiplier mechanism C. Increased

D. Not affected, ADH and body hydration are

not interrelated
21. The final concentration of the urine is
determined within the

A. Loop of henle 25. To determine whether a particular fluid is urine,

test the specimen for the presence of the following
B. Distal convoluted tubules
A. Calcium and urea
C. Collecting ducts
B. Urea and creatinine
D. Proximal convoluted tubules
C. Phosphates and hippuric acid

D. Uric acid and urea

22. The primary function of these nephrons are for
urine concentration

A. Cortical nephrons 26. A painful or a burning sensation upon

micturition is known as ?
B. Renal pelvic nephrons
A. Enuresis
C. Juxtamedullary nephrons
B. Oliguria
D. Nephrons Solely in the calyces
C. Polyuria

D. Dysuria
22. the best test to measure the level of renal
function and determine the stage/s of renal disease

A. Tubular secretion rate 27. An ideal urine preservative should show the
following, except
B. Tubular reabsorption tests
A. Inhibits urease
C. Renal blood flow tests
B. Bactericidal
D. Glomerular filtration rate
C. Can preserve formed elements
 D. Interferes with chemical tests

E. None of the choices

28. Is the second voided specimen after a period of

fasting. It is recommended for glucose monitoring

A. 2- hour postprandial

B. First Morning/8-hour specimen

C. Fasting specimen (second morning)

D. Random urine specimen

29. True about the catheterized ( urethral and or

ureteral) specimen, except;

A. Non invasive

B. Is collected under sterile conditions

C. Can measure functions in the individual

kidneys

D. Requires medical personnel

30. In the 3- glass collection for prostatic infection

determination, the 3rd sterile tube is used to collect
the;

A. Midstream portion of the urine

B. Prostatic fluid

C. Seminal fluid

D. First urine passed

E. None of the choices

TOPIC 2: RENAL PHYSIOLOGY 7.Urea- B 10. Chloride- A
1. Based on an average size person, the total renal
plasma flow is around
11. RAAS is primarily affected by this chemical:
A. 400mL/min
A. Potassium
B. 600mL/min
B. Sodium
C. 900mL/min
C. Chloride
D. 120mL/min
D. Hydrogen

2. The ability of the kidney to clear waste is

controlled by the nephron by the following functions 12. A 65- year old man has DM type 2. his last
except: urinalysis showed +3 glucose. what is the normal:
A. Tubular reabsorption A. 110 to 130 mg/dl
B. Tubular secretion B. 160 to 180 mg/dl
C. Hypotension C. 80 to 100 mg/dl
D. Glomerular filtration D. 60 to 80 mg/ dl

3. Approximately what percentage of blood does the 13. Passive reabsorption of water takes place
kidney receive from the heart? throughout the nephron except:
A. 15% A. Proximal convoluted tubules
B. 25% B. Ascending loop of henle
C. 45% C. Descending loop of henle
D. 50% D. Distal convoluted tubule

4. Albumin is important for oncostatic pressure. It is
maintained in the capillary because of:
A. Large molecular size
B. Presence of H++
C. Negative charge of barrier
D. Positive charge of the PCT
14. Active transport of chloride in the ascending
loop is accompanied by:
A. Passive reabsorption urea
B. Active reabsorption of amino acids
C. Passive reabsorption of sodium
D. Active reabsorption of water

5-10 Tubular reabsorption: indicate where the 15. A 45 year old male with a history of high blood
substance is transported by active or passive pressure is seen at the ER. Workup showed glucose
transport damage. What is the possible cause of the glucose
in the urine?
A. Active transport
A. Acute tubular damage secondary to
B. Passive Transport
myocardial infarction.
C. Both
B. Diabetic nephropathy secondary to diabetes
mellitus

5. Water - B 8.Glucose- A C. Iga nephropathy

6.Sodium - c 9. Amino Acids- A D. Liver Cirrhosis

 D. All of the above

16. The hormone regulates sodium reabsorption in

the distal convoluted tubule
21. Product of breakdown of glutamine in the
A. Vasopressin proximal convoluted tubule:

B. Aldosterone A. Tyrosine

C. Antidiuretic Hormone B. Ammonia

D. Erythropoietin C. Bilirubin

D. Creatinine

17. What is the action of RAAS when someone

develops an increase in blood pressure?
22. What is the epithelium of the ureter?
A. Increase production of aldosterone
A. Pseudostratified Columnar
B. Increase production of ADH
B. Transitional Epithelium
C. Decrease production of Renin
C. Single Cuboidal
D. Decrease excretion of sodium
D. Simple Columnar

18. A 37 year old man was seen in the ER with a

23. The macula densa is located at:
history of dehydration due to hiking in the desert.
With this information, what is the current patient's A. Proximal convoluted tubule
relationship between hydration, ADH and urine
volume? B. Ascending loop of henle

A. Increase body hydration= ADH= Increase C. Descending loop of henle

urine volume
D. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Decrease Body hydration= Increase ADH=
Decrease urine volume

C. Decrease body hydration= Increase ADH=

increase urine volume

D. Increase Body hydration= ADH= increase

urine volume

19. A patient has Diabetes insipidus, which results

in the patient having very low to absent ADH. What
are the characteristics of the urine of this patient?

A. Concentrated urine

B. High specific gravity

C. Decreased amount of water

D. Diluted urine

20. Function of Tubular secretion in the nephron:

A. Eliminating waste products

B. Regulate acid- base balance

C. Removal of protein- bound medication

TOPIC 3: GROSS/PHYSICAL EXAMINATION OF c. severe renal damage
URINE d. pyelonephritis
4. Specimens that contain myoglobin can be visually
distinguished from those that contain RBCs
because: 19. A patient urine sample has an increased protein
and a high specific gravity. Which of the following
a. myoglobin produces a clear, yellow urine
would be a more accurate measure of urine
b. myoglobin produces a cloudy pink urine
concentration?
c. RBCs produce a cloudy, red urine
d. RBCs produce a clear, red urine a. osmolality
b. ketones
9. All of these are insoluble in dilute acetic acid
c. refractive index
except:
d. pH
a. RBCs
20. Direct specific gravity method based on the
b. WBCs
change in the frequency of sound waves oscillating
c. Bacteria
through urine
d. Spermatozoa
a. urinometer
10. Many particulates print blurred through urine:
b. harmonic oscillation densitometry
a. turbid c. refractometry
b. milky d. reagent strip
c. cloudy
d. hazy
22. The method of choice for performing a specific
gravity measurement of urine following
11. Which of the following is a pathologic cause of demonstration of X-ray contrast dyes.
urine turbidity?
a. reagent strip
a. squamous epithelial cell b. refractometer
b. spermatozoa c. urinometer
c. amorphous urate d. densitometer
d. nonsquamous epithelial cells

12. The clarity of a urine sample should be

determined

a. using glass tubes inly; never plastic

b. following thorough mixing of specimen
c. after addition of sulfosalicylic acid
d. after the specimen cools to room
temperature

16. Urine specific gravity is an index of the ability of

the kidney to:

a. filter the plasma

b. concentrate the urine
c. after the hydrogen ion concentration
d. reabsorb sodium ions

17. The specific gravity of the patient’s urine is

1.041. Which if the following is a possible cause?

a. diabetes insipidus
b. radiographic contrast media
TOPIC 4: CHEMICAL TESTING B. turbid appearance
1. The normal straw color of urine is largely due to
C. characteristic odors
the presence of
D. presence of amino acids
A. urochrome

B. bilirubin
6. The presence of smoky urine is most likely
C. uroerythrin
indicative of
D. biliverdin
A. hemoglobinuria

B. hematuria
2. Emptying the bladder or urine voiding is otherwise
C. hemosiderinuria
known as
D. hemophilia
A. deglutition

B. diuresis
7. One of the following is characterized by a turbid
C. micturition
urine due to leakage of lymph:
D. renal incontinence
A. pyuria

B. chyluria
3. Which set of parts involved in urine formation is
C. bacteriuria
correctly sequenced?
D. cylindruria
A. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule,
loop of Henle, renal pelvis, collecting

ducts, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra 8. Brick dust refers to which of the following
crystals?
B. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule,
renal pelvis, loop of Henle, collecting A. amorphous phosphates
ducts, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra B. uric acid
C. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, C. amorphous urates
loop of Henle, collecting ducts, renal
D. calcium oxalate
pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra

D. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule,

collecting ducts, loop of Henle,renal 9. Gross examination of urine samples involve all of
the following except
pyramid, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
A. assessment of odor

B. reporting of urine color

4. The procedure of wet urinalysis starts with the
C. pH and specific gravity testing
A. urine collection and transport
D. measurement of urine volume
B. sample identification

C. sediment assessment
10. The clearing of turbidity due to the addition of a
D. chemical testing dilute acid confirms the presence of

A. amorphous urates
5. Amino acid disorders are characterized by the B. amorphous phosphates
passage of urine with
C. bacteria
A. distinct colors
D. leukocytes and pus cells
 16. The presence of many mucus threads in the
urine indicates
11. The presence of casts in the urine is called
A. renal inflammatory episode
A. chyluria
B. slightly dysfunctional bladder
B. casturia
C. normal kidney function
C. cylindruria
D. urine processing artifact
D. crystalluria

17. PKU or phenylketonuria is a disease

12. The purpose of collecting timed urine samples is
characterized by the voiding of a
for obtaining
A. red-brown colored urine
A. more yield, thus, increased sample
volume B. highly concentrated urine

B. higher concentration of a particular C. mousy-smelling urine

substance tested
D. milky cloudy urine
C. more urinary sediments such as cells,
crystals and casts
18. A reagent strip is sometimes referred to asthe
D. ensure high degree of accuracy and
precision of chemical tests A. test strip

B. dipstick
13. Any transient increase in urinary volume is C. chemstrip
termed
D. multistix
A. diuresis

B. hypersthenuria
19. Regarded as the routine or basic urinalysis is the
C. polyuria
A. wet urinalysis
D. urolithiasis
B. special cytologic urinalysis

C. reagent strip urinalysis

14. The most commonly encountered abnormal
color of urine is D. chemical urinalysis

A. yellow

B. red-brown 20. Macroscopic examination of urine includes the

following except
C. colorless
A. appearance
D. brown
B. specific gravity determination

C. chemical testing using multistix

15. The TS (Total Solids) meter or refractometer is
used to measure D. sediment examination

A. specific gravity

B. urinary volume 21. In the event that only one urine specimen is
obtained, which correct sequence shouldbe
C. clarity (appearance)
followed in wet urinalysis?
D. urine osmolality
1. bacteriologic examination

3. examination for crystals and casts

2. check for contamination C. melaninuria

4. glucose testing B. alkaptonuria

D. urobilinuria

A. 1-2-3-4

B. 2-1-4-3 27. Which of these urinary constituents can be

cleared through acidification?
C. 1-2-4-3
A. amorphous urates
D. 2-1-3-4
C. pus cells

B. amorphous phosphates
22. The patient’s degree of hydration and urine
concentration can be estimated by examining D. bacteria

A. urine clarity

C. urine color 28. The dye Oil Red O is used to demonstrate the
presence of
B. urine odor
A. hematuria
D. urine crystals
C. lipiduria

B. chyluria
23. Small cloudy patches in normal urine due to the
presence of mucus is called D. pyuria

A. nebula

C. nubecula 29. Excretion by an adult of more than 500 mL. of

urine with a specific gravity of 1.018 at
B. smokiness
night is known as
D. flocculence
A. polyuria

C. polydipsia
24. Which pigment causes the production of yellow
foam ? B. nocturia

A. uroerythrin D. nocturnal oliguria

C. bilirubin

B. hemoglobin 30. Which of the following statements is not true?

D. indican A. High volumes of urine result in a low

specific gravity.

B. The aromatic odor of freshly voided urine

25. Presence of intact red blood cells is called
is of undetermined source.
A. hematuria
C. Cloudy urine is not common and not
C. hemosiderinuria necessarily pathologic.

B. hemoglobinuria D. Aside from urochrome, there are other

pigments that give normal urine a yellow
D. hematuria color.

26. Homogentisic acid forms brown-black urine 31. A urine sample with a specific gravity of 1.010 is
upon long standing -- a condition known as described as
A. porphyria
 A. hyposthenuric D. 7.4

B. normosthenuric

C. hypersthenuric 37. At night, during the mild respiratory acidosis of

sleep, a more acidic urine is formed.The
D. isosthenuric
acidity is largely due to the buildup of

A. casts and crystals

32. Which parameter cannot be measured using
reagent strip technology? C. organic acids

A. specific gravity B. carbon dioxide

B. urinary pH D. ketone bodies

C. glucose

D. osmolality 38. A diet high in meat and cranberries will

A. lower urinary pH

33. Sound wave frequency and falling drop method C. increase urinary pH
are performed to assess the urine
B. produce neutral pH
A. osmolality
D. not affect urine pH
C. specific gravity

B. acidity or alkalinity
39. The ill effects of salicylic acid poisoning would
D. water content be aggravated by which of the following:A. diet rich
in meat

C. diet high in citrus fruits

34. The state of hydration of the patient can be
assessed by all of the following except B. intake of sodium bicarbonate

A. urine osmolality D. prohibition of acid phosphate ingestion

C. urine specific gravity

B. urine volume and color 40. In the tubular cells, the passing filtrate acquire
hydrogen ions in exchange for
D. urine pH
A. ammonium ions

C. sodium ions
35. The presence of high amounts of indican will
give a urine sample a B. bicarbonate ions

A. red-violet color D. chloride ions

C. brown-black color

B. yellow-orange color 41. Which pair of dipstick and its number of

chemical parameters is incorrect?
D. blue-green color
A. Multistix 10 SG - 10

C. Diastix – 2
36. The average adult on a normal diet produces a
24-hour urine with a pH of about B. Uristix -2

A. 5.0 D. Chemstrip G – 1

C. 7.0

B. 6.0 42. The Uristix reagent strip can detect

 A. glucose only 47. The presence of Bence Jones protein the urine
is suggestive of
C. protein only
A. Overflow proteinuria
B. glucose and protein only
C. Multiple myeloma
D. glucose and protein among others
B. Cylindruria

D. Functional proteinuria
43. The titratable acidity of a 24-hour urine collected
in ice utilizes as titrant the

A. 0.1N NaHCO3 48. A hazy urine with high protein content collected
after a heavy exercise is an example of
C. 0.1N NaCl
A. Intermittent proteinuria
B. 0.1N NaOH
C. Postural proteinuria
D. 0.1N NaNO3
B. Persistent proteinuria

D. Functional proteinuria
44. Bacterial growth in urine specimen is
characterized by all of the following except

A. clouding that cannot be cleared by 49. To detect the kinds of protein in the urine, what
acidification is needed is

B. clouding that can be removed by paper A. Multistix 10 SG

filtration
C. Electrophoresis
C. marked alkaline shift to a pH > 8.0
B. Salting-out process
D. marked unsuitability as sample for
D. Dye-binding tests
bacterial culture

50. The catabolic products derived from lipids which

45. The most accurate means of determining the pH
can become potentially toxic are the
of urine samples is the
A. sugar monomers
A. blue and red litmus paper method
C. ketone bodies
B. pH meter with a glass electrode
B. benzene derivatives
C. titratable acidity testing using a 24-hour
urine sample (in ice) D. fatty acids
D. reagent strip using bromthymol blue and
methyl red
51. When lipid is lost in the urine, many granular
casts, fatty casts and oval fat bodies are found in
the urine sediment. Oval fat bodies are actually
46. The protein uromucoid is secreted by the cells in
the distal tubular cells andascending loop of Henle. A. hyaline casts with lipid deposits
It is highly associated with cast formation. It is also
referred to as the B. fat-laden renal tubular epithelial cells

A. Bence Jones protein C. droplets of cholesterol esters

C. Retinol-binding protein D. lipoproteins forming oval crystals

B. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein

D. Immunoglobulin light chains 52. Tubular pattern proteinuria is seen in all of the
following conditions except

A. Fanconi’s syndrome
 C. Wilson’s disease B. Both albumin and globulins can be
precipitated using SSA and TCA.
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Reagent strips can be used in assessing
D. Nephrotic syndrome
the degree of proteinuria.

D. Both reagent strips and SSA and TCA

53. The tubular pattern proteinuria cannot be easily methods are for urine protein screening.
detected using reagent strip methods due to the
type of protein involved – the low molecular weight
proteins such as alpha-1- microglobulin, light-chain 58. What substance in the urine is tested using the
immunoglobulins and lysozymes. On the other hand, Kjeldahl method and Biuret Reaction?
glomerular pattern proteinuria is detected because
A. glucose
the protein involved is mainly
C. ketone bodies
A. albumin
B. protein
B. Bence Jones protein
D. bilirubin
C. medium-chain immunoglobulins

D. Tamm Horsfall protein

59. Bence Jones protein is best detected in urine via

A. Heat and precipitation technic

54. Type of proteinuria characterized by the
excretion of 4 g. of protein /day is described as C. Protein electrophoresis
A. heavy B. TCA-Biuret method
C. minimal D. Coomassie blue dye-binding test
B. moderate

D. overflow 60. Which blood glucose level exceeds the renal

threshold for glucose leading to glucosuria?

A. 100 mg/dL
55. Also referred to as orthostatic proteinuria is
C. 130 mg/dL
A. postural proteinuria
B. 157 mg/dL
C. Bence Jones proteinuria
D. 220 mg/dL
B. intermittent proteinuria

D. functional proteinuria
61. Urine glucose testing serves to check endocrine
function to diagnose the disease
56. Which substance may affect urinary pH testing?
A. Diabetes insipidus
A. protein
C. Diabetes mellitus
C. glucose
B. Hyperglycemia
B. ketone bodies
D. Glucosuria
D. bilirubin

62. The common thing about using reagent strips

57. Which statement regarding protein testing is not for glucose testing such as Clinistix, Multistix and
true? Chemstrip is the

A. Reagent strips are not sensitive in A. double sequential enzyme reaction C.

measuring globulins but sensitive to type of chromogen used
albumin.
 B. reaction time glucose test using Clinitest, one should do

D. procedural steps A. retesting using lesser amount of urine

sample

B. recollection of urine sample and retesting

63. The copper reduction tablet test for glucose is
glucose
the
C. confirm the result using Benedict’s
A. Clinistix
method
C. Clinitest
D. no additional testing and results obtained
B. Bilitest can be reported

D. Chemstrip G
69. In galactokinase deficiency, galactose cannot be
converted to glucose. From what sugar was the
64. What enzyme will oxidize glucose into gluconic galactose that appears in the urine derived?
acid and hydrogen peroxide?
A. sucrose
A. hexokinase
C. lactose
C. glucokinase
B. maltose
B. glucose oxidase
D. starch
D. glucose peroxidase

70. Which of the following tests is the most specific

65. The range of drops required of the urine sample for urinary glucose testing?
in the glucose testing using Clinitest is
A. Clinitest
A. 2 to 5
C. Benedict’s test
C. 5 to 8
B. Clinistix
B. 5 to10
D. Copper reduction test
D. 10 to 15

71. What compound of copper is colored red?

66. O-toluidine is the chromogen used in which
reagent strip for glucose? A. CuOH

A. Clinistix C. CuSO4

C. Multistix B. Cu2O

B. Chemstrip-G D. CuO

D. Clinitest
72. What method is best to measure the individual
reducing sugars in urine?
67. All of the following are reducing sugars except
A. Copper reduction method
A. glucose
C. Thin layer chromatography
C. galactose
B. Clinitest
B. fructose
D. Clinistix
D. sucrose

73. What organic substances are products of

68. If a pass through phenomenon happens in the
incomplete lipid metabolism? B. beta-hydroxybutyrate

A. free fatty acids D. ketone bodies

C. bile pigments

B. ketone bodies 79. The main ingredient of the Gerhardt’s test for
the detection of urine diacetic acid is
D. porphyrins
A. nitroprusside

C. ferric chloride
74. The most abundant among these organic
substances in the urine is B. nitroferricyanide

A. beta-hydroxybutyric acid D. sulfobromophthalein

C. diacetic acid

B. acetone 80. Which of the following substances is an

oxidizing agent?
D. urea
A. ascorbic acid

C. hydrogen peroxide
75. The most abundant among these inorganic urine
constituents is B. glutathione

A. sodium D. uric acid

C. bicarbonate

B. chloride 81. If delay in testing for ketone bodies cannot be

prevented, the urine sample should be
D. potassium
A. kept capped at room temperature

B. added with preservative

76. Ketonuria may be seen in all of the following
conditions except C. discarded and replaced by a new one

A. fasting D. refrigerated at 2-10 degrees Celsius100

C. excessive exercise

B. type I diabetes mellitus 82. The Multistix reagent pad for blood uses of the
chromogen tetramethylbenzidine which,
D. carbohydrate-rich diet
in the presence of blood, causes a color change
from
77. Sodium nitroferricyanide reaction (Acetest) is
A. yellow to red
specific for urinary
C. yellow to orange
A. urobilinogen
B. yellow to green
C. bilirubin
D. yellow to purple
B. diacetate

D. sucrose
83. What red-brown pigment in the urine is produced
after rhabdomyolysis
78. Rothera’s wet method can detect all of the
A. hemoglobin
following except
B. B. myoglobin
A. acetoacetic acid
C. intact RBCs
C. acetone
 D. hemosiderin A. Hecht’s test

C. Hoesch’s test

84. Which of the following is not a breakdown B. Nitrite test

product of hemoglobin?
D. Leukocyte esterase test
A. bilirubin

C. hemosiderin
90 & 91. A positive nitrite test indicates A. (90) C.
B. amino acids while a positive leukocyte esterase

D. haptoglobin test indicates (91)

A. bacteriuria

85. The Diazo (p-nitrobenzenediazonium p-toluene C. pyuria

sulfonate) tablet test is for the detection of urine
B. cylindruria
A. hemoglobin
D. crystalluria
C. urobilinogen

B. bilirubin
92. C-Stix reagent strips are impregnated with
D. myoglobin buffered phosphomolybdate to detect

A. ascorbic acid

86. Ehrlich’s aldehyde reaction is the formation of C. citric acid

reddish-brown color due to
B. 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
A. urobilinogen
D. melanin
C. bilirubin

B. nitrite
93. The 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA) is a
D. leukocyte esterase byproduct of metabolism of

A. porphyrins

87. Bilirubin can be detected using all of the C. serotonin

following methods except
B. indican
A. Ictotest
D. ascorbic acid
C. Diazo reagent strip

B. Yellow foam test

94. If serotonin is derived from the amino acid
D. Blondheim method tryptophan, melanin is derived from which

amino acid?

88. Schwartz-Watson test differentiates between A. glycine

the presence of urobilinogen and
C. cysteine
A. hemoglobin
B. tyrosine
C. bilirubin
D. methionine
B. porphyrins

D. porphobilinogen
95. Defects in the synthesis of heme moiety of
hemoglobin would cause

89. Inverse Ehrlich’s reaction is also known as A. lead poisoning

 C. porphyrias D. Leukocyte esterase

B. in vitro hemolysis

D. hemorrhagic fever

96. What apparatus is required to detect the

lavender to violet fluorescence of porphyrins after
acidification of urine sample and addition of glacial
acetic acid:ethyl acetatemixture?

A. Microscope

C. Wood’s lamp

B. TS meter

D. UV light

97. Which of the following has a peroxidase-like

activity?

A. hexokinase

C. heme

B. myoglobin

D. hydrogen peroxide

98. The most abundant among the ketone bodies

which accounts 78% of the total in urine is

A. acetone

C. acetoacetic acid

B. beta-hydroxybutyric acid

D. urea

99. Which pathologic condition would cause a

positive Acetest?

A. diabetes mellitus

C. diabetes insipidus

B. nephrotic syndrome

D. high fat diet

100. Which chemical parameter is not found in

Multistix 10 SG?.

A. Urobilinogen

C. Nitrite

B. Ascorbic acid
 D. Granular Casts

TOPIC 5: URINE ABNORMALITIES E. Mixed Cellular Casts

1. The presence of fatty casts is associated with all
the following, except
6. The following conditions often present with
A. Nephrotic Syndrome
proteinuria, except
B. Diabetic Nephropathy
A. Cystitis
C. Acute Tubular Necrosis
B. Acute Tubular Necrosis
D. Acute Pyelonephritis
C. Chronic Pyelonephritis

D. Chronic glomerulonephritis
2. The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and
E. NOTA
casts is an indication of

A. Acute interstitial nephritis

7. A condition in which there is disruption of the
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
shield of negativity and damage to the tightly fitting
C. Minimal change Disease podocytes Barrier resulting in massive loss of
protein and lipids.
D. Acute Tubular Necrosis
A. Nephritic Syndrome

B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
3. Differentiation between cystitis and
Pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of C. Nephrotic Syndrome

A. WBC casts D. Both A and B

B. RBC casts E. Both B and C

C. Bacteria

D. Granular Casts 8. A 26 year old female presented with hypogastric

pain, burning sensation upon urination and blood in
E. Waxy cast
urine. Which of the following microscopy findings
will be true for this patient?

4. The presence of WBCs and WBC casts with no A. Presence of WBC casts in LPF
bacteria is an indicative of
B. Presence of budding yeast
A. Chronic pyelonephritis
C. Presence of numerous leukocyte and
B. Acute tubular necrosis bacteria

C. Acute interstitial nephritis D. AOTA

D. Both B and C E. NOtA

E. NOTA
9. The presence of this type of urinary casts is an
indication of an extreme urine stasis.
5. This type of cast if form the by products of
protein metabolism which appears colorless to A. Waxy casts
shades of yellow easily viewed with bright field
B. Fine granular cast
microscopy
C. Mixed Cellular cast
A. Waxy casts
D. Hyaline cast
B. Bacterial Cast
E. Both B and C are correct
C. WBC casts
 of symptoms consistent with damage to the
glomerular membrane
10. " Smoky" turbidity in gross examination of urine
is often seen with what condition? E. AOTSAT

A. Acute glomerulonephritis

B. Acute Pyelonephritis 14. Increase number of hyaline casts are seen in

the following conditions, except?
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
A. Exposure
D. Cystitis
B. Dehydration
E. Acute Tubular Necrosis
C. Congestive heart Failure

D. Extreme cold exposure

11. What structures exhibit Maltese Cross under
polarized light? E. Fever

A. Triple Phosphate crystals

B. Cholesterol droplets 15. Which part of the kidney is the Tamm- Horsfall
protein secreted?
C. Renal tubular epithelial cells
A. Thin Ascending LOH
D. Uric acid Crystals
B. Distal convoluted tubule
E. Calcium Oxalates
C. Thick Ascending LOH

D. Both A and B are correct

12. This type of cast appear more homogenous in
appearance as there are no distinct RBCs in the E. Both B and C are correct
matrix.

A. Rbc Cast
16. This condition is frequently seen in children
B. Hemoglobin casts which is a recurrent infection of the renal tubules
caused by structural abnormalities
C. Muddy brown cast
A. Chronic glomerulonephritis
D. Both B and C are correct
B. Chronic Pyelonephritis
E. NOTA
C. Nephrotic Syndrome

D. Nephritic Syndrome
13. A 16 year old male presence with fever,
periorbital edema, fatigue, oliguria and hematuria. E. Minimal change Disease
Significant history noted a throat infection two
weeks prior to onset of symptoms. Which of the
following statements is not TRUE for the said 17. Renal Tubular epithelial cell casts are seen in the
pattern? following conditions, except
A. Primary urinalysis findings include RBC A. Acute Tubular Necrosis
casts dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline and
granular casts and WBC B. Ethylene glycol poisoning

B. Certain stains of group a streptococcus C. Cytomegalovirus infection

contain C protein in the cell wall from
D. Acute allograft reaction
immune complexes deposited on the
glomerular membranes. E. NOTA

C. Blood nitrogen (BUN) may be elevated

during the acute stages
18. Non- pathologic condition associated with the
D. This disease is marked by the sudden onset presence of RBC casts in urine microscopy
 A. Overhydration

B. Strenuous contact sports

C. Pregnancy

D. Menstruation

E. NOTA

19. What are the urine microscopy findings

associated with CMV infection

A. Syncytial giant cells

B. Basophilic intranuclear inclusions

C. Cytoplasmic bodies

D. Both A and B are correct

E. Both B and C are correct

20. Massive proteinuria in nephrotic Syndrome is

excretion of protein in urine to a value

1. Greater than 3.5 gram per day

2. Greater than 4 grams

3. Lesser than 3 grams per day

4. Lesser than 10 grams per day

TOPIC 6: SEDIMENT PREPARATION AND c. vigorously agitated
INTRODUCTION TO MICROSCOPY AND TYPES OF
SEDIMENT COMPOSITION d. diluted
1. All of the following macroscopic screenings
are basis in the decision to perform
microscopic analysis, except:
7. All are examples of commercial system for
a. color b. clarity c. leukocyte urinalysis except:
esterase d. hyaline casts
2. To obtain a representative sample of the
elements present in a specimen, urine volume 8. Using this objectives in ten fields, you can easily
should be: detect and report casts and a certain general
composition of sediment:
a. 7-12 ml
b. 10-15 ml a. scanner

c. 15-25 ml b. LPO
d. 50 ml
c. HPO

d. OIO
3. To correct for differences in the diameter of
centrifuge heads, ____ should be used in
centrifugation.
9. Reported in average number per low power field
a. RPM
b. RCF a. casts

c. RCP b. WBCs
d. RPS
c. RBCs

d. Epithelial cells
4. The unwanted dilution of urine sediments could
give a ____ result:
a. false-positive 10. Reported in semi-quantitative terms per low
power field
b. true-positive
a. casts
c. false-negative
b. WBCs
d. true-negative
c. RBCs
5. Centrifugation that produces an optimum amount
of sediments with the least chance of damaging the d. Epithelial cells
elements is performed for

a. 5 mins. RCF of 500

11. This enhances the nuclear detail in urine
b. 5 mins. RCF of 400 elements.
c. 15 min. RCF of 400 Toluidine Blue
d. 5 mins. RCF of 450 12. This stain identifies urinary eosinophils.
6. To maintain the uniform sediment concentration Hansel
factor, sediment should be:
13. The type of microscopic technique that is most
a. poured off commonly use in urinalysis
b. aspirated a. Polarizing Microscopy
 b. Dark-field

c. Bright-field 18. Identification of Tryponema pallidum

d. Phase-contrast a. Bright-field microscopy

14. All are parts of the lens system, except: b. Dark-field microscopy

a. oculars c. Polarizing microscopy

b. objectives d. Fluorescence microscopy

c. fine adjustment knob e. Phase-contrast microscopy

d. condenser f. Interference-contrast microscopy

15. The object's total magnification using high 19. The image has the best contrast when the
power objective with an ocular lens magnification of background is at its darkest.
10x.
a. Bright-field microscopy
a. 40x
b. Dark-field microscopy
b. 100x
c. Polarizing microscopy
c. 400x
d. Fluorescence microscopy
d. 1000x
e. Phase-contrast microscopy

f. Interference-contrast microscopy
16. It provides three-dimensional images with fine
structural details.

a. Bright-field microscopy 20. Used to view birefringent

b. Dark-field microscopy a. Bright-field microscopy

c. Polarizing microscopy b. Dark-field microscopy

d. Fluorescence microscopy c. Polarizing microscopy

e. Phase-contrast microscopy d. Fluorescence microscopy

f. Interference-contrast microscopy e. Phase-contrast microscopy

f. Interference-contrast microscopy

17. Most commonly used in a routine analysis.

a. Bright-field microscopy 21. Which pigment causes the production of yellow

foam?
b. Dark-field microscopy
a. Uroerythrin
c. Polarizing microscopy
b. Bilirubin
d. Fluorescence microscopy
c. Hemoglobin
e. Phase-contrast microscopy
d. indicant
f. Interference-contrast microscopy
 a. Bence-Jones Protein
TOPIC 7: MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION
1. What is the standard volume of urine that is b. Uromodulin
needed to provide a representative sample of
c. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
sediments for microscopic examination?
d. B and C
a. 20 ml

b. 12ml
7. What finding facilitates localization of infection
c. 5ml
in the kidneys instead of the lower urinary tract?
d. Any volume will do provided that proper
a. Nitrites
centrifugation time and speeds are followed
b. Positive urine culture for E. coli

c. Leukocyte esterase
2. Which of the following sediments are expressed
semi-quantitatively? d. WBC Casts
a. Crystals

b. RBCs 8. Which of the following casts are always

pathologic?
c. WBCs
a. Hyaline cast
d. All of the above
b. Granular cast

c. Waxy cast
3. Which of the following is not supportive of a
microscopic finding of bacteriuria? d. All of the above
a. Ph of 3.0

b. Leukocyte esterase + 9. The presence of lipid casts is indicative of:

c. Nitrite + a. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Turbid urine b. Nephritic syndrome

c. Hypercholesterolemia
4. What is the most frequently used stain in d. All of the above
urinalysis?

a. Hansel stain
10. What is the most common parasite encountered
b. Prussian blue stain in urine?
c. Oil Red O a. E. vermicularis
d. Sternheimer-Malbin Stain b. S. hematobium

c. T. vaginalis
5. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis may best be d. All of the above
elucidated by what stain?

a. Hansel stain
11. Which of the following parasites can be
b. Prussian blue stain encountered in urine?
c. Oil Red O a. E. vermicularis
d. Sternheimer-Malbin Stain B. S. hematobium

C. T. vaginalis
6. What substance makes up casts? D. All of the above
 a. Uric acid

12. This is a condition characterized by the b. Calcium oxalate dihydrate

presence of geometrically formed structures in the
c. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
urine.
d. Triple phosphate
a. Crystalluria

b. Cylindruria
18. The presence of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative
c. Bacteriuria
of damage localized to:
d. None of the above
a. Proximal tubules

b. Loop of Henle
13. What crystal is not necessarily a cause for
c. Urinary bladder
concern when seen under microscopic exam?
d. Glomerulus
a. Cystine

b. Uric Acid
19. This is a large polygonal cell with abundant,
c. Leucine
dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus that is
d. Bilirubin covered in some portions by coccobacilli.

a. Clue cell

14. Yellow-brown spherical crystals with spicules b. Squamous epithelial cell

are characteristic of:
c. Renal tubular epithelial cell
A. Bilirubin
d. Transitional epithelial cell
B. Cystine

C. Uric acid
20. Clue cells represent colonization of squamous
D. Ammonium biurate epithelium by what organism?

a. Gardnerella vaginalis

15. Which crystals are associated with liver b. Lactobacillus acidophilus

disorders?
c. Lactobacillus casei strain Shirota
a. Leucine
d. Mobiluncus spp
b. Tyrosine

c. Bilirubin

d. All of the above

16. Colorless hexagonal plates seen in acidic urine

that is often associated with a metabolic disorder

a. Cholesterol

b. Cystine

c. Resazurin

d. Tyrosine

17. Which of the following is indicative of antifreeze

poisoning?
 B. Multiple sclerosis

TOPIC 8: CEREBROSPINAL FLUID C. Meningitis

1. The cerebrospinal fluid flows through the
D. CNS malignancy
A. Dura mater

B. Pia mater
7. The reason why nucleated RBCs are seen in the
C. Choroid plexus CSF

D. Arachnoid space A. Anemia treatment

B. High blood RBCs

2. What laboratory section is the CSF tube labeled 2 C. Severe hemorrhage

routinely sent to?
D. Bone marrow contamination
A. Serology

B. Chemistry
8. Hemosiderin granules and hematoidin crystals
C. Microbiology are seen in:

D. Hematology A. Lymphocytes

B. Macrophages

3. The CSF tube labeled 2 should be maintained in C. Ependymal cells

what temperature?
D. Neutrophils
A. 20-24°C

C. -20°C
9. The reference range for CSF protein:
B. 2-4°C
A. 15 to 45 mg/dL
D. -80°C
B. 6 to 8 mg/dL

C. 15 to 45 g/dL
4. What does a web-like pellicle in a refrigerated
D. 6 to 8 g/dL
CSF specimen indicates?

A. Viral meningitis
10. In serum, the second most prevalent protein is
C. Primary CNS malignancy
IgG; in CSF, the second most prevalent protein is:
B. Multiple sclerosis
A. Transferrin
D. Tubercular meningitis
B. IgA

C. Prealbumin
5. A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be:
D. Ceruloplasmin
A. Not Reported

B. Diluted with normal saline

11. The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF and
C. Reported as normal not in the serum is seen with:

D. Counted undiluted A. Viral infections

C. Multiple sclerosis

6. What is the primary concern when pleocytosis of B. CNS malignancy

neutrophils and lymphocyte the CSF?
D. Multiple myeloma
A. Hemorrhage
12. A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dL C. Recent puncture
would have a normal CSF glucose of
D. Water intoxication
A. 80 mg/dL

C. 120 mg/dL
18. The reference concentration of a normal CSF
B. 60 mg/dL glutamine:

D. 20 mg/dL A. 8 to 18 mg/dL

Other answers: 72, 78 OR 84 mg/dL B. 15 to 45 mg/dL

C. 8 to 18 g/dL

13. CSF lactate will be more consistently decreased D. 15 to 45 g/dL

in:

A. Viral meningitis
19. Organisms frequently encountered in a
B. Bacterial meningitis bacterially infected CSF:

C. Fungal meningitis A. S. pneumoniae

D. Tubercular meningitis B. H. influenzae

C. N. meningitidis

14. The test of choice to detect neurosyphilis is D. All of the above

the:

A. RPR
20. The functions of the CSF include all of the
B. VDRL following:

C. FAB A. Remove metabolic waste

D. FTA-ABS B. Supply nutrients to the nervous tissue

C. Mechanical barrier to cushion the brain and

spinal cord
15. The cause of a turbid or milky CSF, EXCEPT:
D. All of the above
A. Hemoglobin

B. WBCs

C. Bacteria

D. Protein

16. What is the clinical importance of macrophages

in CSE?

A. Cerebral hemorrhage

B. Acute leukemia

C. RBCs in spinal fluid

D. Metastatic carcinomas

17. Decreased SF protein indicates, EXCEPT:

A. CSF leakage.

B. Neurosyphilis
TOPIC 9: SEROUS FLUIDS Klebsiella pneumoniae
1. What is the preferred method for diagnosis of
Bacillus anthracis
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Neutrophil count
7. What cells are increased in pulmonary infarction
Acid fast staining
Neutrophils
Cholesterol level determination
Monocytes
Fibronectin level determination
Lymphocytes

Eosinophils
2.What is useful in documenting hemorrhagic
effusions

WBC count 8.What chemical is increased in patients with

tuberculous pleuritis
ADA activity
Amylase
RBC count
LD
Interferon
Interferon Gamma

Lipids
3.What test is useful in diagnosing lupus pleuritis

ADA test
9.Pleural fluid is characterized by which of the
ANA test
following
Glucose test
Does not clot
C-reactive protein test
Eosinophilia is common

Feculent
4.Which is decreased in pleural fluid exudate
Lymphocytes predominate in early TB
Pleural fluid LD

Pleural fluid cholesterol

Pleural fluid/serum bilirubin ratio

Serum-pleural fluid albumin gradient

5. . How long should a pleural fluid cytologic

specimen be stored

72 hrs

96 hrs

36 hrs

120 hrs

6. What organism is commonly involved in

parapneumonic effusions

Streptococcus pyogenes

Staphylococcus urates
 A.Gram Stain: Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate

TOPIC 10: SYNOVIAL FLUID, SPUTUM, GASTRIC B.WBC Count: K3 EDTA

JUICE AND STOOL
C.Glucose: Fluoride
1. Which is FALSE about synovial fluid?
D.None of the Above
A. It is a perfect ultrafiltrate of the plasma.

B. It provides lubrications to the joints.

7. What reagent is used for the mucin clot test?
C. It is a source of nutrients to the joints.
A. 2-5% Hyaluronic Acid
D. It is found between movable joints.
B. 2-5% Trichloroacetic Acid

C. 2-5% Acetic Acid

2. What mucopolysaccharide is responsible for the
viscosity of the synovial fluid? D. 2-5% Polyanethol Sulfonic Acid
A. Heparin

B. Hyaluronic acid 8. A turbid fluid with a friable clot is graded as?

C. Collagen A. Good
D. B and C B. Fair

C. Low
3. Which of the following tests below is commonly D. Poor
performed on synovial fluid?

A. Gram Stain
9. In what squares should WBCs be counted in a
B. Rope Test cloudy, green synovial fluid with a clinical
impression of septic arthritis:
C. WBC Count
A. All 9 large squares
D. Crystals Examination
B. 5 small squares in the central large square

C. 4 large corner squares

4. Which of the following synovial fluid values is
abnormal D. Any of the above
A. Volume: 2.5 ml

B. Clarity: Clear 10. Lysis of RBCs is done by using?

C. Crystals: None seen A. Hypotonic saline
D. WBC count: 225 cells/ uL B. Hypertonic saline

C. 2-5% Acetic acid

5. Which of the following shows minimal deviations D. Hyaluronic Acid
from normal values of synovial fluid?

A. Non-inflammatory
11. Poor arthrocentesis technique is expected to
B. Inflammatory show plenty of which types of cells?
C.Septic A. Reiter Cells
D.Hemorrhagic B. Ragocytes

C. LE Cells
6. What test is not properly matched to the D. Synoviocytes
anticoagulant that should be used?
 A. Crystal violet

12. Neutrophils with degraded nuclear material B. Desmin

from ingested cells are known as:
C. Eosin
A. Reiter Cells
D. MyoD1
B. Ragocytes

C. LE Cells
18. The presence of neutrophils in the intestinal
D. Synoviocytes epithelium is specific for an infectious process:

A. True

13. The presence of fat droplets in synovial fluid is B. False

indicative of?

A. Nephrotic Syndrome
19. A black stool can be explained by:
B. Traumatic Injury
A. Bleeding in the stomach
C. Acute inflammation
B. Ingestion of activated charcoal as treatment
D. All of the above for poisoning

C. Iron megadosing

14. A blue birefringence in polarized light is D. All of the above

characteristic of:

A. Negative birefringence
20. Cholera is characterized by what type of
B. Positive birefringence diarrhea?

C. Either A. Secretory

D. Neither B.Osmotic

C. Dysentery

15. A yellow color in polarized microscopy is D. Dysmotility

characteristic of:

A. Negative birefringence

B. Positive birefringence

C. Either

D. Neither

16. A blue color in polarized microscopy is

characteristic of

A. CPPD

B. MSU

C. Cholesterol

D. Calcium oxalate

17. What is used to stain undigested muscle fibers

in the stool
TOPIC 11: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES

Column A Column B

A 1. Usually bilateral a. Column A Column B

owing to systemic
conditions Transu C 1. IFN-y A. Microscopic
B 2. Presence of date A/F 2. Mesothelial B.
coagulation b. cell
B 3. May be chylous or identification Microbiologi
pseudochylous Exudat D 3. ANA c
A 4. Due to increased e C 4. Uric acid C. Chemical
oncotic pressure of c. both C 5. Lipoprotein D.
plasma electrophoresis
A 5. Due to increased 6. Bacterial Immunologi
hydrostatic pressure B culture c
in capillaries 7. pH E. Gross
A 6. May be due to C 8. Pleural examination
congestive heart C fluid/serum F. Cytology
failure cholesterol
A 7. Retained for 7-10 ratio
days for further 9. CEA
testing C 10. RF
B 8. Requires additional D 11. ADA
medical workup C 12. PCR
B 9. Seen in SLE C 13. CYFRA
B 10. PLeural LD level C 14. TSA
C 15. Clarity
equal to ⅔ the upper
E 16. Telomerase
limit of serum LD
B C 17. Color
11. PLeural fluid/serum E 18. Neutrophilia
protein ratio >25 A assessment
B
12. Serum-pleural 19. WBC count
fluid albumin A 20. CA-125
B ratio ≤ 1.2 C 21. Creatinine and
g/dL C Urea
13. Pleural fluid/serum 22. Bilirubin
A cholesterol ratio of C 23. PSA
0.45 C 24. ALP
B 14. Clear to pale yellow C 25. Interleukin-8
fluid C
B 15. Feculent or putrid
odor
16. Usually unilateral
B often linked to
localized diseases
B 17. Presence of
chylomicrons
18. Generally
characteristic of
B fluids with >1000
WBC counted per uL
19. Seen in
A noninfectious
inflammatory
disease of the
pericardium
20. Seen in hepatic
cirrhosis
TOPIC 12: AMNIOTIC FLUID AND 15. What is the normal color and appearance of
amniotic fluid?
SEMEN
16. What does zone 1 in liley graph means?
1. Semen sample should be kept at what
temperature?
17. What does zone 3 in liley graph means?

2. Labels that should be found in a semen

18. A significant rise in OD of amniotic fluid of
sample
450 nm indicates the presence of what
analyte?
3. Sperm motility. Grade 4.0
19. Testing for fetal lung maturity. This is an
4. What is the stain used in sperm vitality?
immunologic test instead of thin layer
chromatography. Positive result: presence
5. Sperm vitality. Result in staining alive sperm
of agglutination

6. What are the changes in sperm sample if the

20. normal volume of amniotic fluid
first portion of sample is missing?
21. detection of neural tube defects
7. What are the changes in sperm sample if the
last portion of sample is missing?

8. Sperm Test. Sperm is exposed to low

sodium concentrations and are evaluated
for membrane integrity and sperm viability.
a. hypo-osmotic swelling
b. cervical mucus penetration
c. in vitro acrosome reaction
d. hamster egg penetration

9. What is the measure of head and flagella of

sperm?

10. What is the measurement of acrosomal

cap?

11. In a 1:20 dilution, an average of 200 sperm

are counted in 2 WBC counting squares.
Calculate the sperm concentration in mL
and the total sperm count of the specimen
with a volume of 5 mL.

12. In a 1:20 dilution, an average of 70 sperm

are counted in 5 RBC counting squares.
Calculate the sperm concentration in mL
and the total sperm count of the specimen
with a volume of 4 mL.

13. Give the 3 lung surfactants.

14. How are amniotic fluid for fetal lung

maturity testing should be delivered to the
laboratory?