Haryana HPSC SDO Civil Paper 27 August 2023 With Answer Key

Haryana HPSC SDO Civil Paper 27 August 2023 With Answer Key
Q.1 If P = y% of z and Q = z% of y, then which one of the following statements is true?

(A) P is equal to Q
(B) P is smaller than Q
(C) P is greater than Q
(D) Relationship between P and Q cannot be determined.
(E) Question not attempted
Q.2 The sum of first three prime numbers is

(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 23
Q.3 Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word “AUGUST”.
(A) Simple
(B) Dignified
(C) Beautiful
(D) Serene
Q.4 Where will Chandrayaan 3 land on the moon?

(A) Near the South Pole
(B) Near the North Pole
(C) In the equatorial region
(D) Landing place is not pre-decided.
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Q.5 Which Bank launches "Social Pay," a social media-based remittance service for NRIs?
(A) Dena Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Yes Bank
Q.6. As per IMF, which country has the potential to contribute 15 per cent of the global
growth in 2023?
(A) China
(B) France
(C) Brazil
(D) India
Q 7. In a certain code, ‘GAME’ is written as ‘HZND’. How is ‘RAVI’ coded in this code?
(A) VIAR
(B) SBWJ
(C) SZWJ
(D) SZWH
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Comprehension (Q.8-Q.9)
Street theatre in India is a well-established ancient art form. Despite the proliferation of modern
means of entertainment and communication, street theatre continues to flourish in India.Street
theatre as a channel of communication has for centuries been propagating reforms by
highlighting social, economic, and political issues present in the society. Unlike in the olden
days, its performance is no longer restricted to villages or small localities of the city. Today
small groups of performers including students, would stage performances to mobilize public
opinion or to help create or raise awareness over a particular issue of public importance.
Q:8
Street theatre usually _______ with issues of public importance
(A) does not deal
(B) deals
(C) is performed
(D) is distanced
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Q.9 Street theatre creates an/a _______ impact on audiences.

(A) physical
(B) mystical
(C) emotional
(D) intimate
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Q.10 Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence -
1. Frog
2. Grass
3. Grasshopper
4. Eagle
5. Snake
(A) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(D) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
Q.11 In a row of trees, a tree is 7th from left end and 14th from right end. How many tree are
there in the row?
(A) 18
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(B) 19
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(C) 20
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(D) 21
Q.12 You have gone boating with your younger brother and there you saw that a man has fallen
from the overcrowded boat. What will you do?
(A) Start shouting for someone to help him
(B) Ask the boat guide to stop the boat and ask him to help the man
(C) Jump into the river and save him
(D) Ask your brother to help him
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Q.13 What is a heuristic in decision-making process?
(A) a complicated and systematic method of decision making
(B) a purely intuitive method of decision making
(C) a totally unreliable method of decision making
(D) a quick and shortcut method that is used for decision making
In question below a sentence broken into five parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful
sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
Q.14 1. We 2. Immediately 3. Salary 4.Our 5.Want
(A) 15432
(B) 43152
(C) 25143
(D) 42351
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Q.15 Who of the following was given the first World Agricultural Award?
(A) M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Rachel Carson
(C) Vandana Shiva
(D) Norman Borlaug
Q.16 Who among the following leaders led the Revolt of 1857 in Rewari (Haryana)?
(A) Deepuji Rana
(B) Rao Tularam
(C) Mulbagal Swami
(D) Surender Sai
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Q.17 In which of the following epics Haryana is known as ‘Bahushanyaka’?
(A) Vishnu Puran
(B) Rigved
(C) Ramayana
(D) Mahabharata
Q.18 Which Country can be Compared with the Size of Haryana?

(A) Denmark
(B) Belgium
(C) Hungary
(D) Budapest
Q.19 From which place of Haryana coins of Gupta ruler Samudragupta have been obtained?
(A) Rakhigarhi
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(B) Mitathal
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(C) Kapalmochan
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(D) Banawali
Q.20 Which of the following rivers form the boundary between Haryana and Uttar Pradesh?
(A) Ganga
(B) Yamuna
(C) Ghaggar
(D) Krishnavati
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Q.21 Each joint is separated from a structure as a free body must
(A) move in the direction of resultant
(B) rotate in the direction of resultant
(C) be in equilibrium
(D) have resultant
Q.22 If the water requirement for 100gms for soundness test of cement is 23.4ml, what is the
percentage of water required for determination of setting time?
(A) 30
(B) 22
(C) 25.5
(D) 32
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Q.23 Limiting moment of a Singly reinforced RCC beam of size 300mm x 550mm
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(effective depth) reinforced with Fe415 steel and M25 concrete is _____kNm.
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(A) 313.10
(B) 335.77
(C) 301.74
(D) 250.00
Q.24 In a cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load, the shear force varies following a
(A) linear law
(B) parabolic law
(C) constant
(D) none of the above
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Q.25 The strength of hollow shaft for the same length, material and weight is ____solid shaft.
(A) less than
(B) more than
(C) equal to
(D) none of the above
Q.26 The characteristic load is that load which has a_____ percent probability of not being
exceeded during the life of the structure.
(A) 95
(B) 100
(C) 80
(D) 75
Q.27 The development length (Ld) in tension for reinforced concrete is given by
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(A) ϕσst/6τbd
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(C) ϕσst/5τbd
(D) ϕσst/3τbd
Q.28 Equivalent shear force of RCC beam of size 300mm x 600mm subjected to shear force of
120kN, bending moment of 150kN m and torsion moment of 40kNm is _____kN.
(A) 333.33
(B) 213.33
(C) 120
(D) 150
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Q.29. The larger maximum size of aggregate is
(A) beneficial for high strength concrete
(B) requires a smaller quantity of cement for a particular water-cement ratio
(C) results in reduced workability
(D) reduces stress concentration in mortar aggregate interface
Q.30. For a constant aggregate cement ratio if coarse aggregate is increased at a expense of
sand, the total surface area
(A) remains constant
(B) is reduced
(C) is increased
(D) depends on other factors
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Q.31 The constituents in decreasing order of rate of hydration are

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(A) C2S, C3S and C3A

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(B) C3S, C3A and C2S

(C) C3A, C3S and C2S
(D) C3A, C2S and C3S
Q.32 The most efficient section for torsional resistance is

(A) I section
(B) Channel section
(C) Angle section
(D) Hollow tube
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Q.33 Which type of cross section gives an ideal behavior as a beam?
(A) plasic
(B) compact
(C) semi compact
(D) slender
Q.34 How many buckling class of cross section are there in steel?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Q.35. A cantilever beam with length 2L has flexural rigidity EI up to L from fixed end and EI/2
for rest and carries a moment M at free end. The slope of beam at free end is
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(A) 2ML/3EI
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(B) 3ML/EI
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(C) 3ML/2EI
(D) 2ML/4EI
Q.36 A body is subjected to normal tensile stress of 1200Mpa on one plane and 1200Mpa
compressive on a plane normal to the former. The maximum shear stress is
(A) 600Mpa
(B) 800Mp
(C) 1200Mpa
(D) 2400Mpa
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Q.37 The beam A is 200mm wide and 500mm deep. Another beam B has same length but
depth is 600 and width is 300mm. Both the beams are RCC with M20 and Fe 415 grade of
concrete and steel. The ratio of bending strength of A to B is
(A) 0.46
(B) 0.55
(C) 2.17
(D) 1.88
Q.38 Bending moment at the fixed end of the propped cantilever beam shown is ____
b a
(A) pa
(B) pb
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(C) pa/2
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(D) p(a+b)
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Q.39 The ratio between the total volume of voids and total volume of solids is called:
(A) Void Ratio
(B) Porosity
(C) Water Content
(D) Degree of Saturation
Q.40 If the plasticity index of the given fine grained soil is zero, it is classified as:
(A) Non-Plastic
(B) Low Plastic
(C) Medium Plastic
(D) Highly Plastic
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Q.41 The effective stress due to capillary water pressure in a soil mass:
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Does not Change
(D) Changes to negative value
Q.42 The relation between discharge velocity(v) and seepage velocity(vs) through a soil media
is:
(A) v=(n)(vs)
(B) vs=(n)(v)
(C) n=(vs)/(v)
(D) v=vs
Q.43. The soil sample has porosity of 40% and its specific gravity is 2.7. The void ratio for the
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sample is:
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(A) 0.75
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(B) 0.8
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.667
Q.44. An undrained triaxial compression test is carried out on a saturated clay sample under
a cell pressure of 100 kPa. The sample failed at a deviator stress of 200 kPa. The cohesion
of the given sample of clay is:
(A) 100 kPa
(B) 50 kPa
(C) 200 kPa
(D) 300 kPa
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Q.45. The process of gradual reduction in the volume of a saturated clayey soil mass resulting
from sustained application of compressive stress and expulsion of pore water, is called:
(A) Consolidation
(B) Compaction
(C) Settlement
(D) Primary Settlement
Q.46. A saturated clay stratum of thickness 10 metre, bounded on top and bottom by medium
coarse sand layers, has a coefficient of consolidation of 0.002 cm2/sec. If this stratum is
subjected to loading, it is likely to undergo 50% of its primary consolidation in:
(A) 285 days
(B) 300 days
(C) 301 days
(D) 305 days
Q.47. Match the following groups:

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(P) Constant Head Permeability Test (1) Pile Foundation

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(Q) Consolidation Test (2) Specific Gravity

(R) Pycnometer Test (3) Clay Soil
(S) Negative Skin Friction (4) Sand
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-4, Q-1 R-2, S-3
Q.48. Compaction by vibratory roller is the best method of compaction in case of:
(A) Moist Silty Sand
(B) Well Graded Dry Sand
(C) Clay of Medium Compressibility
(D) Silt of High Compressibility
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Q.49. A Direct Shear test was conducted on a cohesionless soil specimen under a normal stress
of 200 kPa. The specimen failed at a shear stress of 100 kPa. The angle of internal friction
of soil(degrees) is:
(A) 26.6
(B) 29.5
(C) 30
(D) 32.6
Q.50. A footing 2 m X 1 m exerts a uniform pressure of 150 kPa on the soil. Assuming a load
distribution of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal, the average vertical stress(kPa) at 1 m below the
footing is:
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 80
(D) 100
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Q.51. The ultimate load carrying capacity of a friction pile(D=0.5 m, L= 10 m) embedded in

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cohesive bed(Cu=50 kPa, α=0.7) is (Use π=3.14):

(A) 540.21 kN
(B) 545.52 kN
(C) 549.50 kN
(D) 600.8 kN
Q.52. Undrained shear strength of a saturated clay tested in unconfined compression is given in
terms of unconfined compressive strength qu as :
(A) Cu = 0.5*qu
(B) Cu = 0.66*qu
(C) Cu = qu
(D) Cu = 2*qu
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Q.53. Stability analysis by Swedish method of slices for a 8.0 m high embankment made of
cohesive soil ( c= 20 kPa , φ = 5 degree ) has the following data:
(1) Length of the arc = 18 m
(2) Total shearing force mobilized = 400 kN
(3) Total normal force = 1800 kN
(4) Total pore water pressure = 200 kN
The factor of safety is:
(A) 1.249
(B) 1.529
(C) 1.659
(D) 1.159
Q.54 The risk involved for a hydraulic structure having a design life of 100 years if it is
designed for 50 year return period flood is
(A) 86.7 %
(B) 8.67%
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(C) 25 %
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(D) 50%
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Q.55. The total observed runoff volume during a 6-hour storm with a uniform intensity of
rainfall of 1.5 cm/h is 21.6 Mm3. If the area of the basin is 300 km2, the average
infiltration rate is
(A) 3 mm/h
(B) 0.3 mm/h
(C) 30 mm/h
(D) 0.03 mm/h
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Q.56 Isobar is a line which joins the points of equal
(A) Rainfall depth
(B) Temperature
(C) Humidity
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Q.57. The Froude number for an average velocity of 10 m/s and 80 cm depth of flow in channel
is
(A) 1
(B) 1.2
(C) 8.7
(D) 3.57
Q.58 Double mass curve technique is used

(A) To prepare the rainfall hyetograph from rainfall mass curve
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(B) To prepare the rainfall mass curve from rainfall hyetograph

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(C) To check consistency of record at a suspected raingauge station

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(D) In developing isohyetal maps.

Q.59. For a gravity dam the net vertical force acting downward is 53800 kN and net horizontal
force is 47050 kN. Considering the coefficient of friction = 0.75, the factor of safety
against sliding is
(A) 1
(B) 1.1
(C) 0.857
(D) 2.1
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Q.60. Which of the following formations does not contain any groundwater
(A) Aquifer
(B) Aquifuge
(C) Aquitard
(D) Aquiclude
Q.61. Considering specific weight of water as 9790 N/m3, the pressure represented by an oil
column of 5 cm with relative density of 0.75 is
(A) 3.67 Pa
(B) 367.12 Pa
(C) 3671.2 Pa
(D) 36712 Pa
Q.62. The linear momentum equation is based on

(A) Newtons law of viscosity
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(B) Newtons first law

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(C) Netwons second law

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(D) Newtons third law

Q.63. For a given discharge in a channel at critical depth

(A) The total energy is minimum
(B) The total energy is maximum
(C) The specific energy is maximum
(D) The specific energy is minimum
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Q.64. A laser-doppler anemometer (LDA) is a device to measure
(A) The turbulent velocity fluctuations in a flow
(B) Shear stress at a boundary
(C) Drag force on an aerofoil
(D) Surface tension of a fluid
Q.65. The discharge over an ogee spillway is 8000 cumecs for flow over an effective length of
55.37 m. If the coefficient of discharge Cd = 2.2, the effective head is
(A) 2 m
(B) 12.3 m
(C) 100 m
(D) 16.23 m
Q.66. The pitot-static tube measures

(A) The dynamic pressure
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(B) The static pressure

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(C) The total head

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(D) The difference in static and dynamic pressure

Q.67. A rectangular channel 2.0 m wide carries a discharge of 6 cumecs. The minimum specific
energy is
(A) 14.57 m
(B) 1.457 m
(C) 145.7 m
(D) 0.1457 m
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Q.68. If the hardness of water is 1meq/L, its equivalent concentration in mg/L as CaCO3 is
(A) 150mg/L
(B) 50mg/L
(C) 100mg/L
(D) 250mg/L
Q.69. Type II settling in water treatment is defined as:

(A) Settling of discrete particles in dilute suspensions
(B) Settling of flocculant particles in dilute suspensions
(C) Settling of flocculant particles in concentrated suspensions
(D) Settling of particles in the form of sludge blanket
Q.70. The chlorine demand of a water sample was found to be 0.2mg/L. The amount of
bleaching powder containing 30% available chlorine to be added to treat one litre of
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such a water sample is

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(A) 0.67mg
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(B) 0.06mg
(C) 1.33mg
(D) 0.14mg
Q.71. A river is the source of water for water supply to a town. Its water is very turbid and
polluted. The correct sequence of steps for treating the river water would be
(A) presedimentation ->prechlorinination -> coagulation -> sedimentation

-> filtration > post chlorination
(B) coagulation -> filtration -> sedimentation -> post chlorination
(C) coagulation -> sedimentation -> post chlorination
(D) sedimentation -> post chlorination
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Q.72 Insertion of safety lamp in the upper portion of a manhole, causing flames, surely
indicates in sewer, the presence of:
(A) Hydrogen sulphide gas
(B) Methane gas
(C) Carbon dioxide gas
(D) Petrol vapours
Q. 73. The ratio of the design discharge to the surface area of a sedimentation tank is known
as its:
(A) Surface loading
(B) Scour velocity
(C) Weir loading
(D) Horizontal velocity
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Q.74. Ultimate BOD of a given sewage depends upon its

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(A) Temperature
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(B) Flow velocity

(C) Initial organic matter
(D) Viscosity of sewage
Q.75. One litre of sewage, when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives sludge of 27cm3. If
the dry weight of sludge is 3.0 gm, then its sludge volume index will be:
(A) 9 ml/gm
(B) 30 ml/gm
(C) 24 ml/gm
(D) 81 ml/gm
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Q.76. During temperature inversion in atmosphere air pollutants tend to:
(A) Accumulate above inversion layer
(B) Accumulate below inversion layer
(C) Disperse laterally
(D) Disperse vertically
Q.77 The device which can be used to control gaseous as well as particulate emission in
industrial emission is known as
(A). Cyclone separator
(B). Spray Tower
(C) Dynamic precipitator
(D) Fabric filter
Q.78. The term ‘Refuse” generally does not include:

(A) Putrescible solid waste
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(B) Excreta
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(C) Non-putrescible solid waste

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(D) Ashes
Q.79. Which of the following statement explains the term pyrolysis?

(A) Solid waste is heated in closed containers in oxygen free atmosphere
(B) Solid waste is incinerated in presence of oxygen
(C) Waste water is treated with oxygen
(D) Waste water is treated without oxygen
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Q.80. For MSW management, responsibility of municipal authority includes
(A) collection
(B) segregation
(C) Transportation
(D) all above
Q.81. The quantity of Alum required in order to treat 13 million of water per day at the
treatment plant, where 12ppm of Alum dose required is 156 Kg. The amount of carbon
dioxide that will be released in this process is
(A) 4.76 Kg
(B) 61.84 Kg
(C) 10.30 Kg
(D) 50.07 Kg
Q. 82. A plate load test was conducted on a soaked subgrade during monsoon season using
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plate of diameter 30 cm. From load settlement curve the load value P1 corresponding
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load settlement value of 0.125 cm is 1490 kg. The Modulus of subgrade reaction k- for
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standard plate of diameter 75 cm is:

(A) 4.0 kg/ cm3
(B) 6.75 kg/ cm3
(C) 8.85 kg/ cm3
(D) None of the above
Q. 83 . According to Bureau 0f Indian Standards cement is classified based on its grade. What is
the meaning of 43 in OPC grade 43.
(A) Setting time of cement in minutes
(B) Flexural strength of concrete made from cement
(C) Compressive strength of cement mortar in MPa at 28 days
(D) Modulus of Elasticity of concrete
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Q.84. The quality of flow of vehicles in a traffic stream may be represented in terms of speed
dispersion. The method for judging the speed dispersion is
(A) The coefficient of variation of spot speeds
(B) Average Annual Daily Traffic
(C)Traffic flow diagram at intersection
(D) Parking studies
Q.85. On a road location A the 15-minute traffic counts recorded as under:

Time interval, minutes Traffic counts, vehicles
0 - 15 48
15 - 30 30
30 - 45 40
45 - 60 25
The traffic volume (veh/hr) at the location A is

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(B) 143
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(C) 192
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(D) 280
Q.86. From the following signs, which is the warning sign

(A) No parking
(B) Right turn ahead
(C) Hair-pin bend left
(D) Route marker sign
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Q.87. The peak hour factor (PHF) is ratio of
(A) Volume/ Flow
(B) Volume/ Speed
(C)Volume/ Density
(D) Flow/ Density
Q.88. The gradient for a BG track where the grade resistance together with curve resistance due
to a 2degree curve is equal to the resistance due to a ruling gradient of 1 in 200 is
(A) 1 in 150
(B) 1 in 200
(C) 1 in 238
(D) 1 in 250
Q.89. Select superelevation for track having gauge G=1750 mm, speed of train V = 90 kmph,
and radius of curve R = 600 m considering cant deficiency
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(A) 265 mm
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(B) 165 mm
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(C)186 mm
(D) 196 mm
Q. 90. For maximum permissible speed( Vm)= 80 kmph, Actual cant provided ( Ca)=65 mm and
cant deficiency (Cd)= 75 mm, choose the maximum length of transition curve.
(A) 41.60 m
(B) 48.00 m
(C) 46.80 m
(D) 50.00 m
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Q.91. One of the following is not assumed in defining the basic runway length.
(A) Airport altitude is at sea level.
(B) Temperature at the airport is 30 0C
(C) Runway is levelled in longitudinal direction
(D) No wind is blowing on the runway.
Q.92. The distance between two points A and B, is measured on sloping ground as 100 m. The
difference in elevation of these points is 10 m. Determine the Horizontal distance between
A and B.
(A) 90 m
(B) 97.5 m
(C) 98.5 m
(D) 99.5 m
Q.93. What is Transiting in Theodolite?

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(A) The process of rotating the telescope in Horizontal plane through 1800
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(B) The process of setting Level tube parallel to two foot screws
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(C) The process of turning the telescope in Vertical plane through 1800
(D) The process of setting Level tube on third foot screws
Q.94. In levelling to determine the R.L. of a Beam of a building, inverted staff is held by
touching bottom of the levelling staff to the beam. Find out RL of the beam if Bench Mark
(BM) elevation is 50.505 m, reading on BM is 1.505 m and reading on beam is 1.040 m.
(A) 50.97 m
(B) 53.050 m
(C) 49.465 m
(D) 52.010 m
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Q. 95. Balancing Back Sight (BS) and Fore Sight (FS) means,
(A) Reading of BS and FS is same.
(B) Reduced Level (RL) of BS point and FS point is same.
(C) Distance of BS point and FS point from instrument station is same
(D) BS and FS taken at same point, i.e., Change point.
Q.96. Two points P and Q are on the opposite banks of a river. The following observations were
obtained in reciprocal levelling.
Instruments Staff reading at

near P Q
P 2.000 3.720
Q 0.810 2.420
If the RL of P is 100.000 m, determine the RL of Q.

(A) 98.280 m
(B) 101.190 m
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(C) 98.335 m
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(D) None of the above

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Q.97. Area enclosed between the Dam and upstream contours at a reservoir site are as follows:
Contour level Enclosed area
(m) (sq.m)
54 714
56 6512
58 52700
60 79000
62 374000
Determine the capacity of the reservoir by trapezoidal formula.

(A) 55113.8 m3
(B) 65113.8 m3
(C) 75113.8 m3
(D) 85113.8 m3
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Q.98. To find out the elevation of a tower an angle of elevation measured with top of tower is
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26o15’. The horizontal distance between bottom of tower and Theodolite station is 100 m,
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the Bench Mark (BM) elevation is 100.000 m and reading taken with telescope horizontal
on BM is 2.455 m. What is the RL of the top of tower?
(A) 140. 770 m
(B) 145.770 m
(C) 151.770 m
(D) 159.770 m
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Q.99. The distance between two points A and B was measured 3 times under identical conditions
and the measured values were recorded as 53.56, 53.52, 53.54. Most probable error and
Maximum error is
(A) ± 0.01349, ± 0.0658
(B) ± 0.04349, ± 0.0958
(C) ± 0.06300, ± 0.0850
(D) ± 0.03500, ± 0.0505
Q.100. Aerial photograph were taken with a camera having focal length of 180 mm. The average
elevation of the ground in the photograph is 160 m. To have photo scale 1 in 6000, flying
height is
(A) 1020 m
(B) 1040 m
(C) 1060 m
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(D) 1080 m
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MASTER ANSWR KEY - SDE(CIVIL) EXAM HELD ON 27.08.2023
Q.No. Ans Key Q.No. Ans Key Q.No. Ans Key Q.No. Ans Key
1 A 26 A 51 C 76 B
2 A 27 B 52 A 77 D
3 B 28 A 53 A 78 B
4 A 29 B 54 A 79 A
5 C 30 B 55 A 80 D
6 D 31 C 56 D 81 B
7 D 32 D 57 D 82 B
8 B 33 A 58 C 83 C
9 C 34 D 59 C 84 A
10 A 35 B 60 B 85 B
11 C 36 C 61 B 86 C
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12 C 37 A 62 C 87 A
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13 D 38 C 63 D 88 C
C
14 A 39 A 64 A 89 C
15 A 40 A 65 D 90 B
16 B 41 A 66 A 91 B
17 D 42 A 67 B 92 D
18 A 43 D 68 B 93 C
19 B 44 A 69 B 94 B
20 B 45 A 70 A 95 C
21 C 46 A 71 A 96 C
22 C 47 A 72 B 97 B
23 A 48 B 73 A 98 C
24 A 49 A 74 C 99 A
25 B 50 A 75 A 100 D

Haryana HPSC SDO Civil Paper 27 August 2023 With Answer Key

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Haryana HPSC SDO Civil Paper 27 August 2023 With Answer Key

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Haryana HPSC SDO Civil Paper 27 August 2023 With Answer Key

Q.1 If P = y% of z and Q = z% of y, then which one of the following statements is true?

Q.2 The sum of first three prime numbers is

Q.4 Where will Chandrayaan 3 land on the moon?

(E) Question not attempted

Q.9 Street theatre creates an/a _______ impact on audiences.

(E) Question not attempted

Q.18 Which Country can be Compared with the Size of Haryana?

Q.31 The constituents in decreasing order of rate of hydration are

(A) C2S, C3S and C3A

(B) C3S, C3A and C2S

Q.32 The most efficient section for torsional resistance is

(E) Question not attempted

Q.47. Match the following groups:

(P) Constant Head Permeability Test (1) Pile Foundation

(Q) Consolidation Test (2) Specific Gravity

Q.51. The ultimate load carrying capacity of a friction pile(D=0.5 m, L= 10 m) embedded in

cohesive bed(Cu=50 kPa, α=0.7) is (Use π=3.14):

(E) Question not attempted

Q.58 Double mass curve technique is used

(B) To prepare the rainfall mass curve from rainfall hyetograph

(C) To check consistency of record at a suspected raingauge station

(D) In developing isohyetal maps.

Q.62. The linear momentum equation is based on

(B) Newtons first law

(C) Netwons second law

(D) Newtons third law

Q.63. For a given discharge in a channel at critical depth

Q.66. The pitot-static tube measures

(B) The static pressure

(C) The total head

(D) The difference in static and dynamic pressure

Q.69. Type II settling in water treatment is defined as:

such a water sample is

(A) presedimentation ->prechlorinination -> coagulation -> sedimentation

Q.74. Ultimate BOD of a given sewage depends upon its

(B) Flow velocity

Q.78. The term ‘Refuse” generally does not include:

(C) Non-putrescible solid waste

Q.79. Which of the following statement explains the term pyrolysis?

standard plate of diameter 75 cm is:

Q.85. On a road location A the 15-minute traffic counts recorded as under:

The traffic volume (veh/hr) at the location A is

Q.86. From the following signs, which is the warning sign

Q.93. What is Transiting in Theodolite?

Instruments Staff reading at

If the RL of P is 100.000 m, determine the RL of Q.

(D) None of the above

(E) Question not attempted

Determine the capacity of the reservoir by trapezoidal formula.

(E) Question not attempted

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