Ncert Line by Line Zoology 2

ZOOLOGY
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ZOOLOGY
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ZOOLOGY
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LINE BY LINE
CHAPTERWISE TOPICWISE
ZOOLOGY
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ZOOLOGY
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
TOPICS
CLASS – XI-th
1. CHAPTER – 1 Animal kingdom ……………5

2. CHAPTER – 2 Structural Organisation in Animals .…………21
3. CHAPTER – 3 Biomolecules .…………34
4. CHAPTER – 4 Digestion ………….47
5. CHAPTER – 5 Breathing and exchange of gases ………….56
6. CHAPTER – 6 Body Fluids and Circulation ………….64
7. CHAPTER – 7 Excretory products and their elimination ………….76
8. CHAPTER – 8 Locomotion and Movement ………….86
9. CHAPTER – 9 Neural Control and Coordination ………….96
10. CHAPTER – 10 Chemical Control and Coordination …………118
CLASS – XII-th
11. CHAPTER – 11 Reproduction in Organisms ………….132

12. CHAPTER – 12 Human Reproduction ………….140
13. CHAPTER – 13 Reproductive Health ………….159
14. CHAPTER – 14 Evolution ………….171
15. CHAPTER – 15 Human Health and Diseases ………….187
16. CHAPTER – 16 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production ………….205
17. CHAPTER – 17 Biotechnology : principles and Processes ………….222
18. CHAPTER – 18 Biotechnology and its applications ………….232
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1. 1 ANIMAL KINGDOM
A) organisms having incomplete

Basis of classification
digestive system
1. Which of the following is a basic feature B) coelenterates, ctenophores and
of all the organisms of Animalia? Platyhelminthes
[Pg-46,E] C) organisms having complete digestive
A) Multicellular structure system
B) Sensory and neuromotor system D) organisms having cellular level of
C) Terrestrial habitat organization
D) Locomotion 6. Which of the following is incorrect? [Pg-
2. Which of the following lack tissue grade 47,M]
organization? [Pg-46,E] A) Some division of labour (activities)
A) Metazoans occur among the cells in the members
B) Eumetazoans of phylum porifera.
C) Parazoans B) Division of labour (activities) is
D) None of these completely absent among the cells in
3. Match the columns. [Pg-46,47,M] poriferans.
Column-I Column-II C) Open circulatory system is found in
(A) Organ level (1) Pheretima Tunicates, hemichordates, and non-
(B) Cellular aggregate (2) Fasciola cephalopod molluscs.
level D) All of these
(C) Tissue level (3) Spongilla 7. Choose the incorrect option. [Pg-47,M]
(D) Organ system level (4) Obelia A) Complete digestive system - Two
openings, mouth and anus
B) Incomplete digestive system - Single
Codes- opening system
(A) (B) (C) (D) C) Open circulatory system - Blood is
A) 2 4 3 1 circulated through tubes
B) 2 3 4 1 D) Closed circulatory system - Arteries
C) 4 1 2 3 veins and capillaries present
D) If both assertion and reason are 8. Choose the correct body symmetry
false. shown in the diagram. [Pg-47,E]
4. Choose the correct option [Pg-47,H]
A) Ctenophores and platyhelminthes
possess complete digestive system.
B) Aschelminthes to chordates, all
possess organ system level of
organization along with complete
digestive system.
C) Coelenterates and aschelminthes
possess organ system level of A) A – Radial, B – Bilateral
organization along with complete B) A – Bilateral, B – Pentamerous
digestive system. C) A – Radial, B – Pentamerous
D) Poriferans may possess complete D) A – Bilateral, B – Radial
digestive system. 9. The diagram below shows the
5. The entry of food and exit of waste takes diploblastic and triploblastic germ layers
place from separate openings in [Pg- in the animals. Identify the correct
47,M] option in which they are found. [Pg-47,E]
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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D) Mesoglea is an undifferentiated layer

which do not form any tissue or
organ.
13. Choose the incorrect match [Pg-47,M]
A) Tube-within-tube body plan:
Nemathelminthes, Annelida,
Arthropoda, Mollusca,
Echinodermata, Chordata
A) A – Radial, B – Bilateral B) Cell-aggregate type body plan:
B) A – Bilateral, B – Pentamerous Coelenterates
C) A – Radial, B – Pentamerous C) Blind-sac type body plan:
D) A – Bilateral, B – Radial Platyhelminthes and coelenterates
10. Choose the true statement: [Pg-47,M] D) None of these
A) Animals like annelids, arthropods, 14. Which of the following is/are the
aschelminthes, molluscs, function of coelom? [Pg-48,H]
hemichordates and chordates A) Absorb shock or provide hydrostatic
possess bilateral symmetry. skeleton
B) Most of the animals possess bilateral B) Support shock or provide hydrostatic
symmetry. skeleton
C) Platyhelminthes was the first phylum C) Allow muscles to grow independently
during evolution to exhibit bilateral of the body wall
symmetry. D) All of these
D) All of these 15. The diagram below shows the
11. Study the types of animals with respect diploblastic and triploblastic germ layers
to the presence or absence of body in the animals. Identify the correct
cavities: [Pg-48,E] option in which they are found. [Pg-47,E]
A) A – Molluscs, B – Chordates
B) A – Annelida, B – Porifera
C) A – Coelenterates, B –
A) A – Molluscs, B – Chordates Platyhelminthes
B) A – Annelida, B – Porifera D) Molluscs, B – Porifera
C) A – Coelenterates, B – 16. Choose the incorrect option [Pg-48,H]
Platyhelminthes A) True coelom is a body cavity which
D) A – Molluscs, B – Porifera arises as a cavity in the embryonic
12. Which of the following option is wrong? mesoderm.
[Pg-47,M] B) Digestive cavity is found in
A) Coelenterates and ctenophores are acoelomates, pseudocoelomates as
diploblastic. well as coelomates.
B) Animals from platyhelminthes to C) The body cavity of arthropods and
chordates are triploblastic. non- cephalopod molluscs is called
C) Radially symmetric animals remain haemocoel.
attached to a surface by their aboral D) There is no cavity between the body
surface. wall and gut wall in echinoderms.
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17. Metamerism is present in [Pg-48,E] C) II, III and IV

A) annelids D) I only
B) arthropods 21. Identify the correct labels A and B.
C) chordates [Pg-48,E]
D) all of these Notochord Nerve Cord
18. Choose the incorrect match: [Pg-47,E] A Part of nervous
A) Coelenterates – Radial symmetry system
B) Molluscs – Radial symmetry in adults Found in Found in chordates as
C) Platyhelminthes – Triploblastic chordates well as non-
only chordates
D) Ctenophores – Triploblastic
19. Choose the correct label for A, B, C and Dorsal side in B
chordates
D in the broad Classification of Kingdom
Animalia based on common fundamental A) A = Exoskeleton, B = Dorsal in
features as given below. [Pg-47,E] chordates as well as in non-chordates
B) A = Endoskeleton; B = Ventral in
chordates as well as in non-chordates
C) A = Exoskeleton; B = Ventral in
chordates and dorsal in non-
chordates
D) A = Endoskeleton; B = Dorsal in
chordates and ventral in non-
chordates
22. True coelom appear in which of the
following during evolution? [Pg-48,E]
A) Echinodermata
A B C D B) Annelida
A) Bilateral Porifera Ctenophora Coelomat C) Platyhelminthes
e
D) Aschelminthes
B) Radial Porifera Ctenophora Acoeloma
te
23. The layer absent in the embryos of
C) Bilateral Porifera Ctenophora Coelomat
diploblastic animals is [Pg-47,E]
e A) ectoderm B) endoderm
D) Radial Ctenophora Porifera Acoeloma C) mesoderm D) mesoglea
te 24. Nerve cells and tissue level of
organization first appeared in [Pg-46,E]
20. Choose the incorrect statement. A) coelenterates B) ctenophora
(I) Notochord is ectodermally derived C) chordate D) porifera
rod-like structure. 25. In some animal groups, the body is found
(II) Notochord is formed on the dorsal divided into compartments with at least
side during embryonic some organs. This characteristic feature
development. is called [Pg-48,E]
(III) The animals from porifera to A) segmentation
Echinoderms are without B) metamerism
notochord. C) metagenesis
D) metamorphosis
(IV) In some chordates, notochord is
26. Body cavity is the cavity present between
replaced by the vertebral column
body wall and gut wall. In some animals
and these chordates are called
the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm.
vertebrates.
Such animals are called [Pg-48,E]
[Pg-48,M]
A) acoelomate
A) I and II
B) pseudocoelomate
B) I, II, and III
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C) coelomate B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,

D) haemocoelomate but Reason is not the correct
27. Match the following Columns [Pg-47,M] explanation of Assertion.
Column-I Column-II C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(Phylum) (Characteristic D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Features) 31. Assertion: Aschelminthes represent
(A) Porifera (1) Canal system pseudocoelomates.
(B) Aschelminthes (2) Water vascular Reason: In aschelminthes, mesoderm is
system present as scattered pouches in between
(C) Annelida (3) Muscular pharynx ectoderm and endoderm. [Pg-48,H]
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
(D) Arthropoda (4) Joined appendages and Reason is correct explanation of
(E) Echinodermata (5) Metameres Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
Select the correct option but Reason is not the correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) explanation of Assertion.
A) 1 3 5 4 2 C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
B) 1 2 3 4 5 D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) 5 4 3 2 1
D) 4 3 1 2 5 PORIFERA
28. Which of the following animals are true
32. Sponges are [Pg-49,E]
coelomates with bilateral symmetry? [Pg-
A) with water canal system
47,E]
B) sexually reproducing by formation of
A) Adult echinoderms
gametes
B) Aschelminthes
C) both (a) and (b)
C) Platyhelminthes
D) sessile or free-swimming
D) Annelids
33. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is
29. Assertion: The primary character of
lined with flagellated cells called [Pg-
chordates is the presence of dorsal
49,E]
hollow nerve cord. [Pg-48,H]
A) ostia B) oscula
Reason: Vertebral column is derived from
C) choanocytes
the notochord.
D) mesenchymal cells
34. Body having meshwork of cells, internal
and Reason is correct explanation of
cavities lined with food filtering
Assertion.
flagellated cells and indirect development
but Reason is not the correct are the characteristics of phylum [Pg-
explanation of Assertion. 49,E]
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. A) coelenterate B) porifera
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. C) Mollusca D) protozoa
30. Assertion: Animals with radial symmetry 35. In most simple type of canal system of
has more advantage in detecting food porifera, water flows through which one
and danger. of the following ways? [Pg-49,M]
Reason: It allows animal to be able to A) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum →
respond to stimulus from any direction. Exterior
[Pg-47,H] B) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum →
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true Exterior
and Reason is correct explanation of C) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia →
Assertion. Exterior
D) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel →
Exterior
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36. Examine the figures A, B, and C. [Pg- A) They are highly regenerative
49,E] B) They are universally radially
symmetrical
C) The contain clarions spicules but
lack the siliceous one
D) They are found only in fresh water
COELENTERATA
41. Cnidocytes are [Pg-50,H]

A) also called cnidoblast or nematocyte
B) explosive cells each of which contain
giant secretory organelle called
nematocyst
C) stinging cells
D) with all the above features
In which one of the four options all the
42. Consider the following statements about
animals (Poriferans) are correct?
A) A - Sycon, B - Euspongia, C - cnidarians: [Pg-50,H]
Spongilla (I) They have tissue level of
B) A - Euspongia, B - Spongilla, C - organization and triploblastic.
Sycon (II) Digestion is extracellular and
C) A - Spongilla, B - Sycon, C - intracellular.
Euspongia (III) Corals secrete calcium bicarbonate
D) A - Euspongia, B - Sycon, C – form a skeleton.
Spongilla (IV) Corals may harbour some
37. Which of the following is a freshwater photosynthetic dinoflagellates for
sponge? [Pg-50,E] taking nutrition.
(V) They possess a central gastro-
A) Euspongia
vascular cavity with a single
B) Euplectella
opening mouth in hypostome.
C) Spongilla
A) Statements I and III are correct
D) Sycon
B) Statements II, IV and V are correct
38. In poriferans, the rudimentary division of
C) Statements I, II and III are correct
labour is found between the [Pg-49,E]
D) Statements III and IV are incorrect
A) tissue B) cells
43. Here two basic body forms of cnidarians
C) organs D) organ-system
are given. [Pg-50,E]
39. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of class Porifera? [Pg-
49,M]
(I) Development is indirect (larval
stage is present).
(II) Mostly asymmetrical and usually
marine
(III) Primitive multicellular animals A) A and B are false swimming forms
with cellular level of organization. B) A and B are sessile form
(IV) Choanocytes line the spongocoel C) A produce B asexually and B form the
and the canals. ‘A’ sexually
(V) Sexes are separate D) B produce A sexually and A form the
A) I and IV B) II only ‘B’ sexually
C) V only D) III and IV 44. Match the columns. [Pg-50,M]
40. Choose the correct characteristic for Column-I Column-II
(A) Gorgonia (1) Sea fan
sponges. [Pg-49,M]
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(B) Adamsia (2) Sea pen B) Fasciola Tapewor Liverfluke Aurelia

(C) Physalia (3) Portuguese man of war m
(D) Pennatula (4) Sea anemone C) Pleurobra Roundwo Taenia Adamsia
nchia rm
Select the correct option D) Fasciola Roundwo Liverfluke Adamsia
(A) (B) (C) (D) rm
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1 PLATYHELMINTHES
D) 3 4 1 2
45. ‘Stinging capsules’ or nematocytes are 49. In tapeworms [Pg-51,M]
found in [Pg-50,E] A) flame cells are absent
A) sea anemone B) sea pen B) both exoskeleton and endoskeleton
C) sea fan D) all of these present
46. Assertion: Choanocytes or collar cells C) hooks and suckers present
line the spongocoel and the canals in D) body is radially symmetrical
poriferans.
Reason: Poriferans possess spicules or Platyhelminthes [Pg-51,E]
spongin fibers. [Pg-49,H] A) Wuchereria B) Taenia
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true C) Faxiola D) Planaria
and Reason is correct explanation of 51. Ascaris is characterized by [Pg-52,M]
Assertion. A) the absence of true coelom but
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, presence of metamerism
but Reason is not the correct B) the presence of neither true coelom
explanation of Assertion. nor metamerism
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) the presence of true coelom but the
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. absence of metamerism
D) the presence of true coelom and
CTENOPHORA metamerism
52. Which of the option is correct for the
47. Ctenophores [Pg-51,E] statements given below. [Pg-51,E]
A) perform external fertilization (I) Commonly called sea walnuts or
B) have indirect development comb jellies.
C) both (A) and (B) (II) Bioluminescence is well marked.
D) have separate sexes (III) Body bear eight external rows of
48. Identify the correct option specifying the ciliated comb plates.
names of the animals A, B, C and D. [Pg- (IV) They have flame cells for
50,51,52,H] osmoregulation and excretion.
(V) Alimentary canal is complete with
a well-developed muscular
pharynx.
Ctenophores Platyhelminthes Aschelminth
es
A) I, II, III IV V
B) IV I, II III, V
C) I, II III, IV V
D) IV, V II, III I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A) Pleurobra Tapewor Taenia Aurelia 53. Phylum Platyhelminthes members are
nchia m
[Pg-51,M]
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A) dorsoventrally flattened, thus called D) Taenia is a triploblastic animal

flatworms 58. Out of the given cells, which of them can
B) bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic differentiate and perform different
and acoelomates functions? [Pg-52,M]
C) with organ system level of A) Choanocytes B) Interstitial cells
organization C) Gastrodermal cells
D) with all the above features D) Nematocysts
54. Assertion: Taenia Solium and Dugesia 59. Blood sucking leech is [Pg-52,E]
belong to Platyhelminthes. [Pg-51,H] A) Nereis B) Hirudinaria
Reason: Platyhelminthes are coelomates. C) Pheretima D) All of these
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true 60. Which one of the following endoparasites
and Reason is correct explanation of of humans does show viviparity? [Pg-
Assertion. 52,E]
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, A) Ancylostoma duodenale
but Reason is not the correct B) Enterobius spiralis
explanation of Assertion. C) Trichinella spiralis
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. 61. Assertion: Aschelminthes and Annelids
55. Assertion: The organisms of possess bilateral symmetry. [Pg-52,M]
Platyhelminthes are usually Reason: Both Aschelminthes and
hermaphrodite. Reason: These Annelids are coelomates.
organisms possess internal as well as A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
external fertilization. [Pg-51,H] and Reason is correct explanation of
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true Assertion.
and Reason is correct explanation of B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
Assertion. but Reason is not the correct
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, explanation of Assertion.
but Reason is not the correct C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
explanation of Assertion. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. ANNELIDA
ASCHELMINTHES 62. Which of the following animals are true

coelomates with bilateral symmetry? [Pg-
56. Consider the following statements about 52,E]
aschelminthes: [Pg-52,E] A) Adult echinoderms
(I) Their body is circular in cross- B) Aschelminthes
section, so are called round C) Platyhelminthes
worms. D) Annelids
(II) Alimentary canal is incomplete 63. The name ‘Annelida’ is given to animal
(III) Muscular pharynx is present phylum having [Pg-52,E]
(IV) They are hermaphrodites Which of A) parapodia
the following is correct? B) metameric segments
A) I and III B) II and IV C) nephridia
C) I, II and IV D) IV only D) all of these
57. Choose the incorrect option. [Pg- 64. In Annelids [Pg-52,M]
50,51,52,M] A) neural system consists of paired
A) Mesoglea is present in between ganglia connected by lateral nerves to
ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia. a double ventral nerve cord
B) Asterias exhibits radial symmetry. B) reproduction occur both asexually
C) Fasciola is pseudocoelomate animal. and sexually
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C) like Nereis, Pheretima and

ARTHROPODA
Hirudinaria have monoecious
condition 68. Choose the incorrect set with respect to
D) Aquatic forms are completely absent. arthropods. [Pg-53,M]
65. Match the columns [Pg-53,M]
A) Limulus, locusta, culex
Column-I Column-II B) Bombyx, Apis, lacifer
(A) Gills (1) King crab C) Pinctada, Aplysia, Dentalium
(B) Tracheal (2) Crab, prawn D) Aedes, Anopheles, Apis
system 69. Balancing organ of aquatic arthropods is
(C) Book gills (3) Butterfly, cockroach
[Pg-53,E]
(D) Book lungs (4) Scorpion, spider
A) Cnidoblasts B) choanocytes
(A) (B) (C) (D) C) scleroblasts D) statocysts
A) 1 2 3 4 70. Which one of the following features is not
B) 2 3 1 4 present in the phylum-Arthropods? [Pg-
C) 4 3 2 1 53,E]
D) 3 1 4 2 A) Metameric segmentation
66. Choose the incorrect statement. B) Parapodia
A) In cockroaches and prawns, C) Jointed appendages
excretion of waste material occurs D) Chitinous exoskeleton
through malphigian tubules. [Pg- 71. Which one of the following
55,M] characteristics is mainly responsible for
B) In ctenophores, locomotion is diversification of insects on land? [Pg-
mediated by comb plates. [Pg-51] 53,E]
C) In fasciola, flame cells take part in A) Segmentation
excretion. [Pg-51] B) Bilateral symmetry
D) Earthworms are hermaphrodites C) Exoskeleton
and yet cross fertilization takes place D) Eyes
among them. [Pg-52] 72. Which of the following statement is
67. Consider the following statements: [Pg- correct?
52,M] A) Insect hemolymph has no role in
(I) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry oxygen transport in most cases.
(II) Metamerically segmental and B) Insects hemolymph is mostly
coelomate animals colourless.
(III) Dioecious C) Both (A) and (B)
(IV) Closed circulatory system D) None of these [Pg-53,E]
(V) Lateral appendages 73. Consider the following statements about
(VI) Annelida
Which of the following information’s

belongs to the given animal. Arthropods. [Pg-53,M]
A) I, II, IV, VI B) I, III, IV, V (I) Open circulatory system is found in
C) II, III, IV, V D) III, IV, V, VI most arthropods.
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(II) Arthropods contain Haemolymph B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
which directly bathes in internal but Reason is not the correct
tissues and organs. explanation of Assertion.
A) I is true but II is false C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
B) I is false but II is true D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) Both I and II are true 79. Assertion: In molluscs, feathers like gills
D) Both I and II are false are present in the mantle cavity.
74. Moulting [Pg-53,E] Reason: These gills have respiration and
A) is also called ecdysis excretory function. [Pg-53,H]
B) occurs to shed chitin at regular A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
intervals by many arthropods and Reason is correct explanation of
C) is the shedding of cuticle in many Assertion.
invertebrates B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
D) all of these but Reason is not the correct
75. Maggot is the larva of [Pg-53,E] explanation of Assertion.
A) housefly B) crab C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) moth D) butterfly D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
80. Which of the following statements
MOLLUSCA represents the incorrect feature of
Echinodermata? [Pg-54,M]
76. Choose the incorrect statement for
A) They are triploblastic and coelomate
phylum Mollusca. [Pg-53,H] animals.
A) Body is covered by a calcareous shell B) All are marine with cellular level of
and unsegmented. organization.
B) Feather like gills present for excretion C) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicle.
and respiration. D) None of these
C) The anterior head region has sensory 81. Which of the following is the feature of
tentacles.
water vascular system in Echinoderms?
D) Mostly terrestrial, triploblastic and
[Pg-54,E]
acoelomates.
A) Locomotion
77. Choose the correct names for the
B) Respiration
following. [Pg-53,E]
C) Capture and transport of food
A B C D D) All of these
(a) Scorpion Prawn Loligo Asterias
82. Choose the correct statement for star
(b) Scorpion Prawn Octopus Ophiura
fish. [Pg-54,M]
(c) Locust Butterfly Loligo Asterias
(I) Sexes are separate and
(d) Locust Prawn Squid Ophiura
reproduction is sexual
(II) Development is indirect with free-
78. Assertion: In many gastropods, the arms
swimming larva
and the mental cavity are placed
(III) Mouth is present on the upper
anteriorly above the head.
(dorsal) side and anus on the
Reason: During embryonic development
in many gastropods, one side of the lower (ventral) side.
visceral mass grows faster than the other (IV) Their body bear jaw-like structure
side. This uneven growth rotates the which is called oral arms.
visceral organs up to 180° in many A) I and III B) I, II and IV
gastropods. [Pg-53,H] C) I, II and III D) III and IV
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true 83. Which one for the following animals does
and Reason is correct explanation of not undergo metamorphosis? [Pg-54,E]
Assertion. A) Moth B) Tunicate
C) Earthworm D) Starfish
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84. Choose the correct statement for the

CHORDATA
following animals. [Pg-54,H]
90. Which of the following is not found in the
phylum chordate [Pg-55,M]
A) A dorsal hollow nerve chord
B) Lateral paired gill slits during
development
C) A notochord at some stage of
development
D) An external skeleton
91. Animals belonging to phylum-chordata
A) All the animals are aquatic, free living
are fundamentally characterized by the
B) All are true coelomates
C) ‘A’ has radial symmetry but presence of structure noted as A, B, C
remaining have bilateral symmetry and D. Identify A, B, C and D.
D) ‘A’ is monoecious but remaining are
dioecious
85. Which of the following is incorrect
statement for Hemichordata? [Pg-54,M]
A) They are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and coelomate.
B) Circulation is of open type.
C) Sexes are separate, fertilization is A) A - Notochord, B - Nerve cord, C - Gill
external and development is indirect. slits, D - post anal part
D) None of these B) A - Nerve cord, B - Notochord, C - Gill
86. Select the feature which is/are not slits, D - Post anal part
present in Hemichordates. [Pg-54,E] C) A - Nerve cord, B - Notochord, C - Post
anal part, D - Gill Slits
A) Stomochord
D) A - nerve cord, B - Gill slits, C -
B) Worm-like body
Notochord, D - post anal part
C) Gills
92. Choose the incorrect vertebrate
D) All of these
87. The correct classification of given animal character. [Pg-55,E]
is [Pg-54,E] A) Ventral muscular heart
B) Kidneys for excretion and
A) Chordata – Vertebrata – Craniata
osmoregulation
B) Chordata – Craniata
C) Paired appendages which may be fins
C) Chordata – Acraniata
or limbs
D) Non- chordata – Hemichordata
D) None of these
88. The body of Balanoglossus is divisible
93. The following flow chart for division of
into [Pg-54,E]
sub phylum vertebrata fill in the parts A,
A) proboscis, tunic and trunk
B, C and D and choose the correct
B) collar, trunk and tunic
C) proboscis, collar and trunk option. [Pg-56,E]
D) proboscis, stomochord and trunk
89. An important characteristics that
hemichordates share with chordates
is[Pg-54,E]
A) absence of notochord
B) ventral tubular nerve cord
C) pharynx with gill slits
D) pharynx without gill slits
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14
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A B C
A) Ostracodermi Pisces Tetrapoda 97. Among the following edible fishes, which
B) Cyclostomata Pisces Tetrapoda one is a marine fish having rich source of
C) Ostracodermi Cyclostomata Pisces omega-3 fatty acids? [Pg-57,E]
A) Mystus B) Mangur
D) Pisces Tetrapoda Cyclostomata C) Mrigala D) Mackerel
98. Which one is not cartilaginous fish? [Pg-
94. Select the correct difference between the 57,E]
notochord in the following: [Pg-56,57,M] A) Carcharoden (great white shark),
Urochordata Cephalochordata Trygon (sting ray)
A) Present only in larval Extend from head to B) Exocoetus (flying fish), catla (katla),
tail tail throughout life clarias (Mangur)
B) present only in adult Present only in larval C) Scolidon (dog fish)
tail D) Pristis (saw fish)
99. Following are few examples of bony
C) Persistent Present only in adult fishes. Choose the odd one out as marine
throughout their life
bony fish. [Pg-57,E]
A) Flying fish
D) Extend from head to Present only in larval
tail throughout life tail B) Hippocampus (sea horse)
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Labeo (rohu), catla, clarias
95. Consider the following statements. [Pg-
characteristic of class chondrichthyes?
56,M]
[Pg-56,M]
(I) Lancelets are jawless, primitive fish-
A) Gill slits are separated and without
like vertebrates.
operculum.
(II) In lancelets notochord, tubular nerve
B) Predaceons with powerful jaws.
cord and pharyngeal gills slits are
C) Notochord is persistent throughout
present throughout their life.
life.
A) I is true, but II is false
D) Airbladder present.
B) I is false, but II is true
101. Which of the following characteristic
C) Both I and II are true
D) Both I and II are false features always holds true for the
96. Which of the following represents the corresponding group of animals? [Pg-56-
correct combination without any 59,H]
exception? [Pg-56,H] A) Viviparous Mammalia
Characteristic Class B) Possess a mouth with an upper and a
A) Mammary gland; hair on Mammalia lower jaw Chordata
body; pinnae; two pairs of C) Three-chambered heart with one
limbs incompletely divided ventricle
B) Mouth ventral; gills Chondrichthyes Reptilia
without operculum skin D) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
with placoid scales; Chondrichthyes
persistent notochord 102. Bony fishes are [Pg-57,E]
C) Sucking and circular Cyclostomata A) having external fertilization
mouth, jaws absent B) mostly oviparous
integument without
scales; paired appendages
C) with direct development
D) all of these
D) Body covered with Aves 103. Bony fishes stay at any particular depth
feathers; skin moist and
in water without spending energy due to
glandular; lungs with air
sacs forelimbs from wings [Pg-57,E]
A) Operculum B) Neuromuscles
15
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ZOOLOGY
C) Pneumatic bones B) Dolphins, seals, trygon

D) Swim bladder C) Whales, dolphins, seals
104. Choose the incorrect statement? [Pg- D) Trygon, whales, seals
56,M] 110. Which one of the following characteristic
A) Both cartilaginous and bony fishes is not shared by birds and mammals?
are dioecious [Pg-58,59,E]
B) Cartilaginous fishes show sexual A) Breathing using lungs
dimorphism B) Viviparity
C) Male cartilaginous fish have claspers C) Warm-blooded nature
D) Female cartilaginous fish have D) Ossified endoskeleton
claspers 111. Which of the following animals is not
105. Choose the correct option for the given viviparous? [Pg-59,E]
figures. [Pg-57,58,H] A) Flying fox (bat) B) Elephant
C) Platypus D) Whale
112. Choose the correct option having
animals with four chambered heart? [Pg-
58,59,E]
A) Amphibian, reptiles, birds
B) Crocodiles, birds, mammals
C) Lizards, crocodiles, turtles
A) Animal A is salamandra and B is D) Lizards, mammals, birds
chameleon. 113. The animal pair with non-glandular skin
B) Both A and B belongs to class are [Pg-58,E]
Reptilia. A) snake and frog
C) Fertilization is external in both. B) crocodile and tiger
D) Animal A has 2-chambered heart and C) frog and pigeon
B has 3-chambered heart. D) chameleon and turtle
106. Choose the incorrect option for the 114. Which of the following characteristic is
following animal. [Pg-57,M] shared by both birds and mammals?
A) Pigmented skin
B) Pneumatic bones
C) Viviparity
D) Warm-blooded body [Pg-58,59,M]
A) Cloaca present 115. Which of the following sets of animals
B) Dioecious, external fertilization, belongs to a single Taxonomic group?
oviparous, indirect development [Pg-59,E]
C) Body divisible into head and trunk A) Man, monkey, chimpanzee
D) Eyes are without eyelids. B) Cuttlefish, jellyfish, silver fish, dog
107. Which one of these animals is not a fish, starfish
homeotherm? [Pg-57,58,E] C) Bat, pigeon, butterfly
A) Camelus B) Chelone D) Silkworm, tapeworm, earthworm
C) Macropus D) Psittacula 116. Match the following columns.
108. Identify the vertebrate group of animals Column-I Column-II
characterized by crop and gizzard in its (A) Cyclostomes (1) Hemichordata
digestive system. [Pg-58,E] (B) Aves (2) Urochoradata
A) Aves B) Reptilia (C) Tunicates (3) Agnatha
C) Amphibia D) Osteichthyes (D) Balanoglossus (4) Pisces
109. Which among these is the correct (E) Osteichthyes (5) Tetrapod
Codes [Pg-55-58,M]
combination of aquatic mammals? [Pg-
A B C D E
56,57,M]
A) 1 2 3 4 5
A) Seals, dolphin, sharks
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ZOOLOGY
B) 2 3 4 1 5 A) The organism belongs to

C) 3 5 2 1 4 cephalochordate and genus Ascidia.
D) 3 1 5 2 4 B) Circulatory system is open type.
117. Which of the following is incorrect for C) Development is always direct.
Petromyzon? [Pg-56,M] D) Fresh water dwelling.
A) Cranium and vertebral column are 123. The skin of amphibians[Pg-57,E]
cartilaginous A) can be smooth or rough
B) They are freshwater organisms but B) are usually with Scales
migrate for spawning to sea water C) possess eutaneous glands
C) After spawning within few days, they D) both (A) and (B)
die 124. In amphibians [Pg-57,E]
D) Their larvae, after metamorphosis, A) mole copulatory organs are absent
return to ocean B) metamorphosis is usually absent
118. Match the name of the animal in Column C) tadpole stage is universally present
I with one characteristic in Column II D) cranial nerves are absent
and the phylum/class in column III to 125. Read the following statements. [Pg-
which it belongs. [Pg-56,M] 57,58,H]
Column-I Column-II Column-III (I) Retention of larval trait is called
(a) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata neoteny.
(b) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia (II) The largest amphibian is
(c) Limulus Body covered Pisces Cryptobrances.
by chitinous (III)Seymousia is a connecting link
exoskeleton
between amphibian and reptiles.
(d) Adamsia Radially Porifera (IV) Larva of Ambystoma is called
symmetrical axolotl.
(V) Axolotls are amphibians formed
119. Choose the incorrect subphylum of without undergoing metamorphosis.
PhylumChordata [Pg-55,E] Choose the correct statement
A) Hemichordata B) Vertebrata A) I and IV
C) Cephalochordata B) II and III
D) Urochordata C) I, II and III
120. Protochordates [Pg-55,E] D) I, II, III and IV
A) include Urochordata and 126. Match the columns. [Pg-58,M]
Column-I Column-II
cephalochordata
(A) Chameleon (1) Tortoise
B) are exclusively marine
(B) Testudo (2) Tree lizard
C) have notochord throughout life
(C) Calotes (3) Garden lizard
D) All of these
121. Choose the incorrect option for
(D) Chelone (4) Turtle
chordates. [Pg-54,E]
A) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
A B C D
B) Coelomate diploblastic
A) 1 2 3 4
C) Post anal tail
B) 4 3 2 1
D) Closed circulatory system
C) 2 1 3 4
122. Choose the correct option for the animals
D) 3 1 4 2
shown below. [Pg-55,E]
127. Choose the incorrect statement for class
Reptilia. [Pg-58,M]
A) Sexes are separate.
B) Kidneys are metanephric.
C) Limbs are always present and are two
pairs.
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D) Possess creeping or crawling mode of B) In aquatic mammalian males, testes

locomotion. lie outside the body cavity in scrotal
128. Birds [Pg-58,E] sacs
A) are poikilotherms C) The neck of mammals generally
B) have respiration performed only by possess 5 cervical vertebrae
the air sacs D) Archeopteryx is a fossil animal.
C) are bipeds 136. Choose the odd one out. [Pg-60,M]
D) endoskeleton is ossified partially A) Prototheria – Ornithorlynchus
129. Find the incorrect match [Pg-58,59,M] B) Marsupilia – Macropus
A) Crow – Corvus C) Metatheria – Maceaea
B) Pigeon – Columba D) Eutheria – Homo
C) Parrot – Psittacula 137. Choose the correct option for A, B, C and
D) Penguin – Pavo D. [Pg-59,60,M]
130. Which of the following is incorrect? [Pg- Prototherians Metatherians Eutherians
58,M] A Viviparous Viviparous
A) Aves possess poor olfactory system. Nipples absent B Nipples
on mammary present
B) Aves are partially homeotherms.
glands
C) Aves bones are hollow with air
cavities. C Vagina and Vagina and
uterus present uterus
D) Aves have sexes separate, fertilization present
is internal, oviparous with direct Ear is devoid Pinna is present D
development. of pinna
131. Syrinx present in birds [Pg-58,E]
Scrotum Scrotum present Scrotum
A) helps in producing sound absent present
B) lie near the junction of trachea and
bronchi
C) both (A) and (B) A) A = Oviparous
D) helps in excretion of urea B = Nipples present
132. The most unique mammalia character is C = Vagina and uterus absent
[Pg-58,E] D = Pinna is absent in aquatic forms
A) the presence of two pairs of limbs B) A = Oviparous
B) reproducing young ones B = Nipples present
C) the presence of mammary glands C = Vagina and uterus absent D =
D) the presence of skin Pinna is universally forms
133. The skin of the mammals is unique in C) A = Viviparous
possessing [Pg-59,E] B = Nipples present
A) glands C = Vagina and uterus absent
B) epidermal layer D = Pinna is absent in aquatic forms
C) hair D) A = Oviparous
D) both (A) and (C) B = Nipples absent
134. Heart is always four chambered in[Pg- C = Vagina and uterus absent
59,E] D = Pinna is present only in aquatic
forms.
A) mammals B) aves
138. Tetrapods [Pg-57-60]
C) reptiles D) both (A) and (B)
135. Choose the correct statements from the A) lack paired appendages and
pentadactyl limbs
following: [Pg-59,M]
B) universally possess gills
A) Mammals, birds, reptiles and
C) possess sense organ functional in air
amphibians possess 12 pairs of
D) dwell only in terrestrial zones
cranial nerves.
139. Identify A, B, C and D in the table given
below. [Pg-57-60,M]
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Amphibins Reptiles Birds Mammals A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Scales A Present on Absent and Reason is correct explanation of
usually hind limbs Assertion.
absent B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
Cloaca Cloaca Cloaca B but Reason is not the correct
present present absent explanation of Assertion.
Erthrocytes RBC oval, Erythro RBC C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
oval, biconvex cytes oval, circular D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
biconvex and biconvex x biconcave
and nucleate d and and non- 142. Assertion: Duck bill platypus is not a
nucleated nucleated nucleated true mammal.
Three Three C Four Reason: True mammals are all
chambere d chamber chambere d viviparous while platypus are egg laying.
heart ed heart heart with [Pg-59,60,H]
left systemic
arch
External External D External ear
ear absent ear may with pinna Assertion.
be present present B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
but Reason is not the correct
A) A = Scales absent explanation of Assertion.
B = Cloaca mainly present C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C = Four chambered heart with left D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
systemic arch 143. Assertion: Bats and whales are classified
D = External ear absent as mammals.
B) A = Scales present Reason: Bats and whales have four
B = Cloaca mainly absent C = Three chambered heart. [Pg-59,60,H]
chambered heart D = External ear A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
absent and Reason is correct explanation of
C) A = Scales absent Assertion.
B = Cloaca mainly present B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
C = Three chambered heart with right but Reason is not the correct
systemic arch explanation of Assertion.
D = External ear present C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) A = Scales present D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
B = Cloaca mainly absent 144. Assertion: Mammalian teeth are
C = Four chambered heart with right heterodont.
systemic arch Reason: Mammals possess more than a
D = External ear present single tooth [Pg-59,H]
140. Assertion: All vertebrates are chordates. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Reason: Vertebrates possess notochord and Reason is correct explanation of
during embryonic period. [Pg-57,H] Assertion.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
and Reason is correct explanation of but Reason is not the correct
Assertion. explanation of Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
but Reason is not the correct D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
explanation of Assertion. 145. Assertion: Reptiles are referred to as
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. poikilotherms.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Reason: Reptiles possess eggs with shells
141. Assertion: All metatherians are placental which help them to adapt in land
mammals. Reason: All placental environment. [Pg-58,H]
mammals have menstrual cycle. [Pg-
59,H] TG: @Chalnaayaaar
19
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ZOOLOGY
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is correct explanation of and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion. Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
but Reason is not the correct but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion. explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
146. Assertion: Birds possess moist skin.
Reason: Birds possess oil glands
throughout their body. [Pg-58,H]
Answer Key
ANIMAL KINGDOM
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C D B C B C A C D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C B D A D A D B D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D B C A B B A D B A
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A C C B A A C B C A
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D B C A D B C C C A
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B A A C C A C A B D
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. C A D A B D A A D B
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. C B C D A A B A B A
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. D B A A D A D C C D
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. D D D A B C D B C B
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans. D B A D A B C A C A
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. C B D D A C B A A C
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans. B A A A D C B D D B
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. A C D D C A D D D D
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans. D D B A C D
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2 Structural Organisation in Animals
PARA – 7.1.1 EPITHELIAL TISSUES

1. Consider the following statements: [Pg- [Pg-101,E]
100,101,E] A) They are composed of two layers of
a) A tissue is composed of similar cells.
cells which perform specific B) They are composed of phagocytic cells.
functions. C) They perform the functions of
b) Epithelial tissues are secretion and absorption.
characterized by a free surface D) All of these
toward body fluid or outside 7. Identify the tissues A and B shown in the
environment. following diagram: [Pg-101,E]
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false
B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
2. Simple epithelium consists of [Pg-101,E]
A) large intercellular spaces Select the correct option
B) single layer of cells A B
C) flat cells without nucleus
D) all of these A) Squamous epithelium Columnar epithelium
3. Human skin is composed of [Pg-101,E] B) Cuboidal epithelium Squamous epithelium
A) compound epithelium
B) squamous epithelium C) Columnar epithelium Cuboidal epithelium
C) columnar epithelium D) Compound Pseudostratified
D) ciliated epithelium epithelium
4. Match the following columns. [Pg-
101,M] 8. Efficient gaseous exchange in the air
Column-I Column-II sacs of the lungs occur due to the
a Squamous (1) Stomach and intestine presence of [Pg-101,E]
epithelium A) numerous microvilli
B) ciliated epithelium
b Cuboidal (2) Lungs and blood vessels C) flat cells
epithelium D) columnar epithelium
c Columnar (3) Tubular parts of nephrons 9. The inner surface of hollow organs are
epithelium lined by [Pg-101,E]
A) columnar epithelium
B) compound epithelium
Select the correct option
C) squamous epithelium
a b c
D) ciliated epithelium
A) 3 1 2
10. The ciliated epithelial cells are required
B) 1 2 3
to move particles or mucus in a specific
C) 2 3 1
direction. In humans, these cells are
D) 3 2 1
mainly present in [Pg-101,E]
5. The inner walls of large blood vessels are
A) fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct
formed by [Pg-101,E]
B) Eustachian tube and salivary duct
A) pseudostratified epithelium
C) bronchioles and fallopian tubes
B) squamous epithelium
D) bile duct and bronchioles
C) ciliated epithelium
11. Match the following columns.
D) columnar epithelium
[Pg-101,102,M]
6. What is the similarity between cuboidal
Column-I Column-II
epithelium and columnar epithelium?
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ZOOLOGY
a. Goblet cells (1) Multicellular glandular

epithelium Select the most appropriate option.
b. Salivary (2) Unicellular glandular a b c d
glands epithelium A) 4 3 1 2
c. Buccal cavity (3) Compound epithelium B) 2 4 1 3
d. PCT (4) Cuboidal epithelium C) 4 2 1 3
D) 3 1 4 2
16. The function of the gap junction is to
Select the most appropriate option. [Pg-102,E]
a b c d A) stop substance from leaking across a
A) 2 1 3 4 tissue.
B) 3 2 4 1 B) perform cementing to keep
C) 4 3 1 2 neighbouring cells together.
D) 1 4 2 3 C) facilitate communication between
12. All the listed glands pour their secretions adjoining cells by connecting the
into ducts except [Pg-102,E] cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions,
A) salivary gland small molecules and some large
B) digestive glands molecules.
C) pineal gland D) separate two cells from each other.
D) mammary glands 17. Assertion: Squamous epithelium helps
13. Select the incorrect statement. in the diffusion of gases in lungs.
[Pg-102,E] Reason: Squamous epithelium bears
A) Multicellular glandular epithelium is microvilli. [Pg-101,H]
formed of clusters of cells. A) Both assertion and reason are true,
B) Compound epithelium is actively assertion is incorrect explanation of
involved in secretion and absorption assertion
of substances. B) Both assertion and reason are true,
C) Pancreatic and salivary ducts are reason is not the correct explanation
internally lined by compound of of assertion
epithelium. C) Assertion is true, reason is false
D) None of these D) Both assertion and reason are false
14. Cell junctions [Pg-102,M] 18. Assertion: Compound epithelium is
a) Are formed in epithelial tissues composed of two or more layers of cells.
b) Provide structural and functional link Reason: Compound epithelium has
between adjacent cells of tissues protective functions. [Pg-102,H]
c) Are alternatively called gap junctions A) Both assertion and reason are true,
Select the most appropriate option. assertion is incorrect explanation of
A) a, b, c are correct assertion
B) Only a is correct B) Both assertion and reason are true,
C) b and c are correct reason is not the correct explanation
D) a and b are correct of assertion
15. Match the following cell structure with C) Assertion is true, reason is false
its characteristic feature: [Pg-102,M] D) Both assertion and reason are false
Column-I Column-II
a. Tight (1) Cement neighbouring PARA-7.1.2
junctions cells together to form CONNECTIVE TISSUES
sheet
b. Adhering (2) Transmit information 19. Select the incorrect statement regarding
junctions through chemical to connective tissues: [Pg-102,103,E]
another cells A) It helps to connect and support other
c. Gap (3) Establish a barrier to tissues of the body.
junctions prevent leakage of fluid B) Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
across epithelial cells
C) It is composed of structural protein
d. Synaptic (4) Cytoplasmic channels fibres, viz, collagen or elastin.
junctions to facilitate D) Their ground substance is composed
communications of polypeptides and its derivatives.
between adjacent cells 20. Areolar tissue is a type of [Pg-103,E]
22
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A) loose connective tissue 26. Match the following columns:

B) compound epithelium [Pg-103,104,E]
C) dense connective tissue Column-I Column-II
D) specialized connective tissue a Skin (1) Loose connective tissue
21. Areolar tissues contain [Pg-103,E] b Tendon (2) Specialized connective tissue
A) T lymphocytes tissue and B c Adipose (3) Dense regular connective
lymphocytes tissue Tissue
B) fibroblast, macrophages, mast cells d Cartilage (4) Dense irregular connective
C) fibroblast cells only tissue
D) fibroblasts and fat globules Select the correct option
22. Fat-storing adipose tissue is [Pg-103,E] a b c d
A) loose connective tissue A) 3 1 2 4
B) dense regular connective tissue B) 4 3 1 2
C) dense irregular connective tissue C) 2 4 3 1
D) specialized connective tissue D) 1 2 4 3
23. Consider the following statements: 27. The intracellular material of cartilage is
[Pg-103,M] [Pg-104,E]
a) In dense connective tissues, A) solid and pliable
fibroblasts are compactly packed. B) solid and non-pliable
b) In dense regular connective tissues, C) hollow and soft
collagen fibers are arranged in D) hollow and jelly-like
parallel rows. 28. Select the incorrect statement: [Pg-
Select the correct option 104,E]
A) a is true, b is false A) Most of cartilage in vertebrate embryo
B) a is false, b is true gets replaced by bones in adults.
C) Both a and b are false B) Chondrocytes are cartilage cells
D) Both a and b are true which are found in between collagen
24. In the below diagram of areolar fibres.
connective tissue, the different cells and C) Cartilage form the human nose
parts have been indicated by alphabets. except its tips.
Choose the answer in which these D) Bones of vertebral column are
alphabets correctly match with the parts composed of cartilage.
and cells they indicate – [Pg-103,E] 29. Bones are hard and non-pliable due to
the presence of [Pg-104,E]
A) calcium salts B) elastin fibres
C) chondrocytes D) all of these
30. The spaces in which osteocytes are
present are called [Pg-104,E]
A) osteoclast B) sinuses
C) lacunae D) canaliculi
31. The fluid connective tissue contains all of
the following cells, except [Pg-104,E]
A B C D A) platelets B) fibroblasts
A) Adipocyte Collagen Microfilame Mast C) WBCs D) RBCs
fibres nt cells 32. Match the following columns: [Pg-
B) Macropha Collagen Microfilame Mast 103,104,E]
ge fibres nt cells Column-I Column-II
C) Macropha Collagen Microtubule RBC
ge fibres a Adipose tissue (1) Blood
D) Macropha Fibrobla Collagen Mast b Hyaline cartilage (2) Macrophages and
ge st fibres cells mast cells
c Fluid connective (3) Fat storage
25. Ligaments contain [Pg-103,E]
tissue
A) loose bundles of fibres
d Areolar tissue (4) Nose
B) large fat storage areas
C) parallely arranged collagen fibres
D) irregularly placed elastin fibres Select the correct option
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ZOOLOGY
a b c d C) a) is False, b) is true
A) 4 3 2 1 D) Both a) and b) are false
B) 2 4 1 3 38. Which type of tissue correctly matches
C) 1 2 3 4 with its locations? [Pg-103,104,105,E]
D) 3 4 1 2 Tissue Location
A) Areolar tissue Tendons
PARA-7.1.3 AND 7.1.4
MUSCLE TISSUE AND NEURAL TISSUE B) Transitional Tip of nose
epithelium
33. Myofibrils are [Pg-104,E] C) Cuboidal Lining of stomach
A) contracted muscle fibres epithelium
B) structural components of all muscle D) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
fibres
C) striated muscle fibres
D) skeletal muscle fibres 39. The muscular layer lining the stomach
34. Skeletal muscles are [Pg-104,E] and intestine is [Pg-105,E]
A) striated in appearance A) striated in appearance
B) smooth in appearance B) smooth in appearance
C) involuntary muscles C) multinucleated
D) both A and C D) characterized by intercalated discs
35. Go through the following figures. [Pg- 40. Heart cells have the ability to contract as
105,E] a unit to the presence of [Pg-105,E]
A) multinucleate condition
B) fusiform shape
C) intercalated discs
D) striations
41. The structural and functional unit of
nervous system is [Pg-105,E]
A) neuron B) neuroglia
C) oligodendrocyte D) ganglia
Identify these muscles (A, B and C).
42. The neurons in the neural system are
A B C
protected by [Pg-105,E]
A) Smooth Striated Cardiac A) dendrites B) neuroglial cells
muscles muscles muscles C) axons D) Nissl’s granules
B) Cardiac Smooth Striated 43. Assertion: Both skeletal muscles and
muscles muscles muscles cardiac muscles are striated appearance.
C) Striated Smooth Cardiac Reason: Cardiac muscles are involuntary
muscles muscles muscles in nature. [Pg-104,105,H]
D) Involuntar Voluntary Heart A) Both assertion and reason are true,
y muscles muscle muscle assertion is incorrect explanation of
assertion
36. Involuntary muscle fibers in human B) Both assertion and reason are true,
body are found in [Pg-105,E] reason is not the correct explanation
A) heart of assertion
B) blood vessels C) Assertion is true, reason is false
C) intestine D) Both assertion and reason are false
D) all of these 44. Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.
37. Consider the following statements: [Pg- Reason: Neurons are found abundantly
105,M] throughout the body. [Pg-105,H]
a) All involuntary muscles are smooth in A) Both assertion and reason are true,
appearance. assertion is incorrect explanation of
b) All striated muscles are voluntary assertion
muscles. B) Both assertion and reason are true,
Select the correct option reason is not the correct explanation
A) a) is true, b) is false of assertion
B) Both a) and b) are true C) Assertion is true, reason is false
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ZOOLOGY
D) Both assertion and reason are false A) tergites and sternites, respectively
B) sternites and pleurites, respectively
PARA-7.4 C) pleurites and tergites, respectively
COCKROACH D) pleurites and sternites, respectively
51. The triangular head of cockroach [Pg-
45. Identify A to E. [Pg-111,E] 112,E]
(1) bear compound eyes
(2) is formed by the fusion of two
segments
(3) bear chewing and lapping mouthparts
A) 1, 2, 3 are correct
B) Only 1 is correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct
D) 1 and 2 are correct
52. The mouth parts of cockroach contain
[Pg-112,E]
A B C D E A) two mandibles, two maxillae, labrum,
A) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Pleur labium and hypopharynx
m x x a a B) two mandibles and maxillae each, two
B) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Stern
m x x a a
labrum and labium each
C) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Anal C) one mandible and maxilla each,
m x x a cerci labarum and hypopharynx
D) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Anal D) one mandible, labarum, labium and
m x x a style hypopharynx
46. The body of cockroach can be 53. Select the incorrect statement regarding
morphologically distincted as [Pg-111,E] cockroach: [Pg-112,E]
A) head and abdomen A) Hypopharynx acts as a tongue.
B) head, thorax and abdomen B) Head is mobile in all directions due to
C) head, abdomen and tail flexible neck.
D) head and trunk C) Antennae possess sensory receptors
47. Consider the following statements: [Pg- to monitor the environment.
111,M] D) Thorax is greatly reduced and non-
a) Body of cockroach is covered by hard divisible.
exoskeleton made up of chitin. 54. Paired walking legs in cockroaches are
b) In male cockroach, the wings extend found on [Pg-112,E]
beyond the abdomen. A) each thoracic segments
Select the correct option B) mesothorax and metathorax
A) a is true, b is false C) prothorax and metathorax
B) Both a and b are false D) metathorax only
C) a is false, b is true 55. Forewings and hindwings in cockroaches
D) Both a and b are true arises from [Pg-112,E]
48. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods A) mesothorax and metathorax
is formed by the polymerization of [Pg- B) prothorax
111,E] C) metathorax
A) lipoglycans D) prothorax and metathorax
B) keratin sulphate and chondroitin 56. Match the following columns. [Pg-112,E]
sulphate Column-I Column-II
C) D – glucosamine a Scleride (1) Forewings
D) N – acetyl glucosamine b Tegmina (2) Simple eye
49. Hardened plates of exoskeleton in c Ocellus (3) Exoskeleton plate
cockroaches are known as [Pg-111,E]
A) capsids B) spicules Select the correct option
C) sclerites D) metamere a b c
50. Dorsal and ventral sclerites in cockroach A) 3 2 1
are [Pg-111,E] B) 2 1 3
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C) 3 1 2 b Boat-shaped (2) 9th segment in males

D) 2 3 1 sternum
57. How the forewings of cockroaches are
distinguished from the hindwings? [Pg- c Anal styles (3) 10th segment
112,E]
A) Forewings are leathery while d Genital (4) Bounded by 9th and
hindwings are membranous. pouch 10th terga in males
B) Forewings are much longer while
hindwings are vestigial. Select the correct option
C) Forewings are much reduced and a b c d
hindwings are highly evolved. A) 4 2 1 3
D) Forewings are transparent while B) 2 3 4 1
hindwings are opaque. C) 1 4 3 2
58. In female cockroach [Pg-112,E] D) 3 1 2 4
A) forewings help in flight 64. What is the correct arrangement of
B) abdomen consists of 8 segments structures in Cockroach’s alimentary
C) seventh sternum is boat shaped canal? [Pg-113,E]
D) all of these A) Oesophagus, Gizzard, Crop
59. Which of the following sterna form the B) Gizzard, Oesophagus, Crop
brood pouch in female cockroach? [Pg- C) Crop, Oesophagus, Gizzard
112,E] D) Oesophagus, Crop, Gizzard
A) 8th, 9th B) 7th, 8th, 9th 65. Match the following. [Pg-113,M]
C) 6th, 7th, 8th D) 8th, 9th, 10th Column-I Column-II
60. Which of the following features is used to a Proventriculus (1) Food storage
identify a male cockroach from a female b Crop (2) Grinding food particles
cockroach? [Pg-112,E] c Hepatic Caeca (3) Secretion of digestive
A) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on juices
the 9th abdominal segment d Malpighian (4) Removal of excretory
B) Presence of caudal styles tubules products
C) Forewings with darker tegmina
D) Presence of anal cerci Select the correct option
61. Select the incorrect statement: [Pg- a b c d
112,M] A) 4 3 2 1
A) Genital pouch in male cockroach is B) 2 1 3 4
dorsally bounded by 9th and 10th C) 2 4 1 3
terga. D) 3 2 4 1
B) Male genital pouch contains genital 66. How many chitinous teeth are present in
pore only. the gizzard of cockroach? [Pg-113,E]
C) 10th segment in male and female A) Two B) Six
cockroach possess anal cerci. C) Ten D) Fourteen
D) Female genital pouch contains 67. Refer to the given diagram of cockroach’s
collateral glands. alimentary canal: [Pg-113,E]
62. Which among the following structures
are found in male cockroaches only? [Pg-
112,E]
A) Collateral glands and anal cerci
B) Anal cerci and spermathecal pores
C) Spermathecal pores and collateral
glands
D) Gonapophysis and anal styles
63. Match the following columns: [Pg- Which of the following options represent
112,M] correct name and characteristic of
labelled structures?
Column-I Column-II A) A – Gizzard – Food grinding structure
B) C – Hepatic ceca – Secretary digestive
a Anal cerci (1) 7th in females
juices
26
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ZOOLOGY
C) D – Ileum – Food absorption 73. Select the incorrect statement regarding

D) E – Malpighian tubules – 6–8 blind cockroach [Pg-113,114,E]
tubules A) Exchange of gases occurs by diffusion
68. Select the correct sequence of organs in at the tracheoles.
the alimentary canal of cockroach B) Malpighian tubules remain lined by
starting from mouth. [Pg-113,E] glandular and ciliated cells.
A) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → C) Uricose glands are principal
Crop → Ileum → Rectum reproductive glands in female
B) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → cockroach
Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum D) Fat bodies and nephrocytes help in
C) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Ileum → excretion of nitrogenous waste
Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum 74. The principal nitrogenous waste in
D) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Crop → cockroach is [Pg-114,E]
Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum A) ammonia B) vasa
69. During anatomical studies of cockroach, C) guanine D) uric acid
how would you differentiate malpighian 75. The body cells in cockroach discharge
tubules (A) from gastric caeca (B)? [Pg- their nitrogenous waste in the
113,E] hemolymph mainly in the form of
A) A – 6–8 in number, B – 200–300 in [Pg-114,E]
number A) calcium carbonate
B) A – Present at the junction of midgut B) ammonia
and hindgut B – Present at the C) potassium urate
junction of foregut and midgut D) urea
C) A – Blind, black-coloured tubules B – 76. How many ganglia are found in the
Hollow, yellow-coloured tubules thorax and abdomen of male cockroach?
D) All of these [Pg-114,E]
70. Select the incorrect statement regarding A) 3 and 6 B) 6 and 4
cockroach: [Pg-113,E] C) 5 and 5 D) 6 and 3
A) Cockroaches possess open 77. Consider the following statements:
circulating system. [Pg-114,M]
B) Blood vessels are highly developed a) Cockroaches remain alive for several
and open into heart. hours even after its head is cut off.
C) Visceral organs found in hemocoel b) Nervous system of cockroach is
are bathed in hemolymph. dorsally placed along the whole body.
D) Alary muscles associated with heart Select the correct option
are contractile muscles. A) a is true, b is false
71. The heart of cockroach possess [Pg- B) Both a and b are true
113,E] C) a is false, b is true
A) 10 chambers B) 8 chambers D) Both a and b are false
C) 13 chambers D) 12 chambers 78. Which of the following statements is
72. Match the following columns. [Pg- incorrect? [Pg-114,M]
113,M] A) Female cockroach possesses sixteen
Column-I Column-II ovarioles in the ovaries.
(Structures in (Number) B) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision
cockroach) with less sensitivity and more
a Spiracles (1) 6–8 resolution.
b Heart chambers (2) 100–150 C) A mushroom-shaped gland is present
c Hepatic ceca (3) 13 in the 6th-7th abdominal of male
d Malpighian tubule (4) 10
cockroach.
D) A pair of spermatheca is present in
Select the correct option the 6th segment of female cockroach.
a b c d 79. Match the following columns [Pg-114,E]
A) 2 4 3 1
Column-I Column-II
B) 3 2 4 1
a Testes (1) 2nd –6th segment
C) 1 4 2 3
b Ovaries (2) 4th –6th segment
D) 4 3 1 2
c Spermatheca (3) 6th segment
27
ZOOLOGY
d Mushroom (4) 6th–7th segment 86. The following figure is related to head
glands region of cockroach. Identify A to F. [Pg-
112,E]
a b c d
A) 3 2 4 1
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 1 4 2 3
80. The bundles of sperms are called
[Pg-114,E]
A) phallomere B) gonapophysis
C) spermathecal D) spermatophores
81. Phallomere in cockroaches [Pg-114,E] A B C D E F
A) helps to store spermatophores A) Compo Ocellus Maxill Mand Labr Labiu
B) is chitinous external genitalia und a ible um m
C) is accessory reproductive gland eye
D) represents ejaculatory duct B) Ocellus Compou Mandi Maxil Labr Labiu
nd eye ble la um m
82. Ovarioles are [Pg-114,E]
A) bundles of ova C) Ocellus Compou Mandi Maxil Labiu Labru
nd eye ble la m m
B) ovarian tubules
C) immature ovaries D) Ocellus Compou Maxill Mand Labiu Labru
nd eye a ible m m
D) capsule containing fertilized ova
83. Match the following columns. 87. Match the following columns. [Pg-
[Pg-114,M] 113,114,115,M]
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
a Ovarioles (1) Opening of ejaculatory a Collateral (1) Stimulatory organ in
duct gland male
b Gonopore (2) Chain of developing ova b Titillator (2) Anal appendage which
helps in oviposition
c Phallomere (3) Bundles of sperms c Gonapophysis (3) Helps in the formation

of egg cases
d Spermatoph (4) External genitalia
ore
Select the correct option a b c
a b c d A) 2 3 1
A) 3 2 1 4 B) 1 2 3
B) 4 3 2 1 C) 3 1 2
C) 1 4 3 2 D) 2 1 3
D) 2 1 4 3 88.
84. Which of the following structure encase
the fertilized eggs of cockroaches?
[Pg-114,E]
A) Spermatheca B) Ovariole
C) Cocoon D) Ootheca
85. Select the incorrect statement.
[Pg-114,115,M]
A) Female cockroaches produce one
ootheca at a time. The above figure is related with mouth
B) The nymphs of cockroach resemble parts of cockroach. Identify A to E -
adults. A B C D E
C) The nymphs of cockroach moults A) Maxilla Hypop Labium Mandi Labrum
about 13 times to reach adult form. harynx ble
D) Only adult cockroaches have wings.
B) Mandibl Labiu Maxilla Labru Hypopha
e m m rynx
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C) Labrum Mandi Hypopha Maxilla Labium

ble rynx
D) Labium Hypop Labrum Maxilla Mandibl

harynx e
89.
Identify A to F in above diagram –
A) B) C) D)
A Testis Testis Testis Testis
B Collater Collateral Phallic Phallic gland

al gland gland gland
C Ejaculat Ejaculato Ejaculato Ejaculatory
Identify structures A to D – ory duct ry duct ry duct duct
A B C D D Anal Terga Anal Caudal style
A) Gizzard Crop Hepatic caecae Malpighian cercus cerci
tubules E Caudal Caudal Caudal Caudal style
style style style
B) Crop Gizzard Hepatic caecae Malpighian
tubules F Pseudop Pseudope Pseudope Pseudopenis
enis nis nis
C) Crop Gizzard Malpighian Hepatic
tubules caecae 92. Figure refers to reproductive system of
D) Gizzard Crop Malpighian Hepatic female cockroach. The correct labellings
tubules caecae indicated by alphabets are respectively-
[Pg-115,E]
90.
The above figure shows open circulatory A B C

system of cockroach. Identify A, B and C. A) Spermatheca Collateral Gonapophyses
A B C glands,
B) Phallic gland Collateral Gonapophyses
A) Posterior Alary muscles Chambers of glands,
aorta hear C) Spermatheca Seminal Gonapophyses
B) Anterior Ciliary Chambers of vesicles
aorta muscles hear D) Spermatheca Collateral Tegmina
C) Anterior Alary muscles Chambers of glands,
aorta hear
D) Anterior Ciliary Chambers of PARA-7.3 AND 7.5
aorta muscles hear EARTHWORM AND FROG
91.
93.
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29
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Go through the above figure. Identify A to

F.
A) B) C) D)
A Peristom Prostomi Prostomi Prostomium
ium um um
B Prostom Peristomi Peristomi Peristomium
ium um um
C Clitellu Clitellum Endosteu Endosteum
m m
D Anus Anus Anus Cloaca Choose the correct option of labeling
from the options given-
E Metamer Metamer Metamer Metameres A) B) C) D)
es es es
F Ring of Ring of Ring of Ring of setae A Pharynx Gizzard Pharynx Pharynx
setae setae setae
B Stomac Pharynx Gizzard Gizzard
94. h
C Gizzard Stomach Stomach Stomach
D Caecae Caecae Caecae Liver
E Lymph Lymph Lymph Villi

gland gland gland
F Typhlos Typhlosole Typhlosole Typhlosole
ole
96. Go through the blood vascular system of

earthworm given in the following
diagram - [Pg-109,E]
A B C
A) Excretory pore Female genital Male genital
pore pore
B) Male genital Female genital Genital
pore pore papilla
C) Female genital Genital papilla Male genital
pore pore
D) Female genital Male genital Genital A) B) C) D)
pore pore papilla
A Dorsal Ventral Dorsal Ventral
95. vessel vessel vessel vessel
B Lateral Lateral Lateral Lateral
hearts hearts hearts hearts
C Lateral- Lateral- Anterior Anterior
oesopha oesophary loop loop
ryngeal ngeal
heart heart
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D Ventral Dorsal Ventral Dorsal

vessel vessel vessel vessel
E Anterior Anterior Lateral- Lateral-
loop loop oesophar oesopharyn
yngeal geal heart
heart
97.
A B C D
A) Testis Seminal Accessory Prostate
vesicle gland gland
B) Seminal Testis Accessory Prostate

vesicle gland gland
C) Testis Seminal Prostate Accessory

vesicle gland gland
I. Septal nephridia D) Seminal Testis Prostate Accessory

II. Pharynx vesicle gland gland
III. Forest of integumentary nephridia

IV. lntegumentary nephridia 99. Refer to the diagram of nephridial system
V. Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia in earthworm. [Pg-109,E]
Identify the structures labeled A to E in

the diagram given above from the list I to
V-
A B C D E
A) II I III IV V
B) II V IV III I
C) II IV V I III
D) II III IV I V Select the option representing correct
98. Identify A to D in the figure – [Pg-110,E] characteristic of the labelled structure:
A) C – Septal nephridia – Open into
intestine
B) A – Pharyngeal nephridia – Open to
outside
C) B – Integumentary nephridia –
Densely found on first two segments
D) All of these
100. The above figure is associated with
diagrammatic representation of internal
organs of frog. Identify A to E. [Pg-117,E]
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ZOOLOGY
D. Vasa Thyroid Urinogenital Cloaca

efferentia gland duct
102. The above figure is related with female

reproductive system of frog. Identify A to
D. [Pg-119,E]
A) B) C) D)
A Gall Gall Gall Gall
bladder bladder bladder bladder
B Lung Lung Lung Lung
C Ovary Fat Testis Fat bodies
bodies
D Testis Testis Kidney Kidney
E Rectum Rectum Rectum Rectum A B C D
A) Ovary Ureter Oviduct Ovisac
101. Go through the following figure B) Ovary Urinogenital Bidder's Ovisac
indicating the male reproductive system duc canal
of frog. Identify A to D [Pg-119,E] C) Ovary Urinogenital Ovisac Oviduct
duc
D) Ovary Urinogenital Bidder's Oviduct
duc canal
103. Identify A, B and C respectively – [Pg-

116,E]
A B C D A) Trunk, Tympanum, Web

A. Bidder's Adrenal Urinogenital Rectum B) Neck, Brown eye spot, Web
canal gland duct C) Trunk, Tympanum, Hind limb
B. Bidder's Adrenal Urinogenital Cloaca D) Neck, Tympanum, Hind limb
canal gland duct
C. Vasa Adrenal Urinogenital Cloaca
efferentia gland duct
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Answer Key
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans B B A C B C A C D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A C C A D C C B D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B A D D C B A C A C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B D B A C D D D B C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A B D B C B D D C A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B A D A A C A D A B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D D D B B B D C B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C D C D C A A A B D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B A D D A B A C B C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C A B C C A B A D D
Q 101 102 103
Ans A C A
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ZOOLOGY
3 Biomolecules
1. Elemental analysis on a plant tissue, 9. If the tissue is fully burnt:- [Pg-143,E]
Animal tissue or a microbial paste A) All the carbon compounds are
reveals:- [Pg-142,E] oxidised to gaseous forms (CO2 &
A) list of elements like C; H; O & several water vapour).
others B) Remaining’s are known as ash.
B) Respective content per unit mass of a C) Ash contains inorganic elements &
living tissue inorganic compounds.
C) Both D) All
D) Diversity of living organism in our 10. Inorganic elements like sulphate and
Biosphere. phosphates are present in [Pg-143,M]
2. Elemental list could be _____ in _____ A) Ash of burnt tissue
terms of study on living tissues & earth’s B) Oxidised gaseous form
crust:- [Pg-142,E] C) Both
A) Same; absolute D) None
B) Different; absolute 11. α – Amino acids are organic compounds
C) Different; same containing [Pg-143,M]
D) Same; relative A) Amino group and acidic group
substituted on different carbon.
PARAGRAPH – 9.1 HOW TO ANALYSE B) Keto – group & Hydrogen on different
CHEMICAL COMPOSITION? carbon.
C) Amino group & acidic group
3. With respect to other elements which substituted on same carbon.
element is relatively abundant in living D) Keto – group & alcohol group
organism than in earth’s crust:- substituted on same carbon.
[Pg-143,E] 12. How many substituted groups are
A) C & Ca B) C & H present in an α – amino acid [Pg-143,M]
C) S & N D) N & Ca A) 1 B) 2
4. For the chemical composition C) 3 D) 4
analysis____ is used:- [Pg-142,M] 13. The R – group in a proteinaceous amino
A) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 B) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 – 𝐶𝑙 acid could be [Pg-144,E]
C) 𝐶𝑙3 – 𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 D) 𝐶𝑙3 – 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 A) Hydrogen
5. Filtrate obtained after grinding of living B) Methyl group
tissue is also known as:- [Pg-142,M] C) Hydroxy methyl
A) Slurry D) Any of the above
B) Acid - soluble 14. The chemical and physical properties of
C) Acid insoluble pool amino acids are essentially of the
D) All [Pg-144,E]
6. Acid – insoluble pool is also known as:- A) Amino group B) Carboxyl group
[Pg-142,E] C) The R - group D) All of the above
A)Slurry B) Retentate 15. If the R – group of amino acid is methyl
C) filtrate D) All [Pg-144,E]
7. Analytical techniques applied to the A) Glycine B) Serine
compound gives us an idea of:- C) Alanine D) Any of the above
[Pg-143,E] 16. A hydrogen substituted carbon
A) Probable structure of compounds containing amino acid is :- [Pg-144,E]
B) Molecular formula of compounds. A) Glycine B) Alanine
C) Both C) Both (A) & (B) D) Serine
D) None 17. Number of Amino ;
8. All the carbon compounds that we get Carboxyl & the R – functional group
from the living tissue can be called:- determines:- [Pg-144,M]
[Pg-143,E] A) Acidic nature of Amino acid.
A) Biomolecules B) Slurry B) Basic nature of Amino acid
C) Retentate D) All C) Neutral nature of Amino acid
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ZOOLOGY
D) Any of the above D) All of the above

18. Which of the following group of amino 27. Palmitic acid has _______ number of
acid is aromatic in nature:- [Pg-144,M] carbons including carboxyl carbon.
A) tyrosine; phenylalanine [Pg-144,E]
B) tyrosine; tryptophan glutamic acid A) 16 B) 15
C) Glutamic acid; lysine; valine C) 14 D) 12
D) none of the above 28. Arachidonic acid has _______ number of
19. Which of the following is neutral in carbon atoms including the carboxyl
nature:- [Pg-144,E] [Pg-144,E]
A) Valine B) Serine A) 16 B) 20
C) Alanine D) All C) 21 D) 19
20. A particular property of amino acid is the 29. Fatty acids could be _______ ( with double
ionizable nature of [Pg-144,m] bonds) or _______ ( without double
A) -H B) –NH2 bonds). [Pg-144,M]
C) CH3 D) All A) Saturated; Unsaturated
21. Which of the following determines the B) Unsaturated; Saturated
particular property of amino acid is the C) Saturated; Saturated
Ionizable nature & structure of amino D) Unsaturated; Unsaturated
acid:- [Pg-144,M] 30. How many of the following is an esterified
A) –NH2 & -COOH B) –COOH only glycerol:- [Pg-144,H]
C) –NH2 only D) none of the above Monoglyceride;
22. In different solution; of different ____ the Diglyceride;
______ of amino acid changes. [Pg-144,E] Triglyceride:
A) pH; pH Muramic acid
B) pH; structure Lignin;
C) Structure; Structure Suberin
D) structure; pH A) 4 B) 5
23. Which of the following is a zwitterionic C) 6 D) 3
form. [Pg-144,E] 31. The oil have lower melting point
(A) [Pg-144,H]
A) All fats B) triglycerides
C) Gingelly oil D) All
(B) 32. A phospholipid have [Pg-144,M]
A) a phosphorous
B) a phosphorylated group
(C) C) Both
D) None
33. The neural tissues have lipids with
(D) All of the above ______ structure [Pg-144,M]
24. Lipids are generally _____ insoluble:- A) More complex B) Less complex
[Pg-144,E] C) More simple D) simple
A) fat B) water 34. Carbon compounds in living organism
C) Lipid D) All having heterocyclic rings could be
25. Lipids could be a ______ fatty acids or has [Pg-144,M]
a ______ group attached to an R – group. A) Monoglyceride B) Adenine
[Pg-144,M] C) Cytosine D) Both (B) & (C)
A) Carboxyl; fatty acid 35. Adenine esterified with sugar is known
B) Fatty acid; simple as [Pg-144,M]
C) Carboxyl; simple A) Adenylic acid B) Adenosine
D) Simple; carboxyl C) Adenotine D) None of the above
26. The R – group attached to the carboxyl 36. Nucleic acids like DNA & RNA consist of
group in a lipid could be a [Pg-144,E] [Pg-144,E]
A) –CH3 A) Nucleotide & nucleoside
B) –C2H5 B) Nucleoside only
C) Higher number of –CH2 C) Nucleotide only
D) Nucleotide & phosphate groups.
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PARAGRAPH – 9.2 PRIMARY AND

SECONDARY METABOLITES
37. Alkaloids; Flavonoids; Rubber; Essential

oils; antibiotics; coloured pigments;
scents; Gums spices ii)
How many of the above are primary
metabolites [Pg-146,M]
A) 7 B) 9
C) 5 D) None
38. Few _______ metabolites have ecological
importance’s:- [Pg-146,E] iii) Guanine iv) Uracil
A) Primary & secondary A) All four B) Only three
B) Secondary & Primary C) Only two D) Only one
C) Only Primary 44. which of the following group represents
D) Only Secondary Lectins [Pg-146,E]
39. The diagram represent:- [Pg-145,E] A) Abrin; Ricin
B) Monoterpenes; Diterpenes
C) Concanavalin – A
D) None of the above
PARAGRAPH – 9.3
BIOMACROMOLECULES
A) Ribose B) Glucose
C) Both D) None 45. They have molecular weight ranging from
40. CH3 – (CH2)14 – COOH [Pg-145,E] 18 to around 800 Da.
A) A glycerol molecule The above written statement represents:-
B) A fatty acid [Pg-146,M]
C) An amino acid A) About Biomacromolecules
D) A carbohydrate B) One feature common to all those
41. Which of the following is the compound compounds found in the acid
represents the shown figure :- insoluble fraction.
[Pg-145,M] C) Both
D) None
46. How many of the following statements
are incorrect:- [Pg-146,H]
i) Acid insoluble fraction has only four
types of organic compounds.
ii) All the compound in acid insoluble
fraction have molecular weight in
range of 10,000 Da and above.
A) A purine (Adenine) iii) Molecular weight less than one
B) A pyrimidine (Uracil) thousand Dalton are usually referred
C) A purine (Uracil) to as Micromolecules.
D) A pyrimidine (Adenine) iv) Biomacromolecules are simply
42. Which of the following is a Nucleoside:- known as Biomolecules.
[Pg-145,E] A) 1 B) 2
A) Adenylic acid B) Uridine C) 3 D) 4
C) Thymidylic acid D) All 47. How many of the following statement is
43. How many of the following are nitrogen true regarding lipids in
bases:- [Pg-145,M] Biomacromolecules:- [Pg-146,H]
i) i) Lipids are polymeric substances.
ii) Have molecular weight less than
10,000 Da.
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iii) Molecular weight do not exceed B) Linear chains of amino acid linked by
800 Da. peptide bonds
A) only i) & ii) B) only iii) C) Polymer of amino acids
C) All i); ii) & iii) D) only ii) & iii) D) All of them.
48. Which of the following statement is not 53. A protein if a heteropolymer:- [Pg-147,M]
correct:- [Pg-146,M] A) It contains only one types of amino
A) After grinding cell membrane forms acids.
the vesicles. B) it contains different types of amino
B) Vesicles are water soluble. acids.
C) Lipids are not strictly C) both
Biomacromolecules D) None
D) None of the above 54. Which statement is incorrect:-
49. The acid soluble pool roughly represents [Pg-147,H]
______composition. [Pg-146,M] A) homopolymers have only one type of
A) Cytoplasmic B) Nuclear monomer repeating ‘n’ number of
C) Mitochondrial D) None times
50. The macromolecules from the cytoplasm B) Dietary proteins are source of
and organelles become the [Pg-146,M] essential amino acids.
A) Retentate B) Slurry C) Amino acids could be essential or non
C) Filtrate D) All – essential
51. [Pg-147,E] D) essential amino acids are synthesized
Component % of the total in our body.
cellular mass 55. What are functions of proteins:-
[Pg-147,M]
Water 70 – 90 i) Carry out many functions in living
i) 10 – 15 organism
ii) Transporter of nutrients
ii) 3 iii) Fight infections
iv) Regulates in the form of hormones
Lipids iii) & enzymes
iv) 5–7 A) only two B) only three
C) Only four D) None
Ions 1 56. The most abundant enzyme in animal
world is ___i)____ while in whole of the
biosphere is ___ii)____[Pg-147,148,M]
A) i) 🡪 protein A) (i) Collagen (ii) PEPcase
ii) 🡪carbohydrate B) (i) RuBisCo (ii) PEPcase
iii) 🡪2 C) (i) Collagen (ii) RuBisCO
iv) 🡪 Nucleic acid D) None of them
B) i) 🡪 carbohydrate
ii) 🡪Nucleic acid PARAGRAPH – 9.5 POLYSACCHARIDE
iii) 🡪2
(iv) 🡪 Protein 57. Polysaccharide is the part of ____
C) i) 🡪 Nucleic acid [Pg-149,M]
ii) 🡪Protein A) In – soluble fraction
iii) 🡪2 B) Insoluble pellet
iv) 🡪 Carbohydrate C) Retentate
D) i) 🡪 Nucleic acid D) All
ii) 🡪carbohydrate 58. A polysaccharide contains [Pg-148,E]
iii) 🡪2 A) Different Monosacharides
iv) 🡪 Protein B) Same type of monosaccharide
C) like cellulose
PARAGRAPH – 9.4 PROTEINS D) All of these
59. Cellulose and starch is a homopolymer of
52. Proteins are:- [Pg-147,E] [Pg- 149,M]
A) Polypeptides A) Glucose B) Fructose
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B) Galactose D) None C) Disaccharide; 2’ deoxyribose

60. Which of the following statement is D) Disaccharide; Monosaccheride
incorrect :- [Pg- 148,H]
PARAGRAPH – 9.7 STRUCTURE OF
A) starch is a a polysaccharide
PROTEINS
homopolymer.
B) Inulin is a polymer of fructose
C) In a polysaccharide chain, Right end 69. In a protein the left end represents:-
is reducing while left end is non – [Pg- 149,150,E]
reducing. A) First amino acid & C – terminal
D) Starch forms helical secondary B) Last amino acid &N – terminal
structures. C) First amino acid & N – terminal
61. (I) Starch produces blue colour after D) Last amino acid & C – terminal
binding with I2 [Pg- 149,H] 70. In a protein the right end represents
(II) Cellulose cannot hold I2 [Pg- 149,150,E]
A) Both are wrong A) First amino acid & C – terminal
B) Both are correct B) Last amino acid &N – terminal
C) (I) is correct (II) is incorrect C) First amino acid & N – terminal
D) (II) is correct (I) is incorrect D) Last amino acid & C – terminal
62. Paper made from plant pulp and cotton 71. Which of the following statement is
fibre is [Pg- 149,M] Untrue:- [Pg- 150,H]
A) Starch only A) A protein thread is folded in the form
B) Cellulose of a helix.
C) Complex polysaccharide B) Only some portion of the protein
D) Both (B) & (C) thread are arranged in the form of a
63. What are examples of homopolymers:- helix
[Pg- 149,M] C) In proteins only left handed helices
A) N – acetyl galactosamine; are observed.
Glucosamine D) Both (B) & (C)
B) Amino acids; sugars 72. The long protein chain is also folded
C) Chitin upon itself like a hollow woolen ball
D) None known as:- [Pg- 150,M]
A) Primary structure
PARAGRAPH – 9.6 NUCLEIC ACIDS B) Secondary Structure
C) Tertiary structure
64. Nucleic acids are:- [Pg- 149,E] D) None of the above
A) Polynucleosides B) Polynucleotides 73. Identify the diagram given below
C) Both D) None [Pg- 150,M]
65. A nucleotide has ____ chemical distinct
compounds:- [Pg- 149,E]
A) Only one B) Two
C) Three D) Four
66. A heterocyclic compound in Nucleic acid
is :- [Pg- 149,E]
A) 𝑁2 – Base B) Sugar A) (i) Primary (ii) Secondary
C) Fatty acid D) All B) (i) Secondary (ii) Tertiary
67. Adenine and ______ are _______ purines C) (i) Tertiary (iii) Primary
[Pg- 149,M] D) None of the above
A) Cytosine; Substituted 74. Protein polypeptides or subunits
B) Guanine; Substituted arranged with respect to each other of a
C) Uracil; Substituted protein otherwise called the [Pg- 150,E]
D) Guanine; Unsubstituted A) Primary structure
68. The sugar found in polynucleotides is B) Tertiary structure
either ribose (________) or ________ C) Quaternary structure
[Pg- 149,M] D) Secondary structure
A) 2’ deoxyribose; monosaccharide 75. A adult human Hb (Haemoglobin)
B) Monosaccharide; 2’ deoxyribose consists of ________ subunits.
38
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[Pg- 150,M] B) Carboxyl & amino group

A) 1 B) 2 C) Carbon & Hydrogen
C) 3 D) 4 D) Carbon & Oxygen
76. ________ subunits of α – type and ____ of 83. Match the Column- I & column – II
β – type together constitute the human [Pg- 151,H]
haemoglobin(Hb):- [Pg- 150,M] Bond Occurrence
A) 2; 4 B) 2; 2 (Column- I) Column – II
C) 4; 2 D) 4; 4 a. (i)
Peptide Between
bond Nitrogenous bases
PARAGRAPH – 9.8 NATURE OF BOND of nucleic acid
LINKING MONOMERS IN A POLYMER.
b. Glycosidic (ii) Between adjacent
bond amino acid
77. In polypeptide amino acids are linked by
[Pg- 151,M] c. Ester bond (iii) Between phosphate
A) H – bond & hydroxyl group of
B) Glycosidic Bond sugar
C) Peptide bond d. H – Bond (iv) Between adjacent
D) Peptide and H – bond both carbon of
78. Choose the correct statement about monosaccharide
peptide bond [Pg- 151,H]
A) It is formed when carboxyl(-COOH) A) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
group of one amino acids react with B) a – ii , b – iv , c – i, d – iii
carboxyl (-NH2) group of other amino C) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
acid. D) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i
B) It is formed when amino (-NH2) group 84. In nucleic acid phosphate links –
of one amino acid react with carboxyl [Pg- 151,M]
(-COOH) group of other amino acid. A) 3’ carbon of both sugar of succeeding
C) It is formed when carboxyl group (- sugar
COOH) of one amino acid react with B) 3’ carbon of one sugar & 5’ carbon of
amino (-NH2) group of other amino the other sugar of succeeding
acid. nucleotide
D) It is formed when amino (-NH2) group C) 5’ carbon of one sugar of succeeding
of one amino acid react with amino (- sugar.
NH2) group of other amino acid. D) 5’ carbon of one sugar & 3’ carbon of
79. Peptide bond is formed by- [Pg- 151,H] other group of succeeding nucleotide.
A) Elimination of water moiety i.e. 85. What is / are number of ester bond &
rehydration phosphodiester bond either side of
B) Addition of water moiety i.e. nucleic acid respectively- [Pg- 151,M]
rehydration A) 1, 2 B) 1, 1
C) Addition of water moiety i.e. C) 2, 1 D) 2, 2
dehydration 86. The famous Watson – crick model is
D) Elimination of water moiety i.e. related to- [Pg- 151,E]
dehydration A) Nucleic acid (DNA)
80. Polysaccharide is formed by linking of B) Protein
monosaccharide by- [Pg- 151,M] C) Carbohydrate
A) H – bond B) S – bond D) Enzymes
C) Peptide Bond D) Glycoside bond 87. How many of following is / are correct
81. Dehydration is cause of formation of – with respect to Watson – crick model.
[Pg- 151,M] [Pg- 151,H]
A) Peptide bond B)Glycosidic bond i) DNA exist as a double helix
C) Both A & B D) None of these ii) The strands of polynucleotides are
82. Glycosidic bond is formed between antiparallel.
monosaccharide while linking- iii) Backbone is formed by sugar only.
[Pg- 151,M] iv) Nitrogen bases faces inside
A) Carbon & Carbon
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v) A of one strand bound with U on biomolecules and also made from

other strand some other biomolecules.
A) 2 B) 3 95. The breaking & making through
C) 4 D) All fives chemical reaction which occur
88. Choose the correct nitrogen base pairing constantly in living organism are called
of DNA [Pg- 152,E] [Pg- 152,M]
A) A ≡ T B) A = U A) Metabolism B) Anabolism
C) A = T D) A ≡ U C) Catabolism D) none of these
89. Each step of ascent is represented by 96. Amine are formed by- [Pg- 152,M]
how many pairs of bases according to A) removal of (-COOH) from amino acid
Watson – crick model. [Pg- 152,E] B) removal of (CO2) from amino acid
A) 1 B) 2 C) addition of (CO2) to amino acid
C) Zero D) None of these D) addition of (COOH) to amino acid
90. At each of ascent, the strand turn ___ 97. Metabolites are converted into each other
[Pg- 152,E] in a series of linked reactions
A) 63° B) 36° called________. [Pg- 152,M]
C) 34° D) 3.4° A) Catabolic pathway only
91. One full turn of helix strand of B– B) Anabolic pathway only
DNA involves how many nitrogen bases C) Metabolic pathway
[Pg- 152,E] D) None of these
A) 10 B) 20 98. Metabolic pathway are- [Pg- 152,E]
C) 2 D) none of these A) Linear only
92. Choose correct statement regarding B – B) Circular only
DNA [Pg- 152,H] C) May be linear or circular
A) Pitch would be 36 A° D) None of them
B) The rise per base pair would be 3.4 99. How many uncatalysed metabolic
A° conversion is / are found in living system
C) Pitch would be 3.4A° [Pg- 152,E]
D) The rise per base pair would be 36 A) 1
A° B) More than 1 but less than 100
93. Cytosine (C) bond with _____by _____ H – C) Zero
Bond. [Pg- 152,E] D) Thousand
A) Guanine (G); 2 B) Thymine; 2
C) Guanine (G); 3 D) Thymine; 3 PARAGRAPH – 9.10
METABOLIC BASIS FOR LIVING
PARAGRAPH – 9.9 DYNAMIC STATE OF
BODY CONSTITUENT’S CONCEPT OF 100. Metabolic pathway that lead to a more
METABOLISM complex structure from a simples
structure is / are [Pg- 153,M]
94. What is ‘turn over’? [Pg- 152,E] A) Anabolic pathway
A) Biomolecules are never being B) Catabolic pathway
changed into some other C) Both A & B
biomolecules and also made from D) None of these
some other biomolecules. 101. Choose the correct about catabolic
B) Biomolecules are constantly being pathway [Pg- 153,H]
changed into some other i) Metabolic pathway that lead to
biomolecules but never made from simpler structure from a complex
some other biomolecules. structure.
C) Biomolecules are never being ii) Glucose becomes lactic acid in
changed into some other our skeletal muscles
biomolecules nor being made from iii) Acetic acid becomes cholesterol.
some other biomolecules. iv) Metabolic pathway that lead to
D) Biomolecules are constantly being more complex structure from a
changed into some other simpler structure.
A) i & iii B) i & ii
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C) iv & ii D) iv & iii D) Non – equilibrium steady – state to be

102. Which of following expect to consume able to perform work.
energy? [Pg- 153,H] 108. Living process is a constant effort to
i) When glucose is degraded to prevent falling into equilibrium. This is
lactic acid achieved by – [Pg- 153]
ii) Assembly of protein from amino A) Energy output B) energy input
acid C) Both of these D) None of these
iii) Anabolic pathway
iv) Catabolic pathway PARAGRAPH – 9.12 ENZYMES
A) i & iii B) i & iv
B) ii & iii D) ii & iv 109. Enzymes are chemically – [Pg- 154,E]
103. How many of following is /are correct A) Protein B) Carbohydrate
about glycolysis [Pg- 153,H] C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid
i) Formation of glucose from lactic 110. Ribozymes are chemically [Pg- 154,M]
acid A) Protein B) Lipid
ii) Occur in ten(10) metabolic step. C) Carbohydrate D) Nucleic acid
iii) Energy liberated during 111. What is / are difference between
degradation is store in form of inorganic catalyst and enzyme catalyst.
chemical bond. [Pg- 154,H]
iv) Formation of lactic acid from A) inorganic catalysts work efficiently at
glucose low temperature but enzyme of only
A) i, ii, iii B)ii, iii, iv thermophilic organism work
C) i & ii D) i & iv efficiently at low temperature
104. Energy currency in living system is – B) Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at
[Pg- 153,E] high temperature but enzyme get
A) Adenosine triphosphate damaged at high temperature except
B) Glucose of microbes that are live in sulphur
C) Protein springs
D) Enzyme C) Inorganic catalyst are not efficient at
105. Bioenergetics deals with- [Pg- 153,M] high temperature but enzymes of all
A) How do living organism derive their living organism work efficiently at
energy high temperature.
B) How do living organism store energy & D) None of these
in what form. 112. Choose correct regarding “active site”
C) How do living organism convert energy [Pg- 154,M]
into work. 1) Substrate fits
D) All of these 2) Enzymes catalyst through active site
show low rate
PARAGRAPH – 9.11 THE LIVING STATE 3) It forms by crevices or pocket made
by primary protein only.
106. The blood concentration of glucose in 4) It form by crevices or pocket made
normal healthy individuals is by tertiary protein structure
[Pg- 153,E] A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 4
A) Less than 2.4 mmol/L C) 1, 3 D) 1, 4
B) More than 10 mmol/L
C) 4.2 mmol/L – 5.0 mmol/L PARAGRAPH – 9.12.1 CHEMICAL
D) None of these REACTION
107. Living state is – [Pg- 153,M]
A) Equilibrium steady – state to be not 113. Physical change refers to – [Pg- 154,E]
to perform work. A) Change in shape without breaking
B) Non – equilibrium steady – state to be bonds.
not to perform work. B) Change in state of matter
C) Equilibrium steady – state to be able C) Ice 🡪 water 🡪 water vapour.
to perform work. D) All of these
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114. Chemical change differ from physical D) 600,000 molecules of H2CO3 being
change in [Pg- 154,M] formed every second in absence of
A) Dissociation of bond any enzyme.
B) Formation of new bond 120. Which of the following is correct chemical
C) A & B bond formula for pyruvic acid? [Pg- 155,E]
D) There is no difference in both A) C2H3O4 B) C3H3O3
115. Hydrolysis of starch into glucose is :- C) C3H4O3 D) C6H12O6
[Pg- 154,M] 121. Match column – I and column – II
A) Inorganic chemical reaction [Pg- 155,M]
B) Organic chemical reaction Column – I Column – II
C) Physical changes (Metabolic (Occurrence)
D) A & B both pathway)
116. Rate of physical or chemical process refer A. Formation of (i) Anaerobic condition
to – [Pg- 154,M]
alcohol of skeletal muscle
A) Amount of reactant formed per unit
time B. Formation of (ii) Yeast
B) Amount to product dissociate per pyruvic acid
unit time C. Formation of (iii) Aerobic condition
C) Differential of time with respect to lactic acid of normal human
produce cell
D) Differential of product with respect to
time A) A - I, B -iii, C -ii
117. Choose the correct [Pg- 154,H] B) A-iii, B -ii, C -i
A) Rate can be called velocity if the C) A -ii, B -I, C -iii
direction is not specific. D) None of these
B) Rate of physical & chemical processes
are not influenced by temperature PARAGRAPH – 9.12.2 HOW DO
C) Catalysed reaction proceeds at rates ENZYMES BEING ABOUT SUCH HIGH
vastly lower than that of uncatalysed RATES OF CHEMICAL CONVERSIONS?
ones.
D) Catalysed reaction proceeds at rates 122. Which of the following is correct about
vastly higher than that of uncatalysed enzymes [Pg- 155,M]
ones. A) It is 2 – D structure
118. Choose the correct response [Pg- 154,H] B) Convert product into substrate
A) For every increase by 10°C, rate is C) They have active site
double D) All of these
B) Rate decrease by one – fourth by 123. Transition state structure is formed
decrease in temperature by 10°C. when – [Pg- 155,M]
C) When enzymes catalysed reaction are A) Enzyme is free
observed the rate would be vastly B) Enzyme bound with product
lower than the same but uncatalysed C) ‘ES’ complex
reaction. D) Substrate structure do not change
D) None of these until product formed.
119. Choose correct response with respect to 124. Which of following are unstable
given equation:- [Pg- 155,H] [Pg- 155,156,M]
Carbon dioxide + water ⇌ carbonic acid A) Enzyme
A) Carbonic anhydrase is enzyme B) Product
required for accelerated reaction. C) Reactant
B) In absence of enzyme, still this D) Intermediate structural states.
reaction is fast enough 125. [Pg- 156,E]
C) 200 molecules of H2CO3 being per
hour formed by enzyme accelerated
reaction.
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B) Short lived; reactant, changed

enzyme
C) Long lived, reactant, unchanged
enzyme
D) Short lived, product, unchanged
enzyme
130. Arrange in correct sequence of catalytic
(i) (ii) (iii) cycle of an enzyme action- [Pg-157,H]
A) Activation Transition Activation energy i) The active site of the enzyme, now in
energy state with enzyme close proximity of the substrate
without breaks the chemical bonds of the
enzyme substrate and the new enzyme
B) Transition Activation Activation energy product complex is formed
state energy with enzyme ii) The substrate binds to the active site
without of enzyme, fitting into the active site
enzyme iii) The enzyme release the products of
C) Activation Activation Transition state the reaction and the free enzyme is
energy with energy ready to bind to another molecule of
enzyme without the substrate
enzyme iv) The binding of the substrate induces
D) Activation Activation Transition state the enzyme to alter its shape, fitting
energy with more tightly around the substrate.
without enzyme A) i 🡪 ii 🡪 iii🡪 iv B) i 🡪 iii 🡪 ii 🡪 iv
enzyme
C) ii 🡪 iv 🡪 iii 🡪 I D) ii 🡪 iv 🡪 i 🡪 iii
126. Choose correct response [Pg-156,E]
i) Y – axis represent potential PARAGRAPH – 9.12.4 FACTORS
energy AFFECTING ENZYME ACTIVITY
ii) X – axis represent substrate
iii) Y – axis represent progress of 131. Which of the following can change
reaction enzyme activities? [Pg-157,H]
iv) X – axis represent state through A) All such activities that can alter the
transition state tertiary structure of the protein
A) i) & ii) B) iii) & iv) B) Temperature pH
C) i) & iv) C) ii) & iii C) Substrate conditions
127. If ‘P’ (product) is at lower level than ‘s’ D) All of these
(substrate), the reaction is _______ 132. Enzyme activity decline- [Pg-157,H]
[Pg-156,H] A) Above the optimum value
A) Endothermic reaction B) Below the optimum value
B) Exothermic reaction C) A & B both
C) Spontaneous reaction D) Enzyme activity never decline
D) A & C both 133. Optimum pH refer to – [Pg-157,E]
A) pH at which enzyme activity is lowest
PARAGRAPH – 9.12.3 B) pH at which enzyme activity is
NATURE OF ENZYME ACTION highest
C) pH at which enzyme activity started
128. Which is correct way to represent immediately
enzyme action [Pg-157,E] D) pH at which enzyme activity ended
A) E + S 🡪 ES ⇌ EP ⇌ E + P completely
B) E + S ⇌ E + P 134. choose response with respect to enzyme
C) E + S ⇌ ES 🡪 EP 🡪 E + P activities [Pg-157,H]
D) E + S 🡪 ES 🡪 EP ⇌ E +P i) low temperature destroy enzyme
129. ES complex is _____ and dissociates into ii) high temperature preserve enzyme
_____ and _____ [Pg-156,E] in a temporarily inactive state
A) Long lived; product; changed enzyme
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iii) optimum temperature is C) It shut off enzyme kinetics

temperature at which enzyme D) No effect on enzyme kinetics
activity is highest 140. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
iv) As temperature increase, enzyme malonate is due to [Pg-158,M]
activity increase until optimum and A) Malonate closely resembles with
thereafter increase in temperature substrate succinate in structure
lead to decline in enzyme activities B) Malonate is competitive inhibitor
v) As temperature increase enzyme C) It binds with active site of succinic
activities is zero until optimum dehydrogenase in place of substrate
temperature & thereafter increase D) All of these
in temperature lead to increase in 141. Competitive inhibitors are often used in
enzyme activities the control of – [Pg-158,M]
A) i, iii, iv B) ii, v A) Viral pathogen
C) i, iv, v D) iii, iv B) Bacterial pathogen
135. As pH increase, enzyme activity- C) Both A & B
[Pg-157,M] D) None of these
A) Constantly increase
B) Constantly decrease PARAGRAPH – 9.12.5 CLASSIFICATION
C) No effect & NOMENCLATURE OF ENZYME
D) Increase until optimum and decrease
further pH 142. Enzyme are divided into how many
136. With increase in substrate classes- [Pg-158,E]
concentration, the velocity of the A) 2 B) 4
enzymatic reaction – [Pg-158,H] C) 6 D) 8
A) Constantly increase 143. Each classes of enzyme were further
B) Rise at first until Vmax and further classification into______ subclass and
no rise named by ___ digit [Pg-158,M]
C) No effect A) 13; 4 – 13 B) 4 – 13; 13
D) Decrease first until Vmax and C) 4 – 13; 4 D) 4; 4 – 13
increase further 144. S reduced + S’ oxidised ⟶ S oxidised + S’
137. After reaching Vmax, the enzymatic reduced [Pg-158,M]
reaction does not exceed by any further A) Oxidoreductase B) Dehydrogenase
rise in concentration of substrate C) Transferase D) A & B both
because- [Pg-158,H] 145. Enzyme catalysing a transfer of a group
A) Enzymes molecules are fewer than i.e. hydrogen between pair of substrate S
substrate molecules and S’ is- [Pg-158,M]
B) After saturation of those enzyme A) Transferase B) Oxidoreductase
molecules these are no free enzyme C) Lyases D) Ligases
molecules to bind with additional 146. Transferase enzyme catalyse a transfer of
substrate molecules G between pair substrate S & S’.
C) A & B G is other than – [Pg-158,E]
D) After saturation of those enzyme A) Oxygen B) Amino
molecules, enzyme get changed in it’s C) Hydrogen D) Carbon
form. 147. Hydrolases catalyse –
138. When the binding chemical shut off [Pg-158,E]
enzyme activity, the process is called i) Hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide,
______ and the chemical is called_____ glycosidic,
[Pg-158,M] ii) C – C breakdown
A) Inhibition; inhibitor iii) C – halide breakdown
B) Inhibition; cofactors iv) P – N breakdown
C) Exhibition, exhibitor A) (i) only B) (i) & (ii) only
D) None of these C) (iii) & (iv) only D) D) i, ii, iii & iv
139. What effect is observe on enzyme activity 148. Lysase catalyse _ _ _ _ _ _ of groups from
due to inhibitor [Pg-158,M] substrates by mechanism other than
A) It fasten enzyme kinetics hydrolysis leaving _ _ _ bond. [Pg-158,E]
B) It decline enzyme kinetics
44
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A. Addition ; double (iv) Haem catalyse the formation of

B. Removal ; double hydrogen peroxide from water &
C. Addition ; single oxygen.
D. Removal ; triple (v) Haem is part of active site of
149. Isomerases catalyse inter-conversion of: peroxidase.
[Pg-159,E] (vi) Haem catalyse the breakdown of
A. Optical isomer hydrogen peroxide into water &
B. Geometrical isomer oxygen.
C. Position isomer A) i , iii , vi B) ii , iv , v
D. All of these C) i , v , vi D) ii , v , vi
150. Linking of two compound is achived by- 157. NAD & NADP contain- [Pg-159,E]
[Pg-159,M] A) Vitamin niacin B) Vitamin C
A) Lyases B) Transferase C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K
C) Ligases D) Hydrolase 158. Full form of NAD is:- [Pg-159,E]
151. Ligase catalyse- [Pg-159,E] A) Nicotinamide adenine nucleotide
A) Joining of C-O B) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleoside
B) Oxidation – reduction of substrate C) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
C) Hydrolysis of C-C D) Nicotinamide adenine nucleoside
D) Conversion of optical isomer 159. Choose correct response from following
with respect to carboxypeptidase.
PARAGRAPH – 9.12.6 CO-FACTORS:
[Pg-159,H]
A) Zinc are found as apoenzyme
152. Cofactors are:- [Pg-159,M]
B) It is proteolytic enzyme
A) Proteinous part of enzyme
C) Cofactor from covalent bond with side
B) Non-proteinous part of enzyme
chain at active site
C) Bound to substrate
D) Between cofactor and substrate ionic
D) Bound to enzyme to make enzyme
bond is formed
catalytically retard
160. How many coordination found in activity
153. How many kind of cofactors may be
of carboxypeptidase? [Pg-159,M]
identified-[Pg-159,E]
A) Only one ; between cofactor and side
A) 1 B) 2
chain at active site
C) 3 D) Zero
B) Two between cofactor and side chain
154. Cofactors are _ _ _ _ _ _ and apoenzyme
at active site and at to many ; same
are _ _ _ _ part of enzyme. [Pg-159,M]
time form one or more bond with
A) Protein; protein
substrate.
B) Non-protein; non-protein
C) Zero
C) Protein; non-protein
D) Only one ; between cofactor &
D) Non-protein; protein
substrate
155. Prosthetic group are _ _ _ _ _ and are
161. Find mismatch. [Pg-159,H]
distinguished from other cofactors in
Column-I Column-II
that they are _ _ _ _ _ bound to
apoenzyme. [Pg-159,M] (a) Carboxypeptidase (i) Zinc
A) Organic compound; tightly
B) Organic compound; loosely (b) NADP (ii) Niacin
C) Inorganic compound; loosely (c) Haem (iii) Peroxidase
D) Inorganic compound; tightly
156. Which of following is/are correct? (d) NAD (iv) Zinc
[Pg-159,H]
(i) Haem is prosthetic group. 162. When cofactor is removed from enzyme ;
(ii) Haem is apoenzyme. what effect is observed. [Pg-159,H]
(iii) Haem is not part of active site of A) Catalytic activity lost
peroxidase. B) Catalytic activity enhance
C) Catalytic activity fix at optimum
D) None of these
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar Answer Key

BIOMOLECULES
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C A B C A B C A D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D D D C A D A A B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A B B B D D A B B D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C A D A C D D A B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A B B C D C B B A A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A D B D C C D D A C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D A B C A B B C D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C C B C D B C C D D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C A D B B A B C D B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A B C D A B C C C A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans B B B A D D C B A D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans B D D C A D D A A C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans D C C D C C B C D D
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D C B D D B C A C D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans B C C A A C D B D C
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans A B B D A C A C B B
Q 161 162
Ans D A
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4 Digestion and absorption

TG: @Chalnaayaaar
C) Proteins and lipids

Human Physiology
D) Minerals and vitamins
1. What increases the use of physico – 7. Which of the following molecules can be
chemical concepts and techniques:- used by us as a source of energy?
[Pg-255,E] [Pg-257,E]
A) Forward approach A) Carbohydrates only
B) Reductionist approach B) Fats only
C) Both C) Carbohydrates or fats
D) None of these D) Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins
2. Majority of physico – chemical studies 8. Digestion is – [Pg-257,E]
employed by employing:- [Pg-255,E] A) Absorption of diffusible food
A) Tissue model B) Absorption of water
B) Cell free system C) Throwing out of non-diffusible food
C) Both substances
D) None of these D) Conversion of non-diffusible complex
3. Now a days it is realized that _________ food substances into simple
would reveal the truth about biological absorbable forms
processes or living phenomenon :-
Paragraph – 16.1.1
[Pg-255,E]
A) Purely organismic level Digestive System- (Alimentary Canal)
B) Purely reductionistic molecular
approach 9. Dental formula of adult person is-
C) Both [Pg-258,E]
D) None A) 2122/2122 B) 2114/2114
4. All living phenomenon are emergent C) 2123/2123 D) 2123/2124
properties due to ________. [Pg-255,E] 10. Our teeth are – [Pg-257,E]
A) Interaction among components of the A) Acrodont and homodont
system. B) Homodont and polyphyodont
B) Defoliation of organs. C) Thecodont, diphyodont and
C) Exchange of gases only. heterodont
D) All of these D) Acrodont, homodont and
5. How many of the following creates polyphyodont
emergent properties of living organism:- 11. Frenulum is – [Pg-258,E]
[Pg-255,E] A) Adenoid present on pharyngeal wall
i) Regulatory network of molecules B) Tonsils located on lateral wall of soft
ii) Supra – molecular assemblies of palate
cells; tissue; organs C) Fold attaching tongue to the floor of
iii) Population oral cavity
iv) Communities D) V-shaped sulcus for terminalis on
A) Only two B) Only three tongue
C) Only one D) all of them 12. The hard chewing surface of teeth
helping in mastication of food is called –
Digestion and Absorption Introduction [Pg-258,E]
A) Dentine B) Frenulum
6. Which of the following components of our C) Root D) Enamel
food are taken in small quantities? 13. The upper surface of the tongue has
[Pg-257,E] small projections, some of which bear
A) Carbohydrate and proteins taste buds. These projections are called-
B) Proteins and minerals
47
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[Pg-258,E] 24. Small intestine is distinguishable into 3

A) Papillae B) Taste pore parts, a 'C' shaped _____ , a long coiled
C) Frenulum D) Sulcus terminalis middle portion ____ and a highly coiled
14. The common passage for food and air is– ____. [Pg-259,E]
[Pg-258,E] A) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
A) Gullet B) Glottis B) jejunum, Duodenum, ileum
C) Larynx D) Pharynx C) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
15. The oesophagus and trachea (wind pipe) D) Caecum, duodenum, ileum
open into- [Pg-258,E] 25. The opening of stomach into duodenum
A) Gullet B) Glottis is guarded by- [Pg-259,E]
C) Larynx D) Pharynx A) Cardiac sphincter
16. A thin long tube extending posteriorly B) Sphincter of Boyden
and passing through neck, thorax and a C) Sphincter of Oddi
diaphragm and leading to stomach is D) Pyloric sphincter
called- [Pg-258,E] 26. Ileum is – [Pg-259,E]
A) Pharynx B) Trachea A) First part of small intestine
C)Oesophagus D) Larynx B) Last part of small intestine
17. Our stomach is - [Pg-258,E] C) Middle part of small intestine
A) U-shaped B) J-shaped D) First part of large intestine
C) C-shaped D) Rod-shaped 27. Which of the following parts of small
18. A muscular sphincter regulating opening intestine opens into large intestine?
of oesophagus into the stomach is called [Pg-259,E]
– [Pg-259,E] A) Duodenum B) Ileum
A) Pyloric sphincter C) Jejunum D) Colon
B) Cardiac Sphincter 28. All of the following is the part of large
C) Sphincter of Oddi intestine except - [Pg-259,E]
D) Boyden sphincter A) Ileum B) Caecum
19. Cardiac sphincter is – [Pg-259,E] C) Colon D) Rectum
A) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter 29. Caecum is small blind sac which hosts
B) Pyloric sphincter some symbiotic micro-organisms. From
C) Gastro-duodenal sphincter it a small finger like vestigial organ
D) None arises. This organ is called - [Pg-259,E]
20. The stomach is located in the upper ____ A) Parotid gland
portion of the ____ cavity- [Pg-259,E] B) Vermis
A) Right, thoracic C) Vermiform appendix
B) Left abdominal D) Lacteals
C) Right, abdominal 30. Caecum opens into - [Pg-259,E]
D) Left, thoracic A) Rectum B) Duodenum
21. The narrow distal part of stomach C) Colon D) Jejunum
leading to the intestine is called – 31. Which of the following organs has 3 parts
[Pg-259,E] (ascending, transverse and descending
A) Cardiac B) Pyloric parts) - [Pg-259,E]
C) Fundus D) None A) Colon B) Caecum
22. The proximal part of stomach in which C) Small intestine D) Large intestine
oesophagus opens is called - [Pg-259,E] 32. Which of the following sequence is
A) Cardiac B) Pyloric correct? [Pg-259,E]
C) Fundus D) None A) Descending part of colon→
23. Which of the following is not the part of Rectum→Anus
stomach? [Pg-259,E] B) Stomach→ Jejunum→ Duodenum
A) Caecum B) Pyloric C) Ileum→ Colon→ Caecum
C) Fundus D) Cardiac D) Colon→ Anus→ Rectum
33. [Pg-259,E]
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[Pg-259,E]
A) Glottis B) Gullet
C) Oesophagus D) None of the above
37. Duodenal glands/Brunner's glands are
present in - [Pg-259,E]
A) Submucosa B) Mucosa
C) Muscularis D) Serosa
38. Mucosa forms irregular folds (rugae) in
the- [Pg-259,E]
Anatomical regions of stomach are- A) Ileum B) Stomach
A) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Body, E- C) Jejunum D) Colon
Pyloric 39. Mucosa forms many small finger like villi
B) B- Cardiac, C- Fundus, D- Body, E- in the - [Pg-259,E]
Pyloric A) Stomach B) Colon
C) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Pyloric, E- C) Caecum D) Small intestine
Body 40. The many projections on the wall of small
D) B- Fundus, C- Body, D- Cardiac, E- intestine function to – [Pg-259,E]
Pyloric A) Secrete digestion enzymes
34. The wall of alimentary canal from B) Increase the surface area
oesophagus to rectum posses four C) Hold products of digestion so they do
layers. The sequence of these layers is – not enter the large intestine
[Pg-259,E] D) Hold mucus, so ulcers do not form
A) Serosa-Mucosa-Submucosa- 41. Which layer of the gut is responsible for
Muscularis peristalsis? [Pg-259,E]
B) Muscularis-Serosa-Mucosa- A) Smooth muscles B) Mucosa
Submucosa C) Submucosa D) Serosa
C) Serosa-Muscularis-Mucosa- 42. Which of the following statement is false?
Submucosa [Pg-259,260,E]
D) Serosa-Muscularis-Submucosa- A) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells
Mucosa which secrete mucus for lubrication
35. The below diagram represents the TS of B) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the
Gut. Identify A, G, D and E – [Pg-260,E] stomach and crypts in between the
bases of villi in intestine
C) Cells lining the villi have brush
border or microvilli
D) All the four basic layer in the wall of
gut never show modification in
different parts of the alimentary canal
43. Lacteals, lymph capillaries are found in-
[Pg-260,E]
A) Spleen B) Intestinal villi
C) Salivary gland D) Mammary gland
A) A- Serosa; G - Muscularis; D - 44. Intestinal villi are supplied with –
Submucosa; E – Mucosa [Pg-260,E]
B) A- Muscularis; G - Serosa; D - A) Only blood capillaries
Submucosa; E – Mucosa B) Only lacteals
C) A- Serosa; G - Muscularis; D - C) Lacteals and valves
Mucosa; E – Submucosa D) Blood capillaries and lacteals
D) A- Serosa; G - Submucosa; D - 45. The below diagram represents a section
Muscularis; E – Mucosa of small intestinal mucosa showing villi.
36. Epiglottis is a cartilaginous flap which Identify A, B, C and D – [Pg-259,E]
prevents the entry of food into –
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A) Bilobed B) 3-lobed
C) 4-lobed D) 5-lobed
53. Digestive juice lacking enzyme but aiding
digestion is - [Pg-260,E]
A) Chyle B) Chyme
C) Bile D) Succus entericus
54. In adult human liver weighs - [Pg-260,E]
(A) 2 kg (B) 2-3 kg
(C) 500 g (D) 1.2 to 1.5 kg
55. Liver is situated in - [Pg-260,E]
A) Thoracic cavity
A) A- Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Capillaries,
B) Above the thoracic cavity
D – Crypts
C) In abdominal cavity below diaphragm
B) A- Lacteal, B - Villi, C - Capillaries,
D) In abdominal cavity above diaphragm
D - Crypts
56. Which of the following is the structural
C) A- Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Crypts, D –
and functional unit of liver? [Pg-260,E]
Capillaries
(A) Hepatic cells (B) Hepatic cord
D) A- Crypts, B - Lacteal, C –
(C) Hepatic lobule (D) Hepatic lobe
Capillaries, D – Villi
57. Find out the correct match –
Paragraph – 16.1.2 [Pg-260,261,M]
Digestive System- (Digestive Glands) Column I Column II
A Hepatic lobule I Base of Villi
46. Number of salivary glands present in
human being is – [Pg-260,E] B Crypts of II Glisson's capsule
A) 5 pairs B) 3 pairs leiberkuhn
C) 4 pairs D) 2 pairs C Sphincter of Oddi III Gall bladder
47. Parotid glands are located below –
[Pg-260,E] D Cystic duct IV Hepato-
A) Eye B) Tongue pancreatic duct
C) Floor of mouth D) In cheek near ear
48. Which of the following salivary gland is
absent in human beings? [Pg-260,E]
A) A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III
A) Zygomatic
B) A-I, B-II, C- IV, D-III
B) Parotids
C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D- IV
C) The sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular
D) A - IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(lower jaw)
58. Hepatocytes secrete - [Pg-260,E]
D) The sub-linguals (below the tongue)
A) Lipase
49. Saliva is secreted by - [Pg-260,E]
B) Bile, no digestive enzymes
A) Liver
C) Bile with digestive enzymes
B) Gastric gland
D) Amylopsin
C) Duodenal gland
59. Bile is produced by - [Pg-260,E]
D) None
(A) Gall bladder
50. Which one is the largest gland?
(B) Liver
[Pg-260,E]
(C) Hepatic duct
A) Liver B) Pancreas
(D) Blood
C) Salivary gland D) Gastric gland
60. Cystic duct arises from - [Pg-260,E]
51. Liver secretes? [Pg-260,E]
(A Liver (B) Kidney
A) No digestive enzymes
(C) Pancreas (D) Gall bladder
B) Many digestive enzymes
61. Function of gall bladder is – [Pg-260,E]
C) Hormones
(A) Storage of bile
D) Succus entericus
(B) Secretion of bile
52. Liver of man is- [Pg-260,E]
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(C) Formation of digestive enzyme D) A- Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct, C

(D) Formation of bile salts - Bile duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic
62. Common bile duct is formed when duct
[Pg-261,E]
Paragraph – 16.2 Digestion of Food
A) Right and left hepatic ducts are fused
B) Bile duct is fused with pancreatic
66. The process of digestion is accomplished
duct
by:- [Pg-261,E]
C) Cystic duct is fused with right hepatic
A) Mechanical process
duct.
B) Chemical process
D) Cystic duct (duct of gall bladder) is
C) Both
fused with a common hepatic duct
D) Chemical & Electrical
63. In human beings which of the following
67. Mastication of food & facilitation of
opens into the duodenum - [Pg-261,M]
swallowing is the two major function of:-
A) Hepatic duct and pancreatic duct
[Pg-261,E]
separately
A) Teeth B) Buccal Cavity
B) Hepato-pancreatic duct
C) Mouth D) Trachea
C) 1st hepatic duct, then pancreatic
68. _____(i)_____ in saliva helps in
duct
______(ii)_____ & _____(iii)______ the
D) 1st pancreatic duct then hepatic duct
masticated food:- [Pg-261,E]
64. Which of the following is incorrect about
A) (i) Mucus (ii) Lubricating (iii) Adhering
pancreas? [Pg-261,M]
B) (i) Adhering (ii) Cohesion (iii) Surface
A) It is compound gland as it has both
tension
exocrine and endocrine part
C) (i) Surface tension (ii) Cohesion (iii)
B) Exocrine part secretes alkaline
Adhesion
pancreatic juice having enzymes
D) (i) Lubrication (ii) Mucus (iii) Adhering
C) Endocrine part secretes hormones
69. The bolus is conveyed into the pharynx
like insulin and glucagon
and then into the ____(i)____ by _____(ii)
D) It is surrounded by Glisson's capsule
[Pg-261,E]
65. The below diagram is a duct system of
A) (i) Swallowing (ii) Deglutition
liver, gall bladder and pancreas. Write
B) (i) Deglutition (ii) Swallowing
the names of ducts from A to D –
C) (i) Oesophagus (ii) Deglutition
[Pg-261,E]
D) (i) Oesophagus (ii) Mastication
70. The muscular contraction in oesophagus
is known as:- [Pg-261,E]
A) Swallowing B) Peristalsis
C) Churning D) Both (B) & (C)
71. What controls the passage of food into
the stomach:- [Pg-261,E]
A) Gastro – oseophageal sphincter
B) Pyloric sphincter
C) Mucus in saliva
D) All of the above
A) Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C -
72. The salvia secreted into the oral cavity
Pancreatic duct, D - Hepato-
contains:-
pancreatic duct
 Water; Amylase; Ptyalin;
B) A- Bile duct, B - Cystic duct, C -
Pancreatic duct, D - Hepato- Lysozymes; Na+; K+; Cl-; HCO-3
pancreatic duct How many of the above are
C) A- Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - composition of saliva:- [Pg-261,E]
Hepato-pancreatic duct, D - A) Only 6 B) Only 7
Pancreatic duct. C) Only 8 D) Only 5
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73. Which enzyme is responsible for 81. Pepsinogen on the exposure of ____(i)____
initiation of digestion in the oral cavity:- converted into the active enzyme
[Pg-261,E] _____(ii)____ [Pg-262,E]
A) Water splitting complex A) (i) Proenzyme (ii) Lysozyme
B) Mucus splitting enzyme B) (i) HCl (ii) Pepsin
C) Carbohydrate splitting enzyme C) (i) Lysozyme (ii) HCl
D) Protein splitting enzyme D) (i) Churning (ii) Pepsin
74. What percentage of starch is hydrolysed 82. Pepsin converts _____(i)____ into
in oral cavity:- [Pg-262,E] ______(ii)_____ & ____(iii)_____ [Pg-262,E]
A) 20% B) 30% A) Proteins; Proteoses; Peptones
C) 40% D) 50% B) Proteoses; Peptones; Proteins
75. In oral cavity starch is pyrolysed into C) Peptones; Proteins; Proteoses
____(i)____ ____(ii)___ [Pg-262,E] D) Peptones; Proteoses; Proteins
A) A monosaccharide; Maltose 83. What prevent the gastric epithelium from
B) A disaccharide; Maltose excoriation:- [Pg-262,E]
C) A disaccharide; Galactose A) Mucus & Bicarbonates
D) None of the above B) Bicarbonates only
76. Optimum pH required for the activation C) Mucus only
of carbohydrate – splitting enzyme is :- D) HCl
[Pg-262,E] 84. The acidity in stomach for activation of
A) 5.8 B) 6.8 pepsinogen required is [Pg-262,E]
C) 7.8 D) 4.8 A) 1.8 B) 3.8
77. Antibacterial agent present in saliva; C) 6.8 D) 7.8
that protects from bacterial infection is:- 85. The proteolytic enzyme found in the milk
[Pg-262,E] for infants are:- [Pg-262,E]
A) Ptyalin B) Amlylase A) Pepsin B) Lectin
B) Lysozymes D) Both C) Rennin D) None of these
78. What major types of cells does the gastric 86. Lipases are also secreted by gastric
gland contains:- [Pg-262,E] glands in:- [Pg-262,E]
A) Mucus neck cells A) Small amount B) Moderate amount
B) Peptic of chief cells C) Large amount D) None of the above
C) Parietal oxyntic cells 87. ___________ of movements are generated
D) All of the above by the muscularis layer of the small
79. Factor essential for digestion of vitamin intestine. [Pg-262,E]
B12 is secreted by A) A certain type
_____(i)_____ & the factor is _____(ii)_____ B) Various type
[Pg-262,E] C) Churning type
A) (i) peptic cell (ii) Lysozyme D) None of the above
B) (i) Intrinsic (ii) Peptic cell 88. How many of the following is released
C) (i) Oxyntic (ii) Intrinsic into the small instestine:- [Pg-262,E]
D) (i) Parietal cell (ii) HCl (i) Bile juice
80. How many of the following statements (ii) Gastric juice
are correct:- [Pg-262,M] (iii) Pancreatic juice
(i) Proenzyme (Pepsinogen) is secreted (iv) Intestinal juice
by chief cells A) Only One B) Only Two
(ii) Stomach stores food for 4 – 5 hours C) Only Three D) Only Four
(iii) Food thoroughly mixed up with 89. Which of the following guards the release
acidic gastric juice is known as of Pancreatic and Bile juice into
chyme. duodenum:- [Pg-262,E]
A) Only one B) Only two A) Plyloric sphincter
C) All of them D) None of them B) Hepato – Pancreatic duct
C) Sphincter of oddi
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D) Dust of Santorini 99. What is the pH of intestinal juice:-

90. The contents of Pancreatic juice are:- [Pg-262,E]
 Trypsinogen; Chymotrypsinogen; A) 7.0 B) 7.8
Pepsinogen; Pro – carboxypeptidase; C) 6.0 D) 6.8
amylases; Lipases; nucleases 100. Succus entericus is the combination of
[Pg-262,E] secretion of :- [Pg-262,E]
A) All seven of the above A) Mucus cells
B) Only five of the above B) Brush bordered cells
C) Only six of the above C) Both
D) Only four of the above D) None
91. What are inactive enzymes of Pancreatic 101. Which provides alkaline medium for
juice:- [Pg-262,E] enzymatic activities:- [Pg-262,E]
Trypsinogen; Chymotrypsinogen; A) Mucus B) Bicarbonates
Pepsinogen; Pro – carboxypeptidase; C) Both D) None
amylases; Lipases; nucleases 102. Brunner’s glands helps in :- [Pg-262,E]
A) All seven of the above A) Secretion of HCl
B) Only five of the above B) Providing an Neutral medium
C) Only three of the above C) Providing an alkaline medium
D) Only four of the above D) Secretion of proteoses
92. What activates the enzymes of pancreas 103. Which of the following is partially
:- [Pg-262,E] hydrolysed protein:- [Pg-263,E]
A) Enterokinase & Pepsin A) Proteoses B) Peptones
B) Enterokinase & Trypsin C) Chyme D) All
C) Enterokinase & HCl 104. Which of the following statement is
D) Chymotrypsin & Enterokinase incorrect:- [Pg-263,E]
93. Bile released into duodenum contains A) Carbohydrates in chyme is
the :- [Pg-262,E] hydrolysed by salivary amylase.
A) Bile salt B) Bile pigment B) Fats are broken down by lipases.
C) Both D) Goblet cells C) Bile helps in the break down process
94. Intestinal mucosa secretes enzyme:- of fats
[Pg-262,E] D) None of the above
A) Lysozyme B) Enterokinase 105. Which of the following is correct:-
C) Mucus D) Both (B) & (C) [Pg-263,M]
95. The composition of bile salt is:- A) Final steps of digestion occur very
A) Bilirubin & Biliverdin close to the mucosal epithelium of the
B) Bicarbonates & Cholesterol intestine
C) Phospholipids B) Nucleic acids in pancreatic juice acts
D) None of the them on nucleases to form nucleotides &
96. The breaking down of fats into very small Nucleosides
micelles is known as:- [Pg-262,E] C) Succus entericus acts on the start
A) Digestion B) Pyrolysis products of chyme
C) Emulsification D) Absorption D) All
97. The goblet cells of intestinal mucosal 106. Which of the following reaction in
epithelium secretes:- [Pg-262,E] duodenal region:- [Pg-263,M]
A) Enterokinase B) Mucus 𝐿𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑠𝑒
A) Lactose → Glucose + Galactose
C) Lipase D) All of the above
98. Succus entericus contains:- [Pg-262,E] Nucleases
(i) Disaccharide & Lipase B) Nucleic acids → Nucleotides
(ii) Dipeptidase & Nucleosidase 𝑎𝑚𝑦𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑒
(iii) Mucus C) Starch → Disaccharids
A) Only (i) & (ii) B) All
C) Only (ii) & (iii) D) None D) All
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ZOOLOGY
107. The undigested and unabsorbed [Pg-264,M]

substances are passed on to:- Substrate GCV PCV
[Pg-263,E] A) Carbohydrate 4.0 4.21
A) Jejunum B) Ileum
B) Protein 4.0 5.65
C) Caecum D) Duodenum
C) Fat 9.45 9.0
108. Which of the following statements is
incorrect:- [Pg-264,E] D) All
A) No digestion occurs in the large
intestine  All the values are in k cal / gm
B) In large intestine absorption of water;  PCV ➔ Physiological calorific value
minerals & certain drugs occurs.  GCV ➔ Gross calorific value
C) Mucus helps in adhesion of Paragraph – 16.3
undigested particles
Absorption Digested Products
D) None of the above
109. The undigested, unabsorbed substances
are called:- [Pg-264,E] 116. Absorption occurs through:- [Pg-264,E]
A) Chyme B) Faeces A) Passive transport
C) Bolus D) Gullet B) Active transport
110. The entry of food into the caecum from C) Facilitated method
Ileum is prevented by:- [Pg-264,E] D) All
A) Pyloric sphincter 117. Absorption of glucose, amino acids &
B) Sphincter of oddi some electrolytes like chloride ions
C) Ileo – caecal valve occurs through simple diffusion in
D) None _______ [Pg-264,E]
111. Which is the temporary storage region for A) Small amount
faeces:- [Pg-264,E] B) Moderate amount
A) Ileum B) Caecum C) Large amount
C) Colon D) Rectum D) None
112. Which of the following statements is 118. Which of the following is true:-
incorrect:- [Pg-264,M] [Pg-264,E]
A) The activity of GIT are under neural A) Passage of substances into blood
and hormonal control for proper stream depends upon the
coordination of different part. concentration gradient.
B) The sight, smell and presence of food B) Glucose and amino acids are
in oral cavity can stimulate secretion absorbed facilitatively
of saliva. C) Transport of water depends upon
C) Gastric and intestinal secretions are osmotic gradient
stimulated by neural signals. D) All of the above
D) None of the above 119. Which of the following is true:-
113. Muscular activity of different part of the [Pg-264,265,M]
alimentary canal can be moderated by:- A) (Mucosa) → ( sub Mucosa) → Chylomicron
Fat droplets Micelle
(villi)
[Pg-264,M] B) Fat droplet
→ Micelle
→ Chylomicron
(Lumen) (Mucosa) (Lacteal)
A) Local mechanism B) CNS Fat droplet
C) → (Sub − Mucosa) → Chylomicron
Micelle
C) Both A and B D) PNS (Mucosa) (Lacteal)
114. Hormonal control of secretion of D) None of them
digestive juices is carried out by local 120. Principle organ for absorption of
hormones produced by [Pg-264,E] nutrients is:- [Pg-265,E]
A) Gastric mucosa A) Mouth B) Stomach
B) Intestinal mucosa C) Small Intestine D) Large Intestine
C) Intestinal submucosa 121. The absorbed substances finally reach
D) Both (A) & (b) the tissues which utilised them for their
115. Which of the following is correct match :- activities its known as:- [Pg-265,E]
54
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ZOOLOGY
A) Assimilation B) Absorption A) North & North – east Asia

C) Deglutition D) Defecation B) South America & Central Africa
C) East & south – east Asia
Paragraph – 16.4
D) North America & central Africa
Disorders of Digestive system 125. Marasmus occurs in:- [Pg-266,E]
A) Children more than a year in age
122. Which is the ejection of intestinal content B) Infant more than a year in age
through the mouth:- [Pg-265,E] C) Foetus
A) Jaundice B) Diarrhoea D) Infant less than a year in age
C) vomiting D) None 126. Kwashiorkar occurs in [Pg-266,E]
123. Irregular bowel movement causes:- A) Children more than a year in age
[Pg-265,E] B) Infant more than a year in age
A) Jaundice B) Vomiting C) Foetus
C) Constipation D) Indigestion D) Infant less than a year in age
124. Dietary deficiency of proteins and total
food calories are wide spread in
[Pg-266,E]
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Answer Key
DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans B B B A D D A D C C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D A D C C B B A B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B A A C D B B A C C
A 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A A A D A D A B D B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A C B D A B D A D A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A A C D C A A B B D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A D B D A C B A C B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A B C B B B B D C C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B A A A C A B C B A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A B C C D C B B B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans B C D A A D C D B C
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans D D C D C D A D A C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126
Ans A C C B D A
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
55
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ZOOLOGY
5 Breathing and exchange of gases
(D) All
Para-17.1
6. Which of the following options is wrong
Introduction and Respiratory Organs about the larynx (sound box)?
1. In which of the following gaseous exchange [Pg-269,E]
between O2 and CO2 occurs through (A) It is a bony box
general body surface? [Pg-268,E] (B) Glottis is the opening into the larynx
(A) Sponges (B) Coelenterates (C) During swallowing of food glottis is
(C) Flatworms (D) All covered by epiglottis to prevent food
2. Match the followings correctly. [Pg-268,E] entry into the larynx
Animals Respiratory (D) All
Organs 7. Trachea divides into right and left primary
A. Earthworms 1. Lungs bronchi at ______ thoracic vertebra.
B. Most aquatic 2. Trachea [Pg-269,E]
arthropods (A) 4 (B) 5
C. Fishes 3. Gills (C) 6 (D) 9
D. Birds/Reptiles 4. Moist 8. Incomplete cartilaginous rings support all
cuticle of the following except- [Pg-269,E]
E. Insects (A) Trachea
(B) Primary, secondary and tertiary
(A) A-IV, B and C-III, D-I, E-II bronchi
(B) A- IV, B - III C and D -I, E - III (C) Respiratory bronchioles
(C) A-II, B and C - III, D - I, E - IV (D) Initial bronchioles
(D) A-III, B and C-I, D-II, E-IV 9. Which of the following has the smallest
3. Amphibians e.g. frogs respire – [Pg-268,E] diameter? [Pg-269,E]
(A) Through moist skin (A) Trachea
(B) Lungs (B) Terminal bronchiole
(C) Both a and b (C) Tertiary bronchus
(D) Trachea (D) Secondary bronchus
Para-17.1.1 10. Lungs are comprised by – [Pg-269,E]
Human Respiratory System (A) Only alveoli
(C) Pleura
(C) Different types of bronchi
4. Which is the correct sequence of air
(D) Network of bronchi, bronchioles and
passages in man? [Pg-269,E]
alveoli
(A) External Nostril→ Nasal passage→
11. Sites of gaseous exchange in lungs are –
Internal nostril→ Pharynx →Larynx→
[Pg-270,E]
Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles →
(A) Alveoli (B) Tracheoles
Alveoli
(C) Bronchioles (D) Pleura
(B) Nose→ Larynx→ Pharynx→
12. [Pg-269,M]
Bronchioles→ Bronchi → Alveoli
I. It is double layered and covers the lungs
(C) Nose→ Pharynx →Trachea→ Larynx→
II. Fluid between the layers reduces
Bronchi → Bronchioles→ Alveoli
friction on lung-surface
(D) Nose → Larynx→ Bronchi→ Pharynx→
III. Outer layer is in contact with thoracic
Trachea→ Bronchioles →Alveoli
wall
5. Which is correct about nasopharynx?
IV. Inner layer is in contact with lungs
[Pg-269,E]
The above features refer to –
(A) Internal nostrils open into
(A) Pericardium (B) Peritoneum
nasopharynx
(C) Pleura (D) None
(B) It is the common passage for both air
13. The part starting with the external nostrils
and food
upto the terminal bronchioles constitute
(C) It opens through gullet of the larynx
the - [Pg-270,E]
region into the trachea
56
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ZOOLOGY
(A) Respiratory or exchange part of (B) A- Epiglottis, B -Alveoli, C - Bronchioles, D

respiratory system - Diaphragm
(B) Inspiratory part (C) A- Sound box, B -Alveoli, C - Bronchus, D
(C) Conducting part - Diaphragm
(D) Expiratory part (D) A-Sound box, B-Alveoli, C- Bronchioles, D
14. Respiratory or exchange part of the – Diaphragm
respiratory system consists of- [Pg-270,E]
Para- 17.2 Mechanism of Breathing
(A) The parts starting with external
nostrils upto terminal bronchioles
19. The lungs expand in
(B) Alveoli and their ducts
inspiration/inhalation because –
(C) All bronchi and terminal bronchioles
[Pg-270,E]
(D) All bronchioles
(A) Diaphragm contracts upward
15. The conducting part of the respiratory
(B) The volume of thoracic cavity increases
system has functions. [Pg-270,E]
(C) External intercostal muscles relax
(A) Filter, warm and moisten the air
(D) Diaphragm relaxes
(B) Gaseous exchange
20. The process of exhalation / expiration is
(C) Filtering the air only
begun mainly due to – [Pg-271,E]
(D) Warm the air
(A) The contraction of intercostal muscles
16. The chamber formed dorsally by the
(B) The contraction of the diaphragm
vertebral column, ventrally by sternum,
(C) The relaxation of muscles
laterally by ribs and on the lower side by
(D) Low pressure in thoracic cavity
dome-shaped diaphragm is -[Pg-270,M]
21. Which of the following statements about
(A) Abdominal cavity (B) Thoracic cavity
the mechanism of ventilation/breathing is
(C) Pelvic cavity (D) Cranial cavity
false? [Pg-271,M]
17. Respiration involves following steps –
(A) As the diaphragm relaxes, air is
[Pg-270,M]
expelled from the respiratory system
I) Diffusion of gases 𝑂2 and 𝐶𝑂2 across
(B) During inspiration the lungs act as
alveolar membrane
suction pump
II) Transport of gases by blood
(C) Inspiration is a passive and expiration
III) Utilization of 𝑂2 by cell for catabolic
is an active process.
reactions and resultant release of 𝐶𝑂2
(D) For quiet breathing external intercostal
IV) Pulmonary ventilation by which
muscles and diaphragm play an
atmospheric air is drawn in and 𝐶𝑂2
important role.
rich alveolar air is released out
22. Inspiration occurs when there is a negative
V) Diffusion of 𝑂2 and 𝐶𝑂2 between blood
pressure in the lungs with respect to
and tissues.
atmospheric pressure. This negative
The correct sequence of steps is –
pressure is achieved when – [Pg-271,M]
(A) I)→ II)→III)→ IV)→V)
(A) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than
(B) V)→ IV)→III)→ II)→I)
the atmospheric pressure
(C) IV)→ I)→II)→ V)→III)
(B) Intra pulmonary pressure is greater
(D) III)→II)→ V)→I)→ IV)
than the atmospheric pressure
18. Study the given diagram and identify A, B,
(C) Intrapulmonary pressure is equal to
C and D. [Pg-269,E]
the atmospheric pressure
(D) Intrapleural pressure becomes more
than the intra-alveolar pressure
23. Expiration takes place when the
intrapulmonary pressure is – [Pg-271,E]
(A) Greater than the atmospheric pressure
(B) Lesser than the atmospheric pressure
(C) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(D) Equal to intrapleural pressure
24. Which of the following sequences is correct
to initiate inspiration? [Pg-270,271,M]
I. The contraction of external intercostal
(A) A- Epiglottis, B -Alveoli, C- Bronchus, D - muscles raises the ribs and sternum
Diaphragm
57
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
II. Volume of thorax increases in the contracted; D-Volume of thorax

dorso-ventral axis decreased
III. Intrapulmonary pressure decreases
Para-17.2.1 Respiratory Volumes
IV. Diaphragm contraction
and Capacities
V. Air rushes into lungs
VI. Volume of thorax increases in the
anterio-posterior axis 29. Match the following – [Pg-271,272,M]
Column A Column B
(A) I, II, IV, V, III, VI (B) I, II, III, IV, V
1. Tidal Volume A. Tidal volume and
(C) I, II, IV, VI, III, V (D) VI, I, II, III, V
inspiratory reserve
25. Which of the following sequences is correct volume and
to initiate expiration? [Pg-270,271M] expiratory reserve
I. Relaxation of external intercostal volume
muscles and return of diaphragm and 2. Residual B. Additional amount of
sternum to their normal position Volume air inhaled beyond
II. Air expelled from lungs tidal volume when
III. Volume of thorax decreases taking a very deep
IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases breath
(A) I, III IV, II (B) II, IV, III, I 3. Expiratory C. Amount of air
reserve volume remaining in lungs
(C) IV, III, II, I (D) I, II, III, IV
after expiratory
26. On an average, a healthy human breathes reserve volume is
______ times /minute- [Pg-271,E] expelled
(A) 20 - 40 (B) 1-6 4. Inspiratory D. Tidal volume and
(C) 12-16 (D) 16-25 reserve volume inspiratory reserve
27. Additional muscles for forceful breathing volume
are – [Pg-270,E] 5. Inspiratory E. Volume of air in one
(A) Diaphragm and external intercostal Capacity breath
muscles 6. Vital Capacity F. Amount of air
(B) Abdominal muscles and internal exhaled in forced
intercostal .muscles exhalation
(C) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles (A) 1 - C, 2 - E, 3 - B, 4 - F, 5 - D, 6 -A
(D) External and internal intercostal (B) 1 - E, 2 - F, 3 - C, 4 - B, 5 -A, 6 - D
muscles (C) 1 - E, 2 - C, 3 - F, 4 - B, 5 - D, 6 -A
28. Following illustration depicts the (D) 1 - E, 2 - C, 3 - B, 4 - F, 5 -A, 6 – D
mechanism of breathing. In which of the 30. Match the following - [Pg-271,272,M]
following option all the parts A. B, C and D Column A Column B
are correctly labelled? [Pg-271,E] 1. Tidal Volume A. 2500-3000 mL of
air
2. Inspiratory reserve B. 1000 mL of air
volume
3. Expiratory reserve C. 500 mL of air
volume
4. Residual volume D. 3400-4800 mL of
air
5. Vital Capacity E. 1200 mL of air
(A) A-Air entering into lungs; B- Ribs and
sternum raised; C- Diaphragm
contracted; D-Volume of thorax raised (A) 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - A, 5 - E
(B) A - Air expelled from lungs; B - Ribs and (B) 1 - C, 2 -A, 3 - B, 4 - E, 5 - D
sternum return to original position; C - (C) 1 - C, 2 -A, 3 - D, 4 - E, 5 - B
Diaphragm relaxed; D - Volume of (D) 1 - E, 2 -A, 3 - B, 4 - E, 5 – D
thorax decreased 31. Arrange the following in order of increasing
(C) A-Air expelled from lungs; B- Ribs and volume – [Pg-271,272,E]
sternum raised; C - Diaphragm 1. Tidal volume
relaxed; D -Volume of thorax decreased 2. Residual volume
(D) A-Air expelled from lungs; B- Ribs and 3. Expiratory reserve volume
sternum raised; C- Diaphragm 4. Vital capacity
(A) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (B) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
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ZOOLOGY
(C) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 (D) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 (B) Lesser than in the tissue spaces
32. Different respiratory volumes are given (C) Lesser than in the arterial blood
below- [Pg-272,M] (D) Less than in alveoli
I. Tidal Volume= 500 ml 40. A section of an alveolus with a pulmonary
II. Residual Volume= 1000 ml capillary indicates the presence of major
III. Inspiratory Reserve Volume= 2500 ml layers constituting diffusion membrane-
IV. Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml [Pg-273,E]
The functional residual capacity (FRC) (A) 3 B) 2
is- (C) 6 (D) 10
(A) 3500 ml (B) 2000 ml 41. Partial pressures (in mmHg) of O2 in
(C) 600 ml (D) 3000 ml atmospheric air, alveoli deoxygenated
33. Expiratory capacity is equal to – blood, oxygenated blood and tissues are-
[Pg-272,E] [Pg-273,M]
(A) TV+ ERV (B) ERV+ IRV (A) 40, 95, 40, 104, 159
(C) ERV+ RV (D) ERV+ RV (B) 104, 40, 40, 95, 159
34. A spirometer cannot be used to measure – (C) 159, 104, 40, 95, 40
[Pg-272,E] (D) 195, 104, 95, 40, 40
(A) IC (B) RV 42. Partial pressure (in mm Hg) of CO2 in
(C) ERV (D) IRV atmospheric air, alveoli, deoxygenated
35. The maximum volume of air you can blood, oxygenated blood and tissues are-
forcefully exhale after taking the deepest [Pg-273,M]
possible breath is called [Pg-272,E] (A) 0.3, 40, 45, 40, 45
(A) Tidal volume (B) 40, 45, 40, 45, 0.3
(B) Total respiratory volume (C) 40, 40, 45, 45, 0.3
(C) Residual volume (D) 0.3, 45, 45, 40, 40
(D) Vital capacity 43. Name the blood vessels A to D-[Pg-273,M]
Para- 17.3
Exchange of Gases
36. Exchange of gases – [Pg-272,E]

(A) Occurs between the alveoli and
pulmonary blood capillary
(B) Occurs between blood and tissues
(C) By diffusion
(D) All
37. Which of the following factors affect the
diffusion of gases? [Pg-272,E]
(A) Partial pressure of diffusing gases
(C) Solubility of gases
(C) The thickness of diffusion membrane
(D) All
the partial pressure of CO2 is true? A B C D
[Pg-273,M] A Systemic Pulmonary Pulmonary Systemic
(A) It is higher in alveoli than in pulmonary vein artery vein artery
artery
(B) It is higher in the systemic arteries
B Systemic Pulmonary Pulmonary Systemic
than in tissues
artery artery vein vein
(C) It is higher in systemic veins than in
systemic arteries C Pulmonary Systemic Pulmonary Systemic
(D) It is higher in the pulmonary veins than artery vein vein artery
in pulmonary arteries
39. The partial pressure of CO2 in the venous D Systemic Pulmonary Pulmonary Systemic
blood is – [Pg-273,E] vein vein artery artery
(A) Greater than in the tissue spaces
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ZOOLOGY
51. Blood carries the CO2 in 3 forms. The

44. In comparison to solubility of O2 in blood
correct percentages of CO2 in these forms
the solubility of CO2 is – [Pg-273,E]
are- [Pg-274,M]
(A) 20 - 25 times lesser As As Dissolved
(B) Slightly higher carbaminohaemoglobin in bicarbona form in
(C) Slightly greater RBC tes plasma
(D) 20 - 25 times higher A 20 -25% 70% 7%
45. Study the given figure and identify A to C. B 70% 20 -25% 7%
[Pg-273,M] C 20 -25% 7% 70%
D 7% 20 -25% 70%
52. Each molecule of haemoglobin when fully

saturated carries how many molecules of
O2 – [Pg-274,E]
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 20
53. Dissociation curve is associated with –
A B C [Pg-274,E]
(A) Basement RBC Alveolar wall (A) Carbonic anhydrase
membrane (B) CO
(B) O2 CO2 Alveolar O2 (C) CHCl3
(C) Pleura RBC Pericardium (D) Oxyhaemoglobin
(D) Pleura WBC Pulmonary vein 54. Binding of O2 with haemoglobin is
46. The barrier between the air in alveolus and primarily related to – [Pg-274,E]
blood in pulmonary capillary consists of 3 (A) pO2 (B) pCO2
layers and its total thickness is- (C) H+ conc. (D) None
[Pg-273,E]
55. Besides pO2 the other factor(s) affecting
(A) 1 mm
the binding of O2 with haemoglobin is/are
(B) more than 1 mm – [Pg-274,E]
(C) much less than 1 mm
(A) pCO2 (B) H+conc.
(D) 2 mm
Para-17.4, 17.4.1 and 17.4.2 (C) Temperature (D)All
56. Oxygen dissociation curve is – [Pg-274,E]
Transport of Gases( Transport of
(A) J-shaped (B) S-shaped
Oxygen and Transport of Carbon (C) L-shaped (D) Zig-zag
dioxide) 57. Which of the following statements is
wrong? [Pg-274,M]
47. Total percentage of O2 transported by (A) O2 binds with haemoglobin in a
haemoglobin or RBC is – [Pg-274,E] reversible manner to form
(A) 3% (B) 97% oxyhaemoglobin.
(C) 49% (D) 100% (B) Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can
48. Besides RBC blood plasma also carries O2 deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissue
in solution. The percentage is – [Pg-274,E] (C) Occupational respiratory disorder are
(A) 3% (B) 97% characterised by fibrosis (proliferation
(C) 49% (D) 25% of fibrous tissues)
49. CO2 is transported – [Pg-274,E] (D) None
(A) By RBC 58. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the
(B) As bicarbonates atmospheric air compared to those in the
(C) In a dissolved state through plasma alveolar? [Pg-274,M]
(D) All (A) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher
50. The majority of CO2 is transported as – (B) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
[Pg-274,E] (C) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher
(A) Carbonates (D) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser
(B) Bicarbonates 59. Which of the following would have the
(C) Carbaminohaemoglobin same O2 content? [Pg-274]
(D) Dissolved state in blood
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ZOOLOGY
(A) Blood entering the lungs - blood leaving (C) RBC contains a very high conc. of
the lungs carbonic anhydrase and minute
(B) Blood entering the right side of the quantities of the same in the plasma
heart - blood leaving the right side of (D) Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood
the heart delivers approximately 4 mL of CO2 to
(C) Blood entering the right side of the the alveoli.
heart- blood leaving the left side of the 66. Which of the following equation is correct?
heart [Pg-275,E]
(D) Blood entering the tissue capillaries -
blood leaving the tissue capillaries
60. CO2 dissociates from
carbaminohaemoglobin when –
[Pg-274,M]
(A) pO2 ↓, pCO2↓ (B) pO2 ↑, pCO2↑
(C) pO2 ↓, pCO2↑ (D) pO2 ↑, pCO2↓
61. Which of the following situations would
result in the greatest degree of O2
saturation for haemoglobin, assuming pO2
remains constant – [Pg-275,M]
(A) Increased CO2 levels, decreased 67. Which of the following is incorrect about
temperature the given graph. [Pg-274,E]
(B) Increased CO2 levels, increased
temperature
(C) Decreased CO2 levels, decreased
temperature
(D) Decreased CO2 levels, increased
temperature
62. Which of the following factors favour the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin in lungs?
[Pg-274,E]
(A) pO2 ↓, pCO2↑ , H+↑ , Temperature↑
(B) pO2 ↑, pCO2↑ , H+↓ , Temperature↑
(C) pO2 ↑, pCO2↓ , H+↓ , Temperature↓
(D) pO2 ↓, pCO2↑ , pH↑ , Temperature↓ (A) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 shift
63. All of the following favour the dissociation the curve to right.
of oxyhaemoglobin to deliver O2 to tissues (B) At low temperature the curve shifts to
except- [Pg-274,M] left.
(A) pO2 ↑ (B) pCO2↑ OR H+↑ (C) At high pH the curve shifts to right.
(C) Temperature↑ (D) pO2 ↓ (D) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen
64. The transport of CO2 by the blood is shifts the curve to right.
primarily dependent on – [Pg-274,M] 68. Assertion- The maximum pO2 in alveoli is
(A) The solubility of CO2in blood considerably less than in the atmosphere.
(B) The presence of carbonic anhydrase in Reason- Lungs in mammals do not
RBCs completely empty with each breath and
(C) The ability of haemoglobin to bind and inhalation occurs through the same
transport CO2 airways as exhalation, so each inhalation
(D) The ability of other blood proteins mixes fresh air with oxygen depleted
65. Which of the following statements is false? residual air. [Pg-274,H]
[Pg-274,275,M] A) Both assertion and reason are true and
(A) pO2 is the major factor which affects the reason is correct explanation of
binding of CO2 with haemoglobin assertion.
(B) pCO2 is low and pO2 is high as in the B) Both assertion and reason are true and
tissues, more binding of CO2 with Hb reason is not correct explanation of
occurs assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
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69. How does an increase in the CO2 (A) O2, CO2, Pneumothorax
concentration in the blood affect the pH of (B) CO2, H+, rhythm centre
CSF? [Pg-275,E] (C) CO2, H+, apneustic centre
(A) pH↑ (D) 0 2, H+, Pneumothorax
(B) pH↓ 76. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated
(C) pH remains same. by- [Pg-275,E]
(D) pH may increase or decrease. (A) CO2 content in venous blood
70. Assertion - A drop in the blood pH causes (B) CO2 content in arterial blood
an increase in heart rate. (C) O2 content in arterial blood
Reason- Increased Heart Rate increases (D) O2 content in venous blood
the rate at which CO2 is delivered to the
Para-17.6
lungs, where CO2 is removed. [Pg-275,H]
A) Both assertion and reason are true and Disorders of Respiratory System-
reason is correct explanation of
assertion. 77. Asthma is caused by – [Pg-275,E]
B) Both assertion and reason are true and (A) Infections of lungs
reason is not correct explanation of (B) Infection of trachea
assertion. (C) Spasm in bronchial muscles
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (D) Infection in nose
D) Both assertion and reason are false. 78. One reason for emphysema is – [Pg-275,E]
(A) Cigarette smoking
Para-17.5 (B) Drug addiction
Regulation of Respiration (C) Wine consumption
(D) Heavy exercise
71. Respiratory process is regulated by certain 79. Emphysema is characterised by –
specialized centres in the brain. One of the [Pg-275,E]
following listed centres can reduce the (A) Permanent enlargement and
inspiratory duration upon stimulation – destruction of alveolar area leading to
[Pg-275,E] reduction in respiratory surface
(A) Medullary inspiratory centre (B) Inhibition of respiratory centre
(B) Pneumotaxic centre (C) Accumulation of fluid in lungs
(C) Chemosynthetic centre (D) Spasm of muscles of trachea
(D) Apneustic centre 80. Why do human beings have difficulty
72. Pneumotaxic centre is present in – breathing at high elevations? [Pg-276,M]
[Pg-275,E] (A) O2 makes up lower percentage of air
(A) Pons (B) Medulla oblongata there
(C) Cerebrum (D) Cerebellum (B) The temperature is lower there
73. The breathing centre initiates ventilation (C) The barometric pressure is higher there
in response to – [Pg-275,E] (D) pO2 is lower there
(A) A decrease in air pressure 81. Which of the following diseases are
(B)A decrease in O2 occupational respiratory disorder?
(C) An increase in CO2 [Pg-276,M]
(D) The rate of gas exchange in the alveoli (A) Silicosis, Fibrosis and asbestosis
74. All of the following factors play role in the (B) Emphysema and mountain sickness
regulation of respiratory rhythm except – (C) Asthma and Emphysema
[Pg-275,E] (D) Asthma and Hepatitis
(A) CO2 82. If an injury tore a small hole in the
(B) H+ conc. membrane surrounding lungs, what effect
(C) O2 on lung function would you expect?
(D) None of the above is correct [Pg-276,M]
75. Receptors associated with aortic arch and (A) Pneumothorax with lung collapse
carotid artery can recognise changes in (B) Pneumothorax without lung collapse
______ and ____ conc. and send necessary (C) Silicosis with lung collapse
signal to _______ for remedial action. (D) Silicosis without lung collapse
[Pg-275,E]
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Answer Key
BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D A A A A C B C B D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A C A A A B C A B C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C A A A A C B A C B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A A B D D D D C A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C C A D A A B A D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C D A D B D B B C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C A A B B D B B A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B A C C B A C A A D
Q 81 82
Ans A A
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6 Body Fluids And Circulation
1. Which of the following use water from (D) l-B, II-A, III-C
their environment as circulating fluid – 7. Formed elements of blood include – [Pg-
[Pg-278,E] 279,E]
(A) Sponges (B) Coelenterates (A) RBC, WBC and blood platelets
(C) a and b (D) Fishes (B) All solutes present in blood
(C) Proteins present in blood
(D) All minerals (elements)
Para- 18.1, 18.1.1, 18.1.2
Blood-Plasma and Formed Elements false? [Pg-279,E]
2. Blood, a special type of connective tissue (A) Erythrocytes/RBC are the least
[Pg-278,E] abundant of all the cells in blood.
(A) Consists of a fluid matrix (Plasma) (B) The number of RBCs in adult man
(B) Has formed elements per mm3 of blood is 5 million to 5.5.
(C) Is the most commonly used body fluid million.
by most of the higher organisms (C) RSC are formed in the red bone
(D) All marrow in the adults.
3. Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid (D) RBCs are enucleate in most of the
constituting nearly ____ % of blood – mammals.
[Pg-278,E] 9. Life span of human RBC is – [Pg-279,E]
(A) 55 (B) 45 (A) 120 hours (B) 120 month
(C) 90 (D) 10 (C) 120 days (D) 102 days
4. The amount of water present in blood 10. What is the amount of
plasma is – [Pg-278,E] haemoglobin present in 100 ml blood of
(A) 99% (B) 90-92% human blood? [Pg-279,E]
(C) 10% (D) 55% (A) 45g (B) 18-20g
5. I. Proteins contribute 6 - 8% of the blood (C) 12-16g (D) 10 -12g
plasma 11. Mammalian RBCs are in shape- [Pg-
II. Plasma contains very high amount of 279,E]
minerals (A) Oval (B) Biconvex
Ill. Plasma without the clotting factors is (C) biconcave (D) Sickle like
called serum 12. All of the following statement are correct
IV Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc., are about WBCs except – [Pg-279,M]
also present in the plasma as they are (A) They are nucleate and least
always in transit in the body. constancy in shape
Of the above statements – [Pg-278,279,E] (B) They are lesser in number (6000 –
(A) All are correct 8000 per mm3 blood)
(B) Only II is false (C) They are generally short lived
(C) Only I, III, IV is correct (D) They help in blood clotting
(D) All are false 13. All of the following are granulocytes
6. Match List I with List II and select the except- [Pg-279,E]
correct option. [Pg-279,M] (A) Neutrophils
7.List I List II (B) Eosinophils
(Plasma (Functions) (C) Basophils only ·
protein) (D) Lymphocytes and monocytes
I. Fibrinogen A. Defense mechanism
II. Globulins B. Osmotic balance
Ill. Albumins C. Coagulation of blood
(A) I-C, II -A, III- B

(B) I-A, II - C, III- B
(C) I-C, II - B, III -A
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14. Match list I with list II correctly –

[Pg-279,M]
List I List II (D) Thrombokinase and other blood
(Types of (Their% (of clotting factor
leucocytes/ total WBC) 20. Find the correct descending order of
WBCs) percentage proportion of leucocytes in
I. Neutrophils A. 20 - 25 human blood. [Pg-279,E]
II. Basophils B. 2-3 (A) Neutrophils → Basophils →L
Ill. Monocytes C. 6-8 Lymphocytes → Acidophils
IV. Eosinophils D. 0.5 - 1 (Eosinophils) Monocytes
V. Lymphocytes E. 60 - 65 (B) Neutrophils → Monocytes
→Lymphocytes→ Acidophils →
(A) I - E, II - D, III - C, IV -A, V - B Basophils
(B) I -A, II - B, III - C, IV - E, V - D (C) Neutrophils →Lymphocytes→
(C) I - E, II - D, III - C. IV - B, V –A Monocytes → Acidophils → Basophils
(D I - B, II - D, III -A, IV - C, V –A (D) Neutrophils → Acidophils → Basophils
→ Lymphocytes → Monocytes
15. Match the following – [Pg-279,M] 21. Assertion – A physician might order a
Column I Column II white cell count for a patient with
I. Basophils A. Phagocytes symptoms of an infection.
II. Neutrophils B. Secrete histamine, Reason- An increase in the number of
serotonin , heparin white blood cells (leukocytes) may
and involved in indicate that the person is combating an
inflammatory infection. [Pg-279,E]
response A) Both assertion and reason are true
III. Monocytes C. Resist infections and reason is correct explanation of
and are also assertion.
involved in allergic B) Both assertion and reason are true
reaction and reason is not correct
IV. Eosinophils D. Immunity explanation of assertion.
V. Lympho E. C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
cytes D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(A) I - B, II and III -A, IV - C, V - D Para-18.1.3 Blood Groups
(B) I - B, II and III - C, IV -A, V - D
(C) I - C, II and III -A, IV - B, V - D 22. ABO blood grouping is based on the
(D) I - D, II and III -C, IV -A, V – B presence or absence of surface antigens
16. Megakaryocytes produce- [Pg-280,E] [Pg-280,E]
(A) Leucocytes (A) 2 (B) 3
(B) Lymphocytes (C) 6 (D) 12
(C) Bone cells 23. Fill up gaps given below in the table-
(D) Blood platelets (thrombocytes) [Pg-280,M]
17. Which of the following is cell fragments? Blood Antigens Antibody in Donor
[Pg-280,E] group on RBCs Plasma groups
(A) Leucocytes (B) RBCs
(C) Blood platelets (D) None A A Anti- B A,O
18. 1 mm3 blood has how many blood B B Anti-A B,O
platelets? [Pg-280,E]
(A) 150000 - 350000 AB AB ___II____ A,B,ABO
(B) 1.5 million to 3.5 million O __I_ ____III____ ___IV____
(C) 1500-3000
(D) 10 to 15 lacs
I II III IV
19. During blood clotting, platelets release –
(a) Nil Nil Nil O
[Pg-280,E]
(A) Thrombin (b) Nil Nil Anti-A,B AB
(B) Fibrinogen (c) Nil Anti- Nil O
(C) Prothrombin A,B
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(d) Nil Nil Anti-A,B O (C) Agglutinins (D) ABO antibodies

24. Which of the following blood groups is 30. A doctor suggested to a couple not to have
universal donor and universal acceptors more than one child because of –
respectively? [Pg-280,E] [Pg-281,M]
(A) AB, O (B) O, AB (A) Rh+ male and Rh- female
(C) AB, A (D) A, AB (B) Rh- male and Rh+ female
25. Which of the following representations is (C) Rh- male and Rh- female
correct about blood groups and donor (D) Rh+ male and Rh+ female
compatibility? [Pg-280,M] 31. In case of emergency which blood group
could be safely transfused? [Pg-281,M]
(A) AB Rh- (B) AB Rh+
(C) O Rh- (D) O Rh+
32. Which of the following is expected if
A) husband is Rh+ and wife is Rh-?
[Pg-281,M]
(A) No problem with 1st pregnancy
(B) Problem would be expected with
future pregnancies
(C) Both
B) (D) No problem could be expected in any
pregnancy
correct? [Pg-281,H]
(A) Rh compatibility must be tested before
pregnancy establishment and blood
C) transfusion
(B) Rh antibodies can cross placenta
(C) At the time of 1st delivery some of Rh+
RB Cs from the baby (Rh+) mix the
mother's blood (Rh-) due to tear in
placenta mother's blood for Rh-
D) antibodies
(D) All
Para-18.1.4
Coagulation of Blood
26. Rh factor is concerned with blood 34. What is the correct order of these events?
grouping. It derives its name from- [Pg-281,M]
[Pg-281,E] 1. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(A) Man (B) Chimpanzee 2. Clot retraction and leakage of serum
(C) Monkey (D) Rat 3. Thromboplastin formation
27. Rh factor is responsible for- [Pg-281,E] 4. Conversion of prothrombin to
(A) Sickle cell anemia thrombin
(B) Erythroblastosis foetalis (A) 3,2,1, 4 (B) 3,4,1,2
(C) AIDS (C) 3,4,2,1 (D) 4,1,3,2
(D) Turner syndrome 35. Which of the following statement are
28. In developing foetus, erythroblastosis correct? [Pg-281,M]
foetalis is caused by- [Pg-281,E] I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
(A) Haemolysis II. Coagulation in blood vessel is
(B) Clumping of RBCs prevented during normal condition by
(C) Failure of blood clotting heparin
(D) Phagocytosis by WBC. III. Clotting of blood involves changes of
29. In erythroblastosis foetalis, which of the fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
following factors passes through placenta IV. Blood clotting involves cascading
into foetus - [Pg-281,E] process involving a number of factors
(A) Rh antigens (B) Rh antibodies present in the active form always
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(A) I, Ill, IV (B) II, IV V. Fats are absorbed through lymph in

(C) I, II, Ill (D) Ill, IV the lacteals present in the intestinal
36. Which of the following pathways is correct villi [Pg-282,M]
for blood clotting [Pg-281,H] (A) Only I (B) III and IV
A) (C) II and III (D) Only IV
correct? [Pg-282,M]
I. Lymphatic system collects tissue
fluid/interstitial fluid and drains it
back to the major veins
II. Interstitial fluid (tissue fluid) and
lymph have almost similar
composition
III. Lymph and interstitial fluid have no
larger proteins and RBC
B) IV. Exchange of nutrients and gases, etc.
between the blood and cells always
occurs through tissue flu id
V. Interstitial fluid has the same mineral
distribution as that in plasma
VI. Lymph can be defined as blood minus
RBC but has specialized lymphocytes
(A) All (B) Only III and IV
(C) V and VI (D) I, III, V
Para-18.3 Circulatory Pathways
C)
39. Open circulatory system is found in –
[Pg-282,E]
(A) Arthropods and molluscs
(B) Annelids and Chordates
(C) Annelids and arthropods
(D) Fishes and molluscs
40. Closed circulatory system is found in –
[Pg-282,E]
D) (A) Arthropod and chordates
(B) Molluscs and chordates
(C) Amphibians and molluscs
(D) Annelids and chordates
41. In an open circulatory system –
[Pg-282,E]
(A) There is no heart
(B) There is no need of blood vessels
(C) There is no distinction between
Para- 18.2 Lymph (Tissue fluid) blood and tissue fluid
37. Which of following statements is wrong (D) There are no open spaces or
about lymph. [Pg-282,M] sinuses in the body
I. Lymph is colourful as it has 42. Advantages of closed circulatory system
haemoglobin but no RBC over open circulatory system includes
II. The fluid present in lymphatic system which of the following? [Pg-282,E]
is called lymph (A) Closed system can direct blood to
III. It contains specialized lymphocytes specific tissues
which are responsible for immunity of (B) Exchange occurs more rapidly
the body (C) Close circulatory system can support
IV. Lymph is an important carrier for higher levels of metabolic activity
nutrients and hormones (D) All
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43. Which of the following statements is 47. Which of the following statements is not
wrong about the closed circulatory true? [Pg-283,E]
system? [Pg-282,M] (A) Heart is ectodermal in origin
(A) Blood remains within blood vessels (B) In human beings heart is situated in
and never comes in direct contact with the thoracic cavity, in between the two
the body cells lungs slightly lifted to the left
(B) In it flow of fluid can be more precisely (C) Human heart has the size of a
regulated clenched fist.
(C) There is no blood capillary (D) Double wall membranous bag
(D) Blood flow is more rapid due to higher (pericardium) with pericardia! fluid
pressure protects heart
44. Following are figures of hearts in different 48. Which of the following is correct about
animals [Pg-282,M] human heart? [Pg-283,E]
(A) The volume of both atria> the volume
of both ventricles
(B) The volume of both ventricle> the
volume of both atria
(C) The volume of both atria= the volume
A= Auricle of both ventricles
V = Ventricle (D) Ventricles are upper chambers and
Identify with their characteristic hearts – atria are lower chambers in our heart
I II III IV 49. Bicuspid valve / mitral valve is found
a) Fishes Reptiles All Birds,
between - [Pg-283,E]
reptiles Mammals (A) Left atrium and left ventricle
(B) Right atrium and right ventricle
(b) Fishes Birds Reptiles, Mammal (C) Right atrium and left ventricle
birds
(D) Left atrium and right ventricle
(c) Fishes Amphibians Reptiles Crocodiles, 50. Tricuspid valve is present between the-
Birds, [Pg-283,E]
Mammals (A) Two atria
(B) Two ventricles
(d) Fishes Crocodiles Amphibi Birds, (C) Left atrium and left ventricle
ans, Mammals (D) Right atrium and right ventricle
Reptiles
51. Chordae tendinae are found in –
[Pg-283,E]
45. In fishes the blood circulation is (A) Joints
represented as - [Pg-282,E] (B) Atria of heart
(C) Ventricles of heart
(D) Ventricles of brain
52. Ventricles are thick-walled as compared
to atrium because - [Pg-283,E]
(A) It is to receive blood from atria
The above flow of blood indicates it is a (B) It is present on the posterior side
(A) Double circulation (C) It is to pump blood
(B) Single circulation (D) None
(C) Incomplete single circulation 53. Which of the following has thickest wall?
(D) Incomplete double circulation [Pg-283,E]
46. Incomplete double circulation is found in (A) Left auricle (B) Left ventricle
which of the following animals? (C) Right auricle (D) Right ventricle
[Pg-282,E] 54. Match the following. [Pg-283,284,E]
(A) Birds Column I Column II
(B) Mammals A. Superior p. carries deoxygenated
(C) Birds and Mammals vena cava blood to lungs
(D)Amphibians and Reptiles B. Inferior q. carries oxygenated
Para-18.3.1 Human Circulatory System vena cava blood from lungs
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C. Pulmonary r. brings deoxygenated (A) Right auricle

artery blood from lower part (B) Left auricle
of body to right atrium (C) Bone
D. Pulmonary s. bring deoxygenated (D) lnterventricular septum
vein blood from upper part 64. Atria-ventricular node (AVN) is situated in
of body to right atrium [Pg-284,E]
(A) Lower left corner of left auricle, close
(A) A - q, B - s, C - r, D - p to AV-septum
(B) A - s, B - p, C - q, D - r (B) Lower left corner of right auricle,
(C) A- s, B - r, C - p, D - q close to AV-septum
(D) A - s, B - p, C - r, D – q (C) Upper left corner of right auricle,
55. Origin of heart beat and its conduction is close to AV-septum
represented by - [Pg-284,E] (D) Upper left corner of left auricle, close
A) SA-node → Purkinje fibres → to AV-septum
AV-node→ Bundle of His 65. Purkinje fibres are present in -[Pg-284,E]
B) AV-node→ Bundle of His→ SA- (A) Left auricle
node→ Purkinje fibres (B) Right auricle
C) Purkinje fibres→ AV-node→ SA- (C) Ventricular myocardium
node→ Bundle of His (D) SAN
D) SA-node→ AV-node→ Bundle of 66. The chordae tendinae- [Pg-284,E]
His→ Purkinje fibres (A) Close the AV-valves
56. 'Heart of heart' is - [Pg-284,E] (B) Prevent the AV-valves flaps from
(A) SA-node (B) AV-node everting
(C) Bundle of His (D) Purkinje fibres (C) Open semilunar valves
57. SA node is located in – [Pg-284,E] (D) Are present in auricles
(A) Upper lateral wall of left atrium 67. Which of the following correctly traces the
(B) Lower lateral wall of left atrium electrical impulses that trigger each heart
(C) Lower lateral wall of right atrium beat [Pg-284,E]
(D) Upper lateral wall of right atrium A) Pacemaker → AV node→ Atria→
58. SA node is called pace maker of the heart. Ventricles
Why? [Pg-284,E] B) Pacemaker →Atria→ AV node→
(A) It can change contractile activity Ventricles
generated by AV node C) AV node →Pacemaker→ Auricles
(B) It delays the transmission of impulse →Ventricles
between the atria and ventricles D) Ventricle→ pacemaker→ AV node→
(C) It gets stimulated when it receives Auricle
neural signal 68. An atrioventricular valve prevents the
(D) It initiates and maintains the back flow or leakage of blood from –
rhythmic contractile activity of heart [Pg-284,M]
59. Sino-atrial node (SAN) can generate (A) The right ventricle into the right
impulses - [Pg-284,E] atrium
(A) 70 - 75 min-1 (B) 50 - 55 min-1 (B) The left atrium into the left ventricle
(C) 35 - 40 min-1 (D) 100-150 min-1 (C) The aorta into the left ventricle
60. The impulse of heart beat originate from – (D) The pulmonary vein into the right
[Pg-284,E] atrium
(A) SAN (C) AVN 69. How many double circulations are
(C) Vagus nerve (D) Cardiac nerve normally completed by the human heart
61. Rate of heart is determined by- [Pg-284,E] in one minute? [Pg-283,E]
(A) SAN (B) AVN (A) 8 (B) 16
(C) Purkinje fibres (D) Bundle of His (C) 36 (D) 72
62. Bundle of His is a group of- [Pg-284,E] 70. Assertion- If you trace the path of a
(A) Ganglia (B) Nerve fibres molecule of carbon dioxide that starts in
(C) Muscular fibres an arteriole in the right thumb and leaves
(D) Connective tissue the body in exhaled air, the minimum
63. Bundle of His / AV-bundle found in – number of capillary beds the molecule
[Pg-284,E] encountered is 2.
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Reason- The molecule of carbon dioxide (D) All

would need to enter a capillary bed in the 76. During cardiac cycle about % of
thumb before returning to the right ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial
atrium and ventricle, then travel to the contraction. _____ % ventricular filling
lung and enter a capillary from which it occurs due to atrial contraction –
would diffuse into an alveolus and be [Pg-285,E]
available to be exhaled. [Pg-282,H] (A) 50, 50 (B) 70, 30
A) Both assertion and reason are true and (C) 30, 70 (D) 10, 90
reason is correct explanation of 77. Which of the following events do not occur
assertion. during joint diastole? [Pg-285,M]
B) Both assertion and reason are true and I. All 4 chambers of heart are in relaxed
reason is not correct explanation of state
assertion. II. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. III. Action potential is conducted from
D) Both assertion and reason are false. SAN to AVN
IV. Blood from the pulmonary veins and
Para-18.3.2 Cardiac Cycle
vena cava flows into the left and right
71. The duration of cardiac cycle in a normal ventricles respectively through the left
man is - [Pg-284,E] and right atria
(A) 0.8 seconds V. The Semilunar valves are closed
(B) 80 seconds (A) Only V (B) Only III
(C) 60 seconds (C) Only IV (D) Only I and II
(D) 72 seconds 78. The accompanying diagram shows three
72. During systole of heart - [Pg-284,E] stages in the cardiac cycle-
A) Only atria contract [Pg-284,285,H]
B) only ventricles contract
C) Auricles and ventricles contract
separately
D) Auricles and ventricles contract
simultaneously
73. During ventricular systole – [Pg-284,M]
(A) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the
aorta and deoxygenated blood is Which of the following sequence is correct?
pumped into the pulmonary artery (A) 2,3, 1 (B)1,2, 3
(B) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the (C) 2, 1, 3 (D) 3,1, 2
pulmonary artery and deoxygenated 79. Cardiac output is determined by –
blood is pumped into the artery [Pg-285,E]
(C) Oxygenated blood is pumped into (A) Heart rate (B) Stroke volume
aorta and deoxygenated blood is (C) Blood flow (D) Both a and b
pumped into pulmonary vein 80. The amount of blood to be pumped out by
(D) Oxygenated blood is pumped into each ventricle/minute is- [Pg-285,E]
pulmonary vein and deoxygenated (A) Stroke volume (B) Cardiac output
blood is pumped into pulmonary (C) Tidal volume (D) Residual volume
artery 81. During cardiac cycle each ventricle
74. Contraction of right ventricle pumps pumps out about 70 ml of blood which is
blood into- [Pg-285,E] called - [Pg-285,E]
(A) Dorsal aorta (A) Stroke volume
(B) Pulmonary vein (B) Cardiac output
(C) Coronary artery (C) Tidal volume
(D) Pulmonary artery (D) Residual volume
75. When ventricular systole occurs – 82. A red blood cell, entering the right side of
[Pg-284,E] the heart passes by or through the
(A) Auricular diastole coincides following structures – [Pg-285,M]
(B) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves close 1. Atrioventricular valves
(C) Semilunar valves guarding pulmonary 2. Semi-lunar valves
artery and aorta are forced to open 3. Right atrium
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ZOOLOGY
4. Right ventricle Reason- The heart, like any other muscle,

5. SAN becomes stronger through regular
A) 2→3→1→4→5 exercise. The stronger heart would have a
B) 3→1→5→2→4 lesser stroke volume, which would allow
C) 3→5→1→2→4 for the decrease in heart rate. [Pg-285,H]
D) 5→3→1→4→2 A) Both assertion and reason are true
83. Cardiac output is – [Pg-285,H] and reason is correct explanation of
(A) Stroke volume (SV) x Heart rate (HR)= assertion.
5L/ min B) Both assertion and reason are true
(B) SV x HR= 500 ml and reason is not correct explanation
(C) SV x HR= 72 ml/min of assertion.
(D) SV x HR= 70 ml/min C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
84. Which of the following statement is not D) Both assertion and reason are false.
true? [Pg-285,H]
Para-18.3.3 Electrocardiograph(ECG)
(A) Cardiac output of an athlete is much
higher than that of an ordinary man
89. Electrocardiogram is a measure of-
(B) In each minute a single cardiac cycle
[Pg-285,E]
is performed
(A) Heart rate
(C) Cardiac sounds are of clinical
(B) Ventricular contraction
diagnostic significances
(C) Volume of blood pumped
(D) Cardiac cycle includes Auricular
(D) Electrical activity of heart
systole, ventricular systole and joint
90. Which of the following is a false
diastole/complete diastole
statement? [Pg-285,M]
85. First cardiac sound (lub) is associated
(A) ECG is of a great clinical significance
with - [Pg-285,M]
(B) Electrocardiograph is the recording of
(A) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid
electrical changes during the cardiac
valves
cycle
(B) Opening of tricuspid and bicuspid
(C) To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is
valves
connected to the machine with 3
(C) Closure of semilunar valves
electrical electrodes (one to each wrist
(D) Opening of semi lunar valves
and to the left ankle)
86. Which of the following statement is wrong
(D) Normal activities of the heart are
for second cardiac sound? [Pg-285,M]
regulated intrinsically
(A) It is heard as dup
91. P-wave represents - [Pg-286,E]
(B) It is produced due to closure of
(A) Depolarization of ventricles
semilunar valves
(B) Repolarization of ventricle
(C) It is clinically significant
(C) Repolarization of atria
(D) It is clinically non-significant
(D) Depolarization of atria
87. Assertion - The AV node delay the
92. QRS complex represents the - [Pg-286,E]
electrical impulse moving from the SA
node and the atria to the ventricles.
(B) Repolarization of ventricles
Reason- The delay allows the atria to
empty completely, filling ventricles fully
before they contract. [Pg-285,H]
93. T wave on an ECG represents –
A) Both assertion and reason are true
[Pg-286,E]
and reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) Repolarization of ventricle
B) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
94. The below figure is the diagrammatic
representation of standard ECG.
[Pg-286,M]
88. Assertion - After exercising regularly for
several months, our resting heart rate
decreases, but our cardiac output at rest
is unchanged.
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71
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Column I Column II
A. P- wave I. Ventricular 97. Which of the following options represent
depolarization followed correct systemic circulation in human
by ventricular being- [Pg-286,E]
contraction
B. QRS II. Atrial depolarization
Complex followed by systole of
both atria
C. T- wave III. Ventricular
repolarization followed
by ventricular 98. Note the following blood vessels –
relaxation [Pg-286,E]
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III A. Arteriole B. Capillary
(B)A-III, B -II, C-I C. Aorta D. Muscular artery
(C) A-II, B – I. C - III E. Vein F. Venule
(D) A-II, B-III, C – I Choose the correct path that lists the
95. Match the Column I with Column II – blood vessels in. order, blood passes
[Pg-286,M] through them as it leaves the heart,
Column I Column II
travels to tissue and returns to heart -
(A) C, D, B, A, E, F (B) C, D, A, B, F, E
A. Counting the I. A detailed
number of QRS evaluation of the (C) D, C, A, B, E, F (D) D, C, B, A, E, F
complex in a given heart function 99. Identify X, Y and Z? [Pg-287,E]
time period
B. Potential generated II. Determination of
by the recovery of heart beat
ventricles from the
depolarization state
X Y Z
(a) Vein Artery Capillary
C. Multiple leads are III. T-wave
attached to the (b) Capillary Artery Vein
chest region (c) Artery Capillary Vein
(d) Vein Capillary Artery
A B C D E
A II III I III II 100. Systemic circulation - [Pg-286,M]
(A) Provides nutrient, 𝑂2 and other
B V IV I III II essential substances to the tissues
C IV V III II III (B) Takes 𝐶𝑂2 and other harmful
D V IV I III I substances away for elimination
(C) Both a and b
Para-18.4 (D) Carries blood from heart to lungs
Double Circulation 101. The blood circulation which starts and
ends into capillaries is - [Pg-286,E]
(A) Portal circulation
96. Which of the following options represents
(B) Renal circulation
the pulmonary circulation in human
(C) Hepatic circulation
being – [Pg-286,E]
(D) Lymphatic circulation
102. Vascular connection between the
digestive tracts and liver is called –
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ZOOLOGY
[Pg-286,E] 107. Cardiac centre lies in - [Pg-287,E]

(A) Hepatic circulation (A) Medulla oblongata
(B) Hepatic-portal system (B) Pons
(C) Both a and b (C) Cerebrum
(D) Hepatic sinusoid (D) Epithalamus
103. The hepatic-portal vein carries blood from 108. Cardiac centre can moderate. the cardiac
to the ____ before it is delivered to the functions through - [Pg-287,E]
systemic circulation- [Pg-286,E] (A) Somatic neural system
(A) Liver, intestine (B) Parasympathetic nervous system only
(B) Pancreas, intestine (C)Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
(C) Intestine, liver (D) Sympathetic nervous system only
(D) Hepatic artery, hepatic vein 109. Neural signal through the sympathetic
104. A special coronary system of blood vessels nerve (part of ANS) increases cardiac
present in our body exclusively for the output because of- [Pg-287,M]
circulation of blood to and from the- (A) Increasing the rate of heart beat
[Pg-287,E] (B) Increasing the strength of ventricular
(A) Corneocytes contraction
(B) Cornea (C) Both a and b
(C) Cori cycle (D) Increasing the stimulation of vagus
(D) Heart/Cardiac musculature nerve
105. Assertion- The heart of a normally 110. Parasympathetic neural signal decreases
developing human fetus has a hole cardiac output by - [Pg-287,E]
between the left and right atria. In some (A) Decreasing the rate of heart beat
cases, this hole does not close completely (B) Decreasing the speed conduction of
before birth. If the hole weren’t surgically action potential
corrected, the O2 content would be (C) Both
abnormally low. (D) Increasing adrenal medulla hormones
Reason- In this case, some oxygen secretion
depleted blood returned to the right 111. Heart beat increases - [Pg-287,E]
atrium from the systemic circuit would (A) On stimulation of sympathetic nerves
mix with the oxygen rich blood in the left (B) On stimulation of vagus nerve (para
atrium. [Pg-286,H] sympathetic nerve)
A) Both assertion and reason are true and (C) By adrenaline secreted by adrenal
reason is medulla
correct explanation of assertion. (D) Both a and c
B) Both assertion and reason are true and
Para-18.6 Disorders of Circulatory
reason is not correct explanation of
System
assertion.
D) Both assertion and reason are false. 112. In adult, normal blood pressure is –
106. Assertion – There is low velocity of blood [Pg-287,E]
flow in the capillaries. (A) 80/120 mmHg (B) 100/80 mmHg
Reason – There is large total cross- (C) 120/80 mmHg (D) 100/ 120 mmHg
sectional area of the capillaries. 113. Normal BP= 120 / 80 mmHg in an adult.
[Pg-286,H] In this measurement 120 mmHg is the
A) Both assertion and reason are true and ____ pressure and 80 mmHg is _______
reason is correct explanation of pressure- [Pg-287,E]
assertion. (A) Diastolic, systolic
B) Both assertion and reason are true and (B) Systolic, diastolic
reason is not correct explanation of (C) Pulse, diastolic
assertion. (D) Pulse, systolic
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. 114. Which one indicates B.P or hypertension?
D) Both assertion and reason are false. [Pg-287,E]
(A) 120/ 80 mmHg
Para- 18.5 Regulation of Cardiac (B) 80/120 mmHg
Activity (C) 140/90 mmHg or higher
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ZOOLOGY
(D) 40/60 mm Hg (d) V IV I III I

115. Match the Column I with Column II –
[Pg-287,M] 116. It is often referred as atherosclerosis,
Column I Column II affects the blood vessels that supply blood
to the heart muscles. It is caused by
A. Heart failure I. Heart muscle is deposition of Ca, fat, cholesterol and
suddenly damaged fibrous tissues making the lumen of
by an inadequate arteries narrow –
blood supply The above facts are related to- [Pg-288,E]
(A) CAD (B) SCIO
B. Cardiac II. Chest pain due to (C) Blue baby (D) Heart arrest
arrest inadequate 0 2 117. Assertion – Nitroglycerin relieve chest
reaching the heart pain caused by narrowing of the cardiac
muscles arteries.
Reason – The chest pain results from
C. Heart Attack III. Atherosclerosis inadequate blood flow in coronary
arteries. Vasodilation promoted by nitric
D. Coronary IV Heart not pumping oxide from nitroglycerin increases blood
Artery blood effectively flow, providing the heart muscle with
disease enough to meet the additional oxygen and thus relieving the
(CAD) needs of the body pain. [Pg-288,H]
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
E. Angina V. Heart stops beating reason is correct explanation of
pectoris assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true
A B C D E and reason is not correct explanation
(a) IV V III I II of assertion.
(b) V IV I II II D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(c) IV V III I III
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Answer Key
Body Fluids and Circulation
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C D A B C A A A C C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D D C A D D B D C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A A D B C C B A B A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C D B C A A A A B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B D C C D D A B A D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C C D C D A D D A A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A C D B C B B A D A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C A D D C B C D A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A D A B A D A C D D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D A B C A C B A A C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C B C D A A A C B B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117
Ans D C B C B A A
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7 Excretory products and their elimination
8. NH3 is converted into urea in –

Introduction
[Pg- 290,M]
1. Ammonia and urea are waste products A) Kidney B) Liver
derived from the metabolic breakdown C) Spleen D) Intestine
of- [Pg- 290,E] 9. Which of the following groups of animals
A) Lipids B) Carbohydrates is uricotelic? [Pg- 290,E]
C) Proteins D) Sugars A) Reptiles
2. Which of the following molecules is the B) Insects
most toxic to the cells? [Pg- 290,E] C) Birds and land snail
A) NaCl B) Urea D) All
C) Uric acid D) Ammonia 10. Excretion of nitrogenous products in
3. The terms "ammonotelic'', "Ureotelic", semisolid forms by - [Pg- 290,E]
and "Uricotelic" are used to describe- A) Uricotelic animals
[Pg- 290,M] B) Ureotelic animals
A) Modes of excretory system C) Ammoniotelic animals
development D) Amniotes
B) The actions of hormones on the 11. Least toxic nitrogenous waste is –
excretory systems [Pg- 290,E]
C) The types of nitrogenous waste A) NH3 B) Urea
produced by various classes of C) Uric acid D) NH3 and urea
vertebrates 12. Which of following in small amount is
D) Modification of kidney tubules to retained in kidney matrix of some
enhance excretion animals to maintain a desired
4. Which of the following statements is osmolarity? [Pg- 290,M]
correct? [Pg- 290,H] A) NH3
A) Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibia B) Urea
and aquatic insects are ammoniotelic C) Uric acid
B) Ammonia is readily soluble D) NH3 and uric acid
C) NH3 is generally excreted by the body 13. Terrestrial organisms must conserve
surface or through gills (in fishes) as water. The least amount of water is lost
NH4 + with the excretion of which nitrogenous
D) All waste product? [Pg- 290,M]
5. Which of the following statements is A) NH3 B) Uric acid
wrong? [Pg- 290,H] C) Urea D) CO2
A) Kidney does not play any significant 14. The less amount of water is lost with the
role in the removal of ammonia excretion of which nitrogenous product?
B) Ureotelic animals excrete most of the [Pg- 290,E]
nitrogenous waste as urea A) NH3 and urea
C) Ammonia and urea are the waste B) NH3 and uric acid
products derived from the metabolic C) NH3
breakdown of proteins D) Urea and uric acid
D) None of the above is wrong 15. Which of the following is correct about
6. Urea and uric acid are – [Pg- 290,E] protonephridia/flame cells? [Pg- 291,H]
A) More toxic than NH3 A) Protonephridia are the excretory
B) Less toxic than NH3 structures in Platyhelminthes (e.g.
C) Equally toxic to NH3 Planaria), rotifers and some annelids
D) Non-toxic B) Protonephridia are the excretory
7. Which of the following group of animals structures in the cephalochordates
is ureotelic? [Pg- 290,E] e.g. Amphioxus
A) many terrestrial amphibians C) Protonephridia are primarily
B) Mammals concerned with ionic and fluid
C) Marine fishes volume regulation i.e. osmoregulation
D) All D) All
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ZOOLOGY
16. Match the column I with column II. II. Medulla is divided into about 8 to 18
[Pg- 291,M] renal pyramids
III. Pyramid projects into calyx
Coulumn I Column II IV. Inwards extension of cortex between
A. Nephridia I. Crustaceans(Prawn) the pyramids is called renal column
of Bertini
B. Malphigian tubules II. Annelids(Earthworm) A) I and IV
C. Anteenal Gland or III. Insects B) II and IV
Green Glands (Cockroach) C) IV
D) None
A) A-I, B-II, C-III 22. Observe the following figure. [Pg- 291,E]
B) A-III, B - II, C – I
C) A-II, B - III, C-I
D) A-II, B- I, C-III
Human Excretory System

wrong about the human excretory
system? [Pg- 291,H]
A) Excretory system consists of one pair
of bean shaped kidneys, one pair of
ureter, a urinary bladder and a
urethra.
B) Kidneys are situated between the
12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar
Identify A to E structure.
vertebrae close to the dorsal wall in
A B C D E
abdominal cavity. A Superior Inferior Dorsal Urethra Pelvis
C) Right kidney is a little higher level vena vena Aorta
than the left one. cava cava
D) All B Inferior Superior Dorsal Urethra Pelvis
18. Each kidney of adult human measures- vena vena Aorta
[Pg- 291,E] cava cava
Length Width Thickness Weight C Ureter Inferior Dorsal Urethra Pelvis
A) 10 - 12 5 - 7cm 2 – 3 cm 120-170 vena Aorta
cm g cava
B) 10 – 20 10 - 12 6 - 12 cm 40-50 D Dorsal Inferior Urethra Cortex Pelvis

Aorta vena
cm cm gm
cava
C) 2 – 6 cm 10 - 12 6 - 12 cm 40-50
cm gm 23. Which one of the following is the
D) 10 - 12 5 - 7 2 – 3 mm 120-170 structural and functional unit of kidney?
mm mm mg [Pg- 292,E]
A) Urethra B) Urinary bladder
C) Renal column D) Nephron
19. The part of kidney, gateway for ureter, 24. Renal corpuscle or Malpighian body is-
nerves and blood vessels is- [Pg- 291,E] [Pg- 291,E]
A) Hilum B) Renal pore A) Glomerulus only
C) Minor calyx D) Major calyx B) Glomerulus along with Bowman's
20. Inner to the hilum of kidney is a broad capsule
funnel shaped space called- [Pg- 291,E] C) Bowman's capsule
A) Cortex B) Medulla D) Glomerulus with afferent arteriole
C) Pelvis D) Calyx 25. Which one of the following is a tube that
21. Which of the following statements is carries urine from kidney to the urinary
false? [Pg- 291,292,H] bladder? [Pg- 291,E]
I. Outer cortex and inner medulla are A) Loop of Henle B) Ureter
the two zones in kidney C) Urethra D) Uvula
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26. Go through the following figure- 32. Which is the correct pathway for passage
[Pg- 292,E] of urine in humans? [Pg-292,293,M]
A) Collecting tubule→ ureter→
bladder→ urethra
B) Renal vein→ renal ureter→ bladder→
urethra
C) Pelvis→ Medulla → bladder→ urethra
D) Cortex→ Medulla→ bladder→ ureter
33. Match the column I with column II.
[Pg-292,293,H]
Identify A to D- Column I Column II
A B C D A. Delivers blood to I. Ascending and
A Cortex Calyx Renal Ureter glomerulus descending limb
Column
B Calyx Cortex Renal Ureter
B. Carries urine to II. Renal artery
Column
pelvis, also acts in
C Medulla Cortex Renal Urethra
Column water
D Calyx Cortex Renal Urethra reabsorption
Column
C. Collects filtrate III. Collecting duct
27. Each kidney has how many nephrons? from Bowman's
[Pg- 292,E] capsule
A) About 2 million B) About 1 million
C) About 5000 D) About 50000 D. Loop of Henle IV. PCT
28. The bed of capillaries in the vertebrate
kidney where water, urea and salts are
filtered out of the blood is the – A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
[Pg- 292,E] B) A-I, B - III, C-II, D- IV
A) Bowman's capsule C) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
B) Collecting duct D) A- IV, B - III, C - II, D – I
C) Glomerulus 34. Which of the following is correct about
D) Loop of Henle Juxta medullary nephrons? [Pg-293,E]
29. All of the following structures are A) Vasa recta is prominent
situated in the renal cortex except – B) Loop of Henle is long
[Pg- 293,M] C) NaCl is returned to the interstitium
A) Loop of Henle by ascending limb of vasa recta
B) Malpighian corpuscle D) All
C) PCT 35. Which of the following places the region
D) DCT of nephron in their correct sequence with
30. The DCTs of many nephrons open into a respect to flow of tubular fluid?
straight tube called – [Pg-293,M] [Pg-293,M]
A) PCT A) PCT→ Descending limb of Henle
B) Loop of Henle (DLH) → Ascending limb of Henle
C) Collecting duct (ALH) → DCT→ Collecting duct(CD)
D) Bowman's capsule B) PCT→ALH →DLH →OCT→CD
31. Which of the following statements is C) ALH →DLH →PCT→OCT→CD
false? [Pg-292,293,H] D) OCT→ALH →DLH →PCT→CD
A) Renal tubule starts with a double 36. Vasa recta is – [Pg-293,E]
walled cup like structure called A) shaped B) S-shaped
Bowman's capsule C) U-shaped D) J-shaped
B) In majority of nephrons, the loop of 37. In glomerulus, afferent arteriole –
Henle is too short and such nephrons [Pg-292,E]
are cortical nephrons A) Is wider than efferent arteriole
C) Juxta medullary nephron has long B) And efferent arteriole has similar
loop of Henle diameter
D) None C) Is narrower than efferent arteriole
D) Is narrow than efferent capillaries
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38. Which of the following is incorrect? IV. Ultrafiltrate I nephric filtrate is

[Pg-292,M] plasma minus proteins.
A) Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is A) I and II B) I and Ill
called efferent arteriole C) III and IV D) I, II, III, IV
B) Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, 42. The glomerular capillaries cause
Glomerulus all have blood filtration of blood through ____ layers –
C) Cortical nephron has no or highly [Pg-293,E]
reduced vasa recta A) 1 B) 2
D) Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle's C) 3 D) 6
loop in juxtamedullary nephrons 43. The layers between the blood in
glomerular blood Bowman's space are –
Paragraph- 19.2 Urine Formation
[Pg-293,E]
A) Tunica media + Cuboidal epithelium+
39. Urine formation involves- [Pg-293,M]
Basement's membrane
A) Ultra filtration and reabsorption
B) Endothelium + Epithelium of
occurring in different parts of
Bowman's capsule + Basement
nephron
membrane between the 2 layers
B) Ultrafiltration and reabsorption
C) Endothelium of glomerular blood
occurring in same part of nephron
vessel + Endothelium of Bowman's
C) Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and
capsule + Parietal layer of Bowman's
secretion occurring in different parts
capsule
of nephron
D) Tunica media + Epithelium of
D) Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and
Bowman's capsule + Endothelium of
secretion occurring in same part of
Bowman's capsule
nephron
44. On average, _______ mL of blood is
40. Match the column I with column II.
filtrated by the kidney per minute which
[Pg-293,294,M]
constitute roughly __ of the blood
pumped out by each ventricle of heart in
Column I Column II
a minute. – [Pg-293,E]
a PCT I. Concentrated urine A) 125 ml, 1/6th
formation B) 100 -125 ml, 1/6th
b DCT II. Filtration of blood C) 1100 -1200 ml, 1/5th
D) 5 L, 1/10th
c Loop of Henle III. Reabsorption of 70 - 45. The amount of the filtrate formed by the
80% electrolytes kidney / minute is called GFR
(Glomerular Filtration Rate). The GFR of
d Counter- IV. Ionic balance a healthy adult is- – [Pg-294,E]
current
A) 80 mL/min B) 125 mL/min
mechanism
C) 300 mL/min D) 20 mL/min
e Renal V. Maintenance of conc. 46. The GFR/day in a healthy adult is –
corpuscle gradient in medulla [Pg-294,E]
A) 5 L B) 180 L
C) 200 L D) 20 L
a b c d e 47. Juxtaglomerular apparatus, a special
A) III IV I V II sensitive cellular region is formed in –
[Pg-29,E4]
B) III V IV II I A) PCT and DCT
C) I III II V IV B) PCT and DCT at the location of their
D) III I IV V II contact
41. Which of the following statements is C) PCT and loop of Henle at the location
correct? [Pg-293,M] their contact
I. Renal vein take blood away from D) DCT and afferent arteriole at the
kidney location of their contact
II. Loop of Henle conserves water 48. Of the filtrate, nearly how many of it is
III. Podocytes occur in inner wall of reabsorbed by the renal tubules?
Bowman's capsule [Pg-294,E]
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A) 5% B) 99% I. The composition of the filtrate would

C) 50% D) 25% be most like plasma in the tubule
next to the letter.
Paragraph- 19.3 Function of the Tubules
II. The urine would be most
concentrated in the collecting duct
49. Which of following statements is false?
next to letter
[Pg-294,H]
III. Most of the glomerular filtrate is
A) The kidney has built in mechanism
reabsorbed into peritubular capillary
for regulation of GFR
next to the letter
B) Tubular secretion does not play any
IV. Conducting of urine to pelvis of the
significant role in urine formation
kidney from the structure next to the
C) The amount of urine output per day
letter
in normal adult is about 1.5 L
V. Most water is reabsorbed by the
D) During urine formation tubular cells
structure next to the litter
secrete H+, K+ and NH3 in the filtrate
I II III IV V
proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is (A) A C B E D
false? [Pg-294,H] (B) A E B C D
A) It is lined by simple cuboidal brush (C) A B E C D
border epithelium which increases
the surface area (D) A E B E B
B) Nearly all the essential nutrients, 70
- 80% electrolytes, 70% H2O are 54. [Pg-294,H]
reabsorbed by PCT I. Reabsorption in this region is
C) PCT is not the site of selective minimum.
secretion II. This region plays a significant role in
D) PCT helps to maintain the pH and the maintenance of high osmolarity of
ionic balance of body fluids intestinal fluid
51. PCT helps to maintain the pH and ionic III. Its descending limb is permeable to
balance of body fluids by - [Pg-294,M] water but almost impermeable to
A) Selective secretion of H+, NH3 and K+ electrolytes
ions in filtrate IV. Its ascending limb is impermeable to
B) Reabsorption of 𝐻𝐶𝑂3− from filtrate water but allows transport of
C) Both a and b electrolyte actively or passively
D) Secreting regulatory hormone like V. In descending limb filtrate is
renin and angiotensinogen hypertonic while in ascending limb
52. If Loop of Henle were absent from filtrate is hypotonic
mammalian nephrons, which of the The above characteristics are associated
following is to be expected? [Pg-294,H] with -
A) The urine will be more dilute A) PCT
B) There will be no urine formation B) Loop of Henle
C) The urine will be more concentrated C) DCT
D) There will be hardly any change in D) Bowman's capsule
quality and quantity of urine formed 55. Which of the following statements is
53. Use following diagram to complete the correct? [Pg-294,H]
statements about the human nephron – I. Reabsorption of water occurs
[Pg-295,M] passively in the initial segment of
nephron
II. Nitrogenous waste are absorbed by
passive transport
III. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and
water takes place in DCT
IV. DCT reabsorbs HCO3 –
V. DCT is capable of selective secretion
of H+, K+ and NH3 to maintain pH
and Na+ - K+ balance in blood
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VI. Substances like glucose, amino acids, C) Diffusion of small amount of urea
Na+, etc in the filtrate are reabsorbed from collecting duct into medullary
actively interstitium
A) I and II B) II and III D) Proximity between Henle's loop and
C) IV and V D) All vasa recta as well as the counter
56. Tubular secretion helps to maintain a current in them
proper acid-base balance by removing 62. The medullary gradient is mainly caused
one of the following from blood – by - [Pg-296,E]
[Pg-294,E] A) Urea & K + B) H and K+
+
A) H+ and NH3 C) NaCl and Urea D) Urea and H+

B) Uric acid 63. The counter current mechanism helps to
C) H+ and urea maintain a concentration gradient. This
D) NH3 and creatinine gradient helps in - [Pg-297,M]
57. Which of the following statements is false A) Easy passage of water from medulla
regarding the collecting duct? to collecting tubule and thereby
[Pg-295,M] concentrating urine
I. Collecting duct is a straight duct B) Easy passage of water from collecting
II. It extends from the cortex to medulla tubule and thereby concentrating
III. Large amount of water could be urine
reabsorbed from it to produce C) Easy passage of water from medullary
concentrated urine· interstitial fluid to collecting tubule
IV. Small amount of urea diffuses out and thereby diluting urine
from it into the medulla to keep up D) Inhibition of passage of water
the osmolarity between the collecting tubule and
V. It plays a role to maintain pH and medulla and so isotonic urine is
ionic balance of blood by the selective formed
secretion of H+ and K+ ions 64. NaCl is transported by the ascending
A) Only I B) Only III limb of Henle's loop which is exchanged
C) IV and V D) None with - [Pg-296,E]
A) DCT
Paragraph- 19.4 Mechanism of
B) PCT
Concentration of the Filtrate C) Ascending limb of vasa recta
D) Descending limb of vasa recta
58. Mammals have the ability to produce 65. NaCl is returned to the by the ascending
______ urine- [Pg-295,E] limb of vasa recta - [Pg-296,E]
A) Hypotonic B) Hypertonic A) Ascending limb of Henle's loop
C) Isotonic D) Alkaline B) DCT
59. Which one plays an important role in C) PCT
counter current mechanism? [Pg-295,E] D) Interstitial fluid of medulla
A) Vasa recta B) PCT 66. Human kidney can produce urine nearly
C) Loop of Henle D) A and C how many times concentrated than the
60. In which of the following counter current initial filtrate formed? [Pg-297,E]
operates- [Pg-29,E5] A) 4 B) 2
A) In ascending limb of loop of Henle C) 10 D) 100
B) In descending limb of loop of Henle 67. The high osmolarity of the renal medulla
C) In ascending limb or descending limb is maintained by all of the following
of vasa recta except - [Pg-296,M]
D) Between the 2 limb of Henle's loop I. Diffusion of salt from the ascending
and those of vasa recta limb of the loop of Henle
61. Medullary gradient is developed by all II. Active transport of salt from the
the following except - [Pg-296,M] upper region of the ascending limb
A) Reabsorption of Na+ from ascending III. The spatial arrangement of
limb of Henle's loop into medullary juxtamedullary nephrons
interstitium IV. Diffusion of urea from the collecting
B) Reabsorption of Na+ from descending duct
limb of Henle's loop
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V. Diffusion of salt from the descending D) Blood volume, body fluid volume and
limb of the loop of Henle ionic concentration
A) Only I B) Only V 75. Which of the following sequences is
C) III and IV D) I and V correct for regulation of kidney function?
[Pg-297,H]
A) An excess loss of water from body→
Paragraph- 19.5 Regulation of Kidney
Stimulates hypothalamus→
Function Osmoreceptors→ Neurohypophysis→
ADH→ Increases water permeability
68. Which one of the following is produced in of DCT and CT→ Prevention of
the kidneys? [Pg-297,E] diuresis
A) Rennin B) Renin B) An excess loss of fluid from body→
C) Uricase D)Arginase Osmoreceptors→ Hypothalamus→
69. Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by – Neurohypophysis→ ADH→ Increases
[Pg-297,E] water permeability of DCT and CT→
A) Vasopressin or ADH Prevention of diuresis.
B) Aldosterone C) An excess loss of fluid from body→
C) Renin Osmoreceptors→ Hypothalamus→
D) Rennin Neurohypophysis→ Aldosterone→
70. The reabsorption of water in the kidneys Water permeability of DCT and CT
is under the control of a hormone – increases→ Prevention of diuresis
[Pg-297,E] D) An excess loss of fluid from body→
A) STH osmoreceptor→ Hypothalamus→
B) ACTH Adenohypophysis→ ADH→ Increases
C) LH water permeability of DCT and CT→
D) ADH/Vasopressin Prevention of diuresis
71. Antidiuretic hormone secretion increases 76. Osmoregulation is the function of-
when the hypothalamus is stimulated by [Pg-297,E]
– A) Oxytocin
[Pg-297,E] B) Prolactin
A) Angiotensin receptors C) Vasopressin (ADH)
B) Glucose receptors D) None of the above
C) Osmoreceptors 77. ADH is synthesised by, ___________
D) Renin receptors released by _______ and acts on
72. The kidneys help regulate acid-base _________. [Pg-297,M]
balance by controlling the level of ____ in A) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis,
the blood- [Pg-297,E] DCT and CT
A) CO2 B) H+ B) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis,
C) HCO3- D) B and C Loop of Henle
73. The functioning of the kidneys is C) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis,
efficiently monitored and regulated by DCT and CT
hormonal feedback mechanisms D) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis,
involving - [Pg-297,E] Loop of Henle
A) Hypothalamus only 78. Which of the following sequence is
B) JGA only correct? [Pg-297,M]
C) The heart only A) An increase in body fluid volume →
D) Hypothalamus, JGA and heart (to switch off the Osmoreceptors →
certain extent) suppresses the ADH release
74. Osmoreceptors in the body are activated B) ADH → Constricting effect on blood
by changes in - [Pg-297,M] vessel→ B. P. high~ Glomerular blood
A) Blood volume but not body fluid flow more → GFR more
volume C) Angiotensinogen→ Angiotensin I→
B) Body fluid volume but not blood Angiotensin II→ Adrenal cortex →
volume Aldosterone
C) Blood volume and body fluid volume D) All
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79. Which of the following factors can active B) Ureter relaxes

the JG cells to release renin? [Pg-297,E] C) Ureter contracts
A) A fall in glomerular blood pressure D) Urethra contracts
(GBP) 87. The outline of principal event of
B) A fall in glomerular blood flow (GBF) urination is given below in unordered
C) A fall in GFR manner- [Pg-297-299,H]
D) A fall in GFR I GBP I GBF I. Stretch receptors on the wall of
80. Which of the following statements is urinary bladder send signal to the
false? [Pg-297,M] CNS
A) Angiotensin II, being a powerful II. The bladder fills with urine and
vasoconstrictor, increases glomerular becomes distended
pressure and thereby GFR III. Micturition
B) Angiotensin II activates the adrenal IV. CNS passes on motor messages to
cortex to release aldosterone initiate the contraction of smooth
C) Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of muscles of bladder and simultaneous
Na+ and water from the DCT and CT relaxation of urethral Sphincter
leading to an increase in B.P. and The correct order of steps for urination is
GFR -
D) ANF causes vasoconstriction A) I→ II→ III→ IV
81. RAAS (Renin -Angiotensinogen - B) IV→ III→ II→I
Aldosterone System)- [Pg-297,M] C) II→I→ IV→ III
A) Is triggered when the juxtaglomerular D) III→ II →I → IV
cells of JGA releases renin in 88. The neural mechanisms causing
response to various stimuli urination is called - [Pg-298,E]
B) Is responsible for regulation of kidney A) Scarth reflex
function B) Withdrawal reflex
C) Are stimulated when ANF is more in C) Micturition reflex
blood D) None
D) A and B are correct 89. Average pH of human urine is –
82. Which of the following is true about Atrial [Pg-298,E]
Natriuretic factor (ANF)? [Pg-297,M] A) 6 B) 9
A) An increase in blood volume and B. P. C) 3 D) 7
stimulates cardiac atria to release 90. Match the column I with column II.
ANF [Pg-298,M]
B) ANF promotes vasoconstriction and Column I Column II
thereby decrease B.P. A. Uremia I. Henle's loop
C) ANF acts as a check on RAAS
D) A and C B. Ketonuria II. Ketone bodies in
urine
83. Renin-angiotensin pathway controls –
[Pg-297,E] C. Glycosuria III. Artificial kidney
A) Ultrafiltration
B) Blood pressure D. Blood dialyser IV. Glucose in urine
C) Glucose reabsorption
D) Cardia output E. Concentration of V. Accumulation of
84. RAAS secretes which of the following urine urea in blood
hormones? [Pg-297,E]
A) Glucocorticoids B) Renin A) A - V, B - II, C - IV, D – III, E - I
C) Mineralocorticoids D) All B) A- Ill, B - II, C - IV, D - I, E - V
Paragraph- 19.6 Micturition C) A-I, B - II, C - IV, D - Ill, E - V
D) A- I, B - II, C - IV, D - V, E – III
85. The expulsion of urine from the urinary 91. Diabetes mellitus is characterized by-
bladder is called - [Pg-298,E] [Pg-298,E]
A) Uricolysis B) Micturition A) Oilgonuria
C) Uremia D) Anuria B) Ketonuria and glycosuria
86. In micturition - [Pg-298,E] C) Anuria
A) Urethra relaxes D) Haematuria
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92. How much urea is excreted per day by a Which one of the above statement is
normal adult? [Pg-298,E] correct?
A) 0 gm B) 25 – 30 gm A) Only I B) II and III
C) 50 gm D) 1 – 2 gm C) Only II D) I and II
Paragraph- 19.7 Role of other Organs in
Excretion Paragraph- 19.8 Disorder of the
excretory system
93. Other than kidneys, which of the
following also helps in the elimination of 99. In uremia, artificial kidney is used for
excretory wastes? [Pg-298,E] removing accumulated waste products
A) Skin B) Liver like urea by the process called-
C) Lungs D) All [Pg-298,E]
94. How much CO2 is removed per minute by A) Micturition B) Haemolysis
our lungs- [Pg-298,E] C) Ureotelism D) Hemodialysis
A) 18 Ml B) 200 Ml 100. In artificial kidney dialysing fluid
C) 1L D) 8 L contains all the constituents as in
95. Which of the following statements is plasma expect- [Pg-298,E]
false? [Pg-298,M] A) Na +
A) Micturition is carried out by a reflex B) Water

B) Cholesterol is excreted in the bile and C) Glucose
waxes are excreted in the sebum D) Nitrogenous wastes
C) 8 L urine is excreted per day 101. Kidney stone is produced by-[Pg-299,E]
D) The primary function of sweat is A) Deposition of sand particles
excretion B) Crystallization of Ca- oxalate
96. Liver (largest gland) is both secretory and C) Precipitation of protein
excretory organ. It secretes bile. Which of D) KCI or NaCl
the following are major excretory 102. Bright’s disease/Glomerulonephritis is-
products of bile? [Pg-298,E] [Pg-299,E]
A) Degraded and steroid hormones A) Glycosuria
B) Vitamins and drugs B) Cystitis
C) Bilirubin and Biliverdin C) Inflammation of glomeruli
D) Cholesterol D) Ketonuria
97. Most of excretory products of bile 103. Following are the steps of dialysis-
ultimately pass out along with- [Pg-298,299,M]
[Pg-298,E] A. Blood is passed into a vein.
A) Urine B. Blood is mixed with heparin.
B) Digestive wastes C. Blood is mixed with anti-heparin.
C) Urea D. Blood is drained from convenient
D) Sweat artery.
98. [Pg-298,H] E. Blood is passed through a coiled and
I. The human skin possesses sweat porous cellophane tube bathing in
and sebaceous glands which dialysis fluid.
eliminate some wastes in their F. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from
secretion. blood.
II. Sweat is waxy protective secretion The correct sequence of steps is-
having sterols, hydrocarbons and A) A → B → C → D → E → F
fatty acid B) F → C → E → B → A → D
III. Sebum is an aqueous fluid having C) D → B → E → F → C → A
NaCl, lactic acid, urea, amino acids, D) D → C → E → F → B → A
glucose
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Answer Key
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C D C D D B D B D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C B B D D C D A A C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D C D B B B B C B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D A A D A C A A C A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D C B C B B D B B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C A D B D A D B D D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B C B D D A B B B D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C D D D B C A D D D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D D B C B A C C A A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B B D B C C B A D D
Q 101 102 103
Ans B C C
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8 LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
(B) They are voluntary muscles

Para-20.1
(C) They are primarily involved in
Introduction and Type of Movement locomotory actions
(D) All
1. Streaming of cytoplasm/cyclosis is seen 6. Which of the following statements about
in – [Pg-302,E] visceral muscles is correct? [Pg-303,E]
(A) Amoeba (B) Macrophages (A) They are non-striated muscles
(C) Leukocytes (D) All (smooth muscles)
2. Which of the following statements is (B) They are involuntary muscles
correct? [Pg-303,E] (C) They have various functions
(A) Cytoplasmic streaming helps in (D) All
pseudopodia formation or amoeboid 7. Cardiac/heart muscles are -[Pg-304,E]
movement (A) Striated and involuntary
(B) Cytoplasmic streaming is caused by (B) Not fatigued
contracting microfilament (C) Branched
(C) Both a and b (D) All
(D) Locomotion is not a voluntary 8. Which of the following statements is
movement false? [Pg-303,304E]
3. I. Paramecium employs cilia for pushing (A) Smooth muscles are found in urinary
food in cytopharynx and in bladder, alimentary canal and genital
locomotion tract
II. Hydra takes help of tentacles for both (B) A striated muscle is syncytium
food capturing and locomotion (multinucleate)
III. All locomotion’s are movements and (C) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is
vice-versa called endoplasm
IV. Methods of locomotion vary with (D) The plasma membrane and ER of
habitats striated muscles are called
and the demands of situation sarcolemma and sarcoplasmic
V. Ciliated epithelium is found in reticulum respectively
respiratory tract, renal tubules and 9. The source of Ca+2 for the muscle is –
reproductive tracts [Pg-304,E]
Which of the above statements is false? (A) T-tubule
(A) I and III (B) III (B) Sarcosome
(C) III and V (D) IV and V (C) Sarcolemma
[Pg-302,303,E] (D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Para-20.2 Muscle 10. The fascia surrounding a muscle is made
up of - [Pg-304,E]
4. Which of the following statements is (A) Cartilage
false? [Pg-303,E] (B) Collagenous connective tissues
(A) Locomotion and many other (C)Adipose tissue
movements required coordinated (D) Blood vessels
muscular activities 11. Contractile fibrils of muscles are called –
(B) Muscle is a specialised tissues of [Pg-304,E]
endodermal in origin (A) Neurofibrils (B) Collagen fibres
(C) There are about 639 muscles which (C) Myofibrils (D) Yellow fibres
contribute about 40 - 50 % of adult 12. Myofibrils show alternate dark and light
body weight bands in - [Pg-304,E]
(D) Muscles show contractibility, (A) Cardiac muscles
excitability and flexibility (B) Smooth muscles
5. Which of the following statements about (C) Striped muscles
the skeletal muscles is correct? (D) a and c
[Pg-303,E] 13. Select the true statement(s) - [Pg-305,E]
(A) They are striated muscles
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(A) A-band is present in the middle of I. In the centre of each I-band is an
sarcomere elastic fibre (Z-line) which bisects it
(B) H-zone is present in the middle of A- II. Thin filaments are firmly attached
band to the Z-line
(C) M-line is present in the middle of H- III. M-line is a fibrous membrane in the
zone middle of A-bands
(D) All of the above IV. A sarcomere comprises one full A-
14. Which is the smallest one? [Pg-304,E] bands and 2 half I-bands
(A) Muscle fibre (B) Myofibril (A) All (B) IV
(C) Actin (D) Sarcomere (C) I and II (D) None
21. The region between the ends of the A-
Para-20.2.1
bands of 2-adjoining sarcomeres is called
Structure of Contractile Proteins
– [Pg-305,E]
15. Match Column I with Column II – (A) The Z-band (B) The H-zone
[Pg-304,305,M] (C) The T-tubule (D) The I-band
Column I Column II 22. Choose the letter from the figure that
most appropriately corresponds to the
A. Structural and I. H-zone
functional unit of a
structure – [Pg-305,E]
myofibril
B. Protein of thin filament II. Myosin
C. Protein of thick filament III. Sarcomere
D. The central part of thick IV. Actin

filament not overlapped I. A-band
by thin filament II. I-band
III. Sarcomere
IV. H-zone
V. Myosin
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV VI. Actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin
(B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV VII. Z- line
(C) A- I, B - IV, C - III, D - II (A) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV - G, V - B, VI -
(D) A- III, B - IV, C - II, D – I C, VII -A
16. Z-line divides the myofibrils into – (B) I - E, II - D, III - C, IV - G, V - B, VI -
[Pg-305,E] A, VII - F,
(A) Sarcomere (B) Sarcolemma (C) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV - G, V - C, VI -
(C) Sarcosome (D) Microtubules A, VII - B
17. Sarcomere is the area between – (D) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV -A, V - B, VI - C,
[Pg-305,E] VII – G
(A) 2 H-zones (B) 2 Z-lines 23. An individual sarcomere consist of-
(C) 2 M-lines (D) 2A-bands [Pg-305,E]
18. Light bands (thin filaments) contain (A) A stack of actin fibres
actin and are called - [Pg-304,E] (B) A stack of myosin units
(A) A-bands or Isotropic band (C) Overlapping actin and myosin
(B) A-bands or Anisotropic bands (D) Overlapping myosin arid membrane
(C) I-bands or Isotropic bands 24. Which of the following statements about
(D) I-bands or Anisotropic bands the molecular arrangement of actin and
19. Dark bands (thick filaments) contain myosin in myofibrils is false? [Pg-306,M]
myosin and are called - [Pg-304,E] I. Each actin (thin filament) is made
(A) A-bands or Isotropic band of 2F (filamentous) actins.
(B) A-bands or Anisotropic bands II. F-actin is the polymer of G
(C) I-bands or Isotropic bands (globular) actin.
(D) I-bands or Anisotropic bands III. 2F- actins are twisted into a helix
20. Which of the following statements about IV. Two strands of tropomyosin
the striated muscles is false? [Pg-305,M] (protein) lie in the grooves of F-actin
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V. Troponin molecules (complex
proteins) are distributed at regular
intervals on the tropomyosin
VI. Troponin forms the head of the
myosin molecule
VII. The myosin is a polymerised protein
(a) I, II, III (B) Only VII
(C) Only VI (D) Only III The above figure is related with myosin
25. One myosin filament in the myofibril of monomer (meromyosin). Identify A to C -
skeletal muscle fibres is surrounded by (A) A- head, B - cross arm, C - GTP
how many actin filaments - [Pg-306,E] binding sites
(A) 8 (B) 2 (B) A- head, B - cross arm, C - Ca+2
(C) 6 (D) 4 binding sites
26. The cross bridges of the sarcomere in (C) A- head, B - cross arm, C -ATP
skeletal muscle are made up of – binding sites
[Pg-306,E] (D) A- cross arm, B - head, C -ATP
(A) Actin (B) Myosin binding sites
(C) Troponin (D) Myelin 32. Which of the following statements is
27. The functions of tropomyosin in skeletal false? [Pg-306,M]
muscle include - [Pg-306,E] (A) Each myosin is a polymerised protein
(A) Sliding on actin to produce (B) Many meromyosin constitute one
shortening. thick filament (myosin)
(B) Release Ca+2 after initiation of (C) Each meromyosin's tail is called
contraction heavy meromyosin (HMM) and head
(C) Acting as "relaxing protein" at rest by is called light meromyosin (LMM)
covering up the sites where myosin (D) The globular head is an active ATPase
binds to actin enzyme and has binding sites for ATP
(D) Generates ATP and active sites for actin
28. Tropomyosin is moved by which of Para-20.2.2
following proteins - [Pg-306,E] Mechanism of Muscle Contraction
(A) Calmodulin (B) Actin
(C) Troponin (D)Acetylcholine 33. The action potential that triggers a
29. Ca+2 bind _________ in the skeletal muscle contraction travels deep within
muscles and leads to exposure of the the muscle cell by means of _________.
binding site for _______ on the filament [Pg-307,E]
___________. [Pg-306,E] (A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(A) Troponin, myosin, actin (B) Transverse tubules
(B) Troponin, actin, relaxin (C) Synapse
(C) Actin, myosin, troponin (D) Motor end plates
(D) Tropomyosin, myosin, actin 34. ATP provides energy for muscle
30. Following is the figure of actin (thin) contraction by allowing for- [Pg-307,E]
filaments. Identify A, Band C. [Pg-306,E] (A) An action potential formation in the
muscle cell
(B) Cross-bridge detachment of myosin
from actin
(C) Cross-bridge attachment of myosin to
actin
(A) A- Tropomyosin, B - Troponin, C - F- (D) Release of ca+2 from sarcoplasmic
actin reticulum
(B) A- Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - 35. A motor unit is best described as –
Myosin [Pg-307,E]
(C) A- Troponin, B - Myosin, C - (A) All the nerve fibres and muscle fibres
Tropomyosin in a single muscle bundle
(D) A- Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - F- (B) One muscle fibre and its single nerve
actin fibre
31. [Pg-306,E] (C) A single motor neuron and all the
muscle fibres that it innervates
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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(D) It is the neuron which carries the
message from muscle to CNS
36. Motor end plate is a - [Pg-307,E]
(A) Neuromuscular junction
(B) Dendron of motor neuron
(C) Plate of motor neuron
(D) Gradient of proton motive force
37. Electrical excitation in a muscle fibre
most directly causes - [Pg-307,E]
Now identify A to E.
(A) Movement of tropomyosin
(A) A- Cross bridge, B - Cross bridge
(B) Attachment of the cross bridges to
formation, C-Breaking of cross
actin
bridge, D –Sliding (rotation), E -ATP
(C) Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic
(B) A- Cross bridge, B - Cross bridge
reticulum
formation, C – Sliding/rotation, D –
(D) Splitting of ATP
Breaking of cross bridge, E -ATP
38. The energy for muscle contraction is
(C) A- Cross bridge, B - Breaking of Cross
most directly obtained from - [Pg-307,E]
bridge, C – Sliding/rotation, D - Cross
(A) Phosphocreatine
bridge formation, E -AMP
(B) ATP
(D) A- Cross bridge, B - Cross bridge
(C) Anaerobic respiration
formation, C – Sliding/rotation, D -
(D) Aerobic respiration
ADP, E - Breaking of cross bridge
39. According to the sliding filament theory –
42. How does the troponin-tropomyosin
[Pg-306,E]
complex affect cross-bridge cycling?
(A) Actin (thin filament) moves past
[Pg-307,E]
myosin (thick filament)
(A) When [Ca2+] is low, the troponin-
(B) Myosin moves past actin
tropomyosin complex blocks actin's
(C) Both myosin and actin move past
binding site for myosin. When [Ca2+]
each other
is high, the complex rolls out of the
(D) None of these is correct
way, allowing myosin to bind to actin
40. Put the following phrases in proper order
and initiate the cross-bridge cycle.
to describe what occurs at the
(B) The troponin-tropomyosin complex
neuromuscular junction to trigger
regenerates ATP for the myosin
muscle contraction. [Pg-307,M]
ATPase.
I. Receptor sites on sarcolemma.
(C) The troponin-tropomyosin complex
II. Nerve impulse.
regulates calcium release from the
III. Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic
terminal cisternae.
reticulum
(D) The troponin-tropomyosin complex
IV. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine
binds to the myosin head, facilitating
is released
contact with the actin filaments
V. Sarcomere shorten
43. Relaxation of muscle is due to –
VI. Synaptic cleft
[Pg-307,E]
VII. Spread of impulses over
(A) Pumping of Ca+2 into sarcoplasmic
sarcolemma on T-tubules
cisternae
(A) II, IV, I, VI, VII, III, V
(B) Presence of ATP
(B) II, IV, VI, I, VII, III, V
(C) Conformational change in troponin
(C) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII
and masking of actin filaments
(D) VII, VI, V, IV, III, II, I
(D) A and C
41. Go through the following diagram
44. [Pg-308,E]
describing muscle contraction.
[Pg-307,E]
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The diagrams given above show 3 (B) A-II, IV, V, VI; B-I, III, VII, VIII
different condition of sarcomeres. (C) A-I, III, IV, VII; B – II, V, VI, VIII
Identify these conditions - (D) A- II, V, VI, VIII; B - I, III, IV, VII
(A) A– contracting, B - relaxed, C –
Para-20.3
maximally contracted
Skeletal System
(B) A – relaxed, B - contracting, C –
maximally contracted
50. Skeletal system consists of - [Pg-309,E]
(C) A- maximally contracted, B –
(A) Only bones
contracting, C - relaxed
(B) Only cartilage
(D) A- relaxed, B - maximally contracted,
(C) A framework of bones and a few
C–contracting
cartilage
45. When a skeletal muscle shortens during
(D) A framework of cartilage. and a few
contraction which of these statements is
bones
false? [Pg-307,E]
51. Bone has a very hard matrix due to
(A) The I-band shortens
presence of- [Pg-309,E]
(B) The A-band shortens
(A) NaCl (B) Ca-salts
(C) The H-zone becomes narrow
(C) K-salts (D) Fe-salts
(D) The sarcomeres shorten
52. Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due
46. The muscle band that remains
to - [Pg-309,E]
unchanged during muscle contraction
(A) Chondroitin salts
and relaxation of the skeletal muscle is –
(B) Osteoblast
[Pg-308,E]
(C) Chondroblasts
(A) I (B)A
(D) Osteoclast
(C) H (D) Z line
53. How many bones make up the human
skeleton? [Pg-309,E]
correct? [Pg-307,E]
(A) 948 (B) 96
(A) During muscle contraction chemical
(C) 796 (D) 206
energy changes into mechanical
54. Number of bones in human axial
energy
skeleton is - [Pg-309,E]
(B) Muscle fatigue is due to lactic acid
(A) 80 (B) 106
formation due to anaerobic
(C) 206 (D) None
respiration
55. Match Column I with Column II –
(C) The reaction time of the fibres can
[Pg-309,M]
vary in different muscles Column I Column II
(D) All (Number of
48. The compound or pigment acting as an bones)
oxygen store in skeletal muscles is –
[Pg-308,E] A. Cranium/Brainbox I. 29
(A) Myoglobin
(B) Haemoglobin B. Skull (Cranial and II. 8
(C) Myokinase or ATP facial bones)
(D) Cytochrome C. Face III. 14
49. I. Number of mitochondria less.
II. Number of mitochondria more D. Hind limb IV. 12 pairs
III. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is abundant E. Ribs V. 30
IV. Myoglobin content high
V. Sarcoplasmic reticulum moderate (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-V, E-IV
VI. Aerobic muscles (B) A- II, B - I, C - III, D - V, E - IV
VII. Depend on anaerobic respiration for (C) A - I, B - II, C- III, D - IV, E - V
energy (D) A- V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, A- I
VIII. Less myoglobin content 56. Hyoid/Tongue bone is - [Pg-309,E]
A. Red muscles (A) T-shaped (B) J-shaped
B. White muscles (C) U-shaped (D) L-shaped
Identify above (I to VIII) traits as 57. A normal human being has how many
characteristic of A and B types of ear ossicle? [Pg-309,E]
muscles- [Pg-307,308,M] (A) 3 (B) 6
(A) A- I, III, VII, VIII; B -II, IV, V, VI (C) 9 (D) None
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ZOOLOGY
58. Which one of the following is not (A) Dorsally, ventrally
included under ear ossicles - [Pg-309,E] (B) Ventrally, dorsally
(A) Malleus (B) Ileum (C) Dorsally, dorsally
(C) Incus (D) Stapes (D) Ventrally, Ventrally
59. Human Cranium has small 67. Typical ribs are - [Pg-310,E]
protuberance(s) at the posterior end (A) Monocephalic (B) Dicephalic
called __________ and ____ in number. (C) Tricephalic (D) Tetracephalic
[Pg-309,310,E] 68. Match Column I with Column II –
that articulates with first vertebra (atlas [Pg-310,M]
vertebra)- Column I Column II
(A) occipital condyle, 6
(B) occipital condyle, 2 A. True ribs I. 3 pairs
(C) occipital condyle, 4 B. False ribs II. 2 pairs
(D) occipital condyle, 3
60. Human skull is - [Pg-310,E] C. Floating ribs III. 7 pairs
(A) Dicondylic (B) Monocondylic
(C) Procoelous (D) Hetercoelous
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II
human vertebral column is false?
(C) A- III, B - II, C - I
[Pg-310,M]
(D) A-ll, B-l, C-III
(A) Vertebral column consists of 26
vertebrae
[Pg-310,M]
(B) It is ventrally placed
Column I Column II
(C) It extends from the base of skull and
A. False ribs I. 1st to 7th pair
constitutes the main framework of the B. True ribs II. 11th and 12th pair
trunk C. Floating ribs III. 8th to 10th pair
(D) Neural canal in vertebra is the D. Sternum IV. One
passage for spinal cord
62. Human adult vertebral formula is- (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D- IV
[Pg-310,E] (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D- I
(A) C4 T8 L4 S8 C8 (B) C7 T8 L5 S6 C7 (C) A- I, B - III, C - II, D- IV
(C) C7 T12 L2 S1 C2 (D) C7 T12 L5 S1 C1 (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D- IV
63. Which of the following vertebra in adult 70. Identify the ribs - [Pg-310,E]
human are fused ones? [Pg-310,E] a. Ribs are attached to the sternum
(A) Thoracic and lumber ventrally and to the vertebrae
(B) Thoracic and cervical dorsally.
(C) Sacral and coccygeal b. Ribs are attached to sternum through
(D) Cervical and coccygeal costal cartilage (hyaline) of 7th rib
64. Which of the following is not the function c. Ribs are not attached to sternum
of vertebral column? [Pg-310,M] I. True ribs
(A) Protects spinal cord and supports the II. False ribs
head III. Floating ribs
(B) Serves as the point of attachment for (A) a-I, b-II, c-III (B) a-I, b-III, c-II
ribs and musculature of the back (C) a-II, b-I, c-III (D) a-III, b -II, c-I
(C) Both 71. Which of the following ribs are called
(D) Supports Tarsals and Metacarpals vertebrochondral ribs? [Pg-310,E]
65. Which of the following is not correct (A) True ribs (B) False ribs
about sternum? [Pg-310,E] (C) GorIIIa ribs (D) Floating ribs
(A) It is commonly called breast bone 72. Rib cage is formed by all except –
(B) It is flat bone [Pg-310,E]
(C) It is 2 in number (A) Thoracic vertebrae
(D) It is located on the ventral mid line of (B) Lumbar vertebrae
thorax (C) Ribs
66. Each typical rib is a thin flat bone (D) Sternum
connected ____ to the vertebral column 73. Each limb (upper or lower) consists of
and ___________ to the sternum- how many bones – [Pg-310,E]
[Pg-310,E] (A) 30 (B) 60
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(C) 101 (D) 8 D - Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, G –
74. [Pg-310,E] Metacarpals
(D) A- Clavicle, B - Scapula, C -
Humerus, D - Radius, E - Ulna, F -
Carpals, G –Metacarpals
80. An acromion process is characteristically
found in - [Pg-311,E]
(A) Pelvic girdle of mammals
(B) Pectoral girdle of mammals
(C) Skull bone
(D) Vertebrae of mammals
The accompanied figure is rib cage.
81. The shoulder blade is large triangular
Identify A, Band C respectively-
bone situated in the dorsal part of the
(A) Coccyx, ribs, vertebral column
thorax between the 2nd and the 7th ribs.
(B) Sternum, ribs, vertebral column
[Pg-311,E]
(C) Scapula, ribs, vertebral column
It is called -
(D) Tarsal, ribs, vertebral column
(A) Clavicle (B) Ilium
75. Number of bones in human appendicular
(C) Scapula (D) Carpals
skeleton is - [Pg-310,E]
82. For articulation of head of humerus a
(A) 80 (B) 120
depression found in scapula is called –
(C) 126 (D) 206
[Pg-311,E]
76. Number of bone in each upper limb is –
(A) Acetabulum
[Pg-310,311,E]
(B) Manubrium
(A) 1, 1, 1
(C) Occipital condyle
(B) 8, 5, 14
(D) Glenoid cavity
(C) 2, 2, 2, 16, 10, 28
83. Which of the following statement is
(D) 1, 1, 1, 8, 5, 14
correct? [Pg-311,M]
77. Phalangeal/digital formula for human
(A) Pectoral and pelvic girdle bones help
hand/foot is- [Pg-311,E]
in the articulation of the upper and
(A) 0, 2, 2, 3 (B) 0, 2, 3, 3 ,3
lower limbs respectively with the axial
(C) 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 (D) 2, 3, 3, 3, 3
skeleton
78. The hand contains ____ carpals (wrist
(B) Each girdle is formed of 2 halves
bones), ____ metacarpals (palm bones),
(C) Each half of pectoral girdle consists of
and ___ phalanges. [Pg-311,E]
a clavicle (collar bone) and Scapula
(A) 14, 5, 8 (B) 5, 8, 14
(D) All
(C) 8, 5, 14 (D) 1, 5, 5
79. [Pg-311,E]
false? [Pg-311,M]
(A) Scapula has the spine which projects
as acromion process
(B) Below acromion process is a glenoid
cavity
(C) Each clavicle (collar bone) articulates
with acromion
(D) Clavicle is long S-shaped bone with 4
curvatures
The accompanied diagram shows right 85. Which one of the following is the longest
pectoral girdle and upper arm (frontal bone in human? [Pg-311,E]
view). Identify A to G (A) Radius
(A) A- 1st Vertebra, B - Scapula, C - (B) Tibia
Humerus, (C) Femur (Thigh bone)
D - Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, (D) Clavicle (Collar bone)
G - Metacarpals 86. Human foot consists of 26 bones. What
(B) A- Scapula, B - Clavicle, C - are the number of tarsals (ankle bones),
Humerus, metatarsals and phalanges? [Pg-311,E]
D – Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, (A) 7, 5, 14 (B) 5, 7, 14
G - Metacarpal (C) 1, 1, 5 (D) 5, 5, 5
(C) A- Ilium, B - Scapula, C - Humerus,
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87. A cup shaped bone covering knee (A) Joints are essential for all types of
ventrally is called - [Pg-311,E] movements involving bony parts
(A) Cuneiform (B) Tarsal (B) Joints are contact between bones or
(C) Patella (D) Carpal between bones and cartilages
88. Study the accompanying figure. Identify (C) Fibrous joints are immovable
A, B, C and D – [Pg-311,E] (D) Cartilaginous joint permit great
movement
[Pg-312,M]
Column I Column II
A. Hinge joint I. Between humerus and
pectoral girdle
B. Pivot joint II. Between carpals and
Metacarpals of thumb
C. Gliding III. Between the carpals
joint
D. Saddle IV. Between atlas and axis
joint
(A) A- Pubis, B - ilium, C - Ischium, D - E. Saddle V. Knee joint
Patella joint
(B) A- Ischium, B - Pubis, C - ileum, D–
(A) A- V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E - I
Patella
(B) A- I, B - II, C - II, D - V, E - IV
(C) A- ileum, B - Pubis, C - Ischium, D–
(C) A- I, B - III, C - II, D - V, E - IV
Patella
(D)A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-II
(D) A- ilium, B - Pubis, C - Ischium, D–
Patella
correct? [Pg-312,M]
89. Acetabulum occurs in - [Pg-311,E]
(A) Synovial joints are characterised by
(A) Cranium (B) Pectoral girdle
synovial cavity with fluid between the
(C) Pelvic girdle (D) Vertebrae
articulating surface of two· bones
90. Pelvic girdle (hip girdle) is composed ____
(B) Synovial joints are freely movable
coxal (hip) bones- [Pg-311,E]
(C) Ball and socket, hinge joint, gliding
(A) 3 (B) 2
joints, pivot joints and saddle joints
(C) 4 (D) 5
are the types of synovial joints
91. Pelvic girdle consists of-
(D) All
(A) Ileum, ischium and pubis
97. Joint between bones in the form of
(B) Ilium, ischium and pubis
sutures of human skull is -[Pg-312,E]
(C) Ilium, ischium and clavicle
(A) Hinge joint
(D) Coracoid, ischium and pubis
(B) Synovial joint
92. Two halves of pelvic girdle articulate
(C) Cartilaginous joint
ventrally at a fibrocartilaginous joint
(D) Fibrous joint
called - [Pg-311,E]
(A) Pubic symphysis
correct? [Pg-312,M]
(B) Synchodroses
(A) Movable skull bone is mandible
(C) Gomphoses
(B) We move our hands while walking for
(D) Sutures
balancing
93. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion
(C) Cartilaginous joints have little
of 3 bones named as - [Pg-311,E]
mobility due to fibrocartilage disc
(A) Ileum, ischium and pubis
between its articular ends e.g.
(B) Ilium, ischium and pubis
intervertebral disc between centre of
(C) Ilium, ischium and clavicle
vertebrae
(D) Coracoid, ischium and pubis
(D) All
Para - 20.4 Para-20.5 Disorders of Muscular and
Joints Skeletal System
99. A disease associated with joint is –
the joints is false? [Pg-311,312,M]
[Pg-312,E]
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(A) Glaucoma (A) Arthritis (B) Autoimmune
(B) Arthritis (C) Agnosic (D) Amnesic
(C) Paget's disease 103. Tetany is the rapid spasm in muscles due
(D) Homer's syndrome to – [Pg-312,E]
100. Gout is the inflammation of joints due to (A) High Ca+2 in body fluid
accumulation of - [Pg-312,E] (B) Low Ca+2 in body fluid
(A) Urea crystal (C) High uric acid in body fluid
(B) NH3 (D) High urea in blood
(C) Uric acid crystal 104. Progressive degeneration of skeletal
(D) CaCO3 crystals muscles due to genetic disorder is called
101. I. Age-related disorder characterised by –
decreased bone mass and increased [Pg-312,E]
chances of fracture (A) Myasthenia gravis
II. Causative factor deficiency of (B) Tetany
estrogen is common. (C) Muscular dystrophy
The above characters are associated with (D) Myopia
– [Pg-312,M] 105. Arthritis is - [Pg-312,E]
(A) Gout (B) Osteoporosis (A) Inflammation of muscles
(C) Arthritis (D) Polio (B) Inflammation of bone
102. Myasthenia is an ____ disorder affecting (C) Inflammation of joints
neuromuscular junction leading to (D) Inflammation of tongue
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of
skeletal muscles - [Pg-312,E]
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Answer Key
LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans A C D B D D D C D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D D D D A B C B D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A C A C B C C A D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C B B C A C B C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B A A B D B D A B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B A D A B C B B B A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D C C C A B B D C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B B A B C B D C D B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C D D D C A C D C B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B A B D D D D D B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105
Ans B B B C C
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9 NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
[Pg-316,M]
Introduction
A) Insects possess brain, ganglia and
neural tissues.
1. Coordination is considered as an
B) Hydra and planaria do not possess
important process in an animal body
nervous system at all.
because [Pg-315,E]
C) Hydra possess the least developed
A) it helps to maintain homeostasis.
nerve cord while insects contain
B) it enables different organs to interact
highly developed ventral nerve cord.
and function efficiently.
D) Planaria do not possess brain while a
C) it ensures the normal functioning of
rudimentary brain is found in
vital organs.
insects.
D) all of these
7. The ganglia found in insects are
2. The neural system within human body
[Pg-316,E]
provide [Pg-315,E]
A) masses of fat bodies
A) chemical coordination through
B) aggregated neurons which gives off
hormones
nerves
B) point to point connections
C) point where numerous neurons meet
C) electrical coordination
D) degenerated neuron masses
D) both (b) and (c)
8. Assertion: Nervous system and
3. Neurons are the specialised cells of
endocrine system jointly coordinate and
nervous system in [Pg-316,E]
integrate activities of organs.
A) humans only
Reason: Endocrine system regulate all
B) all vertebrates only
the activities of nervous system.
C) mostly all animals including
[Pg-315,H]
vertebrates and invertebrates
D) both (A) and (B)
4. The neurons in all animals are
Assertion.
capable of [Pg-316,M]
i. detecting various stimuli in
environment
explanation of Assertion.
ii. receiving and transmitting stimuli to
CNS
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
iii. processing various internal and
9. Assertion: Neural organisation become
external stimuli
complex in vertebrates as compared to
Select the most appropriate option.
invertebrates.
A) I, II and III are correct
Reason: The ganglion in insects acts as
B) Only II is correct
a brain. [Pg-316,H]
C) II and III are correct
D) I and II are correct
5. The nervous system of Hydra is
Assertion.
composed of [Pg-316,E]
A) brain and peripheral nerves
B) network of neurons
C) ganglia and plexuses
D) brain and nerve nets
6. Why is nervous system of insects
considered better organised as
compared to Hydra and Planaria? Para- 21.2
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Human Neural System

10. The two major divisions of human neural
system are [Pg-316,E]
A) CNS and brain
B) ANS and PNS
C) CNS and PNS
D) Brain and spinal cord Which of the following option is most
11. Consider the following statements. pertinent?
(A) Central nervous system is the major A) A and B are afferent nerves.
site of information processing. B) A is afferent nerve while B is efferent
(B) Central nervous system is composed nerve
of brain and cranial nerves. C) A is efferent nerve while A is afferent
Select the correct option. [Pg-316,M] nerve.
A) A is true, B is false. D) Both A and B are efferent nerves.
B) A is false, B is true. 16. Consider the following statements.
C) Both A and B are true. I. Two major division of CNS are
D) Both A and B are false. somatic neural system and
12. The major structural component of autonomic neural system.
peripheral nervous system is [Pg-316,E] II. Both somatic and autonomic
A) spinal cord B) nerves neural system are antagonistic in
C) visceral organs D) all of these their functions.
13. Refer to the given diagram and choose Select the correct option. [Pg-316,M]
the correct option accordingly. A) I is true, II is false.
[Pg-316,M] B) Both I and II are true.
C) I is false, II is true.
D) Both I and II are false.
17. Select the correct statement. [Pg-316,M]
A) Somatic neural system consists of
both afferent and efferent nerves.
B) Autonomic neural system consists of
only afferent fibres.
C) Only efferent nerves are found in
somatic and autonomic neural
system.
A) C is the major site of information D) Both afferent and efferent fibres are
processing. found in somatic and autonomic
B) A, B and C constitute central nervous neural system.
system. 18. The two divisions of autonomic nervous
C) C represents neurons. system are [Pg-316,E]
D) B is a component of CNS while ‘C’ A) antagonistic to each other
constitutes PNS. B) complementary to each other
14. The nerve fibres of PNS are [Pg-316,E] C) highly reduced and non-functional in
A) afferent humans
B) efferent D) functional as a single system in
C) both afferent and efferent humans
D) only motor 19. Visceral nervous system within human
15. Refer to the diagram representing the body [Pg-316,M]
transmission of impulse through PNS. (1) is the division of peripheral nervous
[pg-316,E] system.
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(2) is the division of central nervous

system.
(3) consists of nerve fibres and ganglia.
(4) carry impulses from one visceral
organ to another.
Which of the following option is the most
appropriate?
A) 1 and 2 are correct
B) 2 and 4 are correct Select the correct option.
C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct A B C
D) 2, 3, 4 are correct A) Spinal cord Afferent nerves Efferent nerves
20. Which component of neural system B) Somatic Parasympathetic Afferent and
would control the functioning of heart nervous nervous system efferent nerves
system
and stomach? [Pg-316,E]
A) Somatic neural system. C) Sympathetic Efferent nerves Afferent nerves
B) Only sympathetic nervous system. nervous
system
C) Only parasympathetic nervous
system. D) Somatic Sympathetic Parasympathetic
D) Both sympathetic and neural nervous system nervous system
system
parasympathetic nervous system.
21. Match the following columns:
23. Assertion: A person would not be able to
[Pg-316,M]
Column-I Column-II
perceive hot or cold sensation if afferent
fibres of PNS are degenerated in him.
(a) Afferent (1) Involuntarily
Reason: All the afferent nerve fibres are
fibres controlled
muscles
motor nerves. [Pg-316,H]
(b) Somatic (2) Carry impulse and Reason is correct explanation of
neural away from the Assertion.
system CNS B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
(c) Autonomi (3) Voluntarily
c neural controlled
system muscles C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Efferent (4) Carry impulse 24. Assertion: Autonomic nervous system is
fibres towards the controlled voluntarily by humans.
CNS Reason: All the muscular activities are
inhibited by sympathetic nervous
Which of the following is the correct
option? system. [Pg-316,H]
a b c d
(A) 2 1 3 4 Assertion.
(B) 2 3 1 4 B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
(C) 4 3 1 2 but Reason is not the correct
(D) 4 1 3 2 explanation of Assertion.
22. Identify A-C. [Pg-316,M] D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Para- 21.3 Neuron As Structural And
Functional Unit Of Neural System
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25. The basic structural components of a 32. While studying the structural details of
neuron are [Pg-316,E] a neuron, how would you distinguish an
A) cell body and axon axon from a dendrite? [Pg-317,M]
B) cell body and dendrites A) Axon is a long process whose distal
C) axon and dendrites end is branched.
D) cell body, axon and dendrites B) Dendrites are branched irregularly
26. Identify the incorrectly matched pair of while the axon gives off long
cell organelle found in neuron and its branches alternatively.
function. [Pg-316,317,E] C) Axon contains Nissl’s granules while
A) Nucleus – Contain DNA dendrites do not.
B) Mitochondria – Energy production D) Axons are numerous while each
C) Golgi apparatus – Protein synthesis neuron contain only two dendrites.
D) Lysosomes – Scavengers of neurons 33. Synaptic knob [Pg-317,M]
27. Neurons differ from a typical cell (1) is terminal bulb-like structure of
because of the presence of [Pg-316,E] dendrites and axons.
A) nucleolus (2) contains neurotransmitter – filled
B) Nissl’s granules vesicles.
C) protein synthesizing machinery (3) is a protoplasmic extension of cell
D) microfilaments body.
28. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of Which of the following option is most
[Pg-316,E] appropriate?
A) proteins and lipids A) 1 and 2 are correct
B) DNA and RNA B) Only 3 is correct
C) nucleic acids and SER C) Only 2 is correct
D) free ribosomes and RER D) 1 and 3 are correct
29. The dendrites of a neuron are 34. Consider the following statements. [Pg-
[Pg-317,M] 317,M]
A) long, unbranched processes (A) Axons carry impulse away from the
associated with cell body and axon cell body.
B) short, highly branched processes of (B) The synaptic knob of axons are found
cell body in contact with neuro-muscular
C) long and branched processes of cell junctions.
body Select the correct option.
D) short, unbranched processes of cell A) A is true, B is false.
body and axon B) Both A and B are false.
30. Which of the following characteristic is C) Both A and B are true.
correct about dendrites? [Pg-317,E] D) A is false, B is true.
A) non-functional, degenerating axons 35. Refer to the given diagram of the
B) involved in carrying impulse away structure of a neuron and identify A, B
from the cell body and C. [Pg-317,M]
C) involved in transmitting impulse
toward the cell body
D) involved in transmitting impulse
toward and away from the cell body
31. The only similarity between the cell body
and dendrites is the presence of
[Pg-317,E]
A) golgi bodies
B) Nissl’s granules Select the correct option.
C) nucleus A B C
D) mitochondria
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(A) Nissl’s granule Axon Schwann Cell 40. Select the correct statement regarding
unipolar neuron. [Pg-317,M]
A) It contains cell body only.
(B) Schwann cell Nodes of Synaptic Knob
Ranvier
B) It contains one dendrite and one
(C) Synaptic Knob Dendrite Synaptic Knob axon.
C) It contains one dendrite and one cell
(D) Nucleus Myelin Nissl’s granule body only.
sheath D) It contains one axon only.
41. Match the following columns. [Pg-317,E]
36. Match the following columns. Column-I Column-II
[Pg-317,M] (Types of (Location)
Column-I Column-II Neurons)
(a) Neurotransmitters (1) Ribosomal (a) Multipolar (1) Embryonic
granules neuron stages
(b) Nissl’s granules (2) Short and (b) Bipolar (2) Retina of eyes
branched neuron
(c) Dendrites (3) Containedin (c) Unipolar (3) Cerebral cortex
synaptic neuron
knob
(d) Axon (4) Carry impulse a b c
away from
A) 3 2 1
cell body
B) 2 1 3
Select the correct option. C) 1 3 2
a b c d D) 2 3 1
A) 1 3 2 4
B) 3 1 4 2 42. Consider the following statements.
[Pg-317,M]
C) 3 1 2 4
(A) Myelinated and non-myelinated
D) 1 3 4 2 neurons are differentiated on the
basis of type of neurons.
37. On what basis, neurons are classified as
(B) Humans contain only myelinated
unipolar, bipolar or multipolar?
neurons.
[Pg-317,E]
A) Transmission of impulse
A) A is true, B is false.
B) Number of axons and dendrites
B) A is false, B is true.
C) Sensory or motor nature
C) Both A and B are true.
D) Number of nucleus within cell body
D) Both A and B are false.
38. A neuron with one axon and one
43. The myelin sheath around the axons is
dendrite is known [Pg-317,E]
formed by [Pg-317,M]
A) unipolar B) bipolar
A) osteocytes and astrocytes
C) nonpolar D) multipolar
B) astrocytes and Schwann cells
39. A multipolar neuron contains multiple
C) Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes
[Pg-317,E]
D) oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts
A) dendrites
44. Nodes of Ranvier are [Pg-317E]
B) axons
A) granulated bodies in cytoplasm
C) axons and dendrites
B) gaps between adjacent myelin sheath
D) synaptic bulbs
on axons
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C) modulated bodies at the ends of 49. Select the incorrect statement.

dendrites [Pg-317,M]
D) vesicles at the terminal ends of axons A) Neurons possess the excitability due
45. The myelinated neurons are found in to their polarised membranes.
[Pg-317,E] B) Neural membrane contains different
A) cranial nerves types of ion channels.
B) spinal nerves C) A resting neuron is not permeable to
C) nerves of ANS any ion.
D) cranial and spinal nerves D) During polarised state, conduction of
46. Consider the following statements. nerve impulse does not occur along
(A) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are axonal membrane.
commonly found in the cranial 50. The potential difference across an axonal
nerves. membrane during rest is maintained by
(B) Unmyelinated nerve fibres transmit [Pg-317,E]
impulse at slower rate. A) Na+ and Cl- ions
Select the correct option. [Pg-317,M] B) Na+ and K+ ions
A) Both A and B are true. C) K+ and Cl- ions
B) A is true, B is false. D) Na+ and HCO3 - ions
C) Both A and B are false. 51. The resting axonal membrane is
D) A is false, B is true. [Pg-317,E]
47. Assertion: The axons of neurons can (1) permeable to K+ ions.
receive signals from other neurons. (2) permeable to Na+ ions.
Reason: A multipolar neuron contains (3) impermeable to negatively charged
numerous axons. [Pg-317,H] proteins of axoplasm.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true Select the correct option.
and Reason is correct explanation of A) 1 and 2 are correct.
Assertion. B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, C) 2 and 3 are correct.
but Reason is not the correct D) 1 and 3 are correct.
explanation of Assertion. 52. Consider the following statements.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (A) At rest, the axoplasm inside the axon
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. contain low concentration of K + ions.
48. Assertion: The speed of nerve impulse (B) The concentration gradient across
along axon would slowdown in the axonal membrane is generated due to
absence of Schwann cells. the different concentration of Na+ and
Reason: Schwann cells are abundantly K + ions across it.
found in cells body of neurons. Select the correct option. [Pg-317,M]
[Pg-317,H] A) A is true, B is false.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Both A and B are false.
and Reason is correct explanation of C) A is false, B is true.
Assertion. D) Both A and B are true.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, 53. When a neuron is not conducting any
but Reason is not the correct impulse i.e. resting, the axonal
explanation of Assertion. membrane is – [Pg-317,M]
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. A) Comparatively more permeable to K +
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. and impermeable (nearly
Para- 21.3.1 impermeable) to Na +
Generation, Conduction and B) Impermeable to negatively charged

proteins present in the axoplasm
Transmission of Nerve Impulses
C) Both
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D) More permeable to Na+ ions than K + B) positive charge inside and negative
ion. charge outside.
54. In a resting axonal membrane C) positive charge outside and negative
[Pg-317,E] charge inside.
A) both outside and inside fluid is D) negative charge at both outside and
positively charged. inside.
B) both outside and inside fluid is 58. Na − K + pump
+
[Pg-317,E]
negatively charged. I. Needs energy (ATP) to work
C) outside fluid is positively charged II. Expels 3 Na+ for every 2K+ ions
while inside is negatively charged. imported
D) inside fluid is positively charged III. Works against a concentration
while outside is negatively charged. gradient
55. Match the following columns. [Pg-317,E] IV. Maintains resting potential
Column-I Column-II A) All are correct
(a) Na+ ions (1) More inside,less B) Only II and III are correct
during resting inside C) Only I and III are correct
stage D) None is correct
59. Consider the following statements.
(b) K+ ions during (2) More outside, (A) The stimulus-induced increased
resting stage less inside permeability of Na+ ions helps in the
conduction of action potential.
(c) Action potential (3) Depolarised (B) Increased permeability of K+ ions
Membrane helps to restore the resting potential
(d) Resting (4) Polarised of the membrane.
potential membrane Select the correct option. [Pg-318,M]
Select the correct option. B) Both A and B are true.
a b c d C) A is false, B is true.
A) 2 1 4 3 D) Both A and B are false.
B) 2 1 3 4 [Pg-317,318,M]
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 1 2 4 3 Column-I Column-II
56. What change would you find in a (a) Synaptic (1) Bind to
polarised membrane after a stimulus is vesicles neurotransmitters
applied at a particular point (P)?
[Pg-318,M] (b) Receptors of (2) Contain
A) The whole membrane becomes post- neurotransmitters
impermeable to Na+ ions. synaptic
B) At point P, the membrane allows membrane
movement of Na+ and K+ equally.
C) At point P, the membrane becomes
permeable to Na+ ions. (c) Electrical (3) Rare in human
D) At point P, the membrane becomes synapse system
impermeable to both Na+ and K+
(d) Chemical (4) Slow conduction
ions.
synapse of nerve impulse
57. A depolarised axonal membrane
contains [Pg-318,E]
A) equal amount of Na+ and K+ ions at Select the correct option.
outside and inside. a b c d
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A) 2 1 3 4 C) neurotransmitters
D) proenzymes
B) 2 1 4 3
C) 1 2 3 4 (A) The neurotransmitters help in the
D) 1 2 4 3 transmission of impulses at chemical
synapses.
(B) Neurotransmitters have no role in
61. Which of the following set of structures
electrical synapses. Select the correct
constitutes a synapse? [Pg-318,E]
statement. [Pg-319,M]
A) Axon terminal, synaptic vesicles,
receptors.
B) A is false, B is true.
B) Presynaptic and pest synaptic
C) Both A and B are false.
membranes.
D) Both A and B are true.
C) Synaptic cleft, receptors, post
67. The neurotransmitter-filled synaptic
synaptic membrane.
vesicles are found in [Pg-319,E]
D) Presynaptic membrane, synaptic
A) post synaptic membranes
cleft, post synaptic membrane.
B) receptor sites of post-synaptic
62. During an action potential [Pg-317,E]
vesicles
(1) impulse is conducted along the axons
C) axon-terminal
(2) Na+ ions move outwards
D) tips of dendrites
(3) permeability of membrane to K+ ions
68. From the following diagram of axon
decreases
terminal and synapse, identify at least
two correctly labelled structures.
A) 1, 2, 3 are correct.
[Pg-319,E]
B) 1 and 2 are correct.
C) 1 and 3 are correct.
D) Only 1 is correct.
Para- 21.3.2
Transmission of impulses
63. Synapse is a junction between

A) B – Receptor, C – Neurotransmitter
[Pg-319,E]
B) A – Synaptic Vesicles, E – Receptor
A) two neurons
C) C – Post synaptic membrane, D – K +
B) CNS and PNS
ions
C) spinal cord and nerves
D) D – 𝑁𝑎+ ions, A – Neurotransmitters
D) cell body and axon
69. To release the neurotransmitters,
64. Select the incorrect statement
synaptic vesicles [Pg-319,M]
[Pg-319,M]
(1) get burst open
A) Synaptic cleft is not necessarily
(2) require stimulation through action
found between all the neurons.
potential
B) At synapse, the impulse travels along
(3) get digested by the lysosomes at axon
the single direction, i.e., from pre-
terminals
synaptic to post synaptic membrane.
Which of the following option is most
C) Electrical synapses are rare in
appropriate?
human body.
A) 1 and 2 are correct.
D) Chemical synapses are faster than
B) 2 is correct.
the electrical synapses.
C) 2 and 3 are correct.
65. The chemicals found in the synaptic cleft
D) 1 is correct.
are known as [Pg-319,E]
70. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are
A) prohormones
present on [Pg-320,E]
B) hormones
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A) membranes of synaptic vesicles

Para- 21.4 Central Nervous System
B) pre-synaptic membrane
C) tips of axons
D) post-synaptic membranes
(A) Brain is the central control system of
71. The opening of ion-channels on post-
human body.
synaptic membrane generates
(B) Brain can control both voluntary
[Pg-320,E]
movements and functioning of vital
A) excitatory potential
involuntary organs.
B) inhibitory potential
Select the correct option. [Pg-320,M]
C) either (a) or (b)
D) no action potential
B) Both A and B are false.
72. Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.
C) A is false, B is true.
Reason: The membrane of neurons
remain in polarised state.
76. Select the incorrect statement.
[Pg-319,320,H]
[Pg-320,M]
A) Brain is protected by the skull.
B) Human brain can regulate
Assertion.
thermoregulation and circadian
rhythm of body.
C) Inside the skull, humans possess two
cranial meninges.
D) Processing of vision and speech
occur in human brain.
73. Assertion: The resting axonal membrane
77. The cranial meninges from outer to inner
possess positive charge outside.
region of brain are [Pg-320,E]
Reason: The concentration of K+ ions is
A) dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
higher outside the axonal membrane at
B) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
rest. [Pg-319,H]
C) arachnoid, Pia mater, dura mater
D) arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater
78. Which cranial meninges is in contact
Assertion.
with brain tissue? [Pg-320,E]
A) Dura mater and arachnoid
B) Arachnoid and pia mater
C) Pia mater
D) Dura mater
79. All the given structures are included in
74. Assertion: Synaptic cleft is the point of
forebrain except [Pg-321,E]
fusion of pre-synaptic and post synaptic
A) cerebrum B) hypothalamus
membrane at synapse.
C) pons D) thalamus
Reason: Impulse transmission across
chemical synapse is faster than that
[Pg-321,M]
across an electrical synapse. [Pg-319,H]
Column-I Column-II
and Reason is correct explanation of (a) Cerebrum (1) Grey matter
Assertion. of brain
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, (b) Cerebral (2) Major part of
but Reason is not the correct cortex human brain
(c) Corpus (3) Tract of
callosum nerve fibres
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
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(d) Associationareas (4) Neither

sensory nor
motor in
function
Which of the following is the correct

option?
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 1 4 1 2
Identify the parts labelled as A–D.
D) 3 2 4 1
A B C D
81. The two longitudinal cerebral
A) Cerebrum Medulla Cerebell Medulla
hemispheres are connected by um
[Pg-321,E]
A) cerebral cortex B) association area B) Hypothala Cerebell Medulla Pons
C) corpus callosum D) corpus albicans mus um
82. Cerebral cortex is [Pg-321,E] C) Corpus Thalam Pons Cerebra l
A) outer folded layer of cerebrum callosum us aqueduct
B) non-functional area of cerebrum
C) inner white layer of cerebrum and
cerebellum D) Thalamus Corpus Medulla Cerebell
D) only functional area of cerebrum callosu um
83. Select the correct statement regarding m
cerebral cortex. [Pg-321,M]
A) It is white in appearance due to the 87. Thalamus in human brain [Pg-321,M]
presence of axons in it. (1) is surrounded by cerebrum.
B) It is white in appearance due to the (2) acts as a major coordinating centre
presence of cell bodies of neurons. for sensory and motor signalling.
C) It is grey in appearance due to the (3) is under the direct control of
presence of cell bodies of neurons. hypothalamus.
D) It is grey in appearance due to the Which of the following option is most
presence of axons in it. appropriate?
84. The cerebral cortex contains [Pg-321,E] A) 1 and 2 are correct.
A) motor areas B) 2 and 3 are correct.
B) sensory areas C) only 3 is correct.
C) motor and sensory areas D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
D) motor, sensory and association areas 88. The structure found at the base of
85. The inner region of cerebral hemisphere thalamus [Pg-321,E]
[Pg-321,E] A) is vestigial organ.
A) is grey in appearance B) controls urge of eating and drinking.
B) contain axonal fibres covered by C) involved in thermoregulation.
myelin sheath D) both (b) and (c).
C) contain cell bodies of the neurons 89. Hypothalamic hormones are secreted by
D) both (b) and (c) [Pg-321,E]
86. Refer to the diagram showing sagittal A) glial cells
section of human brain. [Pg-320,E] B) Schwann cells
C) oligodendrocytes
D) neurosecretory cells
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90. Which part of the brain is responsible for (b) White matter (2) Neurosecretory
thermoregulation? [Pg-321,E] cells
A) Hypothalamus
(c) Amygdala (3) Between
B) Corpus callosum
thalamus and
C) Medulla oblongata
pons
D) Cerebrum
(d) Midbrain (4) Part of limbic
91. Which of the following structure or
region is incorrectly paired with its system
function? [Pg-321,M]
A) Medulla oblongata: Controls Select the correct option.
respiration and cardiovascular a b c d
reflexes. A) 3 2 1 4
B) Limbic system: Consists of fibre B) 2 1 4 3
tracts that interconnect different C) 1 3 2 4
regions of brain; controls movement. D) 4 2 3 1
C) Hypothalamus: Production of
releasing hormones and regulation of 96. Cerebral aqueduct is found in
temperature, hunger and thirst. [Pg-321,E]
D) Corpus callosum: Band of fibres A) forebrain
connecting left and right cerebral B) midbrain
hemispheres. C) hindbrain
92. Limbic system within human brain is D) in between forebrain and midbrain
found [Pg-321,M] 97. Corpora quadrigemina are [Pg-321,E]
A) at the base of brain stem A) four rounded swellings at dorsal
B) inner portion of cerebral portion of midbrain.
hemispheres B) two plate-like structures which
C) adjacent to cerebellum separate forebrain and midbrain.
D) above the cerebral cortex C) circular hollow brain ventricles
93. All the listed structures are the parts of containing cerebrospinal fluid.
limbic system except [Pg-321,E] D) elongated, cylindrical canals which
A) Hippocampus connect midbrain to brainstem.
B) amygdala Hindbrain
C) medulla 98. Which of the following structures is not
D) hypothalamus found in hindbrain? [Pg-321,E]
94. Consider the following statements. A) Pons B) Cerebellum
(A) Limbic system regulates endocrine C) Medulla D) Hippocampus
activities along with hypothalamus. 99. What is the function of pons? [Pg-321,E]
(B) Limbic system helps to regulate A) It conveys information from midbrain
excitement, pleasure, rage and fear. to target organs.
Select the correct option. [Pg-321,M] B) It controls involuntary smooth
A) A is true, B is false. muscles and voluntary skeletal
B) Both A and B are true. muscles.
C) A is false, B is true. C) It interconnects different regions of
D) Both A and B are false. the brain.
95. Match the following columns. D) All of these.
[Pg-320,321,M] 100. How can cerebellum be differentiated
Column-I Column-II from the pons of hindbrain? [Pg-321,M]
(a) Hypothalamus (1) Inner part of A) Cerebellum has white matter outside
cerebral cortex while pons contain grey matter
outside.
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B) Cerebellum has highly convoluted C) 3 4 1 2

surface while pons contain fibre D) 1 2 3 4
tracts.
C) Cerebellum is smaller in size as 105. Assertion: Cerebral cortex appear grey in
compared to pons. colour.
D) All of these. Reason: It contains the cell bodies of the
101. Consider the following statements. neurons. [Pg-321,H]
(A) Cerebellum is a part of hindbrain. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
(B) Cerebellum helps to maintain body and Reason is correct explanation of
posture and equilibrium. Assertion.
Select the correct option. [Pg-321,M] B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
A) A is true, B is false. but Reason is not the correct
B) Both A and B are false. explanation of Assertion.
C) Both A and B are true. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) A is false, B is true. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
102. The medulla oblongata [Pg-321,M] 106. Assertion: Association areas can carry
(1) is a part of hindbrain. out complex functions like
(2) control autonomic functions like communication and memory.
breathing, heart rate, etc Reason: These areas are completely
(3) relay motor and sensory signals motor in nature. [Pg-321,H]
between spinal cord and higher brain A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
regions. Select the most appropriate and Reason is correct explanation of
option. Assertion.
A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
B) 1 and 2 are correct. but Reason is not the correct
C) Only 1 is correct. explanation of Assertion.
D) Only 2 is correct. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
103. The brain stem is formed by [Pg-320,E] D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
A) forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain 107. Assertion: Damage of limbic system
B) midbrain, hindbrain would affect the emotional behaviour of
C) cerebrum, cerebellum, spinal cord a person.
D) midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata Reason: The amygdale is the emotion
104. Match the following columns. centre of the brain. [Pg-321,H]
[Pg-320,321,M] A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Column-I Column-II and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
(a) Brain stem (1) Emotions B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
(b) Cerebellum (2) Brain ventricle explanation of Assertion.
Containing C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
CSF D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(c) Limbic (3) Breathing and Para- 21.5
system consciousness Reflex Actions and Reflex arc
(d) Cerebral (4) Balance and 108. Reflex action is [Pg-322,E]
aqueduct coordination A) voluntarily controlled response of
Select the correct option. CNS.
B) involuntary response to peripheral
a b c d
nervous stimulation.
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 1 4 3
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C) involuntary response to
environmental stimulus which does
not involve CNS.
D) Both (B) and (C)
109. The reflex actions are controlled by
[Pg-322,E]
A) CNS B) PNS
C) ANS D) Both (B) and (C)
110. The reflex pathway is composed of
[Pg-322,E] Select the correct option.
A) afferent neurons only A B C
B) efferent neurons only
A) White Afferent Efferent
C) motor neurons only
matter nerve nerve
D) Both (A) and (B)
111. Consider the following statements. B) Dorsal Interneuron Motor
[Pg-322,M] root endplate
(A) Afferent neurons are found close to ganglion
the sensory organs. C) Grey White Interneuron
(B) The efferent neurons carry signals Matter matter
from CNS to the effectors.
Select the correct option. D) Motor Grey receptor
A) A is true, B is false. neuron matter
C) A is false, B is true. 116. Assertion: All autonomic actions of body
D) Both A and B are true. are reflex action.
112. Which of the following option represents Reason: Reflex actions do not require
the correct sequence of nerve impulse CNS. [Pg-322,H]
transmission in a reflex arc? [Pg-322,M] A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
A) Interneuron Dorsal root ganglion and Reason is correct explanation of
Sensory organ Assertion.
B) CNS Efferent neuron Interneuron B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
C) Sensory organ Afferent neuron but Reason is not the correct
Dorsal root ganglion explanation of Assertion.
D) Efferent neuron CNS Afferent neuron C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
113. In a reflex arc, what is the role of an D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
interneuron? [Pg-322E] 117. Assertion: Sneezing in response to an
A) It relays impulse to effector at motor allergen is reflex action
end plate. Reason: It is an involuntary action.
B) It transmits impulse from the white [Pg-322,H]
matter to grey matter of spinal cord. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
C) It receives impulse from afferent and Reason is correct explanation of
neuron and transmits it to motor Assertion.
neuron. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
D) It connects two dorsal root ganglions. but Reason is not the correct
114. Among the following listed structures, explanation of Assertion.
knee-jerk doesn’t involve [Pg-322,E] C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
A) motor neuron B) spinal cord D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) interneuron D) brain 118. Assertion: In a reflex arc, efferent neuron
115. In the given diagram of reflex action, receives signal from sensory organ.
identify A, B and C. [Pg-322,M] Reason: The afferent neuron relays
impulses to PNS in a reflex arc.
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[Pg-322,H] (B) The tongue detects taste through

A) Both Assertion and Reason are true taste buds.
and Reason is correct explanation of Select the correct option. [Pg-323,M]
Assertion. A) A is true, B is false.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, B) Both A and B are false.
but Reason is not the correct C) A is false, B is true.
explanation of Assertion. D) Both A and B are true.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. 125. Assertion: The sense of olfaction is
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. concerned with limbic system.
Reason: Olfactory bulb is a part of
cerebrum. [Pg-323,H]
Para-21.6
Sense Organs: Nose and Tongue and Reason is correct explanation of
119. Consider the following statements. Assertion.
(A) The olfactory receptors help us to B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
receive the sense of smell. but Reason is not the correct
(B) The olfactory receptors are coated by explanation of Assertion.
mucus. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
Select the correct option. [Pg-323,M] D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
A) A is true, B is false. 126. Assertion: Gustatory cells gets directly
B) Both A and B are false. activated after being exposed to
C) A is false, B is true. dissolved chemicals.
D) Both (A) and (B) are true. Reason: Three cranial nerves carry taste
120. The olfactory epithelium is made up of stimulus to brain. [Pg-323,H]
[Pg-323,E] A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
A) sensory cells and Reason is correct explanation of
B) basal cells Assertion.
C) sensory, sustentacular and basal B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
cells but Reason is not the correct
D) sustentacular and sensory cells explanation of Assertion.
121. The olfactory epithelium neurons C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
transmit the signals from [Pg-323,E] D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
A) environment to olfactory bulb Para- 21.6.1 Eye
B) one olfactory bulb to another
C) olfactory bulb to PNS 127. Select the incorrect statement.
D) environment to CNS [Pg-324,E]
122. To which region of brain, olfactory bulb A) The sockets of skull containing eyes
is connected? [Pg-323,E] are orbits.
A) Cerebrum B) The wall of eyes is made up of two
B) Limbic system layers.
C) Cerebral aqueduct C) Retina is the innermost layer of eye
D) Corpus callosum ball.
123. Gustation and olfaction are achieved D) None of these.
through [Pg-323,E] 128. The outermost, middle and innermost
A) proprioceptors layers of eyeball are [Pg-323,E]
B) mechanoreceptors A) sclera, choroid, retina
C) baroreceptors B) retina, cornea, iris
D) chemoreceptors C) iris, sclera, cornea
124. Consider the following statements. D) choroid, cornea, retina
(A) The gustatory receptors are found at 129. Consider the following statements.
the base of tongue.
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(A) Cornea is the anterior portion of 134. What is the correct description about
sclera. iris? [Pg-324,E]
(B) Cornea helps to refract the light A) Nonvascular, opaque portion of eye
entering the eyes. B) Pigmented, opaque and vascular
Select the correct option. [Pg-323,M] structure of eye.
A) A is true, B is false. C) Nonvascular, visible coloured portion
B) Both A and B are false. of eye.
C) A is false, B is true. D) Vascular, non-pigmented posterior
D) Both A and B are true. most portion of eye.
130. Which of the following statement is 135. The transparent lens in the human eye
correct? [Pg-323,M] is held in its place by [Pg-324,E]
A) Cornea consists of dense connective A) ligament attached to ciliary body
tissue of elastin and can repair B) ligaments attached to the iris
itself. C) smooth muscles attached to the iris
B) Cornea is convex, transparent layer D) smooth muscles attached to the
which is highly vascularised. ciliary body
C) Cornea consists of dense matrix of 136. An aperture in front of lens is called
collagen and is the most sensitive [Pg-324,E]
portion of the eye. A) fovea B) blind spot
D) Cornea is an external, transparent C) pupil D) iris
and protective proteinaceous 137. The diameter of pupil is regulated by
covering of the eyeball. [Pg-324,E]
131. Match the following columns. A) aqueous humor B) retina
[Pg-323,324,M] C) rods D) iris
Column-I Column-II 138. How many neural cells are found in
(a) Retina (1) Contains retina? [Pg-324,E]
blood vessels A) Two B) Five
C) Three D) Four
(b) Sclera (2) Neural cells
139. The arrangement of neural cells in retina
(c) Choroid (3) Dense from inside to outside is [Pg-324,E]
connective A) ganglion cells, bipolar cells,
tissue photoreceptors cells.
Select the correct option. B) photoreceptor cells, ganglion cells,
a b c bipolar cells.
A) 1 2 3 C) bipolar cells, ganglion cells,
B) 3 1 2 photoreceptor cells.
C) 1 3 2 D) bipolar cells, photoreceptor cells,
ganglion cells.
D) 2 3 1
140. Within retina, the rods and cones are the
132. Which of the following statement is type of [Pg-324,E]
correct regarding choroid? [Pg-323,E] A) bipolar and photoreceptor cells,
A) It contains numerous blood vessels. respectively
B) It has no role in vision. B) ganglion cells
C) It is the major component of the lens C) photoreceptor cells
of eyes. D) photoreceptor and ganglion cells
D) It secretes aqueous humor. 141. Consider the following statements.
133. The ciliary body is the anterior part of (A) Photopigments are light sensitive
[Pg-323,E] proteins in rods and cones.
A) sclera B) retina (B) Rods contain rhodopsin while cones
C) cornea D) choroid contain three different type of
photopigments.
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Select the correct option. [Pg-324,M] (2) contains opsin protein.

A) A is true, B is false. (3) contains retinene which is an
B) Both A and B are true. aldehyde of vitamin D.
C) A is false, B is true. Select the most appropriate option.
D) Both A and B are false. A) 1 and 2 are correct.
142. Match the following columns. B) 1 and 3 are correct.
[Pg-324,M] C) Only 2 is correct.
Column-I Column-II D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(a) Iris (1) Secrete aqueous 146. Good vision depends on adequate intake
humor of carotene rich food.
Select the best option from the following
(b) Ciliary (2) Photosensitive
body layer of eye
statements. [Pg-324,M]
(A) Vitamin A derivatives are formed
(c) Retina (3) Devoid of receptor from carotene.
cells (B) The photopigments are embedded in
(d) Blind (4) Regulate the the membrane discs of the inner
spot amount of light segment.
entering into eyes (C) Retinal is derivative of Vitamin A.
(D) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all
Select the correct option. the visual photopigments.
a b c d Options:
A) B, C, A B) A, B
A) 2 3 4 1
C) A, C, D D) A, C
B) 4 1 2 3 147. Which of the following options is wrong?
C) 1 2 3 4 [Pg-324,E]
D) 3 4 1 2 A) Eye muscles are attached with sclera
B) Visual purple 1s concerned with dim
143. The cone cells of retina provide light, while visual violet is concerned
[Pg-324,E] with bright light
A) photopic vision C) The colour differentiation is done by
B) colour vision cones
C) photopic and colour vision D) None
D) scotopic vision 148. What would happen if the three
144. Which of the following statements is not photopigments of cone cells are
correct? [Pg-324,M] stimulated equally? [Pg-324,E]
A) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is A) No colour vision and daylight vision
the stretching of muscle and would be produced.
response is its contraction. B) Sensation of black light would be
B) An action potential in an axon does produced
not move backward because the C) Sensation of white light would be
segment behind is in a refractory produced.
phase. D) Mosaic vision of different colours
C) Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea would be produced.
results in the opening of the 149. Photosensitive compound in human eye
mechanically gated potassium-ion is made up of [Pg-324,E]
channels. A) opsin and retinal
D) Rods are very sensitive and B) opsin and retinol
contribute to daylight vision. C) transducin and retinene
145. Rhodopsin in the rod cells of retina D) guanosine and retinol
[Pg-324E] 150. Consider the following statements.
(1) is purplish-red protein.
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(A) The optic nerves and blood vessels A) B C A D

enter the eyes through blind spot. B) G B D A
(B) Blind spot contains abundant rod
cells but no cone cells. Select the C) F B E G
correct option. [Pg-324,M] D) D A B C
B) Both A and B are false. 155. The light rays of visible wavelength are
C) A is false, B is true. focused on [Pg-324]
D) Both A and B are true. A) retina through cornea
151. Select the correct statement. [Pg-324,M] B) lens through pupil
A) Macula lutea is a red coloured spot at C) pupil through iris
the entrance of optic nerves. D) retina through iris
B) Fovea is the central portion of macula 156. How does the potential differences
lutea, containing abundant cone generated in photoreceptor cells when
cells. light of suitable wavelength enters the
C) Macula lutea is the only structure of human eye? [Pg-324,E]
retina which contain rod and cone A) Light cause chemical modification of
cells. rhodopsin and iodopsin so that they
D) No true image is formed at fovea due form a new compound.
to the overlapping of photoreceptor B) Light causes the conversion of opsin
cells. to retinal.
152. The point of greatest visual acuity in C) Light causes dissociation of opsin
human eye is [Pg-324E] and retinal so as to cause structural
A) fovea B) blind spot changes of opsin.
C) iris D) pupil D) Light causes destruction of opsin and
153. Consider the following statements. retinal so that iodopsin can change
(A) Aqueous chamber containing membrane potential.
aqueous humor is found in the space 157. The route of transmission of action
between lens and retina. potential by optic nerves to visual cortex
(B) Vitreous chamber containing of brain is [Pg-324,E]
vitreous humor is found in the space A) Photoreceptor cells » Bipolar cells »
between lens and cornea. Ganglion cells.
Select the correct option. [Pg-324,M] B) Ganglion cells » Bipolar cells »
A) A is true, B is false. Photoreceptor cells
B) Both A and B are false. C) Bipolar cells » Photoreceptor cells »
C) A is false, B is true. Ganglion cells
D) Both A and B are true. D) Bipolar cells » Ganglion cells »
154. In the given structure of human eye, Photoreceptor cells
identify the location of fovea, cornea 158. Assertion: Sclera and cornea form the
choroid and sclera. [Pg-323,E] fibrous coat of human eye.
Reason: Sclera and cornea contain
abundant blood vessels. [Pg-323,H]
Assertion.
Fovea Cornea Choroid Sclea D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
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159. Assertion: The posterior region of the D) Krause’s glands

eyeball possesses the points of no vision 164. The membrane found between the outer
and maximum visual resolution. and middle ear is [Pg-325,E]
Reason: Fovea contain abundant rod A) basilar membrane
cells but lack cone cells. [Pg-324H] B) Reissner’s membrane
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true C) tympanic membrane
and Reason is correct explanation of D) tectorial membrane
Assertion. 165. The outer and inner surface of tympanic
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, membrane is composed of [Pg-325,E]
but Reason is not the correct A) connective tissues
explanation of Assertion. B) mucus membrane
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) mucus membrane outside and
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. connective tissue inside
160. Assertion: Neural impulses are analysed D) connective tissue outside and mucus
by the visual cortex of the brain. membrane inside
Reason: Image formed on retina is 166. The middle ear consists of [Pg-325,E]
recognised based on earlier memory and A) ear ossicles
experience. [Pg-324,H] B) cochlea and labyrinth
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true C) auditory meatus and tympanic
and Reason is correct explanation of membrane
Assertion. D) ear ossicles and cochlea
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, 167. Match the following columns.
but Reason is not the correct [Pg-325,M]
explanation of Assertion. Column-I Column-II
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (a) Auditory (1) Receive sound
meatus vibrations from
Ear environment
161. The structural component of external
(b) Pinna (2) Conduct
ear is [Pg-325,E]
vibrations to
A) pinna
tympanic
B) pinna and auditory meatus
membrane
C) pinna, auditory meatus and eardrum
D) auditory meatus and tympanic (c) Ear ossicles (3) Conduct
membrane vibrations to
162. Consider the following statements. inner ear
(A) Fine hairs and wax secreting glands
are found in the skin of pinna and Select the correct option.
auditory meatus. a b c
(B) Pinna and auditory meatus are A) 1 3 2
vestigial organs of human ear. B) 3 1 2
Select the correct option. [Pg-325,M] C) 2 1 3
A) A is true, B is false. D) 1 2 3
C) A is false, B is true. 168. The arrangement of ear ossicles from
D) Both A and B are true. outer to inner ear is [Pg-325,E]
163. The wax-secreting glands in auditory A) stapes, malleus, incus
meatus is [Pg-325,E] B) incus, stapes, malleus
A) Weber’s glands C) malleus, stapes, incus
B) Ebner’s glands D) malleus, incus, stapes
C) Ceruminous glands 169. Select the incorrect statement.
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[Pg-325,E] D) Scala media Filled with endolymph

A) The stapes is found attached to the 173. Within the bony labyrinth, the three
oval window of cochlea. chambers (upper to lower) are [Pg-
B) Ear ossicles increase the efficiency of 325,E]
sound wave transmission to inner A) scala vestibuli, scala media, scala
ear. tympani
C) Eustachian tube connects inner ear B) scala tympani, scala corti, scala
to the pharynx. media
D) Eustachian tube helps in equalising C) scala utricle, scala media, scala
the pressure on either side of vestibule
tympanic membrane. D) scala corti, scala media, scala
170. Consider the following statements. vestibuli
(A) The fluid-filled inner ear has two 174. Match the following columns. [Pg-325,E]
parts - bony labyrinth and Column-I Column-II
membranous labyrinth. (a) Reissner’s (1) In between outer
(B) The membranous labyrinth membrane and middle ear
surrounds the bony labyrinth in
inner ear. (b) Basilar (2) A component of
Select the correct option. [Pg-325,M] membrane organ of corti
A) A is true, B is false. (c) Tympanic (3) In between scala
B) A is false, B is true. membrane vestibuli and
C) Both A and B are false. scala media
171. Match the following columns. (d) Tectorial (4) In between scala
[Pg-325,M] membrane media and scala
Column-I Column-II tympani
(a) Labyrinth (1) Ear drum Select the most appropriate option.
(b) Tympanic (2) Filled with a b c d
membrane perilymph
A) 4 2 1 3
(c) Bony (3) Inner ear
labyrinth B) 2 3 4 1
(d) Membranous (4) Filled with C) 4 3 1 2
labyrinth endolymph
D) 3 4 1 2
Choose the most appropriate match.
a b c d
175. The scala vestibuli and scala tympani
A) 3 1 4 2 terminates at [Pg-326,E]
B) 3 1 2 4 A) oval window of cochlea.
B) round window of middle ear.
C) 1 3 2 4 C) oval window and round window,
D) 1 3 4 2 respectively.
D) round window and oval window,
respectively.
172. Identify the incorrectly matched pair. 176. In the given diagram of cochlea, identify
[Pg-325,E] A, B and C. [Pg-326,E]
A) Membranous labyrinth Surrounded
by perilymph
B) Scala vestibuli Coiled portion of
labyrinth
C) Cochlea Responsible for hearing
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D) semicircular canals and otolith

(A) The three semicircular canals of
inner ear are found in different
planes at right angle to each other.
(B) The two semicircular canals play
major role in hearing while the third
canal is vestigial.
Select the correct option. Select the correct option. [Pg-326,M]
A B C A) A is true, B is false.
A) Reissner’s Organ of corti Tectorial B) A is false, B is true.
membrane membrane C) Both A and B are false.
B) Tectorial Utricule Basilar
membrane membrane 182. The sensory part of otoliths is [Pg-326,E]
A) utricle B) saccule
C) Basilar Tectorial Reissner’s C) macula D) Both (A) and (B)
membrane membrane membrane
183. Crista ampullaris containing hair cells is
D) Basilar Macula Organ of Corti found [Pg-326,E]
membrane A) within otoliths.
B) at the base of semicircular canals.
177. The organ of corti within cochlea can be C) within the semicircular canals.
located on [Pg-326,E] D) at the tip of semicircular canals and
A) tectorial membrane otoliths.
B) basilar membrane 184. Which of the following receptors are
C) Reissner’s membrane specifically responsible for maintenance
D) tympanic membrane of balance of body and posture?
178. Select the incorrect statement regarding [Pg-327,E]
the structure of organ of corti. A) Crista ampullaris and macula
[Pg-326,E] B) Basilar membrane and otoliths
A) It contains hair cells that acts as C) Hair cells and organ of corti
auditory receptors. D) Tectorial membrane and macula
B) The hair cells are found on the inner 185. Refer to the given diagram and identify
side, arranged in rows. the correct function of the labeled
C) The basal end of hair cells is closely structures. [Pg-325,E]
associated with the afferent nerve
fibre.
D) In between ends of hair cells and
afferent nerves, tectorial membrane
is present.
179. What is the location of vestibular
apparatus in human ear? [Pg-326,E]
A) Adjacent to malleus of middle ear.
B) Above the cochlea of inner ear. A) B – Stapes – Vibration of oval window
C) At the junction of round window and B) A – Auditory meatus – Transmit
Eustachian tube. neural signals to auditory cortex
D) Within the Eustachian tube. C) D – Semicircular canals –
180. Vestibular apparatus consists of Amplification of auditory signals
[Pg-326,E] D) C – Cochlea – Main hearing organ
A) otoliths and organ of corti 186. Refer to the following events which occur
B) organ of corti only during hearing. [Pg-327,E]
C) semicircular canals only (I) Rippling in basilar membrane
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(II) Waves in the lymph of cochlea C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(III) Vibration of ear drum D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(IV) Pressing of hair cells against the 189. Assertion: The hair cells of organ of corti
tectorial membrane Select the acts as auditory receptors.
correct order in which the following Reason: The base of hair cells is in close
events occur. contact with afferent fibres of auditory
A) II, III, I, IV B) I, IV, II, III nerves. [Pg-325,H]
C) III, II, I, IV D) II, IV, I, III A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
187. How does the nerve impulses in ear are and Reason is correct explanation of
generated? [Pg-327,E] Assertion.
A) Due to the bending of hair cells B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
towards tectorial membrane. but Reason is not the correct
B) Due to the vibrations in utricle and explanation of Assertion.
otoliths. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) Due to the streaming of perilymph in D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
semicircular canals. 190. Assertion: Vestibular apparatus has no
D) Due to the contact between crista role in hearing.
ampularis and macula. Reason: Crista and macula helps in
188. Assertion: Stapes is found attached to maintaining body posture and balance.
the tympanic membrane. [Pg-326,H]
Reason: Stapes is the largest ear bone. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
[Pg-326,H] and Reason is correct explanation of
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true Assertion.
and Reason is correct explanation of B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
Assertion. but Reason is not the correct
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, explanation of Assertion.
but Reason is not the correct C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
explanation of Assertion. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Answer Key
NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans D D C A B A B C B C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A B D C B C D A A D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D D C C D C B D B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A C C B C B B A D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A A C B D D D C C B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D C C B B C B A B A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C A D C D C B B D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C A C D D C A C C B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C A D B B C A D D A
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Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B B C B B B A D C B
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C A D C A C A B A D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans D C C D B D B D D C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans A B D C C B B A D C
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D A D B A C D C A C
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans B B C D A D D C A A
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans B A D C A C A C C B
Q 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans B A C C D A C D C A
Q 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans B B A D C A B D B D
Q 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Ans A C B A C C A D A B
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10 Chemical Control and Coordination
B) (a) is true but (b) is false.

Para-22.1
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Human Endocrine System D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Introduction 7. Which of the following gland types is
correctly matched with its examples?
1. The organ system that helps regulate the
[Pg- 332,E]
metabolic activities through secretion of
A) Adrenal gland: exocrine gland
hormones is [Pg- 331,E]
B) Placenta: exocrine gland
A) cardiovascular system
C) Pancreas: endocrine gland only
B) endocrine system
D) Thyroid : endocrine gland
C) nervous system
D) digestive system
hormones is/are correct? [Pg- 331,M]
2. The nervous and endocrine systems
I. Hormones are non-nutrient
interact to coordinate the functions of all
chemicals
the body systems and help to maintain
II. Hormones act as intercellular
[Pg- 331,E]
messengers
A) homeostasis
III. Hormones are produced in trace
B) reflex actions
amount
C) fight or flight response
IV. Hormones may be proteins, steroids,
D) stress responses
glycoproteins and bigenic mines
3. Responses of the endocrine system are
A) All B) I, II, III
_______ and _______ than the responses
C) IV D) I, III
of the nervous system. [Pg- 331,E]
A) rapid, long-lasting Paragraph- 22.2
B) rapid, briefer Gland : Endocrine Gland
C) slower, long-lasting
D) slower, briefer 9. Assertion: The nervous system produces
4. Which of the following statements a delayed response that lasts for a longer
correctly differentiate the endocrine and period.
nervous systems? [Pg- 331,M] Reason: Neurotransmitters are released
A) The endocrine system regulates all from postsynaptic neurons. [Pg- 331,H]
types of body cells. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
B) Nerve fibers innervate all the body cell and Reason is correct explanation of
types. Assertion.
C) Endocrine system acts on specific B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
muscle cells only. but Reason is not the correct
D) The influence of the nervous system explanation of Assertion.
is much broader. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
5. Both neurotransmitters and hormones D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
[Pg- 331,E] 10. Which of the following statements is
A) produce a slower response. false? [Pg- 331,332,M]
B) bind to receptors on or in their target A) Hormones provide chemical
cells. coordination, integration and
C) are transported by interstitial fluid. regulation in the human body
D) produce a rapid response. B) Hormones regulate metabolism,
6. Consider the following statements: growth and development of our
[Pg- 331,M] organs
(a) Exocrine glands are the ductless C) Besides hypothalamus, pituitary,
glands. pineal, thyroid, adrenal, parathyroid,
b) Sweat glands and gastric glands thymus, etc., GIT, heart, kidney, etc
release their secretions directly into also produce hormones.
the blood. D) Hormone can be used again and
Select the correct option. again like biocatalyst
A) Both (a) and (b) are true. Paragraph- 22.2.1
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Hypothalamus B) the anterior pituitary gland and

stimulates secretion of LH and
11. The small part of the brain that is oxytocin.
present below the thalamus and serves C) the anterior pituitary gland and
as the main link between the nervous stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
and endocrine system is [Pg- 332,E] D) the posterior pituitary gland and
A) pons stimulates secretion of oxytocin and
B) hypothalamus FSH.
C) brain stem 16. Which of the following hypothalamic
D) medulla oblongata hormones is incorrectly matched with its
12. Consider the following events: function? [Pg- 332,E]
[Pg- 332,M] A) TRH: Stimulates secretion of
(A) Production of regulatory hormones thyrotropin
from neurosecretory cells. B) PIH: suppresses the secretion of
(B) Hormones are secreted into the portal prolactin
system. C) GH-RH: stimulates secretion of
(C) Hormones move down the axons to growth hormone
axon endings. D) CRH: stimulates the release of
Arrange them in sequential order and prolactin
select the correct option. 17. How many of the following are correct?
A) A, B, C [Pg- 332,M]
B) A, C, B (i) Somatostatin is released from
C) B, C, A hypothalamus.
D) C, A, B (ii) Hypothalamic hormones reach the
13. The hormones produced by pituitary gland through
hypothalamic nuclei [Pg- 332,E] hypophyseal-hypoportal system.
A) regulate the functions of the anterior (iii) Anterior pituitary is under direct
pituitary. neural regulation of hypothalamus.
B) regulate the functions of the posterior A) 1 B) 2
pituitary. C) 3 D) None of these
C) regulate the functions of both 18. Portal blood vessels connect the ______ to
anterior and posterior pituitary. the ____ [Pg- 332,E]
D) inhibit the secretion of posterior A) Hypothalamus, brain
pituitary hormones. B) Hypothalamus, posterior pituitary
14. Which of the following statements about C) hypothalamus, anterior pituitary
hypothalamic hormones is incorrect? D) Anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary
[Pg- 332,H]
A) Hypothalamic releasing hormones Paragraph- 22.2.2
stimulate the secretion of anterior Pituitary Gland
pituitary hormones.
B) Hypothalamic releasing hormones 19. The pituitary gland is a pea-shaped
stimulate the secretion of posterior gland that lies in the hypophyseal fossa
pituitary hormones. of [Pg- 333,E]
C) Hypothalamic inhibiting hormones A) sella turcica of the glenoid bone
inhibit the secretion of anterior B) sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
pituitary hormones. C) sella turcica of the parietal bone
D) Somatostatin is a hypothalamic D) sella turcica of the frontal bone
inhibitory hormone. 20. The pituitary gland is connected to the
15. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed hypothalamus by [Pg- 333,E]
in reproduction, acts on [Pg- 332,M] A) infundibulum
A) the posterior pituitary gland and B) bony cavity
stimulates secretion of LH and C) hyaline cartilage
relaxin. D) elastic cartilage
21. Following is the diagrammatic
representation of the pituitary gland and
its connection with the hypothalamus.
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[Pg- 333,E] causes several disorders. Which of the

following disorder is correctly matched
with its respective endocrine gland?
[Pg- 333,M]
A) Gigantism: Hyposecretion of growth
hormone
B) Dwarfism: Hypersecretion of growth
hormone
C) Acromegaly: Hypersecretion of growth
hormone
D) Gigantism: Hypersecretion of
somatostatin
26. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in
adults does not cause a further increase
in height, because [Pg- 333,E]
A) muscle fibers do not grow in size after
birth.
B) growth hormone becomes inactive in
Select the correct option regarding the adults.
same. C) epiphyseal plates close after
A) I: Anterior pituitary that is composed adolescence.
of neural tissues. D) bones lose their sensitivity to growth
B) I: Anterior pituitary that is composed hormone in adults.
of epithelial tissues. 27. A person is diagnosed with
C) II: Posterior pituitary that is hypersecretion of growth hormone due to
composed of epithelial tissues. a pituitary tumor. Select the incorrect
D) II: Posterior pituitary that is statement about his medical condition.
composed of connective tissues. [Pg- 333,M]
22. In adults, adenohypophysis accounts for A) Hypersecretion of growth hormone
75% of the total weight of the gland and would cause hyperglycemia.
consists of [Pg- 333,E] B) There will be a reduced secretion of
A) pars distalis insulin.
B) pars tuberalis and pars intermedia C) Insulin secretion would remain
C) pars nervosa unaffected.
D) pars intermedia D) Hypersecretion of growth hormone
23. Which of the following hormone is results in a diabetogenic effect.
secreted by pars intermedia? [Pg- 333,E] 28. Hypersecretion of prolactin hormone in
A) Prolactin females causes inappropriate lactation
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone and absence of menstrual cycle. Based
C) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone on the given information, select the pair
D) Melanocyte stimulating hormone of correct statements. [Pg- 333,M]
24. Which of the following statement is (A) Prolactin is required for milk ejection
incorrect about the posterior pituitary? from mammary glands.
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg- 333,M] (B) The blood level of prolactin is
A) The posterior pituitary lobe is not a increased just before menstruation.
true endocrine gland. (C) During pregnancy, prolactin
B) It serves as a hormone storage region. inhibiting hormone suppresses the
C) The posterior pituitary lobe and release of prolactin.
infundibulum together make (D) Sucking action of newborn inhibits
neurohypophysis. the release of PIH.
D) Oxytocin and vasopressin hormones A) A and B B) B and C
are synthesized in the posterior C) A and C D) B and D
pituitary lobe. 29. Select the option that correctly matches
25. Malfunctioning of endocrine gland the hormone with its source endocrine
deviates the body from homeostasis and
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gland and respective function/target C) increased sensitivity of kidneys for

organs. [Pg- 333,M] ADH
Hormone Endocrine Function/target D) hypersecretion of ADH by the
gland organ posterior pituitary
(A) TSH Anterior All body cells 36. Assertion: TSH stimulates the thyroid
pituitary gland to secrete thyroid hormones.
(B) ACTH Posterior Stimulates secretion Reason: The hormones of anterior
pituitary of glucocorticoids
pituitary that regulate the secretions of
from the adrenal
cortex
other endocrine glands are called tropic
(C) LH Anterior Triggers secretion of hormones. [Pg- 334,H]
pituitary androgens in males A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
(D) FSH Posterior Stimulates the and Reason is correct explanation of
pituitary growth of ovaria Assertion.
follicles B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
30. Which of the following set of hormones explanation of Assertion.
are called gonadotropins? [Pg- 333,E] C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
A) GH and LH B) LH and FSH D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) LH and ACTH D) FSH and TSH 37. Assertion: Hyposecretion of growth
31. The target cells/structures of FSH and hormone causes stunted growth in
LH in human males are [Pg- 333,E] infants.
A) interstitial cells and sertoli cells Reason: Epiphyseal plates are closed
respectively. after the childbirth. [Pg- 334,H]
B) sertoli cells and interstitial cells A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
respectively. and Reason is correct explanation of
C) interstitial cells only. Assertion.
D) sertoli cells only. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
32. LH is required for fertility in females but Reason is not the correct
because [Pg- 333,334,M] explanation of Assertion.
A) it maintains corpus luteum. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
B) it induces ovulation. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) it stimulates the release of FSH from 38. Assertion: Hypersecretion of GH during
corpus luteum. childhood causes acromegaly.
D) both (a) and (b). Reason: The growth hormone regulates
33. Which of the following hormone is the fluid-electrolyte balance of the body.
incorrectly matched with its target [Pg- 334,H]
organ/cells? [Pg- 334,E] A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
A) MSH: melanocytes and Reason is correct explanation of
B) Oxytocin: Smooth muscles Assertion.
C) Vasopressin: distal tubules of kidneys B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
D) ADH: Glomerulus but Reason is not the correct
34. Diuresis refers to [Pg- 334,E] explanation of Assertion.
A) loss of water through urine C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
B) reduced loss of water through urine D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) process of urine formation in 39. Assertion: ADH secretion is stimulated
nephrons under the conditions of dehydration.
D) contraction of muscles of the urinary Reason: ADH prevents water loss from
bladder the body by decreasing the urine volume.
35. Diabetes insipidus is caused by [Pg- 334,H]
[Pg- 334,E] A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
A) hyposecretion of insulin by the and Reason is correct explanation of
pancreas Assertion.
B) hyposecretion of ADH by the posterior B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
pituitary but Reason is not the correct
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C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) T4 has a shorter half-life.

D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) follicular cells cannot synthesize T3.
45. Thyroid hormones are required for
Paragraph- 22.2.3
normal growth and development of
Pineal Gland humans because [Pg- 335,M]
40. Which of the following set of functions is A) thyroid hormones increase the basal
not regulated by the hormone of the metabolic rate in most body tissues.
pineal gland? [NCERT Exemplar] B) thyroid hormones are regulated by
[Pg- 334,M] negative feedback systems.
A) Diurnal rhythm and body C) thyroid hormones contain iodine
temperature atoms.
B) Metabolism and pigmentation D) thyroid hormones stimulate glycogen
C) Growth of bones and defense formation.
capability 46. A group of tadpoles with no thyroxin
D) Diurnal rhythm and defense hormone production exhibited disrupted
capability metamorphosis. Which of the following
41. Which of the following hormone exhibits statement correctly describes the role of
an anti-gonadotropic effect in humans? thyroid hormones in metamorphosis.
[Pg- 334,E] [Pg- 335,M]
A) ADH B) Thyroxin A) Thyroid hormones lower the blood
C) Melatonin D) ACTH calcium levels.
B) Thyroid hormones increase blood
Paragraph- 22.2.4 calcium levels.
Thyroid Gland C) Thyroid hormones lower the blood
phosphate levels.
42. Following is the diagrammatic view of the
D) Thyroxin stimulates protein
position of endocrine glands.
synthesis.
47. Which of the following disorders of the
endocrine system is incorrectly matched
with its description? [Pg- 335,M]
A) Hypothyroidism: Iodine deficiency
B) Goitre: Enlarged thyroid gland
C) Hyperthyroidism: Cretinism
D) Exopthalmic goitre: Hyperthyroidism
48. Which of the given statement correctly
differentiates Myxedema from Graves’
Select the option that correctly labels the disease? [Pg- 335,M]
glands and their respective hormones. A) Hypothyroidism in adult ages causes
[Pg- 334,E] Graves’ disease.
A) I - Thyroid gland - Thyroxine and TSH B) Graves’ disease is more common
B) II - Parathyroid gland - PTH among males than females.
C) II - Thyroid gland - Thyroxine and C) Myxedema causes swelling in facial
calcitonin tissues due to the accumulation of
D) I - Parathyroid gland - PTH and interstitial fluid.
calcitonin D) Myxedema is an auto-immune
43. The thyroid gland is composed of disorder.
[Pg- 334,E] 49. Graves’ disease is caused due to [NEET–
A) stromal tissues only 2016] [Pg- 335,E]
B) follicles only A) hyposecretion of the thyroid gland
C) stromal tissues and follicles B) hypersecretion of the thyroid gland
D) isthmus C) hyposecretion of the adrenal gland
44. Most of the T4 is converted into T3 in the D) hypersecretion of the adrenal gland
target tissues because [Pg- 334,E] 50. Assertion: Thyroid hormones regulate
A) T4 is more active. oxygen consumption and basal
B) T3 is more active. metabolic rate of the body cells.
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Reason: Thyroid hormones reduce the B) thymus gland

number of active mitochondria in body C) parathyroid gland
cells. [Pg- 335,H] D) pineal gland
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true 56. Which of the following endocrine gland is
and Reason is correct explanation of responsible for reduced immune
Assertion. responses in old ages? [Pg- 335,E]
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, A) Thyroid gland B) Pineal gland
but Reason is not the correct C) Thymus gland D) Pituitary gland
Paragraph- 22.2.7
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Adrenal Gland
Paragraph- 22.2.5 57. Adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla
differ from each other in terms of
Parathyroid Gland
[Pg- 336,E]
51. The physiological role of parathyroid A) histology B) function
gland does not include [Pg- 335,E] C) origin D) all of these
A) increased activity of osteoclasts 58. The endocrine gland present at the top of
B) bone resorption kidneys and involved in the fluid-
C) reduced loss of Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions electrolyte balance of the body is
into urine [Pg- 336,M]
D) reduced loss of HPO42− into the urine A) adrenal gland
52. Which of the following hormones can B) pineal gland
play a significant role in osteoporosis? C) parathyroid gland
[NEET–2016] [Pg- 335,M] D) pancreas
A) Aldosterone and Prolactin 59. Which of the following categories of
B) Progesterone and Aldosterone hormones is correctly matched with its
C) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone examples? [NCERT Exemplar]
D) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin [Pg- 336,E]
53. Which of the following pairs of hormones A) Catecholamines: adrenaline and
have antagonistic effects? [Pg- 335,E] noradrenaline
A) T3 and T4 B) Emergency hormones: adrenaline
B) ACTH and glucocorticoids and insulin
C) PTH and TCT (thyrocalcitonin) C) Glucocorticoids: aldosterone
D) T3 and TSH D) Mineralocorticoids: cortisol
54. Assertion: Calcitonin and PTH exhibit an 60. Consider the following statements:
antagonistic effect on blood levels of [Pg- 336,H]
calcium ions. (a) Some chemicals act as both
Reason: Insulin and glucagon exhibit neurotransmitters and hormones.
antagonistic effects on the blood levels of (b) Norepinephrine is released as a
glucose. [Pg- 335,H] neurotransmitter by sympathetic
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true division.
and Reason is correct explanation of (c) Norepinephrine is released as a
Assertion. hormone by the thyroid gland.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, (d) Norepinephrine is released as a
but Reason is not the correct hormone by the parathyroid gland.
explanation of Assertion. Which of the two statements are correct?
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. A) a and b B) a and c
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. C) b and c D) c and d
61. Secretion of hormones from adrenal
Paragraph- 22.2.6
medulla is controlled by [Pg- 336,E]
Thymus Gland A) parasympathetic nervous system
55. The endocrine gland that functions as a B) pituitary gland
component of the lymphatic system is C) sympathetic nervous system
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg- 335,E] D) peripheral nervous system
A) thyroid gland
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62. The fight or flight response generated by D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
the release of hormones by adrenal
Paragraph- 22.2.8
medulla includes [Pg- 336,M]
A) dilation of pupils and increased heart Pancreas
rate and blood pressure. 68. Which of the following pairs of endocrine
B) glycogenolysis and lipid synthesis. glands are composite glands?
C) increased muscular movement of the [Pg- 337,E]
gastrointestinal tract. A) Pancreas and thymus gland
D) reduced blood glucose levels. B) Adrenal glands and thymus gland
63. Which of the following hormones of the C) Pancreas and adrenal gland
adrenal cortex are correctly matched D) Adrenal gland and pineal gland
with their source? [Pg- 337,E] 69. The cells that make about 70% of the
A) Mineralocorticoids - Zona fasciculata cells of the pancreatic islets serve to
cells secrete [Pg- 337,E]
B) Glucocorticoids - Zona glomerulosa A) insulin
cells B) glucagon
C) Androgens - Zona glomerulosa cells C) somatostatin
D) Glucocorticoids - Zona fasciculata D) pancreatic polypeptide
cells 70. Alpha and delta cells of pancreatic
64. Glucocorticoids are involved in islands are the source of [Pg- 337,E]
[Pg- 337,E] A) glucagon and insulin respectively
A) fluid electrolyte balance B) somatostatin and glucagon
B) carbohydrate metabolism respectively
C) water reabsorption from kidneys C) glucagon and somatostatin
D) regulation of blood glucose levels respectively
65. Which of the following sets of D) insulin and glucagon respectively
physiological functions correctly 71. Which of the following hormones is
describes the role of cortisol in the correctly matched with its
human body? [NCERT Exemplar] description/effects? [Pg- 338,E]
[Pg- 337,M] A) Hyperglycemic hormone: Glucagon
A) Anti-inflammatory response and B) Hypoglycemia: Glucagon
suppression of the immune response C) Hypercalcemic hormone: Calcitonin
B) Breakdown of RBCs in spleen D) Addison’s disease: Catecholamines.
C) Upregulation of uptake of amino 72. Which of the given statements correctly
acids differentiates glycogenolysis from
D) Reabsorption of Na+ from kidneys glycogenesis? [Pg- 338,M]
66. Target organ/structure of aldosterone is A) Glycogenolysis is the formation of
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg- 337,E] glycogen from glucose and is triggered
A) renal calyces by glucagon.
B) renal tubules B) Glycogenolysis is a breakdown of
C) glomerulus glycogen into glucose and is triggered
D) Bowman’s capsule by insulin.
67. Assertion: Adrenal medullary hormones C) Glycogenesis is the conversion of
regulate the fluid-electrolyte balance of glucose into glycogen and is
the body. stimulated by insulin.
Reason: Aldosterone is a glucocorticoid D) Glycogenesis is the formation of
that raises blood sodium levels. glucose from non-carbohydrate
[Pg- 337,H] substrates.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true 73. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of
and Reason is correct explanation of carbohydrate metabolism and is
Assertion. characterised by [Pg- 338,E]
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, A) polyuria B) polydipsia
but Reason is not the correct C) polyphagia D) all of these
explanation of Assertion. 74. The water-soluble fuels that are normally
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. exported by the liver but overproduced
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during fasting or diabetes mellitus when B) Testosterone suppresses the

not treated are known as [Pg- 338,E] secretion of LH and GnRH by the
A) fatty acids B) glucose positive feedback mechanism.
C) ketone bodies D) amino acids C) FSH and testosterone stimulate the
75. Match the following hormones with the sustentacular cells to stimulate the
respective disease. [NEET–2019] secretion of the androgen-binding
[Pg- 333-338,M] protein.
Column-I Column-II D) Testosterone stimulates the process
(a) Insulin (1) Addison’s disease of spermiogenesis.
(b) Thyroxin (2) Diabetes Insipidus 80. The function of inhibin hormone is to
(c) Corticoids (3) Acromegaly [Pg- 338,E]
(d) Growth (4) Goitre A) inhibit the FSH secretion
hormone B) inhibit the testosterone secretion
(5) Diabetes mellitus
C) inhibit spermiogenesis
Select the correct option. D) stimulate spermatogenesis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
81. Which of the given sets of organs
(A) 5 1 2 3
represent the male accessory sex organs?
(B) 2 4 3 1
[Pg- 338,E]
(C) 5 4 1 3
(D) 2 4 1 3
A) Epididymis and testes
B) Vas deferens and testes
Paragraph- 22.2.9 C) Seminal vesicles and prostate gland
D) Urethra and oviduct
Testes 82. The hormone responsible for the descent
76. The ________ are the oval glands present of testes into the scrotum is [Pg- 338,E]
in the scrotum and serve to secrete the A) FSH B) LH
hormones. [Pg- 338,E] C) testosterone D) inhibin
A) ovaries and androgen 83. The function of testosterone in human
B) testes and testosterone males is/are [Pg- 338,E]
C) pineal gland and melatonin A) development of male secondary
D) adrenal gland and cortisol sexual characters
77. Which of the following is not a function B) male sexual behaviour
of testes? [Pg- 338,E] C) stimulation of protein breakdown
A) Spermatogenesis D) both (A) and (B)
B) Sperm production 84. Assertion: In human males, LH is
C) Testosterone secretion required for sperm production.
D) All of these Reason: FSH and testosterone stimulate
78. Which of the following structures/cells of interstitial cells to secrete androgen
testes is incorrectly matched with its binding protein. [Pg- 338,H]
functions? [NCERT Exemplar] A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
[Pg- 338,E] and Reason is correct explanation of
A) Seminiferous tubules - Assertion.
Spermatogenesis B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
B) Sustentacular cells - Secretion of FSH but Reason is not the correct
C) Interstitial cells - Secretion of explanation of Assertion.
testosterone C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Sertoli cells - Nourishment of D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
developing spermatogenic cells Paragraph-22.2.10
79. Testes serve as an endocrine gland.
Ovary
Which of the given statement about
testicular hormones is correct? 85. Androgens are responsible for libido in
[Pg- 338,M] both human males and females. The
A) LH from the posterior pituitary source of androgens in human females is
stimulates interstitial cells to secrete [Pg- 336,E]
testosterone. A) ovaries B) oviducts
C) corpus luteum D) adrenal cortex
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86. Which of the following set of hormones is A) Testis and ovary function as a
known as female sex hormones? primary sex organ as well as
[Pg- 338,E] endocrine gland
A) FSH and LH B) Ovaries are located in thoracic cavity
B) Estrogen and progesterone of females
C) FSH and estrogen C) Ovary produces ovum, 2 groups of
D) LH and estrogen steroid hormones (estrogen and
87. Match the following structures in progesterone)
Column-I with the correct description in D) Ovary is composed of ovarian follicles
Column-II. [Pg- 338,339,M] and stromal tissue
Column-I Column-II 93. Which of the following hormone is
(a) Ovarian follicles (1) progesterone synergistic to human growth hormone?
(b) Corpus luteum (2) LH [Pg- 338,E]
(c) Graafian follicle (3) prolactin A) Estrogen
(d) Mammary glands (4) estrogen B) Progesterone
Select the correct option. C) Inhibin
(a) (b) (c) (d) D) Androgen binding protein
(A) 4 3 2 1 94. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is
(B) 4 1 2 3 converted into- [Pg- 338,E]
(C) 3 4 2 1
A) Graafian follicle
(D) 3 1 4 2
B) Corpus callosum
C) FSH
88. A temporary endocrine gland in the
D) LH
human body is [NEET–2017] [Pg- 338,E]
95. The hormone responsible to prepare and
A) pineal gland
maintain endometrium for implantation
B) corpus cardiacum
of a fertilized ovum is: [Pg- 339,E]
C) corpus luteum
A) FSH B) LH
D) corpus allatum
C) Progesterone D) Inhibin
96. Assertion: Corpus luteum is a temporary
incorrect about the effects and regulation
endocrine gland.
of female sex hormones?
Reason: Corpus luteum secretes female
[Pg- 338,339,M]
sex hormones. [Pg- 338,E]
A) Ovarian and uterine cycles are under
the regulation of Gonadotropin-
releasing hormone.
Assertion.
B) In females, FSH triggers the
development of follicles.
C) Ovarian follicles secrete estrogen
under influence of FSH and LH.
D) Estrogen from ovarian follicles is
converted into progesterone.
90. Which of the following hormones Paragraph- 22.3
regulates the formation of corpus luteum Hormones of Heart, Kidney and
and stimulates it to release hormones? Gastrointestinal Tract
[Pg- 338,E]
A) FSH B) LH 97. Atrial natriuretic hormone I factor (ANF)
C) Estrogen D) Androgens secreted by atrial wall of our heart has
91. Which of the following hormones is exactly the opposite function of this
secreted by corpus luteum? [NCERT hormone secreted by zona glomerulosa –
Exemplar] [Pg- 338,E] [Pg- 339,E]
A) Estrogens B) Progesterone A) ADH B) Aldosterone
C) Relaxin D) LH C) Androgen D) Calcitonin
92. Which of the following statements is 98. Match the hormones in Column-I with
incorrect? [Pg- 338,M] their functions in Column-II. [Pg- 339,M]
Column-I Column-II
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(a) Progesterone (1) Inhibits uterine B) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates

contraction the normal rhythm of the sleep-wake
(b) Atrial natriuretic (2) Formation of RBCs cycle.
factor C) Progesterone - corpus luteum,
(c) Erythropoietin (3) Formation of stimulation of growth and activities of
alveoli in
female secondary sex organs.
mammary glands
D) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular
(d) Relaxin (4) Lowers blood
pressure wall, increases the blood pressure.
Select the correct option. 103. Assertion: Hormones are also secreted by
(a) (b) (c) (d) tissues that are not the endocrine
(A) 4 3 2 1 glands.
(B) 4 1 2 3 Reason: Kidneys secrete the hormone
(C) 3 4 2 1 atrial natriuretic factor. [Pg- 339,H]
(D) 2 1 4 3 A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
99. ANF- [Pg- 339,E] Assertion.
A) Decrease B.P. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
B) Causes vasodilation but Reason is not the correct
C) Is secreted when B.P. increases explanation of Assertion.
D) All C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
100. Gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK) D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) are 4 104. Assertion: Duodenum serves endocrine
major peptide hormone secreted by- function and secretes secretin hormone.
[Pg- 339,E] Reason: Gastrin hormone from the
A) Only stomach mucosa of the stomach stimulates the
B) Only small intestine secretion of gastric glands. [Pg- 339,H]
C) Gastro-intestinal tract A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
D) Only pancreas and Reason is correct explanation of
101. Which of the following hormones of the Assertion.
gastrointestinal tract is wrongly matched B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
with its function? [Pg- 339,M] but Reason is not the correct
Column-I Column-II explanation of Assertion.
(a) Gastrin (1) Inhibition of gastric C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
secretions
(b) Gastric inhibitory (2) Stimulates
peptide (GIP) secretion of Paragraph- 22.4
pancreatic juice Mechanism of Hormone Action
and bile juice
(c) Secretin (3) Secretion of gastric 105. Match the Column I with Column II.
juice [Pg- 340,M]
(d) Cholecystokinin (4) Stimulates Column I Column II
secretion of A. Peptide, I. Epinephrine,
pancreatic juice polypeptide protein nor-epinephrine
Select the correct option. hormones
(a) (b) (c) (d) B. Steroid II. T3 and T4
(A) 3 1 4 2 (thyroid
(B) 2 1 4 3 hormones)
(C) 3 4 2 1 C. lodothyronines III. Cortisol,
(D) 2 3 4 1 testosterone,
estradiol,
102. Identify the hormone with its correct progesterone
matching of source and function. D. Amino acid IV. Pituitary
[Pg- 339,E] derivatives hormones,
A) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth, pancreatic
and maintenance of mammary hormones,
glands. hypothalamic
hormones
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[Pg- 340,E]
A) A-I , B - II, C - III , D - IV A) amino acid B) carbohydrate
B) A- IV, B - III, C - II , D - I C) steroid D) nucleic acid
C) A- IV, B – III , C - I, D - II 114. Which of the given hormones is
D) A- I, B - II, C - IV, D - III incorrectly matched with its source
106. Steroid hormones initiate the production amino acid? [Pg- 340,M]
of target cell substances in which A) Serotonin: Tryptophan
manner? [Pg- 340,E] B) Histamine: Histidine
A) They initiate second messenger C) Epinephrine: Tyrosine
activity D) Melatonin: Alanine
B) They bind with membrane protein 115. The amino acid tryptophan is the
C) They initiate DNA transcription precursor for the synthesis of
D) They activate enzyme pathways [Pg- 340,M]
107. Why do some hormones (first messenger) A) estrogen and progesterone
need to trigger a "second messenger" to B) cortisol and cortisone
activate a target cell? [Pg- 340,M] C) melatonin and serotonin
A) The first messenger needs activation D) thyroxin and triiodothyronine
of ATP 116. Which of the following statement
B) The first messenger cannot cross a correctly differentiate the transport of
plasma membrane water-soluble and lipid soluble
C) There are no specific cell surface hormones in blood? [Pg- 340,M]
receptors for first messenger A) Most of the lipid-soluble hormones
D) The first messenger is not a water- are bound to transport proteins.
soluble molecule B) Most of the water-soluble hormones
108. Which of the following category of are bound to transport proteins.
hormones is incorrectly matched with its C) Transport proteins enhance the rate
examples? [Pg- 340,E] of hormone loss in urine
A) Protein hormone: Insulin D) Transport proteins are synthesized in
B) Steroids: Cortisol muscles.
C) Iodothyronines: Thyroid hormones 117. Receptors for protein hormones are
D) Amino-acid derivatives: Oxytocin mostly present at/in [NCERT Exemplar]
109. Which of the following categories of the [Pg- 339,E]
hormones is water-insoluble? A) nucleus B) nuclear envelop
[Pg- 340,E] C) cell surface D) cytoplasm
A) Eicosanoids 118. Which of the given statement is correct
B) Peptide hormones about the mechanism of water soluble
C) Amines hormones? [Pg- 339,340,M]
D) Steroid hormones A) Hormones bind to their cytoplasmic
110. Which of the given hormones is/are receptors present in the target cells.
second messengers? [Pg- 340,E] B) The hormone-receptor complex alters
A) cAMP B) IP3 the gene expression.
C) Ca+2 D) All C) Hormones serve as the first
111. Which of the following hormones does messenger and cause the production
not act by a second messenger system? of a second messenger.
[Pg- 340,E] D) The newly formed proteins produce a
A) Glucagon B) Epinephrine physiological response.
C) FSH D) Testosterone 119. Which of the following molecules serve as
112. Which of the given sets of endocrine the second messenger in the mechanism
gland secrete/ release only water-soluble of action of a protein hormone?
hormones? [Pg- 340,E] [Pg- 340,E]
A) Pancreas and thyroid gland A) T3 B) cAMP
B) Parathyroid gland and pineal gland C) T4 D) protein kinases
C) Adrenal gland and thyroid gland 120. Following is the diagrammatic
D) Parathyroid gland and pancreas representation of the mechanism of
113. Epinephrine is _________ derivative. action of a protein hormone. Which of the
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given options correctly describes the D) II-Second messenger, IV-mRNA

labeled events? [Pg- 340,E] 122. Assertion: Aldosterone can diffuse freely
through the lipid bilayer.
Reason: Steroid hormones are lipid-
soluble. [Pg- 340,H]
Assertion.
123. Assertion: Receptors for steroid
A) I-hormone receptor hormones are present at the cell surface.
B) II-hormone Reason: Receptors for protein hormones
C) III-second messenger are present in the nucleus.
D) IV-physiological response [Pg- 339,340,H]
121. Following is the diagrammatic A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
representation of the mechanism of and Reason is correct explanation of
action of a steroid hormone. Which of the Assertion.
given options correctly describes the B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
labeled events? [Pg- 341,E] but Reason is not the correct
124. Assertion: cAMP serves as the second
messenger for protein hormones.
Reason: Insulin is a protein hormone.
[Pg- 340,H]
Assertion.
A) I-Hormone, II-second messenger explanation of Assertion.
B) I-Hormone, III-nucleus C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) II-Hormone-receptor complex, IV- D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
DNA
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Answer Key
CHEMICAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans B A C A B C D A D D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B B A B C D B C B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A A D D C C C D C B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B D D A B A C D A C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C B C B A D C C B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D C C B B C D A A A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C A B B A B D C A C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C D C C B D B C A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C C D C D B B C D B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B B A C C A B C D C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans A B C D B C B D D D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans D B A D C A C C B C
Q 121 122 123 124
Ans B A D B
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CLASS – XIIth
ZOOLOGY
LINE BY LINE
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11 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
Reproduction in Organisms:
1. Life span represents- [Pg-3,E] C) Individual morphologically similar to

A) Period from birth to natural death of parent
an organism D) B and C both
B) Period from birth to reproductive 7. Given below is figure represent-
maturity of an organism [Pg-5,E]
C) Period from reproductive maturity to
death of an organism
D) Period from adolescence to
senescent phase of an organism
2. Life span depends on- [Pg-3,E]
A) Size of organism
B) Shape of organism A) Binary fission in Amoeba
C) A and B both B) Budding in Amoeba
D) None of these C) Budding in Yeast
3. Arrange the following organism on basis D) Binary fission in Yeast
of their ascending life span. [Pg-4,E] 8. Cell division is itself a mode of
A) Parrot, Crocodile, Crow, Butterfly reproduction in- [Pg-5,E]
B) Tortoise, Crocodile, Crow, Butterfly A) Protists B) Moneran
C) Butterfly, Crocodile, Parrot C) Fungi D) A and B both
D) A and B both 9. Zoospores is mode of asexual
4. Which one of the following is correct reproduction in- [Pg-6,7,E]
statement with respect to life span of A) Chlamydomonas
organisms? [Pg-3,E] B) Penicillium
A) Mango tree has a much longer C) Hydra
lifespan as compared to peepal tree D) Sponges
B) Single celled organism doesn't show 10. Choose the correct statement- [Pg-6,E]
natural death A) Conidia of Penicillium is endogenous
C) Lifespan is correlated with borne
complexity and habit of plant B) Gemmules of sponges is example of
D) Parrot has a shorter lifespan as external budding
compared to crow C) In Yeast, the division is unequal and
5. Asexual reproduction- [Pg-5,E] small buds are produced
A) Involvement of gamete formation D) Zoospore is non-motile structure
B) Fusion of male & female gamete 11. Match Column-I and Column-II and
C) Without involvement of gamete select correct option. [Pg-7,E]
formation Column-I Column-II
D) Biparental (opposite sex) a Tuber (i)
1.1 Asexual Reproduction:

6. Clone are [Pg-5,E]
A) Produce generally by sexual
reproduction
B) Individual genetically similar to
parent
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b Rhizome (ii)
c Bulbil (iii)
a b
A) Eyes Germinating
eye bud
B) Germinating eye Eyes bud
C) Buds Adventitious
d Leaf buds (iv)
root
D) Adventitious root Buds
15. Choose most appropriate statement

about Water hyacinth. [Pg-8,E]
e Offset (v) (i) An aquatic plant that can
propagate vegetatively at a
phenomenal rate
(ii) Introduced in India because of
beautiful flowers and shape of
fruit
(iii) It reproduce by offset
(iv) It drains oxygen from water,
which leads to death of fishes
(v) It spread all over the water body
A) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-iv, e-i is a short period of time
B) a-ii, b-iv, c-v, d-iii, e-i (vi) It is very difficult to get rid off
C) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-v, e-iii them
D) None of these (vii) It is invasive weeds found
12. Which of the following is not meant for growing wherever there is
vegetative propagation in Angiospermic standing water
plants. [Pg-7,E] A) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vii, vii
A) Gemmules B) Runner B) i, iii, iv, v, vi, vii
C) Bulb D) Sucker C) ii, iv, v, vi, vii
13. Vegetable propagation involve- [Pg-8,E] D) None of these
A) Uniparent 16. Term 'vegetative reproduction' is
B) Biparental frequently used in- [Pg-7,E]
C) Zoospores A) Plants B) Animals
D) Reproduction by flower C) Monerans D) A and C both
14. Label A and B [Pg-7,E] 17. Banana is reproduced vegetatively by-
[Pg-8,E]
A) Stolon B) Runner
C) Rhizome D) Offset
18. 'Eyes' of Potato arise from- [Pg-8,E]
A) Node B) Internode
C) Both A and B D) Root
19. Bryophyllum arise vegetatively by-
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[Pg-8,E] 25. Bamboo show flowering is [Pg-9,E]

A) adventitious bud arise from notches A) 10-20 years
present at leaves margin. B) 50-100 years
B) adventitious bud arise from notches C) Once in every year
present at node. D) B and C both
C) adventitious bud arise from notches 26. Choose correct statement about
present at internode. Strobilanthus Kunthianan. [Pg-9,E]
D) None of these A) This plant flowered during
20. Arrange in sequence- [Pg-8,E] September-October 2006.
(i) Gamete transfer B) Its mass flowering transformed large
(ii) Formation of gamete tracks of hilly areas in Kerala,
(iii) Post-fertilization Karnataka and Tamil Nadu into
(iv) Fertilization Pink stretches.
A) ii-i-iv-iii B) i-iii-ii-iv C) A and B both
C) iii-iv-ii-I D) iv-i-iii-ii D) Its flower during April-May 2006.
21. Choose correct statement with respect 27. Oestrus cycle observed is- [Pg-9,M]
to sexual reproduction- [Pg-8,E] A) Primates B) Non-primate
A) It involves formation of male & C) Both A and B D) Human beings
female gametes only by different 28. Choose odd ones among following on
individuals of the opposite sex. basis of hormonal changes is
B) It is an elaborate, simple and slow reproductive phase. [Pg-9,E]
process as compared to asexual A) Ape B) Cow
reproduction. C) Deer D) Tiger
C) Zygotes are formed by fusion of 29. Juvenile phase is related with all,
gametes which develop to form the except. [Pg-9,M]
new organisms. A) It is pre-reproductive phase of an
D) All of these individual.
1.2 Sexual Reproduction B) It is of different durations in
different organisms.
C) It is period of vegetative growth.
22. The period of growth where an D) It involves appearance of flowers in
organism is not nature for sexual higher plant.
reproduction is- [Pg-9,E]
A) Juvenile phase B) Vegetative phase 1.2.1 Pre-fertilization Events
C) Both A and B D) None of these 1.2.1.1 Gametogenesis
23. Choose incorrect statement among
following- [Pg-9,M] 30. Isogametes present not in- [Pg11,E]
A) In perennial species its show clear A) Cladophora a fungi
cut vegetative, reproductive and B) Fucus an alga
senescent phase. C) Human beings
B) In annual & biennial species it is D) All of these
show cut vegetative, reproductive & 31. The given figure is of- [Pg-10,M]
senescent phase.
C) In perennial species it is very
difficult to define vegetative,
reproductive & senescent phase.
D) A and B both
24. Neelakuranji flower once bloom in-
[Pg-9,E]
A) 12 years B) 12 months
C) 12 days D) 36 years
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Papaya, Cucurbit, Datepalm,

Cockroach, Marchantia, Earthworm,
Sweet potato, Chara, Sponge ,
Tapeworm, Leech.
A) 4 B) 8
C) 7 D) 12
37. Which of the following is / are
hermaphrodites [Pg-11,E]
A) Cockroach B) Capeworm
C) Earthworm D) Leech
A) Heterogametes of Human beings 38. Choose correct statement [Pg-11,M]
B) Heterogametes of Fucus, a fungi A) A diploid parent produces gametes
C) Homogamete of Fucus, an alga by mitotic division
D) None of these B) A haploid parent produces gametes
32. Choose the correct statement- by mitotic division
[Pg-11,M] C) A haploid parent produces gametes
A) The process of formation of two by meiotic division
types of gametes is known as D) Both A & C
gametogenesis. 39. Monera, Fungi, algae and bryophytes
B) In Cladophora the two gametes are parental plant body is – [Pg-11,E]
so similar in appearance that it is A) Same as in pteridophytes
not possible to categorise them into B) Haploid
male & female gametes ; such C) Diploid
known as heterogametes. D) Both A & B
C) The male and female morphological 40. Meiocytes of human beings – [Pg-13,E]
distinct types of gamete is character A Undergo meiosis for gamete
of Fucus. formation
D) A & C both B) Undergo mitosis only
33. Plants may have both male female C) Both A & B
reproductive structures in same pant D) None of these
is– [Pg-11,E] 41. Meiocytes have – [Pg-13,E]
i) Bisexual A) One set of chromosomes
ii) Unisexual B) Two set of chromosomes
iii) Monoecious C Three set of chromosomes
iv) Dioecious D) All of these
A) i & iii B) i & iv 42. Choose correct response among
C) ii & iii D) ii & iv following – [Pg-12,E]
34. Staminate and pistillate flower bear on A) The female sex organ of Chara
different plant, term as – [Pg-11,E] positioned above antheridium
i) Bisexual B) Testis sac of earthworm positioned
ii) Unisexual below its ovary
iii) Monoecious C) Testis of cockroach positioned above
iv) Dioecious ovary of same cockroach individual.
A) i & iii B) i & iv D) A and B both
C) iv & iii D) iv & ii 43. Given diagram is of- [Pg-12,E]
35. Choose odd one with respect to
sexuality. [Pg-11,E]
A) Cucurbit B) Cockroach
D) Chara D) None of these
36. How many of following is
monoecious/bisexual – [Pg-11,M]
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compensate the loss male gamete

during transport.
C) In a majority of organisms, male
gametes and female gametes are
stationary.
D) In majority of organism including
human male gametes and female
gametes are motile.
50. Pollen grains carries- . [Pg-14,E]
A) Male gametes B) Female gametes
C) Meiocytes D) A and C both
A) Bisexual flower of potato
51. Pollen grain produces in- [Pg-14,E]
B) Unisexual flower of sweet potato
A) Stigma B) VBCarpel
C) Unisexual flower of potato
C) Anther D) B and C both
D) None of these
52. Dioecious plants show- [Pg-14,E]
44. Among following maximum number of
A) Self-pollination B) Cross pollination
chromosome is meiocytes of- [Pg-13,E]
C) A and B both D) Autogamy
A) Rice B) Maize
53. Peas- [Pg-14,E]
C) Potato D) Onion
A) Self-fertilizing
45. Arrange is ascending order, number of
B) Bisexual
chromosomes in gamete- [Pg-13,E]
C) A and B both
A) Housefly, Fruitfly, Maize, Cat
D) Cross-pollination only
B) Cat, Rat, Butterfly, Apple
54. Pollination is- [Pg-14,M]
C) Onion, Rice, Rat, Ophioglossum
A) Transfer of pollen grain from anther
D) Human, Potato, Dog, Butterfly
to stigma before it can lead to
46. Ophioglossum is- [Pg-13,E]
fertilization
A) Algae B) Bryophytes
B) Transfer of egg from female
C) Pteridophyte D) None of these
reproductive part to anther before it
47. Find mismatched column. [Pg-13,E]
Column-I Column-II Column-III
can lead to fertilization.
(Organis (Chromosome (Chromosom C) Transfer of pollen grain from
m numbe e androecium to anther before it can
) r in numb lead to fertilization
meiocy er in D) Essential step during sexual
te) game reproduction of mammals
te) 55. Most critical event in sexual
A) Maize 24 12 reproduction- [Pg-14,E]
B) Onion 16 8 A) Gametogenesis
C) Dog 78 39 B) Fertilization
D) Apple 34 17 C) Gamete transfer
48. In bryophyte, pteridophyte gamete D) Embryogenesis
transfer need- [Pg-13,E] 56. [Pg-14,E]
A) Air B) Water
C) Biotic agent D) None of these
49. Choose the correct statement- .
[Pg-13,E]
A) In a majority of organisms, male
gamete is stationary and female
gamete is motile.
B) A large number of male gametes
liberated during gamete transfer to
A) a = Fusion of gametes
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b = Zygote B) The offspring resulted from external

c = New individuals fertilization are extremely vulnerable
B) a = Parent organisms to predators threatening their
b = Fusion of gametes survival up to adulthood
c = Zygote C) Amphibians of plant kingdom show
C) a = Parent Organisms external fertilization
b Fusion of gametes D) None of these
c = Formation of two new 62. Choose the correct statement regarding
individuals gametes involve in internal fertilization-
D) a = Zygote [Pg-15,M]
b = Fusion of gamete A) Egg is formed inside female body is
c = New individual motile structure.
B) In seed plants, the non-motile male
1.2.2 Fertilization: gametes are carried to female
gametes.
57. Choose the correct statement-[Pg-14,M] C) There is significant reduction in
(I) Fusion of gametes is syngamy number of female gametes.
(II) Formation of diploid zygote is D) Both male and female gametes
result of fertilization produced in equal number and both
(III) Fusion of gametes is fertilization are motile.
A) I and II are correct, III is incorrect
B) II and III are correct, I is incorrect 1.2.3 Post-fertilization Events:
C) I, II, and III are correct
D) I, III are correct, II is incorrect 63. Post-fertilization events involves-
58. Which bird of following show [Pg-15,E]
parthenogenesis- [Pg-14,E] A) Formation of zygote
A) Parrot B) Turkey B) Embryogenesis
C) Ostrich D) None of these C) Gamete transfer
59. Parthenogenesis is- [Pg-14,M] D) Both A and B
A) Development of new organism from
male gamete only without 1.2.3.1 The Zygote:
fertilization
B) Development of new organisms from 64. Which is universally occurring event
both male and female gametes during sexual reproduction- [Pg-15,E]
without fertilization A) Pollination
C) Development of new organisms from B) Endosperm formation
unfertilized female gametes C) Zygote formation
D) All of these D) All of these
60. From enlist of organisms, how man 65. Choose the correct statements-
shows external fertilization and internal [Pg-15,H]
fertilization respectively. [Pg-14,H] A) In some organisms of fungi and
Bryophytes, Algae, Pteridophytes, algae, Zygote develop thin wall that
Gymnosperms, Angiosperm, Fungi, is resistant to desiccation and
Reptiles, Birds, Mammals, Amphibians, damage.
Fishes. B) In haplontic life cycle diploid spore
A) 3, 8 B) 5, 6 is form after mitosis of zygote that
C) 6, 5 D) None of these lead to development of new
61. Choose incorrect statement about individuals.
external fertilization. [Pg-14,M] C) Haploid spores are formed after
A) Release a large number of gametes meiosis in zygote that lead to
into the surrounding media.
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development of new individuals C) Unfertilized eggs undergoes for

during haplontic life cycle incubation & hatching of new
D) All of these individual
66. Connecting link between one generation D) A and B both
to other generation is- [Pg-15,E] 72. Choose incorrect about viviparous.
A) Gametes B) Spores [Pg-16,M]
C) Zygote D) All of these A) Zygote develop into young one inside
67. Life began as ____ in human beings. body of female organism.
[Pg-15,E] B) Chance of survival than viviparous
A) Zygote B) Gametes organism is lesser.
C) Foetus D) None of these C) Change of survival of young ones of
human is more than young ones of
1.2.3.2 Embryogenesis: reptilians.
D) None of these
68. Embryogenesis is- [Pg-15,E] 73. In flowering plant, zygote is formed
A) Development of embryo from spore inside- [Pg-16,E]
B) Development of embryo from zygote A) Ovule
C) Development of embryo from B) Stamen
gametes C) Stigma
D) None of these D) Embryo sac present in stamen
69. Embryogenesis involves- [Pg-15,E] 74. After fertilization, which of following
A) Meiosis and cell differentiation floral part does not either and fall off in
B) Mitosis and cell differentiation every plant- [Pg-16,E]
C) Cell division (Meiosis & Mitosis) and A) Calyx B) Corolla
cell differentiation C) Androecium D) Gynoecium
D) Cell division (Meiosis & Mitosis) only 75. Seed and fruit develop from- [Pg-16,E]
70. Statement-I : Cell divisions increase the A) Ovary & Ovule respectively
number of cells in developing embryo. B) Ovule & Ovary respectively
Statement-II : Cell differentiation helps C) Ovary & Ovary respectively
groups of cells to undergo certain D) Ovule & Ovule respectively
modification to form specialized tissues 76. [Pg-16,E]
and organ to form an organisms.
[Pg-15,M]
A) Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct
B) Statement-I is correct while
Statement-II is incorrect
C) Statement-I is incorrect while
Statement-II is correct
D) Statement-I and Statement-II are A) a = Seed b = Pericarp
incorrect. B) a = Pericarp b = Seed
71. In oviparous animals- [Pg-16,M] C) a = Pericarp b = Pericarp
A) Unfertilized egg laid in safe place is D) a = Seed b = Seed
environment
B) Fertilized eggs are covered by hard
calcareous shell
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ANSWER KEY
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans A D C B C D C D A C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A A A A B A C A A A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C C A A B A B A D D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D D A B B B A B B A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B A D C D C A B B A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C B C A B A C B C A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C B B C C C A B B A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76
Ans B B A D B B
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12 Human Reproduction
Para- 3.1 5. The regions outside the seminiferous

tubules that contain Leydig cells are
The Male Reproductive System called [Pg-43,E]
(A) interstitial spaces
1. The testes are situated outside the (B) antrum
abdominal cavity within a pouch called (C) scrotum
[Pg-43,E] (D) none of these
6. Testicular hormones called androgens
(A) urethra (B) scrotum are secreted by [Pg-43,E]
(C) penis (D) none of these (A) interstitial cells (B) Leydig cells
2. In humans, sperms are produced in (C) Sertoli cells (D) both (a) and (b)
[Pg-43,E]
7. Which one is odd from the following
(A) epididymis structures with reference to the male
reproductive system. [NCERT Exemplar]
(B) rete testis
[Pg-43,M]
(C) seminiferous tubules
(A) Rete testis (B) Epididymis
(D) vas deferens
(C) Vasa efferentia (D) Isthmus
3. Sertoli cells which line the seminiferous
8. The vas deferens opens into urethra as
tubules from inside [Pg-43,E] [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-43,E]
(A) undergo meiotic division to produce
sperms (A) epididymis
(B) provide nutrition to the germ cells
(C) synthesise and secrete testicular (B)ejaculatory duct
hormones (C) efferent ductule
(D) All of these
4. Refer to the given figure showing (D) ureter
sectional view of seminiferous tubule. In
9. Which of the following depicts the correct
the figure, some parts are labelled as A,
pathway of transport of sperms?
B, C and D. Identify the part which
[Pg-43,M]
provides nutrition to the developing
sperms. [Pg-44,E] (A) Rete testis → Efferent ductules →
Epididymis → Vas deference
(B) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent
ductules → Vas deference
(C) Rete testis → Vas deference →
Efferent ductules → Epididymis
(D) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas
deference → Epididymis
10. Among the following which one is not an
accessory duct of male reproductive
system? [Pg-43,E]
(A) Rete testis (B) Vasa efferentia
(A) A (B) C
(C) Vas deferens (D) Urethra
(C) D (D) B 11. The ejaculatory duct transports the
sperms to the outside through [Pg-43,E]
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(A) urethra (B) rete testis (D) 4 3 2 1

14. Urethral meatus is/are [NCERT
(C) vasa efferentia (D) none of these Exemplar] [Pg-43,M]
12. Refer to the given figure and choose the (A) the urinogenital duct
correct option for the parts labelled as A, (B) opening of vas deferens into urethra
B, C and D. [Pg-43,M] (C) external opening of the urinogenital
duct
(D) muscles surrounding the urinogenital
duct
15. Among the following which one is not a
male accessory gland? [NCERT
Exemplar] [Pg-43,E]
(A) Seminal vesicle
(B) Ampulla
(C) Prostate
(D) Bulbourethral gland
16. Match the Column-I (parts) to Column-II
a b c d (feature) and choose the correct option
A Vas Semin Prostate Bulboureth from the codes given below. [Pg-43,M]
deferens al gland ral gland
vesicle Column I Column II
B Vasa Prosta Seminal Bulboureth (a) Sertoli cells (1) Testicular
efferentia te vesicle ral gland hormones
gland (b) Leydig cells (2) External
C Prostate Semin Bulboureth Vas opening of
gland al ral gland deferens urethra
vesicle (c) Epididymis (3) Nutrition to
D Bulbouret Vas Prostate Vasa the germ
hral gland defere gland efferentia cells
ns (d) Urethral (4) Male sex
meatus accessory
duct
13. Match the parts given in Column-I to Codes-
their characteristic features in Column-II
and choose the correct option from the a b c d
codes given below. [Pg-43,M] (A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
Column I Column II (C) 1 2 3 4
(a) Penis (1) Loose fold of (D) 2 4 1 3
skin
(b) Glans penis (2) Male
external 17. Seminal plasma is contributed by:
genitalia [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-44,E]
(c) Foreskin (3) External
opening (I) Seminal vesicle
urethra (II) Prostate
(d) Urethral (4) Enlarged (III) Urethra
meatus end of penis (IV) Bulbourethral gland
Codes- (A) I and II (B) I, II and IV
(C) II, III and IV (D) I and IV
a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
18. Read the following statements about
(B) 3 4 1 2 seminal plasma and choose the correct
(C) 2 4 3 1 statement(s) from the given options.
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[Pg-44,M] Para-3.2
(I) Seminal plasma is secreted by
seminal vesicles, prostate and The Female Reproductive System
bulbourethral glands.
(II) It is rich in sucrose and calcium. 22. The primary female sex organ is/are
(III) It contains certain enzymes also. [Pg-44,E]
(A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) I and III (D) All of these (A) vagina
19. Read the following statements about (B) uterus
male reproductive system and choose the (C) ovaries
incorrect statements from the given (D) external genitalia
options. [Pg-43,M] 23. Among the following which one is not the
(I) It is located in the pelvis region. part of female reproductive system?
(II) The testes are situated outside [Pg-44,E]
the abdominal cavity within a (A) Cervix (B) Sertoli cells
pouch called scrotum. (C) Mammary glands (D) Oviducts
(III) Each testis has about 350 24. The parts that constitute the female
testicular tubules. accessory ducts include [Pg-45,E]
(IV) Penis, the male external genitalia (A) Fallopian ducts (B) vagina
is made up of special tissues to (C) ovaries (D) both (a) and (b)
facilitate insemination. 25. The funnel-shaped part of Fallopian tube
that remains closer to the ovary is –
(A) I and III (B) III and IV [Pg-45,E]
(C) I and IV (D) Only III (A) infundibulum (B) fimbriae
(C) ampulla (D) isthmus
20. Assertion: The scrotum helps in 26. The part of the oviduct that joins the
maintaining the low temperature of the uterus is [Pg-46,E]
testes. (A) ampulla (B) isthmus
Reason: The low temperature of the (C) fimbriae (D) infundibulum
testes is necessary for spermatogenesis. 27. The uterus is also called [Pg-46,E]
[Pg-43,H] (A) womb (B) cervix
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (C) cervical canal (D) none of these
and reason is the correct explanation 28. The inner glandular layer that lines the
of assertion. uterine cavity is [Pg-46,E]
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, (A) perimetrium (B) myometrium
but reason is not the correct (C) endometrium (D) ectometrium
explanation of assertion. 29. The uterine layer that undergoes cyclical
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. changes during menstrual cycle is
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. [Pg-46,E]
21. Assertion: The enlarged part of penis is (A) myometrium (B) endometrium
called glans penis. (C) perimetrium (D) both (a) and (b)
Reason: The glans penis is covered by a 30. Which uterine layer exhibits strong
loose fold of skin called foreskin. contractions during the delivery of the
[Pg-44,H] baby? [Pg-46,E]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) Endometrium (B) Perimetrium
and reason is the correct explanation (C) Myometrium (D) Both (a) and (c)
of assertion. 31. The female external genitalia include
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, [Pg-46,E]
but reason is not the correct (A) mons pubis (B) labia majora
explanation of assertion. (C) clitoris (D) all of these
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. 32. The opening of the vagina is often covered
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. partially by a membrane called [Pg-46,E]
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(A) hymen (B) clitoris a b c

(C) labia minora (D) none of these (A) 2 4 3
33. A tiny finger-like structure which lies at (B) 4 1 3
the upper junction of the two labia (C) 1 2 3
minora is [Pg-46,E] (D) 3 1 2
(A) hymen (B) mons pubis
(C) clitoris (D) none of these 39. Match the parts of female external
34. How many mammary lobes are found in genitalia in Column-I with their
each breast? [Pg-47,E] characteristic features in Column-II.
(A) 20–25 (B) 15–20 Choose the correct option from the codes
(C) 10–15 (D) 25–30 given below. [Pg-46,M]
35. The alveoli of mammary glands open into
[Pg-47,E] Column I Column II
(A) mammary tubules (B) mammary duct (a) Mons pubis (1) Fleshy folds
(C) lactiferous duct (D) mammary lobes of tissue
36. The milk is sucked out through [Pg-47,E] (b) Labia (2) Cushion of
(A) mammary duct (B) lactiferous duct majora fatty tissue
(C) alveoli (D) none of these (c) Hymen (3) Tiny finger-
like
37. Match the parts of female reproductive
structure
system given in Column-I with their (d) Clitoris (4) Covers
functions in Column-II and choose the opening of
correct option from the codes given vagina
below. [Pg-46,47,M] Codes-
Column I Column II a b c d
(a) Ovary (1) Delivery of baby (A) 2 1 4 3
(b) Fimbriae (2) Steroid hormone (B) 4 3 2 1
(c) Myometrium (3) Secretion of milk (C) 1 4 3 2
(d) Cells of alveoli (4) Collection of ovum (D) 2 1 3 4
Codes-
a b c d 40. The edges of the infundibulum possess
(A) 2 4 1 3 finger like projections that -[Pg-45,M]
(B) 4 3 2 1 (A) are the sight of fertilisation.
(C) 3 4 1 2
(B) help in the collection of ovum after
(D) 1 4 3 2
fertilisation.
(C) are responsible for the release of egg.
38. Match the layers of uterus given in (D) none of these
Column-I with their characteristic 41. Read the following statements about
features given in Column-II and choose uterus and choose the correct option
the correct option from the codes given from the codes given below. [Pg-45,46,M]
below. [Pg-46,M]
(I) The shape of the uterus is like inverted
Column I Column II pear.
(A) Perimetrium (1) Thick layer of
smooth muscles (II) The uterus opens into vagina through
(B) Myometrium (2) Thick a narrow cervix.
membranous
(III) The uterus along with cervix forms
layer
the birth canal.
(C) Endometrium (3) Glandular layer
(4) Thin Codes
membranous
layer (A) I and III (B) II and III
Codes- (C) I and II (D) All of these
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42. Read the following statements about (C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
mammary glands and choose the incorrect.
incorrect statement. [Pg-47,M] (D) Both assertion and reason are
(I) The mammary glands contain incorrect.
glandular tissue and fat. 46. Assertion: Mons pubis is a cushion of
(II) The mammary lobes of breasts fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic
contain alveoli which secrete milk. hair.
(III) The milk secreted by alveoli is stored Reason: The labia majora are paired
in lactiferous duct. folds of tissue under the labia minora.
(A) Only II (B) Only III [Pg-46,H]
(C) Only I (D) I and III (A) Both assertion and reason are correct
43. Assertion: Ovaries are the primary sex and reason is the correct explanation
organs. of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct
Reason: Ovaries produce the female but reason is not the correct
gamete. [Pg-44,H] explanation of assertion.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct (C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
and reason is the correct explanation incorrect.
of assertion. (D) Both assertion and reason are
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct incorrect.
but reason is not the correct 47. Assertion: The alveoli of mammary lobes
explanation of assertion. open into their lumen.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is Reason: Several lactiferous ducts join to
incorrect. form a mammary duct through which
(D) Both assertion and reason are milk is sucked out. [Pg-47,H]
incorrect.
44. Assertion: Ovaries produce gamete as (A) Both assertion and reason are
well as steroid hormones. correct and reason is the correct
Reason: The oviducts, ovaries and cervix explanation of assertion.
constitute the female accessory ducts. (B) Both assertion and reason are
[Pg-44,H] correct but reason is not the correct
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct explanation of assertion.
and reason is the correct explanation (C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
of assertion. incorrect.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct (D) Both assertion and reason are
but reason is not the correct incorrect.
explanation of assertion. Para-3.3
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
incorrect. Gametogenesis
(D) Both assertion and reason are
incorrect. 48. The process of producing gametes by
45. Assertion: The uterus opens into vagina primary sex organs is known as-
through a narrow cervix. [Pg-47,E]
Reason: The cavity of cervix is called (A) gametogenesis
cervical canal. [Pg-46,H] (B) spermatogenesis
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct (C) oogenesis
and reason is the correct explanation (D) none of these
of assertion. 49. The immature, diploid male germ cells
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct that produce sperms are [Pg-47,E]
but reason is not the correct (A) spermatogonia
explanation of assertion. (B) secondary spermatocytes
(C) spermatids
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(D) spermatozoa (C) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa from

50. Which of the following cells during Sertoli cells are released into the
gametogenesis is normally diploid? cavity of seminiferous tubules, while
[AIPMT-2015] [Pg-47,M] in spermiation spermatozoa are
(A) Spermatid formed.
(B) Spermatogonia (D) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(C) Secondary polar body formed, while in spermiation
(D) Primary polar body spermatozoa are released from Sertoli
51. Among the following, identify the cell(s) cells into the cavity of seminiferous
which undergo mitotic division during tubules.
spermatogenesis? [Pg-47,E] 56. Spermatogenesis starts due to significant
(A) Primary spermatocytes increase in the secretion of [Pg-47,E]
(B) Secondary spermatocytes (A) FSH (B) GnRH
(C) Spermatids (C) LH (D) oxytocin
(D) Spermatogonia 57. Refer to the given figure showing
52. Spermatogenesis is the process in which diagrammatic sectional view of a
immature male germ cells undergo seminiferous tubule. In the figure, some
division to produce sperms. Choose the parts are labeled as A, B, C and D.
correct one with reference to above. Identify the part which gets activated by
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-47,H] FSH. [Pg-47,M]
(A) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes
and always undergo meiotic cell
division.
(B) Primary spermatocytes divide by
mitotic cell division.
(C) Secondary spermatocytes have 23
chromosomes and undergo second
meiotic division.
(D) Spermatozoa are transformed into
spermatids.
53. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads
become embedded in [Pg-47,E]
(A) Leydig cells (B) antrum (A) A (B) B
(C) Sertoli cells (D) interstitial cells (C) D (D) C
54. During spermiation the sperms are 58. Refer to the given flowchart. In it, some
released from [NEET Exemplar] [Pg-47,E] spaces are mentioned as A, B, C and D.
Identify the correct option for them from
(A) seminiferous tubules the codes given below. [Pg-47,M]
(B) vas deferens
(C) epididymis Codes-
(D) prostate gland
55. The difference between spermiogenesis
and spermiation is [NEET-2018]
[Pg-47,H]
(A) in spermiogenesis spermatids are
formed, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
(B) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation A B C D
spermatids are formed.
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A GnRH LH Sertoli Androgen

cells s
B LH GnRH Androgen Sertoli
s cells
C Androgen LH Interstitial FSH
s cells
D FSH Sertol GnRH LH
i cells
59. The anterior portion of the sperm head is
covered by a cap-like structure called
[Pg-48,E]
(A) middle piece (B) antrum (I) The acrosome is filled with enzymes
(C) acrosome (D) none of these that help in fertilizing the ovum.
60. Match the Column-I representing parts of (II) The neck possesses numerous
the sperm to Column-II showing their mitochondria.
functions and choose the correct option. (III) Tail is responsible for sperm motility.
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-48,M] (IV) The human male ejaculates 50–100
million sperms during a coitus.
Column I Column II
(A) II and IV (B) I and III
(a) Head (1) Enzymes
(b) Middle piece (2) Sperm
(C) I and II (D) III and IV
motility 63. Which among the following has 23
(c) Acrosome (3) Energy chromosomes? [Pg-48,E]
(d) Tail (4) Genetic (A) Spermatogonia (B) Zygote
material (C) Secondary oocyte (D) Oogonia
Codes- 64. The oogenesis is markedly different from
spermatogenesis because [Pg-48,E]
A B C D (A) it is initiated during embryonic
(A) 2 4 1 3 development stage.
(B) 4 3 1 2 (B) it produces diploid gametes.
(C) 4 1 2 3
(C) it produces sperms also in special
(D) 2 1 3 4
conditions.
(D) none of these
61. The semen of human male contains 65. The tertiary follicle is characterized by a
[Pg-49,E] fluid filled cavity called [Pg-48,E]
(A) antrum (B) corpus luteum
(A) seminal plasma (B) sperms (C) matrix (D) none of these
(C) enzymes (D) both (a) and (b) 66. In which stage primary oocyte completes
62. Refer to the given figure showing its first meiotic division?
structure of a sperm. The figure is (A) Primary follicle
followed by four (I–IV) statements. (B) Secondary follicle
Choose the incorrect statement(s) about (C) Tertiary follicle
it. [Pg-48,M] (D) None of these
67. Match Column-I with Column-II and
choose the correct option from the codes
given below. [Pg-48,49,M]
Column I Column II
(a) Oogonia (1) Antrum
(b) Tertiary (2) Gamete
follicle mother cells
(c) Secondary (3) Haploid
follicle
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(d) Secondary (4) More layers Reason: Millions of oogonia are formed
oocyte of granulosa within each ovary every month. [Pg-48,H]
Codes-
(A) Both assertion and reason are true
a b c d and reason is the correct explanation
(A) 4 3 2 1 of assertion.
(B) 1 2 3 4 (B) Both assertion and reason true but
(C) 2 1 4 3 reason is not the correct explanation
(D) 3 4 2 1 of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
68. Extrusion of second polar body from egg (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
nucleus occurs [NEET 2019] [Pg-49,M] 72. Assertion: A large haploid secondary
(A) after entry of sperm, but before oocyte is formed due to unequal division.
fertilisation Reason: A tiny second polar body is
(B) after fertilisation formed during this division. [Pg-48,H]
(C) before entry of sperm into ovum (A) Both assertion and reason are true
(D) simultaneously with first cleavage and reason is the correct explanation
69. Refer to the given figure showing of assertion.
diagrammatic section view of ovary. The (B) Both assertion and reason true but
encircled part of figure is showing a reason is not the correct explanation
process of oogenesis. Identify it as well as of assertion.
the follicle which is involved in this (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
process. [Pg-49,E] (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Para-3.4
Menstrual Cycle
73. The reproductive cycle in the female

primates is called [Pg-49,E]
(A) menstrual cycle
(B) oestrous cycle
(C) reproduction cycle
(A) Spermiation, Secondary follicle
(D) none of these
(B) Menstruation, Primary follicle
74. Menarche that begins at puberty is
(C) Ovulation, Graafian follicle
[Pg-49,E]
(D) Ovulation, Tertiary follicle
(A) cessation of menstrual cycle
70. Assertion: Spermatogenesis starts at the
(B) first menstruation
age of puberty.
(C) period of pregnancy in which
Reason: There is a significant increase in
menstruation ceases
the secretion of gonadotropin releasing
(D) none of these
hormone at puberty. [Pg-47,H]
75. The cycle of events starting from one
(A) Both assertion and reason are true menstruation till the next one is called
and reason is the correct explanation [Pg-49,E]
of assertion. (A) menopause (B) menarche
(B) Both assertion and reason are true (C) menstrual cycle (D) oestrous cycle
but reason is not the correct 76. The menstrual phase of menstrual cycle
explanation of assertion. lasts for: [Pg-50,E]
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. (A) 8–15 days (B) 1–2 days
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (C) 1 day (D) 3–5 days
71. Assertion: Oogenesis is initiated at 77. Menstrual flow results due to breakdown
puberty. of [Pg-50,E]
(A) endometrial lining
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(B) blood vessels Identify them and choose the correct

(C) myometrial lining option from the codes given below.
(D) both (a) and (b) [Pg-51,M]
78. Menstruation only occurs if [Pg-50,E]
(A) implantation has occurred
(B) the released ovum is fertilized
(C) the released ovum is not fertilized
(D) both (A) and (D)
79. The lack of menstruation may be due to
[Pg-50,E]
(A) pregnancy
(B) stress
(C) poor health
(D) all of these
80. The menstrual phase is followed by
[Pg-50,E] Codes-
(A) follicular phase A B C

(B) luteal phase (A) Increase Increase Estrogens
(B) Decrease Increase Estrogens
(C) secretory phase
(C) Decrease Decrease Testosterone
(D) both (b) and (c)
(D) Increase Decrease TSH
81. What change(s) occur in ovary and/or
86. Match the items given in Column-I with
uterus during follicular phase of
those in Column-II and select correct
menstrual cycle? [Pg-50,E]
option from the codes given below.
(A) Formation of Graafian follicle [NEET–2018] [Pg-51,M]
(B) Formation of corpus luteum
Column I Column II
(C) Regeneration of endometrium
(a) Proliferative (1) Breakdown of
(D) Both (A) and (C) phase endometrial
82. The changes in the ovary and uterus lining
during proliferative phase are induced by (b) Secretary (2) Follicular
changes in the levels of [Pg-50,E] phase phase
(c) Menstruation (3) Luteal phase
(A) pituitary hormone
Codes-
(B) ovarian hormone
(C) pineal hormone a b c
(D) both (a) and (b) (A) 3 2 1
83. In the ovary of a healthy human female (B) 1 3 2
mature Graafian follicle is generally (C) 2 3 1
present around [NCERT Exemplar] (D) 3 1 2
[Pg-51,M]
(A) 5–8 day of menstrual cycle 87. Both LH and FSH attain a peak level on
(B) 11–17 day of menstrual cycle about ‘A’ day of cycle. Choose the correct
(C) 18–23 day of menstrual cycle option for ‘A’. [Pg-51,E]
(D) 24–28 day of menstrual cycle (A) 10th day (B) 14th day
84. During proliferative phase, the growing (C) 19th day (D) 5th day
follicles secrete [Pg-51,E] 88. Read the following statements about LH
surge and choose the incorrect one.
(A) LH (B) FSH [Pg-51,M]
(C) gonadotropins (D) estrogens (A) LH surge is rapid secretion of luteal
85. Refer to the given flowchart, in which hormone.
three parts are labeled as A, B and C. (B) It occurs in the mid of the cycle.
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(C) LH surge induces degeneration of (D) Secondary follicle → Graafian follicle

corpus luteum. 94. Read the following statements about
(D) It causes ovulation. corpus luteum and choose the correct
89. The release of ovum occurs during which ones from the following options.
phase of menstrual cycle? [Pg-51,E] [Pg-50,51,H]
(A) Follicular phase
(B) Proliferative phase (I) It is formed during ovulatory phase
(C) Ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
(D) Secretory phase (II) It secretes large amounts of
90. The ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle is progesterone.
followed by [Pg-51,E] (III) In the absence of ovulation, the
(A) luteal phase corpus luteum degenerates.
(B) follicular phase (IV) The degeneration of corpus luteum
(C) proliferative phase causes disintegration of
(D) menstrual phase endometrium.
91. No new follicles develop in the luteal (A) I and III (B) II and III
phase of the menstrual cycle because (C) II and IV (D) I and IV
[NEET Odisha-2019] [Pg-51,M] 95. In human beings, permanent cessation of
menstrual cycle is called: [Pg-51,E]
(A) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the (A) Menopause
luteal phase (B) Menarche
(B) follicles do not remain in the ovary (C) Ovulation
after ovulation (D) None of these
(C) FSH levels are high in the luteal 96-97. Refer to the given figure to answer
phase. the question no 96–97. The figure is
(D) LH levels are high in the luteal phase. showing diagrammatic presentation of
92. Match the phases of menstrual cycle various events during a menstrual cycle.
given in Column-I with the hormones In the figure, A, B and C, D show the
secreted during that phase in Column-II. levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones
Choose the correct option from the codes respectively.
given below. [Pg-50,51,M]
Column I Column II
(a) Follicular (1) Progesterone
phase
(b) Ovulatory (2) Gonadotropins
phase
(c) Luteal (3) LH surge
Phase
(4) Estrogens
Codes-
a b c
(A) 4 3,1 2 96. The gradual increase of which hormone
(B) 2,4 3 1 stimulates the secretion of hormone C
(C) 2 4,1 3 [Pg-50,E]
(D) 2 1 4,3 (A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) Both (a) and (b)
97. The rapid increase of which hormone will
93. Among the following which change induce rupture of Graafian follicle and
occurs during luteal phase? [Pg-51,E] thereby the release of ovum? [Pg-50,E]
(A) Corpus luteum → Graafian follicle (A) A (B) C
(B) Graafian follicle → Corpus luteum (C) B (D) D
(C) Primary follicle → Secondary follicle
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98. Choose the incorrect statement from the (B) Both assertion and reason are true
following. [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-51,M] but reason is not the correct
(I) High levels of estrogen triggers the explanation of assertion.
ovulatory surge. (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(II) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
give rise to functional ova in regular 102. Assertion: During pregnancy, all events
cycles from puberty onwards. of the menstrual cycle stop.
(III) Sperms released from seminiferous
tubules are poorly motile/non-motile. Reason: In the absence of fertilisation, the
(IV) Progesterone level is high during the corpus luteum degenerates. [Pg-51,H]
post ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle. (A) Both assertion and reason are true and
(A) I and III (B) II and IV reason is the correct explanation of
(C) I and IV (D) I and II assertion.
99. Consider the following features. (B) Both assertion and reason are true but
[Pg-51,M] reason is not the correct explanation of
(i) Transformation of Graafian follicle into assertion.
corpus luteum. (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(ii) Secretion of large amount of (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
progesterone from corpus luteum. Para-3.5
(iii) Maintenance of endometrial lining of
the uterus. Fertilization and Implantation
Select the correct phase of menstrual
cycle that possesses all the above 103. The sperms released during copulation,
characteristics. finally reach to which part of the
(A) Follicular phase Fallopian tube? [Pg-51,E]
(B) Secretory phase (A) Infundibulum
(C) Proliferative phase (B) Isthmus
(D) Ovulatory phase (C) Ampulla
100. Assertion: The lack of mensuration may (D) Ampullary-isthmic
be indicative of pregnancy. 104. All copulations not lead to the
Reason: Mensuration only occurs if the fertilisation and pregnancy. Choose the
released ovum is not fertilised. [Pg-50,H] correct reason for the same from the
following options. [Pg-51,M]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) Fertilisation can only occur if sperms
and reason is the correct explanation are transported to the ampullary-
of assertion. isthmic junction before the ovum.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true (B) Fertilisation can only occur if the
but reason is not the correct ovum and sperms are transported
explanation of assertion. simultaneously to the ampullary-
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. isthmic junction.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (C) Fertilisation can only occur if ovum is
101. Assertion: During secretory phase the transported to the ampullary–isthmic
levels of LH and FSH gradually increase. junction before the sperms.
Reason: The increased levels of FSH and (D) None of these
LH induce Graafian follicles to secrete 105. Capacitation occurs in [NEET–2017]
progesterone. [Pg-51,H] [Pg-51,M]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) epididymis
and reason is the correct explanation (B) vas deferens
of assertion. (C) female reproductive tract
(D) rete testis
106. Capacitation refers to changes in the
[AIPMT-2015] [Pg-51,M]
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(A) ovum before fertilisation (C) chorion (D) amnion

(B) ovum after fertilisation 111. Match the events given in Column-I with
(C) sperm after fertilisation their characteristic features in Column-II
(D) sperm before fertilisation and choose the correct option from the
107. Refer to the given figure showing an ovum codes given below. [Pg-52,M]
surrounded by few sperms. Sperm ‘A’ in
Column I Column II
the figure is trying to fertilise the ovum.
(a) Fertilisation (1) Female
How will this sperm ‘A’ ensure that no
reproductive
other sperm can fertilise the ovum? tract
[Pg-51,M] (b) Capacitation (2) Contact of
sperm with
zona pellucida
(c) Acrosomal (3) Before
reaction fertilisation
and after
ovulation
(d) Second polar (4) Ampullary -
body isthmic
junction
Codes-
a b c d
(A) 1 4 2 3
(A) By inducing changes in the cells of (B) 4 1 2 3
corona radiata. (C) 3 2 4 1
(B) By inducing changes in the zona (D) 4 1 3 2
pellucida layer of the ovum.
(C) By inducing changes in the
112. The embryo having 8–16 blastomeres is
perivitelline space of the ovum.
called [Pg-52,E]
(D) By releasing some chemicals to kill
(A) blastula (B) gastrula
other sperms.
(C) morula (D) trophoblast
108. The membranous cover of the ovum that
113. Morula is known as a developmental
is found at the time of ovulation is
stage [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-52,E]
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-51,E]
(A) between the zygote and blastocyst
(A) corona radiata (B) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(B) zona radiata (C) after the implantation
(C) zona pellucida (D) between implantation and parturition
(D) chorion 114. Refer to the given flowchart. It has some
109. During acrosomal reaction the sperm blank spaces mentioned as A, B, C and
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-51,E] D. Choose the correct option for these A,
B, C and D. [Pg-51,52,H]
(A) comes in contact with zona pellucida
of the ova.
(B) undergoes reactions within the
uterine environment of female.
(C) undergoes reactions within the
epididymal environment of the male.
(D) produces androgens in the uterus.
110. The secretions of the acrosome help the
sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of
ovum through [Pg-51,E]
(A) corona radiata (B) zona pellucida
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(B) Y-chromosomes
(C) 50% gametes have X and 50% have Y-
chromosomes
(D) 25% gametes have X and 75% have Y-
chromosomes
120. Cleavage that occurs in the zygote as it
moves through the isthmus of oviduct
towards the uterus is [Pg-52,E]
(A) meiotic division
(B) mitotic division
(C) reductional division
(D) none of these
121. Match the following and choose the
correct option from the codes given
below. [Pg-52,533,M]
(A) Morula Blastocyst Trophoblast Inner cell
mass
(B) Blastocyst Morula Trophoblast Inner cell Column I Column II
mass (a) Trophoblast (1) Embedding of
(C) Morula Blastocyst Inner cell mass Blastocyst in
Trophoblast the
(D) Blastocyst Morula Inner cell mass endometrium
Trophoblast (b) Cleavage (2) Group of cells
115. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are that would
differentiate as
arranged into [Pg-52,E]
embryo
(A) an outer trophoblast and inner cell (c) Inner cell (3) Outer layer of
mass mass blastocyst
attached to the
(B) an outer cell mass and inner
endometrium
trophoblast
(d) Implantation (4) Mitotic division
(C) an outer cell mass and inner cell mass of zygote
(D) none of these Codes-
116. During embryogenesis which part of
blastocyst gets differentiated into a b c d
embryo? [Pg-53,E] (A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(A) Trophoblast (B) Inner cell mass (C) 3 1 2 4
(C) Morula (D) Both (a) and (b) (D) 2 4 3 1
117. The embedding of blastocyst in the
endometrium of uterus is called
[Pg-53,E] 122. Refer to the given figure showing
transport of ovum, fertilisation and
(A) pregnancy (B) lactation passage of growing embryo through
(C) embryogenesis (D) implantation Fallopian tube. The figure is followed by
118. Extrusion of second polar body from egg four statements. Choose the incorrect
nucleus occurs [NEET–2015] [Pg-52,M] statement about it. [Pg-52,M]
(A) after entry of sperm but before
fertilisation
(B) after fertilisation
(C) before entry of sperm into ovum
(D) simultaneously with first cleavage
119. All the haploid gametes produced by the
female have [Pg-53,M]
(A) X-chromosomes
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125. Assertion: The blastomeres in the

blastocyst are arranged into trophoblast
and inner cell mass.
Reason: The trophoblast layer gets
attached to the endometrium. [Pg-52,H]
and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(A) The second meiotic division of (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
secondary oocyte occurs after
fertilisation.
Para-3.6
(B) The embryo with 8–16 blastomeres is
Pregnancy and Embryonic
called morula.
(C) The trophoblast layer of blastocyst Development
gets embedded in the endometrium.
(D) The cells of inner cell mass 126. The finger-like projections that appear on
differentiate to form embryo. the trophoblast after implantation are
123. Assertion: All copulations do not lead to called [Pg-53,E]
fertilisation and pregnancy. (A) trophoectoderm (B) chorionic villi
(C) placenta (D) none of these
Reason: Fertilisation can only occur if 127. The structural and functional unit
the ovum and sperms are transported formed between the developing embryo
simultaneously to the ampullary–isthmic (foetus) and maternal body is called
junction. [Pg-51,H] [Pg-53,E]
(A) placenta
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (B) trophoblast
and reason is the correct explanation (C) chorionic villi
of assertion. (D) trophoectoderm
(B) Both assertion and reason are true 128. The embryo remains connected to the
but reason is not the correct placenta through [Pg-53,E]
explanation of assertion. (A) chorionic villi
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (B) trophoblast
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (C) umbilical cord
124. Assertion: The secretions of the (D) none of these
acrosome help the sperm enter into the 129. Choose the incorrect statement about
cytoplasm of the ovum. placenta. [Pg-53,H]
Reason: The entry of sperm into the
cytoplasm of the ovum is responsible for (A) The placenta facilitates the supply of
the capacitation of sperms. [Pg-51,H] oxygen and nutrients to the embryo.
(B) It helps in the removal of CO2 and
(A) Both assertion and reason are true excretory/ waste materials produced
and reason is the correct explanation by the embryo.
of assertion. (C) The placenta is connected to the
(B) Both assertion and reason are true embryo through umbilical cord.
but reason is not the correct (D) Placenta acts like an endocrine tissue
explanation of assertion. and produces several enzymes also.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. 130. Which of the following hormones is not
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. secreted by human placenta? [NCERT
Exemplar] [Pg-53,E]
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(A) hCG (B) Estrogen (C) Inner cell mass

(C) Progesterone (D) LH (D) None of these
131. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, 137. Refer to the given figure showing human
estrogen, progesterone are produced by foetus within the uterus. How will the
[NEET–2016] [Pg-53,E] removal of ‘A’ in the figure affect the
(A) Fallopian tube (B) pituitary growth of foetus? [Pg-53,M]
(C) ovary (D) placenta
132. A hormone that is secreted by ovary in
the later phase of pregnancy is [Pg-53,E]
(A) estrogen (B) FSH
(C) relaxin (D) hCG
133. The hormone(s) that is/are produced
during pregnancy only [Pg-53,E]
(A) hCG (B) hPL
(C) relaxin (D) all of these
134. The levels of estrogens, progestogens,
cortisol, prolactin, etc., increase many (A) Secretion of hCG hormone will stop
fold in blood during pregnancy. It is (B) Secretion of relaxin hormone will stop
necessary for [Pg-53,M] (C) Transportation of substances to and
from the embryo will stop
(A) supporting the fetal growth (D) All of these
(B) metabolic changes in the mother 138. The inner cell mass contains certain cells
(C) the maintenance of pregnancy called stem cells which have the potency
(D) all of these to give rise to [Pg-54,E]
135. Match Column-I with Column-II and (A) specific tissues and organs
choose the correct option from the codes (B) all tissues and organs
given below. [Pg-53,M] (C) only cardiac cells and heart
Column I Column II
(D) none of these
(a) Chorionic villi (1) Secretes relaxin 139. Match Column-I with Column-II and
hormone select the correct option using the codes
(b) Placenta (2) Finger-like given below. [NEET–2016] [Pg-54,M]
projections on the
Column I Column II
trophoblast
(a) Mons pubis (1) Embryo
(c) Umbilical cord (3) Structural and
formation
functional unit
(b) Antrum (2) Sperm
between foetus
and mother (c) Trophectoderm (3) Female
external
(d) Ovary (4) Connects embryo
genitalia
to placenta
(d) Nebenkern (4) Graafian
Codes-
follicle
a b c d Codes-
(A) 2 3 4 1
a b c d
(B) 3 2 4 1 (A) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 3 1 4 (B) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 1 3 2 (C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
136. Immediately after implantation, which
part of blastocyst differentiates into 140. The foetus develops limbs and digits by
ectoderm and endoderm? [Pg-53,E] the end of [Pg-54,E]
(A) Trophoblast
(B) Chorionic villi (A) 1st month of pregnancy
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(B) 2nd month of pregnancy (B) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer →

(C) 3rd month of pregnancy Syngamy → Zygote cell division
(D) 5th month of pregnancy (cleavage) → cell differentiation →
141. Match Column-I with Column-II and organogenesis
choose the correct option from the codes (C) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer →
given below. [Pg-54,E] Syngamy → Zygote cell division
(cleavage) → organogenesis → cell
Column I Column II
differentiation
(Organ) (Month of
development
(D) Gametogenesis → Syngamy →
during Gamete transfer → Zygote cell
pregnancy) division (cleavage) → cell
(a) Heart (1) Second month differentiation → organogenesis
(b) Limbs and (2) First month 144. Assertion: The placenta is connected to
digits the embryo through an umbilical cord.
(c) External (3) Fifth month
genitalia Reason: The umbilical cord helps in the
(d) Appearance (4) Third month transport of substances to and from the
of hair on embryo. [Pg-53,H]
head
Codes- (A) Both assertion and reason are true
a b c d of assertion.
(A) 1 2 4 3 (B) Both assertion and reason are true,
(B) 2 1 3 4 but reason is not the correct
(C) 2 1 4 3 explanation of assertion.
(D) 3 2 4 1 (C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false.
145. Assertion: Placenta also acts as an
142. Read the following statements about
endocrine gland.
major features of embryonic development
at various months of pregnancy. Choose Reason: In the later phase of pregnancy,
the incorrect statement(s) about it. relaxin is secreted by placenta. [Pg-53,H]
[Pg-54,M]
(I) The embryo’s heart is the first formed and reason is the correct explanation
organ. of assertion.
(II) Most of the major organ systems are (B) Both assertion and reason are true,
formed by the end of 2nd month of but reason is not the correct
pregnancy. explanation of assertion.
(III) The first movement of foetus is (C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
observed during 7th month of (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
pregnancy. 146. Assertion: The first movements of foetus
(IV) The eyelashes are formed by the end are observed during the third month of
of second trimester. pregnancy.
(A) II and III (B) I and II Reason: By the end of first trimester,
(C) III and IV (D) Only IV eyelids separate and eye-lashes are
143. Select the correct sequences of events. formed. [Pg-54,H]
[Odisha, NEET-2019] [Pg-54,M] (A) Both assertion and reason are true
(A) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → and reason is the correct explanation
Syngamy → Zygote cell differentiation of assertion.
→ cell division (cleavage) → (B) Both assertion and reason are true,
organogenesis but reason is not the correct
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(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. (B) The foetal ejection reflex triggers
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. release of oxytocin from the
Para-3.7 hypothalamus.
(C) Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles.
Parturition and Lactation (D) The placenta is also expelled out of
the uterus after the delivery of infant.
147. The duration of pregnancy is called 153. Which of the following hormones is
[Pg-54,E] responsible for both the milk ejection
(A) parturition (B) lactation reflex and the foetal ejection reflex?
(C) gestation period (D) none of these [Odisha, NEET-2019] [Pg-54,M]
148. The process of delivery of the foetus is (A) Relaxin (B) Estrogen
called [Pg-54,E] (C) Prolactin (D) Oxytocin
(A) lactation 154. The milk produced during the initial few
(B) parturition days of lactation is called [Pg-54,E]
(C) foetal ejection reflex
(D) none of these (A) colostrum (B) first milk
149. The signals for parturition originate from (C) milky water (D) none of these
the [Pg-54,E] 155. Choose the incorrect statement from the
(A) fully developed foetus following. [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-54,M]
(B) placenta
(A) Internal fertilisation takes place, in
(C) umbilical cord
birds and mammals.
(D) both (A) and (B)
(B) Colostrum contains antibodies and
nutrients.
(C) Polyspermy is prevented by chemical
given below. [Pg-54,M]
changes on the egg surface.
Column I Column II (D) In the human female implantation
(a) Gestation (1) Mild uterine occurs almost seven days after
period contractions fertilisation.
(b) Parturition (2) Duration of 156. Colostrum contains [Pg-54,E]
pregnancy
(c) Foetal (3) Process of (A) antibodies
ejection delivery of the (B) nutrients
reflex foetus (C) enzymes
(d) After birth (4) Placental (D) both (A) and (B)
expulsion 157. Assertion: Parturition is a complex
Codes- neuroendocrine mechanism.
a b C d Reason: The signals of parturition
(A) 2 3 1 4 originate from the fully developed fetus
(B) 2 4 1 3 and placenta. [Pg-54,H]
(C) 4 3 2 1 (A) Both assertion and reason are true
(D) 1 2 3 4 and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true,
151. The process of milk production is called but reason is not the correct
[Pg-54,E] explanation of assertion.
(A) lactation (B) parturition (C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(C) after birth (D) colostrum (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
152. Choose the incorrect statement from the 158. Assertion: The mammary glands of the
following: [Pg-54,M] female undergo differentiation after
(A) Parturition is induced by a complex parturition.
neuroendocrine mechanism. Reason: Lactation always starts after
childbirth. [Pg-54,H]
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of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
159. Assertion: Breast-feeding during the
initial period of infant growth is
recommended.
Reason: During initial few days after
delivery, colostrum is produced.
[Pg-54,H]
of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false
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Answer key:
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans B C B D A B D B A D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A A A C B B B C D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B C B D A B A C B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D A C B A B A B A B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C B A C B C D A A B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D C C A D B D A C B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D A C A A C C A C A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D C A B C D D C D A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D D B D A C B C C A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A B B C A D C A B A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D B C B C D B A A B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans B C A A A B D A A B
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B A A C B B A C D D
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D C D D A C C B D B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans C A B B C D C B D A
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159
Ans A B D A C D B A A
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13 Reproduction Health
[Pg-58,E]
PARA-4.1
A) Safe and hygienic sexual practices.
PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES OF B) Information about postnatal care of
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH mother and child.
1. According to World Health Organisation, C) Information about STDs and AIDS.
a reproductively healthy individual D) Discouraging children from believing
possesses in myths related to sexual practices.
[Pg-57,E] 6. RCH programs helps to curb
A) Functionally and morphologically [Pg-58,E]
normal reproductive organs A) Population explosion
B) Normal emotional and behavioural B) Female foeticide
interactions with society C) Sex abuse
C) Total well-being in all aspects of D) All of these
reproductions 7. Statutory ban on amniocentesis helps to
D) All of these check or prevent
2. Which country commenced the action [Pg-58,E]
plans at national level to achieve total A) Female foeticides and massive child
reproductive health as a social goal? immunization
[Pg-57,E] B) Sexually transmitted diseases
A) China C) Genetic disorders in foetus
B) Japan D) All of these
C) India 8. Consider the following statements:
D) Argentina [Pg-58,M]
3. Consider the following statements: a. In amniocentesis, small sample is
[Pg-57,58,M] taken from the foetus blood.
a. In India, family planning program b. Foetal sex can be determined through
was initiated in 1982. amniocentesis by studying the
b. Reproductive and Child Health Care chromosomal pattern in amniotic
(RCH) program is an improved version fluid.
of family planning programs. Select the correct option.
Select the correct option A) (a) is true, (b) is false
A) (a) is true, (b) is false B) Both (a) and (b) are false
B) Both (a) and (b) are false C) (a) is false, (b) is true
C) (a) is false, (b) is true D) Both (a) and (b) are true
D) Both (a) and (b) are true 9. Amniocentesis can be used to detect all
4. In what way awareness can be created the listed diseases except
among people about reproduction related [Pg-58,E]
aspects? A) Hemophilia
[Pg-58,M] B) Malaria
a. Through audio-visual and print C) Sickle cell anemia
media advertisements. D) Down syndrome
b. Creating fear among adolescents 10. In the context of amniocentesis, which of
about sexual practices. the following statement is incorrect?
c. Introduction of sex education at [NEET-2016]
school. [Pg-58,M]
Select the most appropriate option A) It is used for prenatal sex
A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct determination.
B) (b) and (c) are correct B) It can be used for detection of Down
C) (a) and (b) are correct syndrome.
D) (a) and (c) are correct C) It can be used for detection of cleft
5. While providing sex education to palate.
adolescents at school, which attribute D) It is usually done when a woman is
would be least significant? 14–16 weeks pregnant.
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11. Assertion: Sex education is provided to a. The world population increased

adolescents at school only. significantly in between the years
Reason: Sex education is introduced to 1900–2000 as compared to the years
teach adolescents about myths related of 2000–2011.
sexual practices only. b. Increased health services had an
[Pg-58,H] explosive impact on world’s
A) Both assertion and reason are true population growth.
and the reason is the correct Select the correct option
explanation of assertion. A) a is false, b is true
B) Both assertion and reason are true B) Both a and b are true
but the reason is not the correct C) a is true, b is false
explanation of assertion. D) Both a and b are false
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. 16. Which among the following graph
D) Both assertion and reason are false. represents accurate population growth
12. Assertion: Amniocentesis helps to detect pattern of India?
foetal disorders during early pregnancy. [Pg-59,H]
Reason: Jaundice can be prevented in A)
foetus by amniocentesis.
[Pg-58,H]
and the reason is the correct
but the reason is not the correct
D) Both assertion and reason are false. B)
PART-4.2 POPULATION STABILISATION

AND BIRTH CONTROL
13. The trend of world’s population growth

from the year 2000 to 2011 is
[Pg-59,E]
A) Increasing
B) Decreasing
C)
C) Stable
D) Fluctuating
[Pg-59,M]
Column I Column II
(Year) (World
population)
(a) 2011 (1) 2000 million
(b) 1900 (2) 7.2 billion
(c) 2000 (3) 6 billion
D)
a b c
(A) 3 2 1
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 2 1 3
(D) 3 1 2

[Pg-59,M]
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22. Marriageable age of males and female in

India is
[Pg-59,E]
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 21 years and 18 years, respectively
D) 18 years and 21 years, respectively
23. An ideal contraceptive should have all
the listed characteristics, except
[Pg-59,E]
17. According to the 2011 census report, the
A) User friendly
population growth rate of India was
B) Reversible
[Pg-59,E]
C) Easily available
A) More than five percent
D) Decrease sex drive
B) Less than one percent 24. Consider the following statements:
C) Less than two percent
[Pg-60,M]
D) More than six percent
(a) Natural method of contraception is a
18. Under what circumstances, the growth of
traditional method to prevent
population declines?
pregnancy.
[Pg-59,M]
(b) The basic principle of natural method
a. Increased number of people in
of contraception is to avoid the
reproducible age.
contact between ovum and sperms
b. Decreased infant mortality rate.
c. Increased maternal mortality rate.
B) a is false, b is true
A) (a), (b), (c) are correct
C) Both a and b are true
B) (a) and (b) are correct
C) Only (c) is correct
25. In periodic abstinence method
D) Only (b) is correct
[Pg-60,E]
19. A population with declined infant
A) Female has to take contraceptive pills
mortality rate would show
periodically
[Pg-59,E]
B) Couple should avoid coitus
A) Zero growth
periodically
B) Increased growth
C) Couple should avoid coitus for few
C) Decreased growth
months or years
D) Fluctuating growth
D) female do not ovulate for few months.
20. Which among the following measure can
26. During which period of a typical
be opted to check the population growth
menstrual cycle of 28 days, coitus should
rate?
be avoided to prevent conception
[Pg-59,E] naturally?
A) Contraceptives
[Pg-60,E]
B) MTP
A) 0–5 days, i.e., during menstrual flow
C) Amniocentesis
B) 5–8 days after menstrual flow
D) ART
C) 11–16 days after menstrual flow
21. Consider the following statements. D) 23–26 days after menstrual flow
a. ‘One child norm’ is a threat to
27. How does coitus interruptus method is
population growth rate of India.
practiced by couples?
b. Statutory raising of marriageable age
[Pg-60,E]
of males and females check the
A) By avoiding coitus at the time of
population growth rate. ovulation
[Pg-59,M]
B) By avoiding insemination just before
ejaculation
C) By ejaculation semen in the condoms
D) By avoiding the insertion of penis into
the vagina
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28. In lactational amenorrhea, chances of A) These are made up of thin latex

conception are nil during sheath.
[Pg-60,E] B) These are used to cover penis or
A) 40 days following parturition cervix.
B) The time till mother breastfeeds her C) They help the ejaculate to enter
child uterus but not into fallopian tube.
C) Six months following parturition D) Nirodh is a popular brand of male
D) The gestational period of female condoms.
29. Match the following columns. 33. Use of condoms can help to prevent
[Pg-60,M] [Pg-60,E]
Column I Column II A) AIDS and other STDs
(Natural methods (Characteristics) B) Spermatogenesis
of contraception) C) Coitus
D) All of these
(a) Coitus (1) Avoid intercourse
34. What is the similarity between vaults and
interruptus during ovulation
diaphragms?
(b) Lactational (2) Avoid [Pg-60,E]
amenorrhea insemination into A) They both prevent ovulation in
vagina females.
B) They are used to cover penis in males.
(c) Periodic (3) Ovum is not C) They are used to cover cervix during
abstinence available for coitus.
fertilisation D) They release copper ions to suppress
sperm motility.
Select the correct option. 35. Consider the following statements:
a b c [Pg-60,M]
(A) 3 1 2 (a) Cervical caps and vaults are not cost
(B) 1 3 2 effective as they cannot be reused.
(C) 3 2 1 (b) Contraceptive efficiency of vaults and
cervical caps can be increased by
(D) 2 3 1 using spermicidal creams along with
30. Select the incorrect statement. these barriers.
[Pg-60,E] Select the correct option
A) Natural methods of contraception are A) a is true, b is false
riskier but reliable. B) Both a and b are true
B) The act of breastfeeding interrupt C) a is false, b is true
ovulation during menstrual cycle. D) Both a and b are false
C) The chances of conception are higher 36. Select the correct statement regarding
during the ovulation period. intra uterine devices (IUDs).
D) Natural methods of contraception do [Pg-60,E]
not interfere with the sexual drive of A) They are used by females at the time
an individual. of copulation.
31. The barrier method of contraception B) IUDs are inserted in the uterus by
[Pg-60,M] doctors.
(a) can be used by males only C) IUDs are not reliable contraceptives.
(b) prevents physical meeting of sperm D) All IUDs release hormones which
and ovum suppress sperm motility.
(c) are used at the time of coitus 37. Match the following columns.
Select the most appropriate option. [Pg-60,M]
A) (a) and (c) are correct Column I Column II
B) (a), (b), (c) are correct (a) LNG 20 (1) Hormone-releasing IUD
C) (b) and (c) are correct
D) Only (b) is correct (b) Lippes loop (2) Copper releasing IUD
32. Select the incorrect statement regarding
condoms.
(c) Multiload 375 (3) Non medicated IUD
[Pg-60,M]
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Select the correct option. C) For seven days daily, during the time
a b c of ovulation
A) 2 1 3 D) Daily, without any gap
B) 2 3 1 44. Consider the following statements.
C) 1 2 3 [Pg-61,M]
D) 1 3 2 (a) Oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation
and implantation to induce
38. All the listed IUDs release copper ions
contraception.
except
(b) Menstrual flow does not occur in
[Pg-60,E]
females after taking oral
A) LNG 20
contraceptives.
B) Cu 7
C) Cu T
D) Multiload 375
B) a is false, b is true
39. What is significance of copper ions in
C) Both a and b are false
contraception?
D) Both a and b are true
[Pg-60,E]
45. Select the incorrect statement regarding
A) They delay ovulation in females.
‘Saheli’.
B) They suppress sperm motility and
[Pg-61,E]
fertilising capacity of sperms.
A) It was developed by CDRI, Lucknow,
C) They increase the level of prolactin so
India.
as to suppress the activity of LH and
B) It contains high amount of
FSH.
progesterone and estrogen.
D) They decrease the libido and sexual
C) It is taken once in a week.
desire of female.
D) It has least side effects and high
40. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-
contraceptive value.
Uterine Devices. [NEET-2019]
46. The contraceptive ‘saheli’ [NEET-2018]
[Pg-60,M]
[Pg-61,M]
A) Multiload 375, Progestasert
A) Blocks estrogen receptors in the
B) Progestasert, LNG-20
uterus, preventing eggs from getting
C) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
implanted.
D) Vaults, LNG-20
B) Increases the concentration of
41. Which of the following is a correct
estrogen and prevents ovulation in
statement? [NEET-2019]
females
[Pg-60,M]
C) Is an IUD.
A) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
D) Is a post-coital contraceptive.
B) IUDs once inserted need not be
replaced
incorrect regarding implants?
C) IUDs are generally inserted by the
[Pg-61,E]
user herself
A) They are used by both males and
D) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms
females.
in the uterus
B) These are placed under the skin.
42. The hormones used for the purpose of
C) They contain progestogens or
contraception in pills and IUDs are
combinations of pills.
[Pg-61,E]
D) They are effective for longer period as
A) Progesterone and estrogen
compared to pills.
B) Estrogen and testosterone
48. All the listed contraceptives are effective
C) LH and progesterone
during emergency to avoid pregnancy,
D) Prolactin and testosterone
except
43. For the effective results of contraception
[Pg-60,61,E]
pills, they should be taken
A) Progestasert
[Pg-61,E]
B) Progestogen pills
A) Once every month on the day of
C) Vaults
ovulation
D) Progesterone-estrogen pills
B) For 21 days daily, followed by a gap
of seven days
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49. Which of the following contraceptive C) Lacks fructose and prostaglandins

methods do involve a role of hormone? D) Both (a) and (c)
[NEET-2019] 54. Among the listed options, contraception
[Pg-60,61,M] is achieved through
A) Barrier method, Lactational [Pg-62,E]
amenorrhea, Pills A) Tubectomy
B) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives B) Ovariectomy
C) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, C) Hysterectomy
Barrier methods D) Castration
D) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, 55. Which of the following diagram depict
Emergency contraceptives vasectomy accurately?
50. Consider the following statements. [Pg-61,E]
[Pg-61,M] A)
(a) Emergency contraceptives are taken
within 72 hours of coitus to avoid
pregnancy.
(b) Sterilisation is the terminal method
to prevent any pregnancy as it is
irreversible. B)
51. Which of the following statement is C)
incorrect?
[Pg-62,E]
A) Vasectomy is the sterilisation
procedure in males.
B) Sterilisation method blocks the
transport of gametes to prevent D)
conception.
C) In tubectomy, fallopian tubes are
removed from female body
completely.
D) After tubectomy, menstrual cycle is
not disrupted in females. 56. Assertion: Menstration does not occur
52. Which of the following approaches does
during the intense period of lactation.
not give the defined action of
Reason: Chances of conception are
contraceptive? [NEET-2016]
higher after 1–2 months following
[Pg-60,61,62,M]
parturition.
A) Intra uterine devices - Increase [Pg-60,H]
phagocytosis of sperms, suppress
sperm motility and fertilizing capacity
and the reason is the correct
of sperm
B) Hormonal contraceptives -
Prevent/retard entry of sperm, but the reason is not the correct
prevent ovulation and fertilisation
C) Vasectomy - Prevents
spermatogenesis
D) Barrier methods - Prevents
57. Assertion: Use of condoms can prevent
fertilisation
the transmission of AIDS.
53. The semen of male after vasectomy
Reason: AIDS is a fluid-transmitted
[Pg-62,E]
disease.
A) Does not contain sperms
[Pg-60,H]
B) Is not produced in body
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A) Both assertion and reason are true A) Both a and b are false
and the reason is the correct B) a is true, b is false
explanation of assertion. C) a is false, b is true
B) Both assertion and reason are true D) Both a and b are true
but the reason is not the correct 62. Government of India legalised MTP in the
explanation of assertion. year
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. [Pg-62,E]
D) Both assertion and reason are false. A) 1988
58. Assertion: Emergency contraceptives B) 1978
contain high level of steroidal C) 1985
preparation. D) 1971
Reason: Saheli is an emergency 63. To reduce the incidences of illegal
contraceptive. abortions, recent MTP (Amendment) Act
[Pg-61,H] in India was enacted in
A) Both assertion and reason are true [Pg-62,E]
and the reason is the correct A) 2009
explanation of assertion. B) 2011
B) Both assertion and reason are true C) 2017
but the reason is not the correct D) 2019
explanation of assertion. 64. According to MTP Act 2017, a pregnancy
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. may be terminated
D) Both assertion and reason are false. [Pg-62,E]
59. Assertion: After vasectomy, sperms are A) Within first 12 weeks of pregnancy on
not found in the semen or ejaculate. the opinion of one medical
Reason: Vas deferens is cut and tied in practitioner
vasectomy. B) Before first six weeks of pregnancy,
[Pg-62,H] without any opinion
A) Both assertion and reason are true C) Within first 24 weeks of pregnancy on
and the reason is the correct the opinion of one medical
explanation of assertion. practitioner
B) Both assertion and reason are true D) All of these
but the reason is not the correct 65. On what grounds, pregnancy of more
explanation of assertion. than 12 weeks is terminated through
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. MTP in India?
D) Both assertion and reason are false. [Pg-62,M]
A) If it imposes life threatening risks to
PART-4.3 pregnant woman.
MEDICAL TERMINATION OF B) If the female already has three girl
children.
PREGNANCY
C) If the family history of parents has
certain genetic disorder.
60. Medical termination of pregnancy is
D) If the female is widow or divorced.
[Pg-62,E]
66. MTP is considered safe upto
A) Carried out by tubectomy in females
[Pg-62,E]
B) Induced abortion A) 12 weeks
C) Inability to conceive due to certain
B) 24 weeks
problem
C) 26 weeks
D) Menopause stage in females
D) 28 weeks
67. A pregnant woman was denied for
[Pg-62,M] undergoing MTP as she was not having
(a) One-fifth of total number of conceived
opinion documents from two registered
pregnancies in a year, all over the
medical practitioners. The duration of
world are terminated through MTP.
her pregnancy might be
(b) MTP restrictions help to check illegal
[Pg-62,E]
female foeticide in India.
A) 8 weeks
B) 12 weeks
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C) 21 weeks A) Rubella-Typhoid Infection

D) 29 weeks B) Rotavirus-Trichomoniasis Infection
68. Select the correct statement regarding C) Reproductive Tract Infection
MTP. [ D) Rotavirus
Pg-62,M] 73. Among the given options, which set
(a) It is carried out up to third trimester represents sexually transmitted
of pregnancy. infections (STI) only?
(b) It is always surgical. [Pg-63,E]
(c) It is widely used as a method of A) Gonorrhea, Chlamydiasis,
contraception. Trichomoniasis
(d) It requires the assistance of B) Syphilis, Giardiasis, Genital warts
registered medical practitioner. C) Taeniasis Genital herpes,
Select the most appropriate option Leishmaniasis
A) (a) and (b) are correct D) Hepatitis B, Trichinosis, Gonorrhea
B) Only (d) is correct 74. Consider the following statements.
C) (b) and (d) are correct [Pg-63,M]
D) (a), (c) and (d) are correct (a) AIDS and Hepatitis B are STIs which
69. Assertion: MTP helps to get rid of are caused by virus.
unwanted pregnancies due to (b) Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused
unprotected intercourse. by bacteria.
Reason: MTPs are considered safe up to Select the correct option.
28 weeks of pregnancy. A) a is true, b is false
[Pg-62,H] B) a is false, b is true
A) Both assertion and reason are true C) Both a and b are false
and the reason is the correct D) Both a and b are true
explanation of assertion. 75. Which among the following STIs can be
B) Both assertion and reason are true transmitted by blood transfusion and
but the reason is not the correct sharing of infected needles with infected
explanation of assertion. person?
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. [Pg-63,M]
D) Both assertion and reason are false. A) AIDS
70. Assertion: Ban on amniocentesis helped B) Genital warts
to reduce the incidences of MTP in India. C) Gonorrhoea
Reason: Amniocentesis helps to D) Both (A) and (C)
determine the sex of unborn child. 76. A pregnant lady was suffering from a STI
[Pg-58,H] and various tests confirmed that her
A) Both assertion and reason are true baby has also contracted the disease.
and the reason is the correct The pregnant lady must be suffering
explanation of assertion from
B) Both assertion and reason are true [Pg-63,M]
but the reason is not the correct A) Genital herpes
explanation of assertion. B) Trichomoniasis
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. C) Chlamydiasis
D) Both assertion and reason are false. D) Hepatitis B
77. Which of the following sexually
Para-4.4 Sexually Transmitted transmitted diseases is not completely
Infections curable? [NEET-2017]
71. Sexually transmitted diseases are [Pg-63,M]
alternatively known as A) Genital warts
[Pg-63,E] B) Genital herpes
A) Contagious diseases C) Chlamydiasis
D) Gonorrhoea
B) Venereal diseases
C) Viral diseases 78. The incidences of STDs are more
D) Degenerative diseases frequent
72. RTI stands for [Pg-63,E]
A) In age group of 15–24 years
[Pg-63,E]
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B) Before the beginning of puberty age C) Do not share needles and syringes
C) In a menopausing woman D) All of these
D) In elder generation 83. Which of the following sexually
79. Consider the following statements. transmitted diseases do not specially
[Pg-63,M] affect reproductive organs? [NEET-2019]
(a) Sexually transmitted diseases can be [Pg-63,E]
cured completely if detected early and A) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
treated properly. B) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(b) Early symptoms of STIs include C) Syphilis and Genital herpes
itching, fluid discharge and swelling D) AIDS and Hepatitis B
in genital areas. 84. Assertion: Gonorrhoea spreads through
Select the correct option. infected needles during blood
A) a is true, a is false transfusion.
B) Both a and b are true Reason: Gonorrhoea cannot be cured
C) a is false, b is true completely.
D) Both a and b are false [Pg-63,H]
80. The consequences of delayed treatment A) Both assertion and reason are true
of STIs include and the reason is the correct
[Pg-63,M] explanation of assertion.
(1) ectopic pregnancy B) Both assertion and reason are true
(2) still births but the reason is not the correct
(3) petric inflammatory diseases explanation of assertion.
(4) uncontrolled growth of cells C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Select the most appropriate option. D) Both assertion and reason are false.
A) (1) and (2) are correct 85. W Assertion: AIDS can be transmitted
B) (3) and (4) are correct through body fluids of affected
C) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct individual.
D) (1), (2) and (3) are correct Reason: Hepatitis B virus can be found
81. Match the following sexually transmitted in blood and semen of affected
diseases in Column-I with their individual.
causative agent in Column II and select [Pg-63,H]
the correct option. [NEET-2017] A) Both assertion and reason are true
[Pg-63,M] and the reason is the correct
Column I Column II explanation of assertion.
(a) Gonorrhea (1) HIV
but the reason is not the correct
(b) Syphilis (2) Neisseria explanation of assertion.
(c) Genital Warts (3) Treponema D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) AIDS (4) Human papilloma – Para-4.5 - Infertility
virus
Select the correct option. (a) An infertile couple is unable to
produce children due to
a b c d
immunological disorders only.
A) 4 3 2 1
(b) In human population, males are
B) 2 3 4 1 always fertile while females are either
C) 3 4 1 2 fertile or infertile.
D) 4 2 3 1 [Pg-63,64,M]
82. W What measures can be taken to A) a is true, b is false
prevent STDs among population? B) Both a and b are true
[Pg-63,E] C) a is false, b is true
A) Use condom during coitus D) Both a and b are false
B) Avoid sex with multiple partners
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87. How does assisted reproductive B) In IUT, embryo with more than eight
techniques, (ART) help an infertile couple blastomeres is extracted from donor’s
to have children? body.
[Pg-64,E] C) ZIFT involves the transfer of embryo
A) By easing the process and procedure into fallopian tube at eight
of adoption. blastomere stage.
B) By treating the disease associated D) In both ZIFT and IUT, embryo is
with infertility. formed inside the female’s body.
C) By carrying out certain fertilisation 94. Consider the following statements.
processes through special [Pg-64,M]
techniques. (a) Embryo formed by in-vivo fertilisation
D) Any of these could be used in intra uterine
88. W IVF stands for transfer.
[Pg-64,E] (b) Fully formed embryo is transferred
A) In vitro fertilisation into the fundus region of uterus in
B) In vivo fertilisation ZIFT. Select the correct option
C) Inter–vaginal fertilisation A) a is true, b is false
D) Intra vaginal fusion B) a is false, b is true
89. Where does fertilisation occur in case of C) Both a and b are false
IVF? D) Both a and b are true
[Pg-64,E] 95. Which ART a woman should adept if she
A) Within the fallopian tube does not ovulate or produce a viable egg?
B) In uterus [Pg-64,E]
C) Outside the body A) ICSI B) AI
D) Inside vagina C) GIFT D) IUI
90. In test tube baby program, embryo 96. Match the following columns.
transfer [Pg-64,M]
[Pg-64,E]
A) Is not possible Column I Column II
B) Can be done at eight blastomere stage
C) Can be done after the eight Transfer of ovum into
blastomere stage (a) ZIFT (1) fallopian tube
D) Both (B) and (C)
91. Which among the listed ARTs are
Transfer of embryo into
included under embryo transfer (ET)
the uterus Transfer of
technique? (b) GIFT (2) embryo into the uterus
[Pg-64,E]
A) ICSI and IUI Transfer of embryo into
B) ZIFT and IUT (C) IUT (3) fallopian tube
C) GIFT and ZIFT
D) ICSI and GIFT
92. W A childless couple can be assisted to a b c
have a child through a technique called A) 3 2 1
GIFT. The full form of this technique is B) 1 2 3
[NEET-2015] C) 2 3 1
[Pg-64,M] D) 3 1 2
A) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer 97. ‘ICSI’ stands for
B) Gamete inseminated fallopian [Pg-64,E]
transfer A) Infertility case study and inspection
C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer B) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
D) Gamete internal fertilisation and C) Intra cervix sperm insemination
transfer D) Intra cytoplasmic sperm interaction
93. Select the correct statement. 98. In which technique, sperm is injected
[Pg-64,M] directly into the ovum in the laboratory?
A) ZIFT involves the transfer of male’s [Pg-64,E]
sperm into fallopian tube of female. A) GIFT B) ICSI
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C) IUI D) AI [Pg-64,M]
99. Under what circumstances, artificial A) Pregnancies terminated due to
insemination could be employed? hormonal imbalance
[Pg-64,E] B) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
A) When females do not ovulate C) Implantation of embryo at site other
B) Male partner fails to inseminate than uterus
C) Female has blocked fallopian tube D) Implantation of detective embryo in
D) Any of these the uterus
100. In case of a couple where the male is 104. Assertion: In all ART, fertilisation occurs
having a very low sperm count, which outside the female’s body.
technique will be suitable for Reason: Infertile couples cannot produce
fertilisation? [NEET-2017] gametes.
[Pg-64,M] [Pg-64,H]
A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection A) Both assertion and reason are true
B) Intrauterine transfer and the reason is the correct
C) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian explanation of assertion.
transfer B) Both assertion and reason are true
D) Artificial insemination but the reason is not the correct
101. In artificial insemination, sperms are explanation of assertion
transferred into C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
[Pg-64,E] D) Both assertion and reason are false.
A) Vagina B) Uterus 105. Assertion: ICSI technique is different
C) Ovum D) Vagina or uterus from AI.
102. How intra uterine insemination (IUI) Reason: ICSI is carried out in
differ from intra uterine transfer (IUT)? laboratory.
[Pg-64,E] [Pg-64,H]
A) Embryo is transferred into uterus in A) Both assertion and reason are true
IUI. and the reason is the correct
B) IUI is a type of IVF technique. explanation of assertion.
C) IUI involves the transfer of semen into B) Both assertion and reason are true
female’s uterus. but the reason is not the correct
D) Sperm is directly injected into ovum explanation of assertion.
in IUI. C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
103. W Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as D) Both assertion and reason are false.
[NEET-2015]
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ANSWER KEY
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C C D B D A C B C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D C A C B A C C B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C C D C B C B C D A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C A C C B D A B B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D A B A B A A C D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C C A A A C A C A B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C D C A A A C B C B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B C A D A D B A B D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B D D D B D C A C D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B C C A C D B B B D
Q 101 102 103 104 105
Ans D C C D A
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14 Evolution
D) In the solar system of the Milky Way

PARA 7.1 AND 7.2
galaxy, earth was supposed to have
ORIGIN OF LIFE AND EVOLUTION OF been formed about 4.5 million years
LIFE FORMS back.
1. The study of the history of life forms of 5. Select the correct statement about early
the earth is called [Pg 126,E] Earth 4.5 billion year ago. [Pg 127,M]
A) Evolutionary Biology A) There was a thick atmosphere on
B) Ecology early Earth.
C) Environmental biology B) Water vapour, hydrogen,
D) Comparative anatomy carbondioxide and ammonia released
2. Match Column-I with Column-II. from molten mass covered the
[Pg 127,E] surface.
Column-I Column-II C) The UV rays from the sun brokeup
water into Hydrogen and Oxygen and
(a) Origin of the (1) 4.5 billion years the lighter O2 escaped. Oxygen
universe ago combined with ammonia and
(b) Origin of (2) 4 billion years ago methane to form water, CO2 and
earth others.
D) The ozone layer was formed. As it
(c) Origin of life (3) 2.7 billion years cooled, the water vapor fell as rain, to
ago fill all the depressions and form
(d) Origin of first (4) 20 billion years ago oceans.
eukaryotes 6. When did life appear on earth?
[Pg 127,E]
A) 500 billion years after the formation
of Earth
a b c d
B) Almost four billion years back.
A) 1 4 2 3
C) Both A and B
B) 4 1 2 3
D) Almost three billion years back
C) 4 2 1 3
7. Select the correct statement among the
D) 4 1 3 2
following. [Pg 127,M]
3. Select the correct statement among the
A) Some scientists believe that life came
following. [Pg 127,E]
from outside.
A) The universe is very old – almost
B) Early Greek thinkers thought units of
20000 million years old.
life called spores were transferred to
B) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise
different planets including earth.
the universe. Galaxies contain stars
C) ‘Panspermia’ is still a favourite idea
and clouds of gas and dust.
for some astronomers.
C) The Big Bang theory attempts to
D) All of these
explain to us the origin of universe.
8. For a long time it was also believed that
D) All of these.
life came out of decaying and rotting
4. Select the correct statement about the
matter like straw, mud, etc. This was the
Big Bang theory. [Pg 127,E]
theory of _________. [Pg 127,E]
A) It talks of a many huge explosions
A) Biogenesis
unimaginable in physical terms.
B) Spontaneous generation
B) The universe expanded and hence,
C) Non-Spontaneous generation
the temperature increased. Hydrogen
D) Both A and B
and Helium formed sometime later.
9. Select the incorrect statement among the
C) The gases condensed under
following. [Pg 127,M]
gravitation and formed the galaxies of
A) Louis Pasteur by careful
the present day universe.
experimentation demonstrated that
life comes only from pre-existing life.
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B) Louis Pasteur showed that in pre- molecules (RNA, Protein,

sterilised flasks, life did not come Polysaccharides, etc.). These
from killed yeast while in another capsules reproduced their molecules
flask open to air, new living perhaps.
organisms arose from ‘killed yeast’. C) The first cellular form of life did not
C) Spontaneous generation theory was possibly originate till about 2 million
dismissed by Louis Pasteur. years ago. These were probably
D) Louis Pasteur answered how the first single-cells.
life form came on earth. D) All life forms were in water
10. How many statements are incorrect environment only. This version of
among the following? [Pg 127,M] biogenesis, i.e., the first form of life
i. Oparin of England and Haldane of arose slowly through evolutionary
Russia proposed that the first form of forces from non-living molecules is
life could have come from pre-existing accepted by majority.
non-living organic molecules (e.g. 14. Chemical evolution refers to- [Pg 128,E]
RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation A) Formation of diverse inorganic
of life was preceded by chemical molecules from organic constituents
evolution B) Formation of diverse organic
ii. The conditions on earth were – high molecules from radioactive
temperature, volcanic storms, constituents
reducing atmosphere containing CH4 C) Formation of diverse organic
, O2 , etc. molecules from inorganic
iii. In 1952, S.L. Miller, an American constituents
scientist created similar conditions in D) Formation of diverse non-reducing
a laboratory scale molecules from inorganic
iv. S.L. Miller created electric discharge constituents
in a closed flask containing CH4, H2, 15. Conventional religious literature tells us
NH3 and water vapour at 8000C. about the theory of – [Pg 128,E]
v. With limited evidence, the first part of A) Religious Creation
the conjectured story, i.e., chemical B) Abiogenetic creation
evolution was more or less accepted. C) Spontaneous creation
A) 2 B) 3 D) Special creation
C) 4 D) 5 16. Special creation theory has three
11. In S.L. Miller’s electric discharge connotations. Select the correct
experiment, he observed formation of connotation among the following.
_______. [Pg 127,E] [Pg 128,E]
A) Amino sugar A) All living organisms (species or types)
B) Glucosamine that we see today were created as
C) Amino acid such.
D) Proteins B) The diversity was always the same
12. In experiments similar to S.L. Miller’s since creation and will be the same in
discharge experiment others observed, future also.
formation of how many of the following C) Earth is about 40000 years old
substances. [Pg 127,E] D) Both (A) and (B)
Sugars, Nitrogen gas, Pigment, Fats, 17. Select the correct statement among the
Nitrogen bases, Amino sugar following. [Pg 128,M]
A) 3 B) 4 A) All the ideas of Special creation theory
C) 5 D) 6 were strongly challenged during the
13. Select the incorrect statement among the eighteenth century.
following. [Pg 127,128,M] B) Based on observations made during a
A) We have no idea about how the first sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S.
self replicating metabolic capsule of Beagle round the world, Charles
life arose. Darwin concluded that existing living
B) The first non-cellular forms of life forms share similarities to varying
could have originated 3 billion years degrees not only among themselves
back. They would have been giant but also with life forms that existed
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millions of years ago. Many such life A) The given figure represents
forms do exist anymore. diagrammatic representation of
C) There had been extinctions of Miller’s Experiment.
different life forms in the years gone B) X- Vacuum pump
by just as new forms of life arose at C) Y – Water containing inorganic
same periods of history of earth. compounds
D) Any population has built in variation D) Z – Spark discharge
in characteristics.
PARAGRAPH- 7.3
18. How many statements among the
following are incorrect? [Pg 129,M] THE EVIDENCES FOR EVOLUTION
i. Those characteristics which enable
some to survive better in natural 21. Fossils are _____ [Pg 129,E]
conditions (climate, food, physical A) The preserved remains of the past life
factors, etc.) would outbreed others forms.
that are less-endowed to survive B) Mineralized form of hard body parts
under such natural conditions. such as bones, teeth, etc.
ii. The fitness, according to Darwin, C) Found mainly in the layers of
refers ultimately and only to sedimentary rocks.
reproductive fitness. D) all of these
iii. Those who are better fit in an 22. Consider the following statements about
environment leave more progeny than fossils: [Pg 129,M]
others. These, therefore, will survive (a) Rock sediments of different ages
more and hence are selected by contain fossils of life forms that died
nature. Darwin called it natural during the formation of that
selection and implied it as a particular layer of sediment.
mechanism of evolution. (b) Fossil records are based on the
iv. Alfred Wallace, a physicist worked in sequence of occurrence of fossils in
Malay Archipelago. various strata of sedimentary rocks.
v. The geological history of earth closely Select the correct option.
correlates with the physical history of A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
earth. B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
A) 3 B) 4 C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
C) 2 D) 1 D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
19. The history of Earth can be studied in 23. Which of the following represents the
terms of- [Pg 129,E] paleontological evidence of evolution?
A) Epochs [Pg 129,M]
B) Periods A) Preserved remains of Dinosaurs
C) Eras obtained from sedimentary rocks.
D) All of these B) Presence of homologous structures.
20. Select the correct option about the given C) Presence of analogous structures.
figure. [Pg 128,E] D) Presence of vestigial parts.
24. Fossils serve as one of the evidence of
evolution because [Pg 129,M]
(a) Fossil records show that various
groups of organisms dominated earth
during the different course of
evolution.
(b) Many organisms are extinct today.
(c) Certain groups of organisms are
restricted to a certain geological time
period.
Select the option with all correct
statements.
A) Only a B) Only b
C) Both b and c D) a, b and c
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25. Given below is the family tree of (b) The same structures in different
dinosaurs and their living present day organisms are derived from a
counterpart organisms. Which of the common ancestor.
given options correctly name A, B and C? Choose the correct option.
[Pg 130,E] A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
30. The similar structures with different
functions present in different species
because of their common ancestry is
known as _____ [Pg 130,E]
A) Analogous structures
B) Homologous structures
C) Vestigial organs
D) Homoplasy
31. Presence of homologous structures in
different but related organisms is the
A) A: Triceratops; B: Archaeopteryx; C: result of _______ [Pg 130,E]
Crocodilian A) Common ancestry
B) A: Triceratops; B: Crocodilian; C: B) Divergent evolution
Archaeopteryx C) Convergent evolution
C) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Triceratops; C: D) Both A and B
Crocodilian 32. The image shows the forelimbs of a
D) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Crocodilian; C: whale, bat, cheetah and human (all
Triceratops mammals). Choose the correct option
26. Embryological support for evolution was regarding the same. [Pg 131,E]
proposed by ______ based upon the
observation of certain features during
embryonic stage common to all
vertebrates that are absent in adult.
[Pg 129,E]
A) Ernst Mayr B) JBS Haldane
C) Ernst Haeckel D) Charles Lyell
27. Sweet potato is a ___(I)___ modification
whereas potato is a ___(II)___
modification. [Pg 131,E]
A) (I)- Stem B) (II)- Root
C) Both A and B D) None of these
28. Which of the given statement is incorrect
about radiometric dating? [Pg 131,M]
A) A method to determine the absolute
age of the fossils.
B) It is based on the process of decay of A) The basic similarities in the
radioactive isotopes. arrangement of bones in forelimbs of
C) A method to determine the relative whales, bats, cheetahs and humans
age of the fossils. reflect their common ancestry.
D) Organisms accumulate isotopes of B) The forelimbs of whales, bats,
substances during their lifetime. cheetahs and humans are analogous
29. Consider the following statements: structures.
[Pg 129,130,H] C) The image represents structures that
(a) Comparative anatomical and evolved from convergent evolution.
morphological details of different but D) The image represents vestigial
related organisms demonstrate a structures.
basic similarity. 33. Which of the following structures
represent homology? [Pg 131,H]
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A) Wings of butterflies and birds A) homologous structures and represent

B) Eyes of octopus and mammals divergent evolution
C) Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea B) phylogenetic structures and
and Cucurbita represent divergent evolution
D) Flippers of penguins and dolphins C) analogous structures and represent
34. Which of the following structures is convergent evolution
homologous to the wing of a bird? D) homologous structures and represent
[Pg 131,M] convergent evolution
A) Wing of a moth 40. Which of the following examples does not
B) Hind limb of the rabbit represent analogous organs? [Pg 131,M]
C) Flipper of the whale A) Eyes of octopus and mammals.
D) The dorsal fin of a shark B) Sweet potato and potatoes.
35. Independent evolution of structures with C) The spine of barberry and thorns of
similar functions but different anatomy hawthorn.
in distantly related organisms is known D) Eyes of cave-dwelling animals.
as _____ [Pg 131,E] 41. Match Column-I with Column-II.
A) Convergent evolution [Pg 131,132,M]
B) Divergent evolution Column-I Column-II
C) Homology (a) Common proteins (1) Artificial
D) Mutation and genes present selection
36. The process of _____ evolution develops in diverse
similar features in organisms with organisms
separate ancestries. [Pg 131,E] (b) Vertebrates heart (2) Anatomical
A) Divergent B) Convergent or brain evidence of
C) Homology D) Speciation evolution
37. Analogous structures are a result of
______ [Pg 131,M] (c) Animal husbandry (3) Natural
A) stabilizing selection and plant breeding selection
B) divergent evolution (d) Industrial (4) Biochemical
C) convergent evolution melanism evidence of
D) shared ancestry evolution
38. Match Column-I with Column-II.
[Pg 130,131,M] Select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II a b c d
A) 1 4 2 3
(a) Cactus spine and (1) Analogous
B) 4 1 2 3
pea tendril structures
C) 4 2 1 3
(b) Wings of insects (2) Vestigial structures D) 4 1 3 2
and birds 42. Select the incorrect match from the
following options. [Pg 131,M]
A) Tendrils and passionflower and
(c) Hind limb bones (3) Natural selection thorns of pomegranate - homologous
of whales organs.
B) Tendrils of Vitis and thorns of Carissa
(d) Darwin’s finches (4) Homologous – homologous organs.
structures C) Tendrils of balloon vine and bulbils of
Agave – homologous organs.
D) Scale leaves of onion and spines of
Select the correct option. Opuntia – analogous organs.
a b c d 43. Industrial melanism is an example of
A) 1 4 2 3 [Pg 132,E]
B) 4 1 2 3 A) Neo Darwinism
C) 4 2 1 3 B) Natural selection
D) 4 1 3 2 C) Mutation
39. The wings of a bird and the wings of an D) Neo Lamarckism
insect are [Pg 131,M]
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44. The given image shows white-winged and 48. Assertion: Evolution is not a directed
dark-winged moths. [Pg-132,M] process in the sense of determinism.
Reason: Evolution is based on chance
events that occur in nature. [Pg-132,H]
Assertion.
(a) Image I represents the survival
advantage of white winged moths in
unpolluted areas.
(b) Image II represents the survival
advantage of dark winged moths in
49. Select the correct order of extinction of
polluted areas.
following dinosaurs? [Pg-130,E]
I. Stegosaurus
A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
II. Brachiosaurus
III. Pteranodon
IV. Triceratops
V. Tyrannosaurus
45. Which of the following serves as an
A) II, I, III, V, IV
indicator of atmospheric pollution?
B) II, I, V, IV, III
[Pg-132,E]
C) III, V, IV, II, I
A) Lichens B) Rhizopus
D) None of these
C) Penicillin D) Lycopodium
46. Match Column-I with Column-II. PARAGRAPH-7.4
[Pg-30,M] ADAPTIVE RADIATION
Column-I Column-II
Herbicide (1) A herbivore 50. The mechanism of adaptive radiation
A) resistant sauropod was first explained by [Pg-132,E]
varieties
A) Darwin
B) Brachiosaurus (2) Bony plates on the B) Morgan
back
C) Lamarck
C) Stegosaurus (3) A flying reptile D) Hugo de Vries
D) Pteranodon (4) Evolution by 51. Consider the following statements.
anthropogenic [Pg-132,133,M]
action
(a) Darwin compared the animals and
plant species of Galapagos Islands
Select the correct option. with those of mainland of South
a b c d America.
A) 1 4 2 3 (b) He found observable and distinct
B) 4 1 2 3 similarities and differences among
C) 4 2 1 3 them.
D) 4 1 3 2 (c) Flora and fauna of the Galapagos
47. Assertion: Archaeopteryx is a dead Islands do not exhibit resemblances
connecting link between reptiles and to that of the South American
birds. mainland.
Reason: Archaeopteryx is the earliest Select the correct option.
known bird. [Pg-130,H] A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) (a) is true but (b and c) are false.
and Reason is correct explanation of C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Assertion. D) All are false.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, 52. Lamarck was a ________. [Pg-134,E]
but Reason is not the correct A) French zoologist
explanation of Assertion. B) German botanist
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) French naturalist
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) British botanist
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53. Diversification of single ancestral species B) in Darwin’s finches

into many species in a relatively short C) in Australian marsupials
period of time is called [Pg-133,E] D) in a habitat with a large number of
A) Artificial selection existing species
B) Adaptive radiation 60. Select the incorrect statement among the
C) Homology following. [Pg-134,135,M]
D) Natural selection A) Lamarck said that evolution of life
54. Adaptive radiation occurs when forms had occurred but driven by use
[Pg-133,E] and disuse of organs.
A) lineages of an ancestral species B) Lamarck gave the examples of
encounter an empty niche. Giraffes who in an attempt to forage
B) populations of a species exhibit leaves on tall trees had to adapt by
random mating. elongation of their necks.
C) gene flow between the populations of C) Giraffes passed on this acquired
a species continues. character of elongated neck to
D) adaptive radiation does not occur in succeeding generations, Giraffes,
nature. slowly, over the years, came to
55. Darwin’s finches are an example of acquire long necks.
[Pg-133,E] D) Everybody believes Lamarck’s
A) adaptive radiation conjecture today.
B) microevolution 61. Which of the following statements does
C) genetic drift not reflect adaptive radiation in
D) gene flow marsupials? [Pg-134,135,M]
56. Evolution of different species in a given A) Australia was geographically isolated
area starting from a point and spreading from the rest of the world during the
to other geographical areas is known as continental drift.
[Pg-133,E] B) The geographical isolation of
A) Adaptive radiation Australia prevented the immigration
B) Natural selection option of placental mammals to the
C) Migration option continent.
D) Divergent evolution C) Marsupials were the dominant
57. Consider the following statements: mammals on the land of the
[Pg-133,H] Australian continent.
(a) Adaptive radiation occurs when D) Geographical isolation of Australia
numerous unexploited ecological followed the migration of placental
opportunities are available. mammals to the continent.
(b) Islands have a large number of empty 62. Select the correct option for the given
ecological niche as compared to the image: [Pg-133,M]
mainland present in the same
geographical location.
Choose the correct answer.
A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
B) (a) is true but (b and c) are false.
D) All are false.
58. _______ and ___________ are the two key
concepts of Darwinian theory of
Evolution. [Pg-134,E]
A) Branching descent
B) Natural Selection
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
59. The evolution of multiple species by the A) Convergent evolution in Australian
process of adaptive radiation cannot marsupials
occur [Pg- 133,E] B) Gene flow
A) on remote islands
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NCERT LINE BY LINE
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C) Adaptive radiation in Australian a b c d

marsupials A) 1 4 2 3
D) Both a and c are correct B) 4 1 2 3
63. A population of a species invades a new C) 4 2 1 3
area. Which of the following condition D) 4 1 3 2
will lead to adaptive radiation? 67. Match the placental mammals given in
[Pg-133,H] column-I to their corresponding
A) Area with many habitats occupied by Australian marsupials given in column-
a large number of species. II. [Pg-134,M]
B) Area with large number of habitats Column-I Column-II
having very low food supply. (a) Flying squirrel (1) Tasmanian tiger
C) Area with a single type of vacant cat
habitat (b) Bobcat (2) Tasmanian wolf
D) Area with many types of vacant (c) Wolf (3) Long-eared
habitats. bandicoot
64. When more than one (i) appeared to have (d) Rabbit (4) Flying phalanger
occurred in an isolated geographical area
(representing different habitats), one can Select the correct option.
call this (ii). [Pg-133,134,M] a b c d
Select the correct option regarding the A) 1 4 2 3
given statement. B) 4 1 2 3
A) (i) Adaptive radiation; (ii) Divergent C) 4 2 1 3
evolution D) 4 1 3 2
B) (i) Adaptive radiation; (ii) Convergent PARAGRAPH-7.5 AND 7.6
evolution
C) (i) Convergent evolution; (ii) Adaptive BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION AND
radiation MECHANISM OF EVOLUTION
D) (i) Divergent evolution; (ii) Adaptive
radiation 68. According to Darwin, the driving force of
65. Australian marsupials correspond to the evolution is [Pg-134,E]
placental mammals present in North A) mutation
America because [Pg-133,M] B) natural selection
A) gene flow occurred between C) gene flow
Australian marsupials and North D) migration
American placental mammals. 69. Evolution by natural selection requires
B) adaptive radiation in Australian [Pg-134,E]
marsupials paralleled the evolution of A) presence of acquired variations
placental mammals in North America. among the individuals
C) some North American placental B) presence of genetic variations among
mammal served as founder the individuals
population for Australian marsupials. C) isolated habitat
D) some Australian marsupials served D) constant environmental conditions
as founder population for North 70. Consider the following statements:
American placental mammals. (a) Evolution by natural selection
66. Match the placental mammals given in started with the origin of cellular
Column-I to their corresponding life forms with differences in
Australian marsupials given in Column- metabolic capability.
II. [Pg-134,M] (b) The theory of natural selection
Column-I Column-II was given by Lamarck.
(a) Mole (1) Marsupial mole
A) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(b) Anteater (2) Marsupial mouse B) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(c) Mouse (3) Spotted cuscus C) Both (A) and (B) is false.
(d) Lemur (4) Numbat D) (A) is false but (B) is true.
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71. The rate of evolution of new species in (d) Inheritance of (4) Tendency of organisms
fishes is slower than that of in bacterial acquired to become adapted to
populations because [Pg-134,M] features the environment
A) the evolution of new species is linked Select the correct option.
to their lifespan. a b c d
B) evolution of new species is linked to A) 4 1 3 2
the habitat. B) 1 4 2 3
C) both fishes and bacteria exhibit the C) 4 1 2 3
same rate of evolution. D) 4 2 1 3
D) species do not evolve at all. 78. The first scientist to propose that
72. Evolution of antibiotic-resistant bacterial evolution is a natural process rather
population represents the fact that than a divine intervention was
[Pg-134,E] [Pg-135,E]
A) acquired traits are inherited. A) Darwin B) Lamarck
B) nature selects for fitness. C) Pasteur D) Hugo de Vries
C) genetic variations are not a 79. Select the correct option regarding
prerequisite factor for natural Lamarck’s principles of evolution
selection. [Pg-134,135,E]
D) the theory of spontaneous generation A) Use and disuse; inheritance of
of life holds true. acquired characters.
73. Fitness refers to [Pg-134,E] B) Natural selection; fitness.
A) the ability of some organisms to C) Mutation; inheritance of acquired
survive under hostile conditions due characters.
to the presence of adaptive genetic D) Inheritance of acquired characters;
features. gene flow.
B) the ability of an organism to survive 80. Evolution of long and muscular neck of
hostile conditions due to acquired present day giraffe occurred as giraffes
features with no genetic basis. stretched their necks higher to reach the
C) the ability of organisms to migrate. higher canopy of tall trees. The given
D) both a and b are true. statement represents the view of …………
74. _____ is the end result of the ability to about evolution. [Pg-135,E]
adapt and get selected by nature. A) Darwin B) Lamarck
[Pg-134,E] C) Louis Pasteur D) Cuvier
A) Mutation B) Fitness 81. Match Column-I with Column-II.
C) Adaptation D) Acclimatization [Pg-134,135,M]
75. Which of the following options correctly Column-I Column-II
represent the two key features of
Darwin’s theory of evolution? [Pg-134,E] (a) Innate drive to (1) Use and disuse
become complex
A) Mutation and natural selection.
B) Artificial and natural selection. (b) An Essay on the (2) Thomas
C) Branching descent and natural Principle of Malthus
selection. Population
D) Branching descent and mutation. (c) Evolution of long- (3) Natural
76. Saltation is referred as- [Pg-135,E] necked giraffe selection
A) Single step small mutation population
B) Multiple step small mutation (d) Industrial (4) Lamarck
C) Single step large mutation melanism
D) None of these
77. Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the correct option.
[Pg-134,135,M] a b c d
Column-I Column-II A) 4 1 3 2
(a) Branching (1) Unity and diversity of B) 4 1 2 3
descent life
C) 1 4 2 3
(b) Natural (2) Source of new genes
selection
D) 4 2 1 3
(c) Mutation (3) Lamarck
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82. Natural selection is based on certain D) mutation, acquired variations

observations whish are factual. Such 87. Mutations are random and directionless
observations are- [Pg-134,M] while Darwinian variations are
A) Natural resources are limited. [Pg-135,M]
B) Populations are stable in size except A) small and directional
for seasonal fluctuation. B) large and directional
C) Members of a population vary in C) small and directionless
characteristics (infact no two D) large and directionless
individuals are alike) even though 88. Consider the following statements
they look superficially similar, most of [Pg-135,H]
variations are inherited. (a) For Darwin, evolution was gradual
D) All of these and driven by small genetic
83. Match the aspects of Darwin’s theory of variations.
natural selection in Column-I with the (b) For de Vries, evolution was a single
correct description in Column-II. step process driven by large
[Pg-134,M] mutation.
Column-I Column-II Select the correct option.
(a) Variation (1) Competition for A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
limited available B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
resources C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(b) Overproduction (2) Increases the 89. The mutation is directionless as
survival [Pg-135,H]
A) it can change any DNA sequence and
(c) Struggle for (3) More offspring is always beneficial for the individual.
existence B) it can change any DNA sequence and
(d) Differential (4) Geometric may be beneficial or harmful for the
reproductive increase in individual.
success population size C) mutation imparts small variations.
D) mutation imparts large variations.
incorrect? [Pg-133-135,M]
a b c d
A) No variant is completely wiped out in
A) 2 4 1 3
the case of dark-winged and white-
B) 4 1 3 2
winged moths in England.
C) 4 1 2 3
B) The essence of Darwinian theory
D) 4 2 1 3
about evolution is natural selection.
84. Hugo Devries explained mutations as a
C) Microbes that divide fast have the
source of genetic variations while
ability to multiply and become
working on [Pg-135,E]
millions of individuals within hours.
A) evening primrose
D) When we say that fitness of B is better
B) garden pea
than that of A under the new
C) finches
conditions, it means that A is better
D) fruit fly
adapted than B under new
85. Variations caused by mutation, as
conditions.
proposed by Hugo de Vries, are
91. According to Hugo de Vries, large
[Pg-135,E]
differences among the individuals evolve
A) random and directional
by ______ without any intermediate
B) random and directionless
forms. [Pg-135,E]
C) small and directional
A) gradual and small changes
D) small and directionless
B) natural selection
86. According to Hugo Devries and Darwin,
C) saltation
the driving factor for evolution is _____
D) gene flow
and _____ respectively. [Pg-135,M]
92. Assertion: Evolution refers to
A) minor variations, mutation
modification in the lines of descent.
B) natural selection, mutation
C) mutation, minor variations
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Reason: Natural selection is the equal A) gene pool B) genotype

survival success of individuals of a C) phenotype D) mutation
population. [Pg-134,H] 97. Consider the following statements:
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true [Pg-136,M]
and Reason is correct explanation of (a) Allele frequencies are supposed to
Assertion. remain constant over generations.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, (b) Hardy Weinberg equation is the
but Reason is not the correct algebraic representation of the allele
explanation of Assertion. frequencies of a population.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Select the correct option.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
93. Assertion: Darwin’s theory of evolution B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
was based on the inheritance of adaptive C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
genetic variations. D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Reason: He could not recognize the 98. Genetic equilibrium represents that
mechanism of inheritance. [Pg-136,M]
[Pg-133,134,H] A) the population is not evolving for the
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true locus under study.
and Reason is correct explanation of B) the allele frequencies and genotype
Assertion. frequencies remain constant over
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, generations.
but Reason is not the correct C) the allele frequencies remain
explanation of Assertion. constant over generations but
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. genotype frequencies change.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) both (A) and (B) are correct.
99. The sum total of all allele frequencies for
PARAGRAPH-7.7
a particular locus is always
HARDY-WEINBERG PRINCIPLE __________________ [Pg-136,E]
A) 0
94. Select the incorrect statement among the B) 1
following. [Pg-136,M] C) more than 1
A) p + 2pq + q = 1. This is binomial
2 2 D) cannot be determined
expansion of (p + q)2 . 100. The frequency of an allele in a population
B) When frequency measured, differs ranges from [Pg-136,E]
from expected values, the difference A) 0 to 1
(direction) indicates the extent of B) more than 1
evolutionary change. C) less than 0
C) Hardy-Weinberg principle says that D) can be any number
phenotype frequencies in a 101. Select the incorrect match: [Pg-137,E]
population are stable and is constant A) Frequency of a dominant allele in the
from generation to generation. population – p.
D) The gene pool (total genes and their B) Frequency of a recessive allele in the
alleles in a population) remains a population – q.
constant. This is called genetic C) Frequency of heterozygous dominant
equilibrium. Sum total of all the genotype – 2pq.
allelic frequencies is 1. D) Frequency of homozygous dominant
95. How many of the following factors are genotype – q2.
known to affect Hardy-Weinberg 102. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the
equilibrium? [Pg-137,M] frequency of heterozygous individual is
Gene migration, gene flow, genetic drift, represented by [Pg-137,E]
mutation, genetic recombination, A) 𝑝2 B) 2𝑝𝑞
natural selection C) 𝑝𝑞 D) 𝑞2
A) 4 B) 5 103. The binomial expansion of (p + q)2 is
C) 6 D) 3 [Pg-137,E]
96. Total genes and their alleles in a A) 𝑝2 + 2𝑝𝑞 + 𝑞 2 = 1
population make [Pg-137,E] B) 𝑝2 + 𝑞 2 = 1
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C) 𝑝2 + 2𝑝𝑞 = 1 B) Mutation: Migration of individuals of

D) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 1 the population.
104. Differences between expected and C) Random mating: Equal chances of
observed allele frequencies in a each individual in a population to
population represent that [Pg-137,M] mate with any other individual.
A) the population is at hardy-Weinberg D) Natural selection: Selection of mate
equilibrium. on the basis of morphological
B) the population is evolving. features.
C) the population is deviating from 110. Addition or removal of alleles from the
hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. gene pool of a population due to
D) both (B) and (C) are correct. migration of individuals is known as
105. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the [Pg-137,E]
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, A) genetic drift
then what will be the frequency of B) gene flow
homozygous dominant, heterozygous C) natural selection
and homozygous recessive individuals in D) artificial selection
the population? [Pg-137,H] 111. Genetic drift operates in [Pg-137,E]
A) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa) A) a small isolated population
B) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa) B) large isolated population
C) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa) C) non-reproductive population
D) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa) D) slow reproductive population
106. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg 112. Match the terms in Column-I with the
equilibrium, the frequency of correct description in Column-II.
homozygous dominant genotype is 0.36. [Pg-137,M]
What are the frequencies of dominant Column-I Column-II
and recessive alleles for the locus? (a) Genetic drift (1) Genetic drift due to
[Pg-137,H] small colonizing
A) p = 0.4; q = 0.6 population
B) p = 0.6; q = 0.4
C) p = 0.36; q = 0.4 (b) Founder (2) Change in allele
D) p = 0.4; q = 0.36 effect frequency by a
107. A population will not exist in Hardy- chance event
Weinberg equilibrium if [Pg-137,M]
A) there is no migration (c) Bottleneck (3) A major factor to
B) the population is large effect introduce variations
C) individuals mate selectively in sexually
D) there are no mutations reproducing
108. Consider the following statements: populations
[Pg-137,M]
(a) Gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, (d) Genetic (4) Adverse
natural selection and genetic combination environmental
recombination deviate the population factors
from the Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium. Select the correct option.
(b) Small population size is required to a b c d
maintain constant allele frequencies A) 1 4 2 3
over generations. B) 2 1 4 3
Select the correct option. C) 3 2 4 1
A) Both (a) and (b) are true. D) 4 1 3 2
B) (A) is true but (B) is false. 113. A small number of finches from the
C) Both (A) and (B) are false. mainland were blown by a cyclone to a
D) (A) is false but (B) is true. new island. The resultant new
109. Select the correctly matched option. population of finches had distinct gene
[Pg-137,M] pool from the source population. It
A) Gene flow: Changes in allele represents the [Pg-137,E]
frequencies by a chance event. A) gene flow
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B) mutation C) Stabilizing selection

C) founder effect D) Sexual selection
D) selective mating 118. Natural selection in which more
114. Name the types of natural selection as individuals acquire mean character
depicted in images I, II and III. Select the value is known as ________ while the one
correct option. [Pg-137,E] wherein more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends
of the distribution curve is ________
[Pg-137,M]
A) stabilizing selection; disruptive
selection
B) disruptive selection; stabilizing
selection
C) disruptive selection; directional
selection
D) stabilizing selection; directional
selection
119. Which of the given statement is
incorrect? [Pg-137,M]
A) The peak of the distribution curve
gets higher and narrower by
A) I-Stabilizing; II-Disruptive; III- stabilizing selection.
Directional B) Directional selection shifts the peak
B) I-Stabilizing; II-Directional; III- of the distribution curve in one
Disruptive direction.
C) I-Directional; II-Stabilizing; III- C) Disruptive selection does not affect
Disruptive the peak of the distribution curve.
D) I-Disruptive; II-Stabilizing; III- D) Stabilizing selection does not affect
Directional the mean of the phenotype.
115. In a species, the weight of the newborn 120. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding
ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of newborns higher milk output represents
with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 [Pg-137,H]
kg survive whereas 99% of the infants A) directional selection as it pushes the
born with weight from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 mean of the character in one
to 5 kg die. Which type of selection direction.
process is taking place? [Pg-137,M] B) disruptive selection as it splits the
A) Directional selection population into two, one yielding
B) Stabilizing selection higher output and the other lower
C) Disruptive solution output.
D) Cyclical Solution C) stabilizing selection followed by
116. Name the type of natural selection that disruptive selection as it stabilizes the
tends to reduce the genetic variations in population to produce higher-yielding
the population without affecting the cows.
mean. [Pg-137,M] D) stabilizing selection as it stabilizes
A) Disruptive selection this character in the population.
B) Directional selection 121. The northern elephant seal of North
C) Stabilizing selection America and nearby islands was nearly
D) Both a and b are correct hunted to extinction. The conservation
117. The black-bellied finches with large beak efforts restored the population size.
sizes are able to feed on the most However, the restored population is
abundant food types in the habitat while vulnerable to extinction due to
the finches intermediate and small beak [Pg-137,M]
size die at a young age due to starvation. A) Stabilizing selection
This represents: [Pg-137,H] B) Bottleneck effect
A) Disruptive selection C) Founders effect
B) Directional selection D) Natural selection
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128. Select the incorrect statement among the

PARAGRAPH-7.8
following. [Pg-140,M]
A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION A) Due to continental drift, when South
America joined North America, these
122. Sea weeds and few plants existed animals were overridden by North
probably around - [Pg-138,E] American fauna.
A) 0.32 bya B) 400 mya B) Due to continental drift pouched
C) 500 mya D) 3.2 bya mammals of Australia survived
123. Jawless fish probably evolved around - because of lack of competition from
[Pg-138,E] any other mammal.
A) 400 mya B) 350 mya C) Evolution of horse, elephant, virus,
C) 450 mya D) 600 mya etc., are special stories of evolution.
124. Select the correct statement among the D) The most successful story is the
following. [Pg-138,M] evolution of man with language skills
A) By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates and self-consciousness.
were formed but were not active. 129. Select the correct statement about cells
B) The first organisms that invaded land with a membranous envelope.
were plants. They were widespread on [Pg-139,M]
land when animals invaded land. A) The mechanism of how non-cellular
C) The amphibians evolved into reptiles. aggregates of giant macromolecules
They lay thin-shelled eggs which do could evolve into cells with
not dry up in sun unlike those of membranous envelope is not known.
amphibians B) Some of these cells had the ability to
D) After amphibians in the next 2000 release O2.
million years or so, reptiles of C) The reaction could have been similar
different shapes and sizes dominated to the light reaction in photosynthesis
on Earth. where water is split with the help of
125. ________ were present but they all fell to solar energy captured and
form coal deposits slowly. [Pg-140,E] channelised by appropriate light
A) Giant grass B) Giant ferns harvesting pigments.
C) Pteridophytes D) Both B and C D) All of these
126. Select the incorrect statement among the 130. Fish with stout and strong fins could
following. [Pg-139,140,E] move on land and go back to water. This
A) Some of these land reptiles went back was about - [Pg-138,E]
into water to evolve into amphibians A) 360 mya
like reptiles probably 200 mya (e.g. B) 350 mya
Ichthyosaurs). C) 0.4 bya
B) About 65 mya, the dinosaurs D) 3.5 bya
suddenly disappeared from the earth. 131. Select the correct statement about
C) The first mammals were like shrews. Coelacanth. [Pg-138,M]
Their fossils are small sized. A) In 1938, a fish caught in South
Mammals were viviparous and America happened to be a Coelacanth
protected their unborn young inside which was thought to be extinct
the mother’s body. B) Coelacanth called lobefins evolved
D) Mammals were more intelligent in into the first reptile that lived on both
sensing and avoiding danger at least. land and water.
When reptiles came down mammals C) There are no specimens of Coelacanth
took over this earth. left with us.
127. South America mammals resembled how D) Coelacanth were ancestors of modern
many of the following animals? day frogs and turtles.
[Pg-140,E] 132. Select the correct statement about
Horse, Cow, Monkey, Hippopotamus, Tyrannosaurus rex? [Pg-140,E]
Bear, Deer, Rabbit A) Tyrannosaurus rex had huge
A) 5 B) 4 fearsome dagger like teeth.
C) 3 D) 2 B) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet
in height.
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C) Tyrannosaurus rex was biggest of all a b c d

dinosaurs. A) 1 4 2 3
D) All of these B) 4 1 2 3
133. The probable reason for disappearance of C) 2 4 1 3
dinosaur was/were- [Pg-140,E] D) 4 1 3 2
A) Climatic changes killed them 139. Consider the following statement.
B) Most of them evolved into birds. [Pg-140,M]
C) Both (A) and (B) (a) Homo habilis is also known as ‘handy
D) Dinosaurs did not disappear. man’ and could cook food using fire.
134. How many of the following animals live (b) Homo erectus was about 5 feet tall
wholly in water? [Pg-140,E] upright hominid and exhibited
Whales, Shark, Dolphins, Turtles, Seals, improved hunting skills. Select the
Sea cows correct option.
A) 5 B) 4 A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
C) 3 D) 2 B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
PARAGRAPH-7.9
ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF MAN 140. Which of the following hominid has a
brain capacity of 1400cc and used hide
135. Consider the following statements: to protect their body. [Pg-141,E]
[Pg-140,M] A) Homo habilis
(a) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus B) Homo erectus
lived on Earth about 15 mya. C) Homo sapiens
(b) They were primates with a hairy D) The Neanderthal man
appearance and walked like gorillas. 141. The chronological order of human
Choose the correct option. evolution from early to the recent is
A) Both (a) and (b) are true. [Pg-140,141,E]
B) (a) is true but (b) is false. A) Australopithecus > Ramapithecus >
C) Both (a) and (b) are false. Homo habilis > Homo erectus
D) (a) is false but (b) is true. B) Ramapithecus > Australopithecus >
136. Ramapithecus was more _____ while Homo habilis > Homo erectus
Dryopithecus was more _____ [Pg-140,E] C) Ramapithecus > Homo habilis >
A) great ape-like; man-like Australopithecus > Homo erectus
B) man-like; ape-like D) Australopithecus > Homo habilis >
C) ape-like; man-like Ramapithecus > Homo erectus
D) both a and b are true 142. Match the hominids with their correct
137. Which of the following is the immediate brain size. [Pg-140,141,M]
ancestor of genus Homo? [Pg-140,E] Column-I Column-II
A) Dryopithecus (a) Homo habilis (1) 900 cc
B) Ramapithecus (b) Homo (2) 1350 cc
C) Australopithecines neanderthalensis
D) Sahelanthropus (c) Homo erectus (3) 650–800 cc
138. Match Column-I with Column-II. (d) Homo sapiens (4) 1400 cc
[Pg-140,141,M]
Column-I Column-II Select the correct option.
(a) Australopithecus (1) The oldest a b c d
africanus member of A) 4 1 3 2
genus Homo B) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 1 2 3
(b) Homo habilis (2) Java man D) 2 4 1 3
143. Which of the following had the smallest
(c) Homo erectus (3) Cave painting
brain capacity? [Pg-140,E]
(d) Neanderthal man (4) Lucy A) Homo neanderthalensis
B) Homo habilis
C) Homo erectus
Select the correct option. D) Homo sapiens
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144. Which of the following pair is incorrectly B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
matched? [Pg-141,E] but Reason is not the correct
A) Australopithecines – Fruit eater explanation of Assertion.
B) Pre-historic cave art –18000 years ago C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) Agriculture and human settlements – D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
10000 years back 146. Assertion: Evolution of modern humans
D) Origin of modern Homo sapiens – exhibited a gradual increase in brain
1,00,000–40,000 years back size.
145. Assertion: Ramapithecus was more man- Reason: Homo habilis had the smallest
like while Dryopithecus was more ape- brain capacity. [Pg-141,H]
like. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Reason: Ramapithecus had a thick layer and Reason is correct explanation of
of enamel. [Pg-140,H] Assertion.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
and Reason is correct explanation of but Reason is not the correct
Assertion. explanation of Assertion.
Answer Key
EVOLUTION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans A B D D D B D B D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A B C C D D B C D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A A D C C D C A B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A C C A B C B C D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C D B A A B D A A A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C B A A A A C D D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C D B B A B B B B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A B A B C C B B A B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D B A A B A A A B D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C C A C C A A D B A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D B A D C B C B C B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A B C B B C B A C A
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B A B B B D B C D B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans C D C B A B C B A D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans B B B D A B
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15 Human Health and Diseases
1. The ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health D) none of these

was disproved by the [Pg-145,E] 7. Match Column-I with Column-II and
A) discovery of blood circulation choose the correct option from the codes
B) discovery of compound microscope given below. [Pg-145,146,M]
C) demonstration of normal body Column-I Column-II
temperature in persons with (A) Health (1) AIDS
blackbile (B) Genetic (2) Physical, mental and
D) both (a) and (c) disorders social well-being
2. The term health can be defined as
(C) Infectious (3) Cancer
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-146,E] disease
A) the state of body and mind in a (D) Non- (4) Inherited from parents
balanced condition infectious from birth
B) the reflection of a smiling face disease
C) a state of complete physical, mental
and social well-being
D) the symbol of economic prosperity Select the correct option.
3. After diagnosis by a psychiatrist, an A B C D
apparently healthy person was said to be A) 2 4 3 1
unhealthy because the patient was B) 2 4 1 3
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-146,E] C) 3 2 4 1
A) inefficient at his work D) 1 3 2 4
B) not prosperous economically 8. Among the following, identify the
C) not interested in sports infectious diseases. [NCERT Exemplar]
D) showing behavioural and social Mal- [Pg-146,E]
adjustment (I) Cancer
4. Choose the incorrect statement about (II) Influenza
health. [Pg-146,E] (III) Allergy
A) Health can simply be defined as (IV) Smallpox
absence of disease. A) (I) and (II) B) (II) and (III)
B) Healthy people are more efficient at C) (III) and (IV) D) (II) and (IV)
work. 9. Assertion: Diseases are characterized by
C) Health increases productivity. the appearance of various signs and
D) Health reduces infant and maternal symptoms.
mortality. Reason: Disease always adversely affects
5. Choose the correct statements about only one organ or system. [Pg-146,E]
diseases. [Pg-146,M] A) Both assertion and reason are true
(I) Disease adversely affects the and reason is the correct explanation
functioning of one or more organs. of assertion.
(II) A disease is characterized by the B) Both assertion and reason are true
appearance of various signs and but reason is not the correct
symptoms. explanation of assertion
(III) AIDS is a fatal non-infectious C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
disease. D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(IV) Cancer is an infectious disease. 10. Assertion: AIDS is an infectious disease.
A) (I) and (II) B) (II) and (III) Reason: AIDS can be easily transmitted
C) (III) and (IV) D) (I) and (IV) from one person to another. [Pg-146,E]
6. Diseases which are easily transmitted A) Both assertion and reason are true
from one person to another are called and reason is the correct explanation
[Pg-146,E] of assertion.
A) non-infectious diseases B) Both assertion and reason are true
B) genetic diseases but reason is not the correct
C) infectious diseases explanation of assertion.
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C) Assertion is true but reason is false. A) 4 2 3 1

D) Both assertion and reason are false. B) 2 4 1 3
C) 1 3 4 2
PARA-8.1 D) 3 1 2 4
COMMON DISEASES IN HUMANS 18. The pathogens that enter the gut can [Pg-
146,E]
11. Diseases can be caused by the infection A) survive in the stomach at low pH
of [Pg-146,E] B) resist the various digestive enzymes
A) bacteria B) viruses C) survive only at high temperature
C) helminths D) all of these D) both (a) and (b)
12. The disease-causing organisms in plants 19. In human beings, typhoid fever is caused
and animals are called [NCERT by the infection of- [Pg-146,E]
Exemplar] [Pg-146,E] A) Salmonella typhi
A) vectors B) pathogens B) E. coli
C) insects D) worms C) Plasmodium vivax `
13. The pathogens can affect our body by D) Entamoeba histolytica
[Pg-146,E] 20. Salmonella typhi infects [Pg-146,E]
A) interfering with normal vital activities A) large intestine
B) resulting in morphological damage B) stomach
C) resulting in functional damage C) small intestine
D) all of these D) liver
14. Most of the parasites are considered as 21. The pathogen of typhoid fever enters in
[Pg-146,E] the body through [Pg-146,E]
A) vectors B) pathogens A) contaminated food
C) worms D) none of these B) contaminated water
15. Production of digestive juices in the C) inhaling of air droplets released by
stomach in excessive amount results in diseased person
[Pg-146,E] D) both (a) and (b)
A) ulcers B) cirrhosis 22. The symptoms of typhoid include
C) jaundice D) diarrhoea [Pg-146,E]
16. The inflammation of pancreas is A) high fever
[Pg-146,E] B) stomach pain
A) pancreatitis B) jaundice C) loss of appetite
C) ulcer D) none of these D) all of these
17. Match Column-I with Column-II and 23. The typhoid can be diagnosed by [NCERT
choose the correct option from the codes Exemplar] [Pg-147,M]
given below. [Pg-146,147,M] A) ELISA B) PCR
Column-I Column-II C) Widal test D) ESR
24. Identify the correct pair representing the
(A) Lactose (1) Excessive passage causative agent of typhoid fever and the
intolerance of loose & watery confirmatory test for typhoid. [NEET–
feces 2019] [Pg-147,E]
A) Plasmodium vivax/UTI test
(B) Celiac disease (2) Disability to B) Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
synthesize lactase C) Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test
enzyme D) Salmonella typhi/Widal test
25. The causative agents of pneumonia in
(C) Diarrhoea (3) Inflammation of
pancreas
humans is/are [Pg-147,E]
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
(D) Pancreatitis (4) Inflammation of
C) Bacillus anthracis
small intestine
D) Both (a) and (b)
26. In pneumonia, which part of respiratory
Codes- system is affected? [Pg-147,E]
A B C D A) Alveoli
B) Nose
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C) Respiratory passage (A) Typhoid (1) Streptococcus

D) All of these pneumoniae
27. The group of symptoms that is indicative
of pneumonia [NCERT Exemplar] (B) Pneumonia (2) Rhino viruses
[Pg-147,E]
A) constipation, abdominal pain, (C) Common cold (3) Salmonella typhi
cramps, blood clots.
B) difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, (4) Haemophilus
cough, headache. influenzae
C) nasal congestion and discharge,
cough, constipation, headache.
D) high fever, weakness, stomach pain, Codes-
loss of appetite, constipation. A B C
28. Among the following which one is not a A) 3 1,4 2
bacterial disease? [Pg-147,E] B) 3 1,2 4
A) Dysentery B) Plague C) 2 3 1,4
C) Diphtheria D) Common cold D) 1 4 2,3
29. Which of the following sets of diseases is 35. The malignant malaria is caused by
caused by bacteria? [NEET–2019] [Pg-147,E]
[Pg-147,M] A) Plasmodium vivax
A) Tetanus and mumps B) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Herpes and influenza C) Plasmodium malaria
C) Cholera and tetanus D) None of these
D) Typhoid and small pox 36. Plasmodium enters the human body as
30. Choose the incorrect statement from the [Pg-147,E]
following. [Pg-147,M] A) Gametocyte B) Haemozoin
A) In severe cases of typhoid, intestinal C) Sporozoite D) None of these
perforation and death may occur. 37. Haemozoin is a toxin released from
B) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-147,E]
Widal test. A) Streptococcus infected cells
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae infects B) Plasmodium infected cells
respiratory passage. C) Homophilus infected cells
D) Dysentery and plague are bacterial D) None of these
diseases. 38. The infectious stage of plasmodium, i.e.,
31. Rhino viruses cause [Pg-147,E] sporozoites are formed in [NCERT
A) pneumonia B) plague Exemplar] [Pg-147,E]
C) common cold D) typhoid A) RBCs of mosquito
32. Rhino viruses infect [Pg-147,E] B) liver of the infected man
A) nose C) gut of mosquito
B) respiratory passage D) salivary glands of mosquito
C) lungs 39. How many hosts are required by the
D) both (a) and (b) malarial parasite to complete its life
33. Which one is not a symptom of common cycle? [Pg-147,E]
cold in humans? [Pg-147,E] A) One
A) Nasal congestion B) Two
B) Sore throat C) Three
C) Headache D) One or two according to
D) Grey to bluish colour of lips environmental conditions
34. Match Column-I (diseases) with Column- 40. The person suffering from sickle cell
II (causative agent) and choose the anaemia is [NCERT Exemplar]
correct option from the codes given [Pg-147,E]
below. [Pg-147,M] A) less prone to typhoid
Column-I Column-II B) less prone to malaria
C) more prone to typhoid
D) more prone to malaria
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41. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan (B) Malaria (2) Salmonella

parasite which infects [Pg-148,E] typhi
A) stomach (C) Amoebiasis (3) Rhino viruses
B) small intestine (D) Common cold (4) Plasmodium
C) large intestine vivax
D) liver
42. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica Codes-
feeds upon [AIPMT–2015] [Pg-148,E] A B C D
A) 2 4 1 3
A) mucosa and submucosa of colon only
B) 4 3 2 1
B) food in intestine
C) 1 2 4 3
C) blood only
D) 3 1 2 4
D) erythrocytes, mucosa and
submucosa of colon
45. Choose the correct statements about
43. Refer to the given figure showing stages
amoebiasis. [Pg-148,149,E]
in the life cycle of use plasmodium. In the
(I) It is caused by the infection of
figure, which type of reproduction is
Entamoeba histolytica.
occurring at stages A and B respectively.
(II) Its symptoms include loose motion,
Also, identify C and D in the figure.
abdominal pain and cramps, stools
[Pg-148,M]
with excess mucous and blood clots.
(III) Houseflies act as mechanical
carriers for the parasite.
(IV) The main sources of its infection are
drinking water and food
contaminated by the fecal matter.
A) (I) and (II) B) (II) and (III)
C) (I), (III) and (IV) D) All of these
46. Ascaris, which causes ascariasis is an/a
[Pg-149,E]
A) intestinal parasite
B) stomach parasite
C) liver parasite
D) none of these
47. The symptoms of ascariasis include
[Pg-149,E]
A) internal bleeding
B) anemia
C) muscular pain
D) all of these
A B C D 48. In which disease does mosquito
A) Asexual Sexual Gametocyt Sporozoit transmitted pathogen cause chronic
es es inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
B) Sexual Asexual Gametocyt Sporozoit [NEET–2018] [Pg-149,M]
es es A) Elephantiasis
C) Asexual Sexual Sporozoite Gametoc B) Ascariasis
s ytes C) Ringworm disease
D) Asexual Sexual Gametocyt Ookinete D) Amoebiasis
es s
49. Refer to the given figure. [Pg-149,E]
44. Match Column-I (Diseases) with
Column-II (causative agents) and choose
the correct option from the codes given
below. [Pg-146-149,M]
Column-I Column-II
(A) Typhoid (1) Entamoeba
histolytica
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C) infected combs
D) all of these
Column-I Column-II
(A) Entamoeba (1) Sporozoa
histolytica
(B) Plasmodium (2) Rhizopoda
vivax
(C) Ascaris (3) Deuteromycetes
Which disease is shown in the figure? lumbricoides
A) Amoebiasis (D) Trichophyton (4) Nematoda
B) Filariasis rubrum
C) Elephantiasis Codes-
D) Both (B ) and (C) A B C D
50. Among the following which does not A) 2 1 4 3
cause ringworm disease in humans? B) 1 2 3 4
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-149,E] C) 4 3 2 1
A) Microsporum
D) 3 4 1 2
B) Macrosporum
C) Epidermophyton
55. Trichophyton feeds on [Pg-149,E]
D) Trichophyton
A) goblins of blood
51. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on
B) keratin of skin
various parts of the body is symptom of
C) cellulose of leaves
which infectious disease? [Pg-149,E]
D) none of these
A) Filaria
56. Choose the incorrect statement from the
B) Ascarisis
following. [Pg-149,M]
C) Ringworm
A) Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic
D) None of these
inflammation of the lymphatic
52. Match the pathogens given in Column-I
vessels.
to the body organs to which they affect in
B) The pathogens of filaria are
Column-II. Choose the correct answer
transmitted to a healthy person
from the codes given below. [Pg-149,M]
through houseflies.
Column-I Column-II
C) Trichophyton is responsible for
(A) Ascaris (1) Lymphatic vessels ringworm.
of lower limbs
D) Common cold is a viral disease.
57. Read the following statements carefully
(B) Wuchereria (2) Intestine and choose the option that correctly
identifies the true statements.
(C) Trichopyton (3) Skin, scalp and
nails [Pg-149,H]
(I) Many infectious diseases can be
(D) Streptococcus (4) Lungs prevented and controlled by
pneumoniae maintaining personal and public
Codes- hygiene
(II) Proper disposal of waste and excreta
A B C D is particularly essential for the air-
A) 2 1 3 4 borne diseases.
B) 1 2 4 3 (III) Malaria can be prevented by
C) 3 2 1 4 eliminating its vector and their
D) 4 3 2 1 breeding places.
(IV) Chikungunya is a vector-borne
53. Ringworms are generally acquired from disease.
[Pg-149,E] A) (I), (II) and (III) B) (II), (III) and (IV)
A) soil C) (IV), (II) and (I) D) (I), (III) and (IV)
B) infected towels
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58. The most important measure to control (A) Amoebic (1) Female
malaria and filariasis is to control or dysentery Anopheles
eliminate the [Pg-149,E] (B) Dengue (2) Housefly
A) vectors (C) Malaria (3) Aedes mosquito
B) breeding places of vectors
C) causal organism Codes-
D) both (a) and (b) A B C
59. Match Column-I with Column-II and A) 3 2 1
choose the correct option from the codes B) 2 3 1
given below[Pg-147-149,M] C) 1 2 3
Column-I Column-II D) 2 1 3
(A) Food-borne (1) Pneumonia
disease 66. Assertion: Most of the parasites are
(B) Air-borne (2) Amoebic pathogens.
disease dysentery Reason: Disease causing organisms are
(C) Vector-borne (3) Malaria called pathogens hosts as parasite.
disease [Pg-146,H]
(4) Typhoid A) Both assertion and reason are true
Codes- of assertion.
A B C B) Both assertion and reason are true
A) 2,4 1 3 but reason is not the correct
B) 1,4 2 3 explanation of assertion.
C) 3 2,4 1 C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) 2 3 4,1 D) Both assertion and reason are false.
67. Assertion: Pneumonia is caused by the
60. Which fish is introduced in ponds that infection of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
feed on mosquito larva? [Pg-150,E] Reason: Streptococcus pneumoniae
A) Rohu B) Katla bacteria infect respiratory passage.
C) Gambusia D) None of these [Pg-147,H]
61. The vector that transmits the disease A) Both assertion and reason are true
chikungunya is [NCERT Exemplar] and reason is the correct explanation
A) Housefly B) Both assertion and reason are true
B) Cockroach but reason is not the correct
C) Aedes mosquito explanation of assertion.
D) Female Anopheles C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
62. Dengue is transmitted through D) Both assertion and reason are false.
[Pg-150,E] 68. Assertion: The malarial parasite
A) female Anopheles requires two hosts to complete its
B) housefly lifecycle.
C) Gambusia Reason: These two hosts are human and
D) Aedes mosquito mosquito. [Pg-147,H]
63. A deadly disease that has been A) Both assertion and reason are true
eradicated from India is [Pg-150,E] and reason is the correct explanation
A) typhoid B) smallpox of assertion.
C) dengue D) cancer B) Both assertion and reason are true
64. Among the following diseases, for which but reason is not the correct
one is vaccine available? [Pg-150,E] explanation of assertion.
A) Polio B) Pneumonia C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
C) Tetanus D) All of these D) Both assertion and reason are false.
65. Match Column-I with Column-II and 69. Assertion: Wuchereria bancrofti affects
choose the correct option from the codes the blood vessels of the lower limbs.
Column-I Column-II
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Reason: This pathogen is transmitted to C) produces memory cells for mounting

a healthy person through the bite of male fast secondary response
mosquito vectors. [Pg-149,H] D) has natural killer cells which can
A) Both assertion and reason are true phagocytose and destroy microbes
and reason is the correct explanation 76. A substance produced by a virus infected
of assertion. cell that can protect other cells from
B) Both assertion and reason are true further infection is [NCERT Exemplar]
but reason is not the correct [Pg-151,E]
explanation of assertion. A) colostrum B) serotonin
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. C) interferon D) histamine
D) Both assertion and reason are false. 77. Interferons, produced by virus-infected
cells are [Pg-151,E]
Para-8.2 A) enzymes B) proteins
C) lipids D) none of these
Immunity 78. Match Column-I with Column-II and
choose the correct answer from the codes
70. The ability of the host to fight against given below. [Pg-151,M]
disease causing organism is known as Column-I Column-II
[Pg-150,E] (A) Physical (1) Acid in the
A) pathogenicity barrier stomach
B) immunity (B) Physiological (2) Monocytes
C) immunisation barrier
D) none of these (C) Cellular (3) Interferon
71. Innate immunity [Pg-150,E] barrier
A) is non-specific type of defence. (D) Cytokine (4) Mucus
B) is present at the time of birth. barrier coating of the
C) consists of four types of barriers. epithelium
D) all of these lining of
72. Which type of immunity is present from urogenital
the birth? [Pg-150,E] tract
A) Acquired
B) Innate Codes-
C) Specific A B C D
D) None of these A) 4 1 2 3
73. Identify the physical barrier of immunity B) 1 3 4 2
from the following. [Pg-150,E] C) 2 4 3 1
A) Skin on our body
D) 3 2 1 4
B) Acid in the stomach
C) PMNL-neutrophils
79. The pathogen specific immunity is
D) Both (a) and (b)
[Pg-151,E]
74. Saliva in the mouth is an example of
A) innate immunity
[Pg-150,E]
B) acquired immunity
A) physical barrier of immunity.
C) physical strength
B) physiological barrier of immunity.
D) none of these
C) cellular barrier of immunity.
80. Subsequent encounter with the same
D) cytokine barrier of immunity.
pathogen elicits a/an [Pg-151,E]
75. Humans have acquired immune system
A) secondary response
that produces antibodies to neutralize
B) highly intensified response
pathogens. Still innate immune system is
C) anamnestic response
present at the time of birth because it
D) all of these
[Odisha, NEET 2019] [Pg-151,M]
81. Antibodies are produced by [Pg-151,E]
A) provides passive immunity
A) T-lymphocytes
B) is very specific and uses different
B) B-lymphocytes
macrophages
C) monocytes
D) both (a) and (b)
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82. An antibody is represented as B) 2 4 1 3

[Pg-151,E] C) 2 4 3 1
A) H3L3 B) H1L1 D) 1 3 4 2
C) H2L2 D) None of these
83. Refer to the given figure showing 87. Choose the incorrect statement from the
structure of an antibody. In the figure following. [Pg-151,M]
some parts are labelled as P, Q, R and S. A) Primary immune response is of low
Identify the part which binds with intensity.
antigen. [Pg-151,M] B) The primary and secondary immune
responses are carried out with the
help of B-lymphocytes and T-
lymphocytes.
C) B-cells themselves do not secrete
antibodies but help T-cells to produce
them.
D) Antibodies are found in blood,
A) Q B) P therefore it is called humoral immune
C) R D) S response.
84. Which of the following immune 88. When a host is exposed to antigens,
responses is responsible for rejection of antibodies are produced in the host
kidney graft? [NEET–2019] [Pg-151,H] body. This type of immunity is called
A) Auto-immune response [Pg-152,E]
B) Humoral immune response A) active immunity
C) Inflammatory immune response B) passive immunity
D) Cell-mediated immune response C) innate immunity
85. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails D) none of these
often due to non-acceptance by the 89. When readymade antibodies are directly
patient’s body. Which type of immune given to protect the body against foreign
response is responsible for such agents, it is called [Pg-152,E]
rejections? [NCERT Exemplar, NEET– A) cell-mediated immunity
2017 [Pg-151,E] B) passive immunity
A) Cell-mediated immune response C) active immunity
B) Humoral immune response D) innate immunity
C) Physiological immune response 90. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted
D) Auto immune response by mother during the initial days of
86. Match Column-I with Column-II and lactation is very essential to impart
choose the correct option from the codes immunity to the newborn infants
given below. [Pg-151,M] because it contains [Pg-152,E]
Column-I Column-II A) natural killer cells
(A) Innate (1) Antibodies B) monocytes
immunity C) macrophages
(B) Acquired (2) Non-specific D) immunoglobulin A
immunity immune 91. Which type of antibodies are found in
response colostrum? [NCERT Exemplar]
(C) Humoral (3) T-lymphocytes [Pg-152,E]
immune A) O = IgG type B) O = IgD type
response C) O = IgA type D) O = IgE type
(D) Cell- (4) Pathogen 92. Consider the following statements and
mediated specific choose the correct statements.
immunity immune [Pg-152,H]
response (I) Active immunity is slow and takes
time to give its full effective
Codes- response.
A B C D (II) In passive immunity, ready-made
A) 4 2 3 1 antibodies are directly given
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(III) Colostrum contains IgE antibodies. B) Vaccines can be produced using

(IV) The foetus also receives some recombinant DNA technology.
antibodies from its mother. C) Vaccines generate memory B-cells
A) (I), (II) and (III) B) (I), (II) and (IV) and T-cells.
C) (I), (III) and (IV) D) All of these D) Vaccines given in case of snakebite
93. The principle of immunisation is based contains preformed antigens.
on which property of immune system? 99. The exaggerated response of the immune
[Pg-152,M] system to certain antigens in the
A) Discriminate between self and non- environment is called [Pg-153,E]
self A) immunisation
B) Memory B) allergy
C) Production of antibodies C) vaccination
D) All of these D) none of these
94. Match each disease with its correct type 100. The substances which produce allergy
of vaccine. [AIPMT–2015] [Pg-152,M] are called [Pg-153,E]
A) antigens B) pathogens
Column-I Column-II C) allergens D) antibodies
(A) Tuberculosis (1) Harmless virus 101. The antibodies produced against
(B) Whooping (2) Inactivated allergens are of [Pg-153,E]
cough toxin A) O = IgA type B) O = IgE type
(C) Diphtheria (3) Killed bacteria C) O = IgM type D) O = IgG type
(D) Polio (4) Harmless 102. Match Column-I with Column-II and
bacteria choose the correct option from the codes
Codes- Column-I Column-II
A B C D (A) Colostrum (1) IgE
A) 3 2 4 1 (B) Allergy (2) IgA
B) 4 3 2 1 (C) Graft (3) Passive
C) 1 2 4 3 rejection immunisation
D) 2 1 3 4 (D) Preformed (4) Cell-medicated
antibodies immunity
95. In case of snakebites, the injection which Codes-
is given to the patients, contains [NCERT A B C D
Exemplar] [Pg-152,E] A) 3 2 4 1
A) antigens B) 4 3 2 1
B) antigen – antibody complexes C) 1 2 4 3
C) antibodies D) 2 1 4 3
D) enzymes
96. In vaccination, what is introduced in the 103. Symptoms of allergic reactions include
body? [Pg-152,E] [Pg-153,E]
A) Antigenic proteins of pathogen A) sneezing B) watery eyes
B) Inactivated pathogen C) running nose D) all of these
C) Weakened pathogen 104. The chemical which is released during
D) All of these allergic reaction? [Pg-153,E]
97. Vaccine of hepatitis B is produced from A) Histamine B) Serotonin
[Pg-152,E] C) Steroid D) Both (A) and (B)
A) Yeast 105. Which of the following is not an
B) Rhizobium autoimmune disease? [NEET–2018]
C) Agrobacterium [Pg-153,M]
D) Azadirachta A) Psoriasis
98. Choose the incorrect statement about B) Rheumatoid arthritis
vaccination. [Pg-152,E] C) Alzheimer’s disease
A) In passive immunization, preformed D) Vitiligo
antibodies are injected in the body.
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106. Which of the following diseases is an (D) Passive (4) Introduction

autoimmune disorder? [Odisha, NEET- immunisation of
2019] [Pg-153,M] antibodies
A) Gout
B) Myasthenia gravis Codes-
C) Arthritis A B C D
D) Osteoporosis (a) 3 1 2 4
107. Rheumatoid arthritis is a/an [Pg-153,E] (b) 4 3 2 1
A) infectious disease (c) 3 1 4 2
B) genetic disorder (d) 2 4 3 1
C) autoimmune disease
D) non-infectious disease 112. Identify the primary lymphoid organ(s).
108. Choose the correct reason(s) for [Pg-153,E]
rheumatoid arthritis. [NCERT Exemplar] A) Bone marrow B) Thymus
[Pg-153,M] C) Spleen D) Both (a) and (b)
(I) Body attacks self-cells 113. In primary lymphoid organs, [Pg-153,E]
(II) The ability of immune system to A) lymphocytes become mature
differentiate between self and non- B) lymphocyte interact with antigens
self increases. C) lymphocytes become effecter cells
(III) The production of antibodies D) both (a) and (b)
increases. 114. Among the following which one is not a
(IV) Immune system fails to discriminate lymphoid tissue? [NCERT Exemplar]
between self and non-self cells. [Pg-153,E]
A) (I) and (IV) B) (II) and (III) A) Tonsils B) Spleen
C) (II) and (IV) D) (I) and (III) C) Thymus D) ancreas
109. Our immune system is unique because it 115. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
can [Pg-153,E] representation of lymph nodes. In the
A) recognise foreign antigens figure some parts are labeled as A, B, C
B) respond to antigens and D. Identify the part that serves to
C) remember antigens trap the antigens. [Pg-154,E]
D) all of these
110. The immune system plays an important
role in [Pg-153,E]
A) allergic reactions
B) autoimmune diseases
C) organ transplantation
D) all of these
given below. [Pg-152,153,M] A) B B) A
C) C D) D
Column-I Column-II 116. The lymphoid organ where all blood cells
(A) Allergy (1) Inability to including lymphocytes are produced
discriminate [Pg-153,E]
self cells A) Spleen B) Thymus
from non- C) Bone narrow D) Payer’s patches
self-cells 117. The lymphoid organ that keeps reducing
(B) Autoimmunity (2) Introduction in size with age is [Pg-154,E]
of killed/ A) tonsils B) bone marrow
Weakened C) thymus D) spleen
pathogen 118. Which one is known as the reservoir of
(C) Active (3) Immune erythrocytes? [Pg-154,E]
immunisation response A) Spleen B) Thymus
against C) Lymph nodes D) None of these
allergens
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119. The organ(s) that provide(s) Reason: Polio vaccine also contains
microenvironments for the development preformed antibodies. [Pg-152,H]
and maturation of T-lymphocytes is/are A) Both assertion and reason are true
[Pg-154,E] and reason is the correct explanation
A) Bone marrow B) Thymus of assertion.
C) Spleen D) Both (a) and (b) B) Both assertion and reason are true
120. The lymphoid tissue located within the but reason is not the correct
lining of digestive tract is called explanation of assertion.
[Pg-154,E] C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
A) lymphatic vessels D) Both assertion and reason are false.
B) lymph nodes 125. Assertion: Bone marrow is a secondary
C) MALT lymphoid organ.
D) none of these Reason: In secondary lymphoid organs
121. MALT constitutes about ______ percent of maturation of lymphocytes occur.
the lymphoid tissue in human body. [Pg-153,H]
[NEET–2017] [Pg-154,M] A) Both assertion and reason are true
A) 20% B) 70% and reason is the correct explanation
C) 10% D) 50% of assertion.
122. Match Column-I with Column-II and B) Both assertion and reason are true
choose the correct option from the codes but reason is not the correct
given below. [Pg-154,M] explanation of assertion.
Column-I Column-II C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(A) Bone (1) Maturation of D) Both assertion and reason are false.
marrow T-Lymphocytes Para-8.3
(B) Thymus (2) Production of AIDS
blood cells
(C) Spleen (3) Serve to trap
antigens 126. The word AIDS stands for ‘Acquired
(D) Lymph (4) Reservoir of Immuno Deficiency Syndrome’, here
Nodes erythrocytes syndrome means [Pg-154,E]
A) group of diseases
Codes- B) group of symptoms
A B C D C) group of antigens
A) 1 2 3 4 D) none of these
B) 2 1 4 3 127. HIV is a member of a group of viruses
C) 4 3 2 1 called [Pg-154,E]
D) 3 4 1 2 A) rota virus B) rhino virus
C) retro virus D) none of these
123. Assertion: The immune response in 128. Which of the following is correct
which antibodies are formed is called regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
humoral immune response. [NEET–2016] [Pg-154,H]
Reason: Antibodies are found in blood. A) HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus.
[Pg-151,H] B) HIV does not escape but attacks the
A) Both assertion and reason are true acquired immune response.
and reason is the correct explanation C) HIV is an enveloped virus containing
of assertion. one molecule of single-stranded RNA
B) Both assertion and reason are true and one molecule of reverse
but reason is not the correct transcriptase.
explanation of assertion. D) HIV is an enveloped virus that
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. contains two identical molecules of
D) Both assertion and reason are false. single-stranded RNA and two
124. Assertion: In passive immunization, molecules of reverse transcriptase.
preformed antibodies are given to the 129. HIV is not transmitted by [NCERT
patients. Exemplar] [Pg-154,E]
A) transfusion of contaminated blood
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B) sharing of infected needles Codes-

C) sexual contact with infected persons A B C D
D) shaking hands with infected person A) 4 1 2 3
130. HIV/AIDS spreads through [Pg-154,E] B) 1 2 4 3
A) droplets resulting from cough C) 3 4 1 2
B) body fluids D) 2 3 4 1
C) mere touch
D) All of these 135. Choose the incorrect statement about
131. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts AIDS. [Pg-156,E]
destroying [AIPMT–2015] [Pg-156,M] A) AIDS is caused by HIV.
A) leucocytes B) helper T-cells B) It can be diagnosed using ELISA
C) thrombocytes D) B-lymphocytes technique.
132. AIDS is diagnosed through which C) HIV destroys B-lymphocytes.
technique? [Pg-156,E] D) HIV infected people need help and
A) ELISA B) PCR sympathy instead of being shunned
C) PAGE D) Electrophoresis by the society.
133. Refer to the given figure showing 136. Assertion: AIDS is caused by Human
replication of retrovirus. How is it Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV).
different from the replication of other Reason: It is a member of group
viruses? [Pg-155,E] ‘retroviruses’. [Pg-154,H]
of assertion.
137. Assertion: Transmission of HIV infection
generally occurs by sexual contact with
infected person.
Reason: HIV is not transmitted by the
transfusion of contaminated blood and
blood products. [Pg-154,H]
of assertion.
A) Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA B) Both assertion and reason are true
by reverse transcriptase. but reason is not the correct
B) Viral RNA produces dsRNA by RNA explanation of assertion.
polymerase. C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
C) Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA D) Both assertion and reason are false.
by DNA polymerase. 138. Assertion: AIDS leads to a progressive
D) Viral DNA is produced from host DNA decrease in number of helper T-
by DNA polymerase. lymphocytes in the infected person.
134. Match Column-I with Column-II and Reason: HIV virus replicates and
choose the correct option from the codes produces progeny virus in helper T-
given below [Pg-154-156,M] lymphocytes which are released in blood.
Column-I Column-II [Pg-156,H]
(A) AIDS (1) Retrovirus A) Both assertion and reason are true
(B) HIV (2) Enzyme and reason is the correct explanation
(C) Reverse (3) Diagnostic of assertion
transcriptase technique B) Both assertion and reason are true
(D) ELISA (4) Syndrome but reason is not the correct
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C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (C) Malignant (3) Property of

D) Both assertion and reason are false. tumour cancerous cells
to form new
Para-8.4 tumour at
Cancer distant sites
139. Cancer cells do not show this property. (D) Metastasis (4) Remains
[Pg-157,E] confined to
A) Metastasis original location
B) Growth
C) Contact inhibition
D) Both (A) and (C) Codes-
140. Cancer cells divide continuously and give A B C D
rise to a mass of cells called [Pg-157,E] A) 1 3 4 2
A) fibroid B) tumor B) 4 2 3 1
C) oncogene D) none of these C) 2 4 1 3
141. Tumours that remain confined to their D) 3 1 2 4
original location and cause little damage
are [Pg-157,E] 146. Choose the incorrect statement about
A) benign B) malignant Malignant tumours. [Pg-157,E]
C) carcinogen D) none of these
A) These tumours consist of neoplastic
142. Mass of neoplastic cells is called
[Pg-157,E] cells.
A) benign tumour B) They show the property of metastasis.
B) fibroid C) The cells of this tumour have the
C) cyst property of contact inhibition.
D) malignant tumour D) The cells of malignant tumour starve
143. The cells of malignant tumour the normal cells by competing for vital
[Pg-157,E] nutrients.
A) grow very rapidly 147. Transformation of normal cells into
B) invade and damage other normal cancerous neoplastic cells may be
tissues
induced by [Pg-157,E]
C) show metastasis
D) all of these A) physical agents B) chemical agents
144. Cells sloughed off from malignant C) biological agents D) all of these
tumour move to other parts of the body 148. The cancer-causing agents are called
to form new tumours. This stage of [Pg-157,E]
disease is called [NCERT Exemplar] A) carcinogens B) teratogens
[Pg-157,E] C) mutagens D) none of these
A) teratogenesis B) metastasis 149. X-rays lead to neoplastic transformation
C) mitosis D) metagenesis by causing damage to [Pg-157,E]
A) enzymes B) hormones
C) DNA D) all of these
given below. [Pg-157,m] 150. The genes that cause cancer are called
Column-I Column-II [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-157,E]
(A) Contact (1) Consists of
A) expressor genes
inhibition neoplastic cells
B) oncogenes
(B) Benign (2) Property of C) regulatory genes
tumour normal cells to D) structural genes
inhibit 151. Match Column-I with Column-II and
uncontrolled choose the correct option from the codes
growth of other given below. [Pg-157,M]
cells
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Column-I Column-II
(Type of (Example) Column-I Column-II
Carcinogen) (A) Biopsy (1) Three-
(A) Physical (1) Oncogenic virus dimensional
agent image using X-
(B) Chemical (2) UV rays rays
agent (B) Radiograp (2) Histopathologic
(C) Biological (3) Tobacco hy al study
agent (C) Computed (3) Use of strong
(4) Gamma rays Tomograp magnetic fields
hy and non-
ionising
Codes- radiations
A B C (D) MRI (4) Use of X-rays
A) 4,2 3 1
B) 4,1 2 3 Codes-
C) 2 4,3 1 A B C D
D) 3 2 4,1 A) 4 2 3 1
B) 2 4 1 3
152. Cancer causing viruses are called C) 3 1 4 2
[Pg-157,E] D) 1 3 2 4
A) retrovirus B) rhinovirus
C) oncogenic virus D) none of these 157. The common approaches for the
153. Choose the correct statements about treatment of cancer is/are [Pg-157,E]
carcinogens. [Pg-157,H] A) surgery B) radiation therapy
(I) Carcinogens transform normal cells C) immunotherapy D) all of these
into cancerous cells. 158. Which substance is given to cancer
(II) These carcinogens could be patients to activate their immune
physical, chemical or biological. system? [Pg-157,E]
(III) Ionizing radiations like UV-rays A) Carcinogens B) Cytokinin
damage DNA leading to neoplastic C) α-interferon D) None of these
transformation. 159. Assertion: X-rays and γ-rays are called
(IV) Several proto-oncogenes have been carcinogens.
identified in neoplastic cells that get Reason: Carcinogens transform normal
activated under certain conditions. cells into cancerous neoplastic cells.
A) (I) and (III) B) (I) and (II) [Pg-157,H]
C) (III) and (IV) D) all of these A) Both assertion and reason are true
154. Which technique can be used for the and reason is the correct explanation
detection of cancer of internal organs? of assertion.
[Pg-157,E] B) Both assertion and reason are true
A) Radiography B) CT but reason is not the correct
C) MRI D) All of these explanation of assertion.
155. Computed tomography uses ‘A’ to C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
generate a three-dimensional image of D) Both assertion and reason are false.
the internals of an object. Here ‘A’ is 160. Assertion: Computed tomography can
[Pg-157,E] be used for the early detection of cancer
A) X-rays B) γ-rays of internal organs.
C) α-rays D) UV rays Reason: Computed tomography uses
156. Match Column-I with Column-II and UV-rays to generate a three-dimensional
choose the correct option from the codes image of the internals of an object.
given below. [Pg-157,M] [Pg-157,H]
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of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. A) morphine B) cocaine
D) Both assertion and reason are false. C) cannabinoid D) none of these
161. Assertion: The patients of cancer are 167. Refer to the given figure. [Pg-159,E]
given α-interferon.
Reason: α-interferon is a biological
response modifier. [Pg-158,H]
of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. The drug obtained from this plant affects
D) Both assertion and reason are false. A) reproductive system
Para-8.5 B) respiratory system
C) nervous system
Drug and Alcohol Abuse D) none of these
168. Natural cannabinoids are obtained from
162. Opioid receptors are found in [Pg-158,E] the [Pg-159,M]
A) central nervous system A) inflorescence of Cannabis sativa
B) reproductive system B) latex of Cannabis sativa
C) gastrointestinal tract C) fruits of Cannabis sativa
D) both (a) and (c) D) leaves of Cannabis sativa
163. Heroin is commonly called [Pg-158,E] 169. Cannabinoids are generally taken by
A) smack B) cocaine [Pg-159,E]
C) crack D) none of these A) inhalation B) oral ingestion
164. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesised by C) snorting D) both (a) and (b)
[NEET–2019] [Pg-158,E] 170. Cannabinoids affect [Pg-159,E]
A) methylation of morphine A) cardiovascular system
B) acetylation of morphine B) nervous system
C) glycosylation of morphine C) digestive system
D) nitration of morphine D) none of these
165. ‘Smack’ is obtained from the [NCERT 171. Choose the incorrect statement from the
Exemplar] [Pg-158,E] following. [Pg-159,M]
A) leaves of Cannabis sativa A) Heroin is chemically
B) latex of Papaver somniferum diacetylmorphine
C) fruits of Erythroxylum coca B) Cannabinoids interact with
D) flowers of Datura cannabinoid receptors present
166. Refer to the given chemical structure. It principally in the gut.
is [Pg-159,E] C) Cannabinoids are taken by inhalation
and oral ingestion.
D) Heroin is a depressant.
172. Cocaine is obtained from [Pg-159,E]
A) Papaver somniferum
B) Cannabis sativa
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C) Atropa belladona A) sedative B) pain killer

D) Erythroxylum coca C) stimulant D) both (a) and (b)
173. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from 180. Which chemical substance of tobacco
[Odisha, NEET 2019] [Pg-159,M] stimulates adrenal grand to release
A) Datura adrenaline and noradrenaline? [NCERT
B) Papaver somniferum Exemplar] [Pg-159,E]
C) Atropa belladonna A) Tannic acid B) Nicotine
D) Erythroxylum coca C) Curamin D) Catechin
174. Crack is usually [Pg-159,E] 181. Whose concentration is increased in
A) ingested orally B) injected blood by smoking? [Pg-160,E]
C) inhaled D) snorted A) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
175. Refer to the given figure. This plant B) Oxygen (O2)
causes [Pg-159,E] C) Carbon monoxide (CO)
D) Water (H2O)
182. Choose the correct statements.
[Pg-160,M]
(I) Tobacco is smoked, chewed or used
as a snuff
(II) Tobacco contains nicotine, an
A) hallucinations B) insomnia alkaloid.
C) depression D) all of these (III) Smoking decreases heart rate.
176. Among the following which plant does (IV) Tobacco chewing is associated with
not process hallucinogenic properties? increased risk of cancer of the oral
[Pg-159,E] cavity.
A) Atropa belladonna A) (I) and (II) B) (III) and (IV)
B) Datura C) (I), (II) and (IV) D) All of these
C) Cannabis sativa 183. Among the following which motivates
D) Erythroxylum coca youngsters towards drug and alcohol
177. Among the following which one is abused abuse? [Pg-161,E]
by some sportspersons? [Pg-159,E] A) Need for adventure
A) Heroin B) Need for excitement
B) Barbiturates C) Experimentation
C) Cannabinoids D) All of these
D) Amphetamines 184. Withdrawal syndrome is characterised
178. Match Column-I with Column-II and by [Pg-161,E]
choose the correct option from the codes A) anxiety B) shakiness
gives below. [Pg-159,M] C) nausea D) all of these
Column-I Column-II 185. When drugs are taken intravenously,
(A) Smack (1) Hallucination there are increased chances of having
(B) Cocaine (2) Depressant [Pg-161,E]
(C) Datura (3) Pain killer A) AIDS B) Hepatitis B
(D) Morphine (4) Stimulant C) Polio D) Both (a) and (b)
Codes- choose the correct answer from the codes
A B C D given below. [Pg-160,161,M]
A) 2 4 1 3
Column-I Column-II
B) 3 2 4 1
(A) Adolescence (1) Oral cancer
C) 1 3 2 4
(B) Addiction (2) Abrupt
D) 4 1 3 2
discontinuation
179. Morphine is a very effective [Pg-159,E]
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of regular close B) Both assertion and reason are true

of drug but reason is not the correct
(C) Smoking (3) Bridge linking explanation of assertion.
childhood and C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
adulthood D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(D) Withdrawal (4) Psychological 190. Assertion: Withdrawal syndrome is
syndrome euphoria
characterised by anxiety, shakiness,
associated with
drugs nausea and sweating.
Reason: Withdrawal syndrome is not
Codes- relieved even when use of drugs is
A B C D resumed again. [Pg-161,H]
(a) 4 2 3 1 A) Both assertion and reason are true
(b) 3 4 1 2 and reason is the correct explanation
(c) 1 3 4 2 of assertion.
(d) 2 1 3 4 B) Both assertion and reason are true
187. The side effects of the use of anabolic explanation of assertion.
steroids in females include [Pg-162,E] C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
A) masculinisation D) Both assertion and reason are false.
B) increased aggressiveness 191. Assertion: Those who take drugs
C) depression intravenously are much more likely to
D) all of these acquire AIDS and Hepatitis B.
188. The measure(s) useful for the prevention Reason: The viruses of AIDS and
and control of alcohol and drug abuse Hepatitis B are transferred from one
among adolescents is/are [Pg-162,E] person to another by sharing of infected
A) avoid undue peer pressure needles and syringes. [Pg-162,E]
B) education and counseling A) Both assertion and reason are true
C) looking for danger sign and reason is the correct explanation
D) all of these of assertion.
189. Assertion: Cocaine is obtained from coca B) Both assertion and reason are true
plant. but reason is not the correct
Reason: It has a potent stimulating explanation of assertion.
action on central nervous system. C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
[Pg-159,H] D) Both assertion and reason are false.
of assertion.
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Answer Key
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C D A A C B D C A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D B D B A A B D A C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D D C D D A B D C C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C D D A B C B C B B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C D A A C A D A D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C A D A B B D D A C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C D B D B A C B D B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D B A B D C B B B D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B C B D A B C A B D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C B B B C D A D B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans B D D D C B C A D D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A D A D B C C A D C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans D B A C D B C D D B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans B A A A C B C A C B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans A D D B C C D A C B
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans A C B D A B D C A C
Q 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans A D A B B C C A D A
Q 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans B D D D A C C A D B
Q 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Ans C C D D D B D D B C
Q 191
Ans A
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16 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production
6. Raising and breeding of animals for milk

PARA-9.1
and milk products are known as
ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
[Pg-166,E]
(A) fisheries (B) dairying
1. Practical applications of biological and
(C) poultry farming (D) plant breeding
biotechnological principles include
7. Which of the following set of animals is
[Pg-165,E]
not expected to be found in dairy farms?
(A) animal husbandry and plant breeding
[Pg-166,E]
to increase the production of food
(A) Cattle, buffalo, goat, and sheep
products
(B) Camel, buffalo, goat, and sheep
(B) plant breeding to increase dairy
(C) Cattle, buffalo, goat, and cattle
production
(D) Poultry, cattle, goat, buffalo
(C) tissue culture techniques
8. Which of the following set of products is
(D) Both (a) and (c) are correct
not obtained from a dairy farm?
2. Selective breeding of livestock is known
[Pg-166,E]
as [Pg-165,E]
(A) Milk, butter, cheese, yogurt
(A) animal husbandry
(B) Milk, condensed milk, cheese, yogurt
(B) plant breeding
(C) Butter, egg, cheese, yogurt
(C) poultry farming
(D) Ice cream, yogurt, milk, cheese
(D) fisheries
9. Milk production at dairy farms is
3. Consider the following statements:
dependent on the quality of breeds.
[Pg-165,E]
Which of the following is not a criterion
(a) The practices of animal husbandry
include raising and breeding the for the selection of dairying breeds?
livestock, fisheries and poultry [Pg-166,M]
farming. (A) High yielding potential under the
(b) More than 70% of the world’s livestock local climatic conditions
population is in India and China. (B) Disease resistance
Select the correct option. (C) Color of purebred for registering
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true. purpose and dairy type
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. (D) Expression of foreign genes
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. 10. Which of the following measures are
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true. taken to realize the yield potential of
4. Which of the following sets of organisms cattle breeds at dairy farms? [Pg-166,M]
does not represent livestock? [Pg-165,E] (A) Proper housing, adequate water
(A) Cows, pigs, horses, and fishes supply
(B) Sheep, pigs, camels, and fishes (B) Cleanliness and hygiene of both cattle
(C) Cows, pigs, camel, and goats and handler
(D) Poultry, fishes, and elephants (C) Feeding cattle in a scientific manner
5. Fisheries include rearing, catching and (D) All of these
selling of [Pg-165,E] 11. Consider the following statements:
(A) fishes, mollusks, and crustaceans (a) Animal husbandry refers to the
(B) fishes only domesticated birds used for food
(C) fishes and shell-fish only and/or eggs.
(D) fishes and crustaceans only (b) Chicken, ducks, turkey, geese are
some examples of poultry.
PARA-9.1.1 Select the correct option. [Pg-165,166,E]
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(A) Both (a) and (b) are true. 16. Consider the following statements:
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. (a) A breed is a group of related animals
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. that are true to the genetic traits
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true. characteristic of the breed.
12. Match the Column-I with Column-II. (b) Animals of the same breed do not
[Pg-165,166,E] share a common ancestor. Select the
Column-I Column-II correct option. [Pg-167,M]
(I) Raised for egg (1) Turkey, geese (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
production and ducks (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(II) Raised for meat (2) Ayrshire, (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Guernsey, (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Holstein- 17. Use of selective mating for the production
Friesian and of breeds of domesticated animals with
Jersey desired traits is known as [Pg-167,E]
(III) Cattle breed (3) Important (A) plant breeding
with high milk factors for (B) animal breeding
production success with (C) poultry
poultry (D) farming
(IV) Proper feeding, (4) Hens 18. Consider the following statements about
good animal breeding. Which of the given
management statements is incorrect? [Pg-167,M]
and sanitation
(A) Animal breeding aims to improve the
Select the correct option growth rate and production of useful
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) products from the animals.
(a) 1 4 2 3 (B) It includes the production of
(b) 4 1 2 3 improved breeds of domesticated
(c) 4 2 1 3 animals to obtain milk and meat of
(d) 3 1 4 2 superior quality.
13. The causative agent of Avian Influenza is (C) It does not aim to improve disease
[Pg-167,E] resistance in animals.
(A) H5N1 virus (D) Methods of animal breeding are based
(B) HIV on selective breeding.
(C) E. coli 19. Match the terms in Column-I with a
(D) Clostridium suitable description in Column-II.
14. Which of the following measures is/are [Pg-167,168,M]
required to prevent the spread of H5N1 Column-I Column-II
virus from birds to a human? [Pg-167,E] (I) Inbreeding (1) Overcomes
(A) Consumption of poultry and eggs inbreeding
above the temperature of 100°C depression
(B) Influenza vaccination (II) Outbreeding (2) Increased
(C) Maintain personal hygiene homozygosity
(D) All of these (III) Inbreeding (3) Crossing the
15. Leghorn, Minorca and Andalusia are the depression different breeds.
small-sized breeds of chickens. The most (IV) Outcrossing (4) Reduced
population breed for egg production is productivity due to
[Pg-167,E] inbreeding
(A) Leghorn (B) Minorca Select the correct option
(C) Andalusia (D) None (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 4 1 2 3
PARA-9.1.2 (b) 2 3 4 1
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(c) 1 2 4 3 (C) Crossbreeding (3) Includes

(d) 2 3 4 1 outcrossing and
20. The straight-breeding technique of cross-breeding.
crossing the related animals to increase (D) Interspecific (4) Mating of superior
the genetic purity and homozygosity of hybridization males and females
progeny is [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-167,E] of different breeds.
(A) outbreeding (B) inbreeding
(C) outcrossing (D) crossbreeding Select the correct option
21. Select the incorrect statement. [NEET- (I) (II) (III) (IV)
2019] [Pg-167,M] (a) 1 4 2 3
(A) Inbreeding is essential to evolve pure (b) 4 1 2 3
line in any animal. (c) 4 2 1 3
(B) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive (d) 3 1 4 2
genes that reduce fertility and 25. Most of the mating done by animal
productivity. breeders are outcrossing because
(C) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of [Pg-168,M]
superior genes and elimination of (a) it reduces the expression of harmful
undesirable genes. genes by masking them in
(D) Inbreeding increases homozygosity. heterozygous genotype
22. Homozygous pure lines in cattle can be (b) it helps in bringing the desirable
obtained by [NEET-2017] [Pg-167,M] traits into the progeny
(A) Mating of related individuals of the (c) it increases homozygosity
same breed. (d) it produces pure lines Select the
(B) Mating of unrelated individuals of the correct option.
same breed. (A) a, b, c, d are true
(C) Mating of individuals of different (B) a and b are true
breed. (C) a and d are true
(D) Mating of individuals of different (D) c and d are true
species. 26. The offspring of crossbreeding is
23. The results of inbreeding are not always [Pg-168,E]
desirable because [Pg-167,E] (A) pure line
(A) the selected superior bull produces (B) hybrid
progeny with improved traits (C) homozygous genotype
(B) crossing the related animals of the (D) inbred lines
same breed produces pure lines 27. Hisardale is the breed of sheep developed
(C) the progeny exhibits increased the by crossing [Pg-168,E]
frequency of both undesirable and (A) Cochin ram and Ghagus ewe
desirable genes (B) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams
(D) it increases milk production in cows (C) Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes
24. Match the Column-I with Column-II. (D) Cochin ewe and Marino ram
[Pg-167,168,M] 28. Mule is the hybrid produced by crossing
[Pg-168,E]
Column-I Column-II (A) male donkey and a female horse
(A) Outbreeding (1) Mating of animals (B) female donkey and a male horse
of the same breed (C) male hinny and a female horse
but no common (D) stallion and mare
ancestors for 4–6 29. Interspecific hybridization is the mating
generations. of [NEET-2016] [Pg-168,M]
(B) Outcrossing (2) Mating of animals (A) superior males and females of
of different species different breeds
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(B) more closely related individuals (C) GnRH

within the same breed for 4–6 (D) gonadotropins
generations 35. Consider the following event:
(C) animals within the same breed [Pg-168,169,M]
without having common ancestors (I) Superovulation in cows
(D) two different related species (II) Fertilization of eggs
30. Interspecific hybridization between (III) Mating with elite bull
stallion and female donkey produces the (IV) Transfer of eggs to surrogate
hybrids called [NCERT Exemplar] mothers
[Pg-168,E] V) The second round of
(A) mule (B) hinny superovulation in genetic mother
(C) jack (D) jennet Arrange the events of MOET in the
31. The process of placing the sperms in the correct order and select the correct
female reproductive tract by artificial option.
means is known as [Pg-168,E] (A) I, II, IV, III, V (B) I, III, II, IV, V
(A) artificial insemination (C) I, III, IV, II, V (D) II, III, I, IV, V
(B) interspecific hybridization
(C) asexual reproduction PARA-9.1.3
(D) parthenogenesis
32. The process of artificial insemination is 36. The scientific name of the Indian honey
advantageous over normal mating. Select bee is [Pg-169,E]
the incorrect statement about the (A) Apis indica (B) Apis Indica
(C) Apis Indiana (D) Apis Indica
process. [Pg-168,M]
37. Maintenance of hives of honeybees for
(A) It permits the fertilization of a large
number of female animals from the honey production is called [Pg-169,E]
semen collected in one ejaculation of (A) bee-keeping (B) apiculture
a superior bull. (C) bee-breeding (D) both (a) and (b)
(B) Collected semen is cooled slowly and 38. Which of the following does not represent
stored at −195.5 degrees Celsius for a the importance of apiculture? [Pg-169,E]
longer period. (A) Obtain nutritious hone
(C) It permits the easier use of exotic (B) Provides bee wax
breed bulls as superior males. (C) Honey bees are pollinating agents
(D) The collected semen should not be (D) All are the importance of apiculture
frozen as it kills sperms. 39. Which of the following sets of industries
33. The technique of controlled breeding use the products obtained from
experiments that includes apiculture? [NCERT Exemplar]
superovulation in cows to make them [Pg-169,E]
produce 6–8 eggs per ovarian cycle is (A) Indigenous system of medicines,
known as [Pg-168,E] cosmetics and polishes
(A) artificial insemination (B) Allopathic medicines, cosmetics
(B) hormonal induction (C) Medicines, leather production
(C) multiple ovulation embryo transfer (D) The food industry, dairy products
technology 40. Honey bees are pollinator of [Pg-169,E]
(D) embryo transfer technology (A) corn, sunflower, apple and oats
34. MOET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo (B) barley, corn, apple and sunflower
Transfer technology) includes the use of (C) sunflower, Brassica, apple and pear
______ to stimulate superovulation in (D) wheat, rye, apple and pear
cows. [Pg-168,E] 41. Which of the following species are most
(A) LH commonly domesticated to obtain
(B) FSH and prostaglandins honey? [Pg-169,E]
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
(A) Apis dorsata and Apis indica (D) Honey: a rich source of sugars, fats,
(B) Apis dorsata and Apis mellifera and fibers
(C) Apis florea and Apis indica 46. Father of Blue revolution in India is
(D) Apis indica and Apis mellifera [Pg-169,E]
(A) Dr. Arun Krishnan
PARA-9.1.4 (B) Nirpakh Tutej
(C) Vishal Shekhar
42. Match Column-I with Column-II [NCERT (D) Durgesh Patel
Exemplar] [Pg-169,170,M] 47. Assertion: Bird flu is a viral disease and
is caused by the H5N1 virus.
Column-I Column-II
Reason: Bird flu is transmitted from
(a) Edible (1) Prawn, lobster, affected birds to humans through direct
freshwater oyster contact or consumption of their eggs.
fishes [Pg-167,H]
(b) Edible (2) Catla, Rohu and (A) Both assertion and reason are true
marine fishes common carp
but reason is the correct explanation
(c) Seafood (3) Improved
of assertion.
production of
useful products (B) Both assertion and reason are true
from aquaculture but reason is not the correct
(d) Blue (4) Hilsa, Sardines, explanation of assertion.
revolution Mackerel and (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Pomfrets (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
48. Assertion: Inbreeding is required to
obtain pure line in any animal.
a b c d
Reason: Mendel obtained pure line of
(a) 2 4 1 3
pea plants by cross-pollination.
(b) 1 3 4 2
[Pg-167,H]
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
43. Among the following edible fishes, which but reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
one is a marine fish having a rich source
of omega-3 fatty acids? [NEET-2016]
[Pg-169,M]
(A) Mrigala (B) Mackerel (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(C) Mystus (D) Mangur (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
44. Fisheries have an important place in 49. Assertion: Controlled breeding
Indian economy because [Pg-170,E] experiments are done using interspecific
(A) it provides food to the population hybridization.
(B) it serves as the only source of
Reason: Outcrossing increases
livelihood in many coastal regions
homozygosity in the progeny.
(C) it obtains fish oil, pearls, fish protein,
[Pg-167,168,H]
etc.
(D) all the given options are correct.
45. Select the incorrect match from the
of assertion.
following [Pg-169,170,M] (B) Both assertion and reason are true
(A) Pisciculture: fish farming but reason is not the correct
(B) Aquaculture: raising aquatic animals explanation of assertion.
to obtain useful products (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(C) Fishes: a rich source of vitamin D, (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
riboflavin, omega-3 fatty acid and 50. Assertion: A group of bees is called
minerals swarm.
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Reason: Honey bees are pollinators of 55. Classical breeding approach uses the
many crop plants. [Pg-169,H] proven tools of [Pg-171,E]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) hybridization of pure lines and
but reason is the correct explanation artificial selection of desired
of assertion. genotypes.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true (B) hybridization of pure lines and
but reason is not the correct genome manipulation of selected
explanation of assertion. progeny.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (C) incorporation of desired genes and
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. artificial selection of progeny.
(D) genome manipulation only.
PARA-9.2 56. Which of the following is not an objective
of plant breeding? [Pg-170,E]
51. A tremendous increase in crop and food (A) To improve crop productivity and
production as an outcome of the quality.
application of plant breeding and (B) To impart stress and pathogen
production technology is known as resistance in crop plants.
[Pg-170,E] (C) To increase tolerance of crop plants
(A) Green revolution for insect pests.
(B) White revolution (D) All are the objectives of plant
(C) Blue revolution breeding.
(D) Grey revolution 57. Which of the following set of factor cause
52. Father of the green revolution in India is environmental stress in plants?
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-170,E] [Pg-170,E]
(A) Verghese Kurien (A) Pathogens, drought and flood
(B) Vikram Sarabhai (B) Salinity, extreme temperatures and
(C) MS Swaminathan drought
(D) Homi J Bhabha (C) Parasites, extreme temperatures and
53. Consider the following statements about drought
plant breeding. [Pg-170,M] (D) Parasites, pathogens and flood
(a) It is the deliberate manipulation of 58. Consider the following steps in plant
plant genome to create or impart the breeding: [Pg-171,M]
desired traits in the plants. (I) Testing, release and
(b) It aims to obtain plant types with commercialization of new cultivars
better productivity and disease (II) Collection of variability
resistance. (III) Selection and testing of superior
Select the correct option. recombinants
(A) Both (A) and (B) are true. (IV) Cross hybridization among the
(B) (A) is true but (B) is false. selected parents
(C) Both (A) and (B) are false. (V) Evaluation and selection of parents
(D) (A) is false but (B) is true.
Arrange the steps in correct order
54. A true breeding plant is [NEET-2016]
and selection the correct option.
[Pg-171,M]
(A) I, V, IV, II, III (B) II, V, III, IV, I
(A) near homozygous and produces (C) II, V, IV, III, I (D) II, IV, V, III, I
offspring of its own kind 59. In the plant breeding programs, the
(B) always homozygous recessive in its
entire collection (plants/seeds) having all
genetic constitution
the diverse alleles for all genes of a given
(C) one that is able to breed on its own
crop is called [NEET-2013, 2011]
(D) produced due to cross-pollination
among unrelated plants [Pg-171,M]
(A) Germplasm collection
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(B) Selection of superior recombinants 65. Which of the following factors were
(C) Cross-hybridization among the responsible for limited agricultural
selected parents production after the independence of
(D) Evaluation and selection of parents India? [Pg-172,E]
60. Sum total of all the hereditary material (A) Limited land for agriculture and
belonging to single species is known as scarce resources
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-171,E] (B) Seasonal rainfall in deserts
(A) genotype (B) germplasm (C) Lower temperature conditions in
(C) hybrid (D) cultivar Northern plains
61. Consider the following statements about (D) A small fraction of the population
germplasm collection: [Pg-171,M] involved in agricultural activities
(a) The gene of interest should be present 66. The key strategies targeted by Dr.
in the base population to initiate a Norman E. Borlaug that resulted in the
breeding program. Green Revolution in the world were
(b) Genetic variability is a prerequisite to [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-172,M]
develop a new cultivar by breeding (A) development of sugarcane cultivars
programs. Select the correct option. with insect pest resistance
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true. (B) development of high yielding wheat
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. cultivars with desired agronomic
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. traits to realize the maximum
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true. productivity
62. The selected superior recombinants in (C) development of maize cultivars with
plant breeding program are self- disease resistance
pollinated for several generations so as to (D) all the given options are correct
[Pg-171,M] 67. Which of the following set of the traits
(A) increase the homozygosity to prevent correctly represent the features of semi-
segregation of the desired trait in the dwarf varieties developed by Dr. Norman
progeny. E. Borlaug? [NCERT Exemplar]
(B) increase the heterozygosity to prevent [Pg-173,E]
segregation of the desired trait in the (A) Better crop production and lodging
progeny. resistance
(C) increase the homozygosity to allow (B) Adapted to local climatic conditions
segregation of the desired trait in the and lodging resistance
progeny. (C) High yielding, adapted to local
(D) increase the heterozygosity to allow climatic conditions, lodging
segregation of the desired trait in the resistance
progeny. (D) Lodging resistance and better crop
63. The new cultivars produced by plant yield
breeding programs are evaluated for 68. Nobel laureate Norman E. Borlaug was
[Pg-171,E] the director of Wheat Program at_____
(A) yield and developed semidwarf varieties of
(B) morphological and quality traits wheat. [Pg-173,E]
(C) resistance to diseases and stress (A) Center for Plant Breeding and
(D) all the given choices are correct Genetics
64. Around _____ of the Indian population is (B) Indian Society of Genetics and Plant
employed in agricultural activities which Breeding
in turn accounts for _____ of the (C) Centro Internationale de
country’s GDP. [Pg-171,E] Mejoramiento de Maiz y Trigo
(A) 62%, 33% (B) 33%, 62% (D) International Centre for Plant
(C) 32%, 63% (D) 30%, 62% Breeding Education and Research
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69. Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the correct option.

[Pg-173,M] (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
Column-I Column-II (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(a) Kalyan Sona, (1) Pearl millet
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Sonalika
(b) Jamnagar Giant (2) Wheat 74. The photoperiod insensitive wheat and
and Improved rice varieties are beneficial because
Ghana [Pg-173,E]
(c) Pusa Lal and (3) Tomato (A) they are disease resistant.
Pusa Sunhari (B) It allows the late planting of the crop.
(d) Pusa Ruby (4) Sweet potato (C) these varieties could be grown in non-
traditional regions.
Select the correct option. (D) both (B) and (C)
a b c d 75. The scientific name of Indian canes is
(A) 1 4 2 3 [Pg-173,E]
(B) 2 1 4 3 (A) Saccharum officinarum
(C) 4 2 1 3 (B) Saccharum spontaneum
(D) 3 1 4 2 (C) Saccharum munja
70. Which of the following crop cultivars is (D) Saccharum barberi
incorrect matched? [Pg-173,E] 76. Match the Column-I with Column-II.
(A) Sonora 64 and Lerma Rojo: Wheat [Pg-173,M]
(B) TN 1, IR8, IR 28: Rice Column-I Column-II
(C) P 1542, Rachna: Linseed (a) Saccharum (1) South Indian cane
(D) C251, K12: Barley barberi with thicker stems
and higher sugar
71. Which of the following rice cultivar is
content
incorrectly matched with its land of
origin? [Pg-173,E] (b) Saccharum (2) High yield, thick
(A) IR 8: International Rice Research officinarum stems, high sugar
Institute (IRRI), Philippines and adapted to
(B) Taichung Native-1: Taiwan grow in North India
(C) Jaya: India (c) Noblized (3) Resistant to water
(D) Ratna: Mexico canes stress
72. The _____ and _____ were the rust (d) Hybrid (4) North Indian cane
resistant high yielding varieties of wheat millets with poor sugar
introduced in India from Mexico. content and yield
[Pg-173,E]
(A) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika Select the correct option
(B) TN-I and Sonalika a b c d
(C) IR-8 and Kalyan Sona (A) 4 1 2 3
(D) IR-8 and TN-1 (B) 2 1 4 3
73. [Pg-173,M] (C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 3 4 2
(a) The semi dwarf wheat and rice
varieties that made India self-
PARA-9.2.2
sufficient in food grains were lodging
resistant, responsive to the
application of fertilizer and high 77. The objective/s of development of disease
yielding. resistance in crop plants is/are
(b) The rice varieties were resistant to all [Pg-173,E]
three rusts and other prevalent (A) to reduce or prevent the invasion,
diseases. growth, and development of pathogen
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(B) to reduce dependence on the use of (B) Pusa swarnim

fungicides and bacteriocides (C) Pusa Shubhra
(C) to realize the maximum crop (D) Pusa Snowball K-1
production 82. Pusa komal variety of cowpea is resistant
(D) all the given choices are correct to _____ while Pusa sadabahar variety of
78. Which of the following sets of plant chilly is resistant to _____ [Pg-174,E]
diseases include all fungal diseases? (A) Bacterial blight and Leaf curl
[Pg-173,E] (B) White rust and Tobacco mosaic virus
(A) Turnip mosaic, black rot of crucifers (C) Black rot and Chilly mosaic virus
and brown rust of wheat (D) Bacterial blight and hill bunt
(B) Black rot of crucifers, brown rust of 83. Plant breeding for disease resistance by
wheat and red rot of sugarcane conventional techniques has limited
(C) Brown rust of wheat, red rot of success due to [Pg-174,E]
sugarcane and late blight of potato (A) Time consuming screening of
(D) Tobacco mosaic, black rot of crucifers germplasm
and brown rust of wheat (B) Limited availability of disease
79. Which of the following statement resistance genes the collected
correctly differentiates conventional germplasm
breeding techniques for the disease (C) The tedious process of evaluation of
resistance in plants from the mutational developed cultivars
breeding? [Pg-174,M] (D) Limited knowledge about the
(A) Mutational breeding screens pathology of plant disease
germplasm for the source of disease 84. When a source of disease resistance gene
resistance genes. is not available or not known, _____ is
(B) Conventional breeding includes the followed to produce disease resistant
introduction of disease resistance mutants plants. [Pg-174,E]
genes in plants by induced (A) Conventional breeding
mutations. (B) Mutagenesis
(C) Mutational breeding induces (C) Plant breeding
mutations in plants to introduce (D) Germplasm screening
disease resistance in them. 85. Consider the following statements:
(D) Mutational breeding cannot be [Pg-174,M]
applied to crop plants. (a) Disease resistant somaclonal variants
80. Breeding for disease resistance in crop may serve as a source of disease
plants is carried out by conventional resistance for plant breeding.
techniques or by mutational breeding. (b) Recombinant DNA technology
Which of the following crop was not bred develops the disease resistant
by conventional techniques for disease transgenic crop plants by transferring
resistance? [Pg-174,E] the disease resistance gene in crops
(A) Resistance to white rust in Brassica from any other source.
(B) Resistance to bacterial blight in Select the correct option.
cowpea (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(C) Resistance to hill bunt in wheat (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(D) Resistance to powdery mildew in (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
mung bean (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
81. Which of the following is a wheat variety 86. Which of the following is a yellow mosaic
bred by conventional breeding virus resistant variety of Abelmoschus
techniques to develop resistance to leaf esculentus? [Pg-174,E]
and stripe rust in them? [Pg-174,E] (A) TN-1 (B) Prabhani kranti
(A) Himgiri (C) Himgiri (D) Pusa komal
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(A) Maize, wheat, and rice

PARA-9.2.3
(B) Maize, jowar, and bajra
(C) Corn, soybean, and wheat
87. Which of the following set of examples
(D) Corn, soybean, and rice
represent insect resistance due to
94. Which of the given statements is
morphological features? [Pg-175,E]
incorrect about the nutritional quality of
(A) Resistance to jassids in cotton and
food crops? [Pg-175,E]
cereal leaf beetle in wheat
(A) Cereals are generally low in protein
(B) Stem borer resistance in maize
content.
(C) Rust resistance in wheat
(B) Legumes tend to be low in tryptophan
(D) Rot resistance in cauliflower
amino acid.
88. Cereals are the staple source of nutrition
(C) Corn, wheat, and rice are low in lysine
in human diet. Which of the following is
amino acids.
a man made cereal? [HOTS] [Pg-175,M] (D) Rice is a rich source of proteins and
(A) Triticum (B) Triticale vitamin A.
(C) Sorghum (D) Bajra 95. Select the option that correctly
89. Select the incorrect statement about
represents some of the essential
insect pest resistance in crop plants.
micronutrients required by the human
[Pg-175,M]
body. [Pg-175,E]
(A) Solid stems of wheat are not preferred
(A) Iron, nitrogen, oxygen and
by stem sawflies.
phosphorus
(B) The presence of smooth leaves and no
(B) Iron, vitamin A, iodine and zinc
nectar makes the cotton varieties
(C) Iron, vitamin A, carbon and
resistant to bollworms.
potassium
(C) High aspartic acid and low nitrogen in
(D) Manganese, copper, nitrogen and
maize impart stem borer resistance.
carbon
(D) Maize varieties with high sugar
96. Parents often complain about fatigue and
content are resistant to maize stem
weakness in their children despite the
borers.
proper intake of food. Which of the
90. Pusa gaurav is the _____ resistant variety
following could be a reason behind the
of _____ plants bred by conventional
same? [Pg-175,E]
hybridization techniques. [Pg-175,E]
(A) Hidden hunger
(A) Wheat, stem borer
(B) Over consumption of proteins
(B) Jassids, cotton
(C) Obesity
(C) Aphids, rapeseed mustard
(D) Over consumption of carbohydrates
(D) Jassids, beans
97. Which of the following micronutrients is
91. Pusa sem 2 and Pusa Sem 3 varieties of
correctly matched with its respective
the flat bean are resistant to [Pg-175,E]
deficiency disorder? [Pg-175,E]
(A) bollworms and jassids
(A) Vitamin A – anemia
(B) stem sawfly and aphids
(C) leaf beetle and fruit borer (B) Iron – night blindness
(D) jassids, aphids and fruit borer (C) Iodine – goiter
(D) Zinc – beriberi
92. Which of the following are the shoot and
98. Application of breeding or
fruit borer resistant varieties of Okra?
biotechnological processes to improve
[Pg-175,E]
the nutrient levels of crop plants is
(A) Pusa Gaurav (B) Pusa Sem 3
(C) Pusa Sem 2 (D) Pusa A-4 known as [Pg-176,E]
93. Which of the following set correctly (A) biogeochemistry
(B) biofortification
represents the three major food crops
(C) biomagnification
that feed most of the world population?
(D) plant breeding
[Pg-175,E]
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99. Which of the following components Reason: Conventional breeding use

determine the nutritional quality of food existing genes for desired traits as
crops? [Pg-176,E] parents for hybridization. [Pg-174,H]
(A) Protein content and balance of amino (A) Both assertion and reason are true
acids but reason is the correct explanation
(B) Oil content and fatty acid composition of assertion.
(C) Vitamin and mineral content (B) Both assertion and reason are true
(D) All the given choices are correct but reason is not the correct
100. To improve the protein content of explanation of assertion.
cultivated wheat, the high protein (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
content gene from _____ was transferred (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
into _____. This improved wheat variety 104. 104. Assertion: Saccharum barberi was
exhibited higher protein content with no the south Indian sugarcane with higher
sugar content and yield.
reduction in its yield. [Pg-176,E]
(A) Atlas 56, Lancota Reason: Saccharum officinarum was
(B) Atlas 66, Lancota grown in north India and had thicker
(C) Lancota, Atlas 66 stems but poor sugar content.
(D) Lancota, Atlas 56 [Pg-173,H]
101. Which of the following food/vegetable
crop is incorrectly matched with the
of assertion.
nutrients for which they were bred?
[Pg-176,E]
(A) Maize: Lysine and tryptophan explanation of assertion.
(B) Carrots, spinach, pumpkin: Vitamin (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
A (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(C) Bitter gourd, bathua, mustard, 105. Assertion: The random changes in the
tomato: Vitamin C
genome of living beings are called
(D) Spinach and bathua: Lysine and
mutations.
phenylalanine
Reason: Mutations introduce new
102. Assertion: Limited land availability for
genes/alleles and add variations.
agriculture was the major reason for food
[Pg-174,H]
production in India before the green
revolution. but reason is the correct explanation
Reason: High yielding and disease of assertion.
resistant varieties of cereal crops made (B) Both assertion and reason are true
India self-sufficient in food production. but reason is not the correct
[Pg-172,H] explanation of assertion.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
but reason is the correct explanation (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
of assertion. 106. Assertion: Mutation breeding uses
(B) Both assertion and reason are true artificial mutations to obtain the plants
with desired genetic traits.
Reason: Yellow mosaic virus resistance
variety of mung bean was developed by
mutation breeding. [Pg-174,H]
103. Assertion: The presence of genetic
variability is a prerequisite for plant but reason is the correct explanation
breeding techniques. of assertion.
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(B) Both assertion and reason are true (b) Only 10% energy of one trophic level
but reason is not the correct is available for the next trophic level.
explanation of assertion. Select the correct option.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
107. Assertion: Cereals are a poor source of (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
carbohydrates. (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Reason: Legumes are rich in tryptophan 112. Single cell proteins as an alternative to
amino acid. [Pg-176,H] human food sources is an environment-
(A) Both assertion and reason are true friendly approach because [Pg-176,E]
but reason is the correct explanation (A) microbes are a good source of protein
of assertion. (B) microbes have higher reproduction
(B) Both assertion and reason are true rates
but reason is not the correct (C) microbes are grown on the organic
explanation of assertion. waste matter
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (D) conventional breeding programs
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. cannot meet the demand for food
PARA-9.3 SINGLE CELL PROTEIN 113. Single cell proteins are being produced
using waste organic matter. Which of the
108. Which of the following microorganisms following set correctly represents the
serve in the production of single-cell organic waste materials used for the
protein? [Pg-176,E] purpose? [Pg-176,E]
(A) Bacteria (B) Yeast (A) Wastewater from potato processing
(C) Algae (D) All of these plants, straw, molasses
109. A bulk of dead and dry cell microbes that (B) Animal manure, sewage, antibiotics
possess high levels of proteins and is (C) Sewage, industrial waste, waste from
nuclear reactors
grown on varieties of carbon sources is
(D) Hydrocarbon, straw, volcanic
known as [Pg-176,E]
eruptions
(A) hyphae
(B) single cell protein
(a) More than 50% of the human
(C) colony
population is suffering from hunger
(D) microbial mount
and malnutrition.
110. Consider the following statements:
(b) Single cell protein is also known as
(a) Single cell proteins are rich sources
microbial protein or bio protein.
of essential amino acids such as
lysine and tryptophan which are
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
scarce in plant and animal
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
proteins.
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(b) Around 60%–82% of dry cell weight
of single cell protein is protein.
115. Match Column-I with Column-II.
[Pg-176,M]
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. Column-I Column-II
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. (A) Cucumber and (1) Bacterial
orange peel
(B) Methanomonas (2) Algae
[Pg-176,M] (C) Spirulina (3) Fungus
(a) A shift from grain to meat diet creates (D) Aspergillus (4) Production of
more demand for grains. single cell
proteins
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Select the correct option. 120. Assertion: Algae are autotrophs and
A B C D produce organic matter by the process of
(a) 1 4 2 3 photosynthesis.
(b) 4 1 2 3 Reason: Spirulina and Scenedesmus are
(c) 4 2 1 3 the most commonly used bacterial
(d) 3 1 4 2 sources of single cell proteins.
[Pg-176,H]
116. Which of the following represents the (A) Both assertion and reason are true
production of single cell proteins? but reason is the correct explanation
(A) Production of Saccharomyces (B) Both assertion and reason are true
cerevisiae from molasses in World but reason is not the correct
War I. explanation of assertion.
(B) Production of Torula yeast on sulfite (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
liquor waste from paper production (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
plants during World War II.
PARA-9.4 TISSUE CULTURE
(C) Growing cell biomass of
Saccharomyces cerevisiae on fruit
peels. 121. Growth of tissues or cells in an artificial
(D) All the given choices are correct. medium under sterile conditions is
117. 250 g of Methylophilus methylotrophus known as [Pg-177,E]
can obtain as much as _____ of proteins (A) Callus
as compared to 250 kg cow that produces (B) Tissue culture
(C) Somatic hybridization
only 200 g of proteins. [Pg-176,H]
(D) Somatic hybrid
(A) 250 tonnes (B) 25 tonnes
122. The excised plant tissue or organ is
(C) 2.5 tonnes (D) 12 tonnes
118. Select the incorrect match from the given grown in a test tube under aseptic
examples of single cell protein microbes. conditions to generate whole plants is
known as [Pg-177,E]
[Pg-176,E]
(A) Bacteria: Methanomonas, (A) meristem (B) explant
Pseudomonas, Bacillus (C) hybrids (D) stem cells
(B) Yeast: Candida utilis, S. cereviseae, 123. Which of the following plant parts serve
Pichia pastoris as source of explant for tissue culture?
(C) Fungi: Fusarium, Aspergillus, [Pg-177,E]
Penicillium (A) Petal, leaves and flower buds
(D) Algae: Spirullina, Chiarella, (B) Ovaries and anther
Hydrogenomonas (C) Seeds and nodal segment
119. Assertion: Microbes have higher growth (D) All of these
rates and produce more biomass in less 124. Consider the following statement:
time. [Pg-177,M]
Reason: Some microbial species are rich (a) A totipotent cell contains a complete
sources of essential amino acids. set of genetic information to direct the
[Pg-176,H] development of an entire organism.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (b) A pluripotent cell is a stem cell that
but reason is the correct explanation can produce many but not all the cell
of assertion. types in an organism. Select the
(B) Both assertion and reason are true correct option.
but reason is not the correct (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
explanation of assertion. (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
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125. Concept of totipotency was given by (b) It serves as a source of organic

[Pg-177,E] compounds but does not provide
(A) Morgan physical support. Select the correct
(B) Haberlandt option.
(C) MS Swaminathan (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(D) Norman Borlaug (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
126. Given below are the various steps of (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
plant tissue culture. Arrange them in (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
correct order and select the correct 131. Which of the following growth regulators
option. [Pg-177,M] is incorrectly matched with its effect on
(I) Preparation of instrument and the growing explant in a synthetic
nutrient culture medium medium? [Pg-177,H]
(II) Preparation of explant (A) Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA) and
(III) Sterilization of culture medium indole-3-butyric acid (IAA): Induce
rooting
(IV) Acclimatization of plantlets and
(B) 2, 4-diclorophenoxyacetic acid (2, 4-
transfer to pots
D): Induce rooting
(V) Inoculation of explant and
(C) Kinetin: Induces shoot formation
incubation for growth
(D) Higher auxin to cytokinin ratio:
(A) I, III, II, V, IV Promotes shoot formation
(B) II, I, III, V, IV 132. A callus is [Pg-177,M]
(C) I, II, III, V, IV
(a) undifferentiated mass of cells formed
(D) I, III, II, IV, V
on an explant.
127. Sterilization of tissue culture apparatus
(b) aggregation of totipotent cells that can
is done by [Pg-177,E] be manipulated to develop into any
(A) autoclave only plant part.
(B) autoclave and washing with chromic Select the correct option.
acid and detergent (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(C) autoclave and washing with detergent (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(D) surface treatment with chromic acid (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
128. During the 1950s, _____ and _____ (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
performed various experiments that led 133. Based on their ability to give rise to new
to the development of synthetic growth cell types, how would you classify zygote
medium to stimulate growth and division and spermatogonia in humans?
in explants. [Pg-177,E] [Pg-177,E]
(A) Miller and Morgan (A) Totipotent and pluripotent
(B) Miller and Skoog respectively
(C) Morgan and Mendel (B) Totipotent and unipotent respectively
(D) Hugo de Vries and Morgan (C) Unipotent and pluripotent
129. The basic requirements for tissue culture respectively
techniques are [Pg-177,E] (D) Pluripotent and pluripotent
(A) Aseptic conditions respectively
(B) Synthetic growth medium 134. A synthetic growth medium should
(C) Explant provide all the nutrients required for the
(D) All of these development of a new plant. Select the
130. Consider the following statements about nutrient category that is correctly
tissue culture. [Pg-177,M] matched with its representative.
(a) A tissue culture medium provides [Pg-177,E]
minerals and growth regulators to the (A) Carbon source: vitamins
growing cells. (B) Inorganic nutrients: Sucrose
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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(C) Growth regulators: Minerals (C) it produces a large number of plants

(D) Salts: Sulfates from a small explant.
135. Match Column-I with Column-II. (D) meristems are virus-free plant
[Pg-177,M] tissues.
Column-I Column-II 139. Protoplast is [NEET-2015] [Pg-177,M]
(a) Micropropagation (1) Apical and (A) a plant cell without a cell wall
axillary (B) a plant cell without a cell membrane
(b) Somaclones (2) Protoplast (C) a plant cell undergoing division
fusion (D) a plant cell without a nucleus
(c) Somatic hybrids (3) In vitro clonal 140. Which of the following options represents
propagation of the correct sequence of steps in somatic
plants
hybridization? [Pg-177,M]
(d) Meristem (4) Genetically
(A) Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of
identical plants
produced by protoplasts from different plant
tissue culture varieties → Production of somatic
hybrids → Digestion of cell wall.
Select the correct option. (B) Isolation of plant cells → Digestion of
a b c d cell wall → Fusion of protoplasts from
(A) 4 1 2 3 different plant varieties → Production
(B) 2 3 4 2 of somatic hybrids.
(C) 3 4 2 1 (C) Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of
(D) 3 1 4 2 protoplasts from different plant
varieties → Digestion of cell wall →
136. Rapid clonal propagation of explant to Production of somatic hybrids.
obtain genetically identical plants is (D) Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of
known as [Pg-177,E] protoplasts from different plant
(A) somatic hybridization varieties → Production of somatic
(B) micropropagation hybrids.
(C) protoplasts 141. A technique of micropropagation is
(D) meristem culture [NEET-2015] [Pg-177,E]
137. Micropropagation is advantageous over (A) somatic embryogenesis
sexual reproduction in orchids as (B) protoplast fusion
(a) It is a rapid process and reduces the (C) embryo rescue
dependency on seeds for (D) somatic hybridization
reproduction. 142. Which of the following enhances or
(b) It maintains the desirable genetic induces the fusion of protoplasts?
traits present in the parent plant. [NEET-2015] [Pg-177,M]
[Pg-177,M]
(A) IAA and kinetin
(B) IAA and gibberellins
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true. (C) Sodium chloride and potassium
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. chloride
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. (D) Polyethylene glycol and sodium
nitrate
138. Production of virus-free plants from a
143. Select the mismatch from the given
virus-infected plant is done by meristem options. [Pg-177,E]
culture because [Pg-177,M] (A) Tissue culture: Jaya and Ratna
(A) meristem culture is a technique of (B) Somatic hybridization: Pomato
rapid clonal propagation. (C) Micropropagation: Tomato, banana,
(B) some of the progeny from the apple
meristem culture may be virus-free. (D) Meristem culture: Banana,
sugarcane, potato
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144. Assertion: Totipotency is the ability of (B) Both assertion and reason are true
explants to give rise while plant. but reason is not the correct
Reason: The cells of explants contain a explanation of assertion.
complete set of genetic information. (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
[Pg-177,H] (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true 146. Assertion: Pomato is an intergeneric
but reason is the correct explanation somatic hybrid.
of assertion. Reason: Cybrids are the somatic hybrids
(B) Both assertion and reason are true with the nuclear genome from both the
but reason is not the correct parent plants. [Pg-177,H]
explanation of assertion. (A) Both assertion and reason are true
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. but reason is the correct explanation
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. of assertion.
145. Assertion: Meristems are the localized (B) Both assertion and reason are true
regions of active cell division in a plant but reason is not the correct
body. explanation of assertion.
Reason: Somaclones are genetically (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
identical plants. [Pg-177,H] (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
of assertion.
Answer Key
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D A A D A B D C D D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D B A D A B B C B B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B A C D B B B A D B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A D C B B A D D A C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D A B D D A B C D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C A A A D B C A B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
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Ans A A D A A B C C B C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D A B D D A D C C D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A A B B A B A B D C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D D A D B A C B D A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D B A D A B D D B A
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A C A D B D B D B C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B B D A B A B B D B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D A B D C B A D A B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans D D A A B D
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17 BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS (PRINCIPLE)
1. EFB stands for [Pg-193,E] 8. When a piece of DNA is transferred to an

(A) English Federation of Biology alien organism as it is [Pg-194,M]
(B) European federation of Biology (A) it will multiply itself
(C) English Federation of Biotechnology (B) it will not be able to multiply itself
(D) European federation of (C) it will be present in progeny cells of
Biotechnology Biosphere. organism.
(D) Both (A) & (C)
PARAGRAPH - 11.1 PRINCIPLES OF 9. Chromosome replication is initiated at
BIOTECHNOLOGY [Pg-194,M]
(A) gateway of replication a specific RNA
2. Two core techniques that enabled birth sequence
of modern biotechnology are [Pg-193,E] (B) origin of replication a specific RNA
(A) Physical & biological engineering sequence
(B) Bioprocess & genetic engineering (C) path of replication a specific RNA
(C) Molecular & cellular genetics sequence
(D) None of these (D) None of these
3. Biotechnology uses techniques to alter 10. For alien DNA to replicate it needs to be
chemistry of [Pg- 193,E] a part of [Pg-194,H]
(A) Protein & Lipid (A) chromosome without origin of
(B) Protein & RNA replication site
(C) Lipid & DNA (B) mitochondrial DNA with origin of
(D) RNA & DNA replication site
4. In chemical engineering processes, it is (C) chromosome with origin of
important to maintain [Pg-194,E] replication site
(A) maintain microbe-free environment (D) cytoplasmic DNA with origin of
(B) microbe-full environment replication site
(C) sterile environment 11. Plasmid is- [Pg-194,E]
(D) more than one option (A) autonomously replicating, extra
5. Unique combinations of genetic setup is chromosomal
naturally provided by [Pg-194,E] (B) non- autonomously replicating extra
(A) Sexual reproduction chromosomal
(B) Asexual reproduction (C) autonomously replicating
(C) Biotechnology chromosomal
(D) More than one option (D) non-autonomously replicating extra-
6. All genetic changes occurring naturally chromosomal
are [Pg-194,M] 12. Plasmid is [Pg-194,E]
(A) harmful to organism & its population (A) Linear RNA
(B) beneficial for organism & its (B) Circular RNA
population (C) Linear DNA
(C) not harmful for organism & its (D) Circular DNA
population 13. First recombinant DNA involved native
(D) Both A & C plasmid of [Pg-194,E]
7. Genetic information is preserved by (A) Escherichia coli
[Pg-194,E] (B) Salmonella typhimurium
(A) sexual reproduction (C) Streptococcus pneumonia
(B) asexual reproduction (D) Clostridium butylicom
(C) Both of these 14. First recombinant DNA was made by
(D) none of these [Pg194,E]
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(A) Herbert Cohen & Stanley Boyer, 1972

20. In 1963, two restriction endonucleases
(B) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer, 1992
(C) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer, 1972 were isolated in E. Coli that restricted
(D) Herbert Cohen & Stanley Boyer, 1992 growth of bacteriophage by [Pg-195,M]
15. The recombinant DNA was made (A) cutting DNA
[Pg-194,195,H] (B) adding methyl group to DNA
(A) before discovery of DNA cutting (C) removing methyl group to DNA
restriction enzymes (D) more than one option
(B) after discovery of DNA cutting 21. The first restriction endonuclease was
restriction enzymes [Pg-195,E]
(C) after discovery of DNA cutting (A) Hind-III (B) Hind-II
Ligases (C) Hind-I (D) Hind-IV
(D) before discovery of DNA cutting 22. EcoRI comes from [Pg-195,E]
Ligases (A) genus Eichhonia
16. The plasmid DNA linked with cut piece of (B) species coli
DNA acts as [Pg-195,M] (C) genus Echinus
(A) host (D) species crispus
(B) vector 23. Recognition sequence is [Pg-195,H]
(C) medium to transfer the DNA (A) Specific sugar sequence in DNA
piece which is recognized by restriction
(D) more than one option endonuclease
17. Linking of antibiotic resistance gene with (B) Specific protein sequence which is
plasmid is done using enzyme recognized by restriction
endonuclease
[Pg-195,M]
(C) Specific lipase sequence which is
(A) Ligase (B) Lyase
recognized by restriction
(C) Hydrolase (D) Nuclease
endonuclease
18. The plasmid joined with required DNA of
(D) Specific base sequence in DNA which
interest is transferred into........ by
is recognized by restriction
Boyer. [Pg-195,E]
enconulcease
(A) Escherichia coli 24. The convention for naming restriction
(B) Salmonella typhimurium
endonucleases is [Pg-195,H]
(C) Streptococcus pneumonia
(A) First two letters come from genus &
(D) Clostridium butylicom
third from species of prokaryotic cell
from which they were isolated.
PARAGRAPH-11.2 TOOLS OF
(B) First two letters come from species &
RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY third from genus of prokaryotic cell
from which they were isolated.
19. The key tools for recombinant DNA (C) First letter come from genus & second
technology are [Pg-195,E] two from species of
(A) Restrication enzyme, polymerase, prokaryotic cell from which they were
hydrolase, vectors isolated.
(B) Recognition enzyme, polymerase, (D) First letter come from species &
ligase, vector second two from genus of prokaryotic
(C) Restriction endonuclease, cell from which they were isolated
polymerase, ligase, vector 25. Roman number indicate [Pg-196,E]
(D) Restriction enzyme, polymerase, (A) order in which enzyme were isolated
dehydrogenase vector (B) strain of bacteria
(C) lab number in which enzyme was
PARAGRAPH-11.2.1 isolated
RESTRICTION ENZYME (D) none of these
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26. Restriction enzymes belong to [Pg-196,E] (C) between different two bases on
(A) Exonucleases opposite strands, in centre of DNA
(B) Endonucleases sequence recognized
(C) Both (D) between different two bases on
(D) None opposite strands, living away from
27. Exonuclease cuts DNA from [Pg-196,E] centre of DNA sequence recognized.
(A) specific position within 32. Same restriction enzyme produce
DNA [Pg-197,M]
(B) ends of DNA (A) same kind sticky ends joined using
(C) Both (A) & (B) endonucleases
(D) None of these (B) different kinds of sticky ends joined
28. Restriction enzyme recognize [Pg-196,M] using ligase
(A) Paleondromic sequence of nucleoside (C) same kind of sticky ends joined using
in DNA ligase
(B) Palindromic sequence of nucleoside (D) different kind of sticky ends joined
in DNA using endonucleases
(C) Paleondromic sequence of nucleotide 33. [Pg-197,M]
in DNA II
(D) Palindromic sequence of nucleotide
in DNA
29. ECoRI cuts DNA at [Pg-196,H]
A)
B)
C)
D) All of these
30. Which of the following is a palindrome?
Identify correct labelling
[Pg-197,H]
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 5' – GAATAC – 3' (A) vector Recombina Foreign DNA
3' – CTTATG – 5' plasmid nt DNA
(B) 5' – GATATAC – 3' (B) Foreign vector Recombinant
3' – CTATATG – 5' DNA plasmid DNA
(C) 5' – GAATTC – 3' (C) Recombina vector Foreign DNA
nt DNA plasmid
3' – CTTAAG – 5' (D) vector Foreign Recombinant
(D) All of these plasmid DNA DNA
31. Restriction enzyme cuts DNA [Pg-197,H]
(A) between same two bases on opposite 34. The process of ‘Transformation’ is taking
strands, in centre of DNA sequence place when [Pg-197,M]
recognized (A) bacteria replicates and makes copies
(B) between same two bases on opposite of rDNA with it
strands, a little away from centre of (B) bacteria picks up rDNA
DNA sequence recognized
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(C) foreign gene is added to cloning host 42. The extraction of separated bands of
prokaryote cell DNA from agarose gel are [Pg-198,H]
(D) more than one option (A) Dilution (B) Elition
(C) Elution (D) Delution
SEPARATION & ISOLATION OF DNA 43. [Pg-197,E]
FRAGMENTS
35. Technique used for separation of DNA

fragments are [Pg-198,M]
(A) Gel electrophoresis
(B) DNA fingerprinting
(C) PCR
(D) DNA cloning Identify labels correctly
36. DNA fragments are [Pg-198,E] (i) (ii) (iii)
(A) negatively charged (A) Largest Smallest Wells
(B) positively charged DNA band DNA band
(C) neutral (B) Wells Largest DNA Smallest DNA
(D) none of these bands bands
37. In gel electrophoresis, DNA are forced to (C) Smallest Largest DNA Wells
move towards [Pg-198,M] DNA bands bands
(D) Smallest Wells Largest DNA
(A) anode under magnetic
DNA bands bands
field
(B) cathode under magnetic field
(C) anode under electric PARAGRAPH-11.2.2 CLONING VECTORS
field
(D) cathode under electric field 44. Plasmids in bacterial cells replicate
38. Matrix used in electrophoresis is [Pg-197,M]
[Pg-198,E] (A) depending on chromosomal
(A) ethidium bromide DNA
(B) agarose gel (B) independent of chromosomal DNA
(C) natural polymer extracted from sea (C) depending on extra-nuclear
weeds DNA
(D) more than one option (D) more than one option
39. Ethidium bromide is used to stain 45. Bacteriophages [Pg-197,E]
because [Pg-198,H] (A) replicate independent of other
(A) DNA fragments are visible without organisms
staining (B) replicate inside bacterial cell,
(B) DNA fragments are not visible under controlled by chromosomal DNA of
staining bacteria.
(C) DNA fragments are not visible (C) replicate inside bacterial cell
without staining autonomously
(D) DNA fragments are visible under (D) more than one option
staining 46. Bacteriophages serve as ____ in
40. Stained DNA is exposed to [Pg-198,H] biotechnology. [Pg-197,E]
(A) visible light (B) UV light (A) host
(C) IR light (D) Radio wave (B) vector
41. Colour of DNA visible under UV light (C) molecular marker
after Ethidium bromide staining is (D) enzyme
[Pg-198,H] Figure for question. (47 to 53)
(A) blue (B) black
(C) orange (D) green
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(A) cells which have picked vector with

foreign DNA ligated to it.
(B) cells which have picked up vector
without foreign DNA ligated to it
(C) cells which have not picked up vector
(D) Both (A) & (B)
56. Recombinants are [Pg-199,M]
(A) cells which have picked vector with
foreign DNA ligated to it.
(B) cells which have picked up vector
47. Identify Bam HI in given plasmid figure without foreign DNA ligated to it
[Pg-199,E] (C) cells which have not picked up vector
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (D) Both (A) & (B)
(C) (iii) (D) (iv) 57. Which is true about recombinant &
48. Identify antibiotic resistance gene in transformant? [Pg-199,H]
figure [Pg-199,E] (A) All transformants are recombinants
(A) Sal I (B) EcoRI (B) All recombinants are transformants
(C) 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑅 (D) pBR322 (C) no relation between these two
49. Identify ECoRI in the plasmid [Pg-199,E] (D) Both are same thing
58. Normal E.coli cell- [Pg-199,M]
(A) (iv) (B) (v)
(C) (iii) (D) (ii) (A) Carries resistance against antibiotics
50. ‘A’ & ‘B’ in figure are [Pg-199E] ampicillin, tetracycline and
kanamycin
(A) ampR & tetR (B) ori & ampR
(B) Does not carry resistance against
(C) tetR & ampR (D) rop & tetR
antibiotics ampicillin, tetracycline
51. ‘rop’ codes for i & is shown in figure by ii
and kanamycin
[Pg-199,M]
(C) Carries resistance against ampicillin
(A) proteins involved in replication ; D
but not tetracycline and kanamycin
(B) proteins involved in transcription, C
(D) Carries resistance against
(C) proteins involved in transcription, D
tetracycline but not ampicillin and
(D) proteins involved in replication, C
kanamycin
52. ‘Ori’ means ____ & is shown in figure by
59. In order to link alien DNA, vector needs
[Pg-199,E]
to have ____ recognition sites for
(A) origin of translocation; C
commonly used restriction enzymes.
(B) origin of replication ; D
[Pg-199,E]
(C) origin of translation ; D
(A) very few
(D) origin of replication; C
(B) preferably single
53. Identify pvu II in given figure of plasmid
(C) many
[Pg-199,E]
(D) more than one option
(A) i (B) ii
60. Assertion- Vector should have many
(C) vi (D) iv
recognition sites for commonly used
54. Which of the following is correct?
restriction enzymes.
[Pg-199,M]
Reason- Lot of recognition sites generate
(A) Any piece of DNA linked to ori gene
several fragments, which make gene
will be replicated
cloning easy. [Pg-200,H]
(B) Number of replication copies is under
(A) Assertion and Reason are both
control of recognition site
correct and Reason is correct
(C) Vector should not be chosen based
explanation for Assertion
on number of copies supported by it
(B) Assertion and Reason are both
(D) More than one option
correct but Reason is not correct
55. Transformants include [Pg-199,M]
explanation for Assertion
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(C) Assertion and Reason both are 66. When rDNA is inserted in coding
incorrect sequence of 𝛽-galactosidase, [Pg-200,H]
(D) Assertion is correct but Reason is (A) The enzyme gets synthesized
incorrect (B) Blue coloured colonies are produced
61. If a foreign gene is ligated at Bam HI site (C) Colourless colonies are produced
of vector PBR322, then the resistance for (D) Orange colonies are produced
____. [Pg-199,M] 67. Ti-plasmid stands for ____ and are
(A) tetracycline is lost present in ____. [Pg-200,E]
(B) ampicillin is lost (A) Tumor inhibiting, Agrobacterium
(C) tetracycline is not lost speciense
(D) more than one option (B) Tumor inducing, Agrobacterium
62. The recombinants mentioned previous speciense
question non-recombinants by- (C) Tumor inhibiting, Agrobacterium
[Pg-199,M] tumifaciens
(A) Plating the transformants on (D) Tumor inducing, Agrobacterium
tetracycline tumifaciens
(B) Planting the transformants on 68. The Ti-plasmid being used as cloning
ampicillin vector- [Pg-200,M]
(C) Both of these are necessary (A) causes crown gall disease
(D) None of these (B) is not pathogenic
63. Recombinants mentioned in 'If a foreign (C) is pathogenic
gene is ligated at Bam HI site of vector (D) More than one option
PBR322' will- [Pg-199,H] PARAGRAPH-11.2.3 COMPETENT HOST
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline (For transformation with recombinant
both
DNA)
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not
tetracycline
69. DNA is- [Pg-200,E]
(C) Grow in tetracycline but not
(A) hydrophilic and can pass through cell
ampicillin
membrane
(D) Grow neither in tetracycline nor in
(B) hydrophobic and can pass through
ampicillin
cell membrane
64. Non-recombinants transformants will
(C) hydrophilic and cannot pass through
[Pg-199,M]
cell membrane
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline (D) hydrophobic and cannot pass
both through cell membrane
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not 70. Bacterial host cells are made competent
tetracycline
to take up rDNA by- [Pg-200,H]
(A) Treating with 𝑁𝑎 +
ampicillin
(B) Treating with 𝐴𝑙 3+
(C) Treating with 𝐶𝑎2+
ampicillin
(D) More than one options
65. Non-transformants E.coli will-
71. Choose the correct sequence to be
[Pg-199,M]
followed to enable bacteria to take up
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline
rDNA. [Pg-201, 202,M]
both
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not (i) Treating with divalent cation.
(ii) Heat shock (42ºC).
tetracycline
(iii) Incubating on ice.
(A) i-ii-iii-ii (B) i-iii-ii-iii
ampicillin
(C) ii-iii-i-ii (D) iii-ii-i-iii
ampicillin
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72. Other methods for introducing foreign (iv) Ribonuclease (v) protease
DNA into host cells are- [Pg-201,E] (vi) deoxyribonuclease
(A) Micro-injection for animal cells (A) 3 (B) 2
(B) Gene gun for plant cells (C) 5 (D) 6
(C) Disarmed pathogens 78. Match the following: [Pg-201,E]
(D) All of these A B
73. In micro-injection technique, rDNA is (i) cellulase I. plant
injected into- [Pg-201,E] (ii) chitinase II. Bacteria
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucleus (iii) lysozyme III. Fungi
(C) Cell membrane (D) Lysosomes (i) (ii) (iii)
74. In biolistics, cells are bombarded with (A) I III II
high velocity- [Pg-201,E] (B) II III I
(A) Micro-particles of iron (C) III I II
(B) Macro-particles of tungsten (D) I II III
(C) Micro-particles of gold 79. Purified DNA is precipitated out by
(D) More than one option addition of: [Pg-201,H]
(A) warm acetic acid
PARAGRAPH-11.3 PROCESSES OF (B) chilled acetic acid
RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY (C) warm ethanol
(D) chilled ethanol
75. Identity correct sequence of process of 80. [Pg-201,E]
rDNA technology : [Pg-201,M]
(i) transferring rDNA into host
(ii) isolation of DNA fragment desired
(iii) isolation of DNA
(iv) culturing host cells in medium at
large scale
(v) fragmentation of DNA by
restriction enzyme
(vi) ligation of DNA fragment into a The figure shows DNA separated out,
vector removed by :
(vii) extraction of desired product (A) spooning (B) spooling
(A) (iii) – (ii) – (v) – (vi) – (i) – (iv) – (vii) (C) spilling (D) speeling
(B) (iii) – (v) – (i) – (vi) – (ii) – (iv) – (vii) 81. The precipitated DNA is seen as :
(C) (iii) – (v) – (ii) – (vi) – (i) – (iv) – (vii) [Pg- 201,M]
(D) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (vii)
(A) collection of fine threads in
PARAGRAPH-11.3.1 ISOLATION OF THE suspension
GENETIC MATERIAL (DNA) (B) collection of fine threads in solution
(C) coagulated mass in suspension
76. Nucleic acid is genetic material of: (D) coagulated mass in solution
[Pg-201,E] PARAGRAPH-11.3.2 CUTTING OF DNA
(A) some organisms AT SPECIFIC LOCATION
(B) no organism
(C) all organisms without exception 82. To check the progression of restriction
(D) most organisms with some exception enzyme digestion, _______ is used.
77. How many of given enzymes involved in
[Pg-202,M]
extraction of genetic material from cell of
(A) PCR
organisms are: [Pg-201,M] (B) gel electrophoresis
(i) cellulase (ii) chitinase (C) DNA fingerprinting
(iii) lysozyme (D) Selectable marker gene
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83. Preparation of rDNA involves the (i) (ii) (iii)

enzymes: [Pg-202,E] A) Annealing Denaturation Extension
(A) specific restriction enzyme B) Denaturation Extension Annealing
(B) gene of interest C) Denaturation Annealing Extension
(C) vector DNA
(D) all of these D) Extension Annealing Denaturation
PARAGRAPH-11.3.3 AMPLIFICATION OF
GENE OF INTEREST USING PCR PARAGRAPH-11.3.4
INSERTION OF RECOMBINANT DNA
84. PCR stands for: [Pg-202,E] INTO THE HOST CELL / ORGANISM
(A) Polynuclease chain reaction
(B) Polylipase chain reaction 90. A-Ampicillin resistance gene is called
(C) Polyamide chain reaction selectable marker in case E.coli is made
(D) None of these to take up rDNA bearing ampicillin
85. PCR is an: [Pg-202,E] resistance gene.
A) in vitro process B-Such E.coli coil grow on amplicillin
B) in vivo process containing agar plates.
C) both Choose right option with regards to
D) none above statements. [Pg-203,H]
86. How many sets of primers are used in (A) Both are correct
PCR? [Pg-202,E] (B) Only A is correct
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) Only B is correct
(C) 3 (D) 4 (D) None is correct
87. Enzyme involved in PCR is: [Pg-203,E]
(A) DNA endonuclease PARAGRAPH-11.3.5
(B) RNA polymerase PARAGRAPH- 11.3.5 OBTAINING
(C) DNA polymerase
FOREIGN GENE PRODUCT
(D) DNase
88. The enzyme involved in PCR with
91. If a protein encoding gene is expressed in
thermostability is isolated from:
a heterologous host, it is called:
[Pg-203,E]
[Pg-203,M]
(A) Thermus aquaticus fungi
(A) secondary protein
(B) Escherechia coli bacteria
(B) recombinant protein
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciense bacteria
(C) transmitted protein
(D) None of these
(D) tertiary protein
89. [Pg-202,E]
92. In continuous culture system:
[Pg-203,M]
(A) used medium is drained at the end
(B) used medium is drained twice in the
whole process
(C) used medium is continuously drained
out
(D) none of these
93. Bioreactors are: [Pg-204,E]
(A) large vessels
(B) used for large quantity production
(C) used for biological conversion of raw
materials into products
(D) all of these
Identify correct labeling of sequence:
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(i) (ii)
PARAGRAPH-11.3.6 DOWNSTREAM
PROCESSING (A) Simple stirred-tank complex stirred-
bioreactor tank bioreactor
94. Downstream processing includes : (B) Complex stirred-tank simple stirred-
[Pg-205,E] bioreactor tank bioreactor
(A) separation (B) purification (C) Simple Sparged
(C) both the above (D) none of these
95. A- Suitable preservatives are added (D) Sparged Simple
B- These formulations need clinical
trials.
98. [Pg-204,E]
C- Quality control testing is uniform for
all the products.
How many of the above statements is
incorrect? [Pg-205,M]
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
96. Optimal conditions for growth include.
How many of the following- [Pg-205,H]
pH, Salt, Temperature, Vitamin, Oxygen
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 4
97. [Pg-204,E]
Identify the correct labels-

(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) Motor Culture Sterile air
broth
(B) Culture Motor Sterile air
broth
(C) Motor Sterile air Culture
broth
(D) Sterile air Culture Motor
broth
99. Samling ports are mainly required to-

[Pg-204,M]
(A) Keep adding samples into Bioreactors
(B) Withdraw small volume of culture
(C) Add Acid/Base for pH control
(D) All of these
100. Sterile air bubbles are sprayed in the
biovector in a type of bioreactor. That is
because- [Pg-204,M]
(A) air bubbles makes it easier to agitate
the system
(B) air bubbles increase surface area for
oxygen transfer
(C) air bubbles enable microbes to grow
(D) none of these
Identify types of stirred-tank bioreactor-
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ANSWER KEY
BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS (PRINCIPLE)
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D B D D A C B B D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A D B C B B A B C D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B B D C A B B D A C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B C D D A A C B C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C C B B C B C C B A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A D C A D A B B D C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A A B A D B D B A C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B D B C C C C A D B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A B D D A B C D C A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B C D C B A C A B B
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18 Biotechnology And Its Application
C) increasing the use of agrochemicals

BASIS OF CLASSIFICATION
D) Both A & C
1. Biotechnology mainly deals with 7. Use of genetically modified crops in crop
[pg-207,E] field may [pg-208,M]
A) Industrial scale production of A) reduce the harmful effects of
biopharmaceutical fertilizers
B) Biological use of genetically modified B) maximize yield
microbes, fungi, plants and animals C) be environment friendly
C) Both A and B D) All of the above
D) None of these 8. Plants bacteria, fungi and animals whose
2. Which of the following is not included in genes have been altered by manipulation
the application of biotechnology- are called [pg-208,M]
[pg-207,E] A) Pest resistant organism
A) Waste treatment B) Hybrid organisms
B) Conventional hybridisation C) Genetically modified organism
C) Energy production D) Insect resistant organism
D) Genetically modified crops 9. Golden rice is genetically modified crop
3. Application like bioremediation, plant with incorporate gene meant for
processed food, therapeutics and biosynthesis of [pg-208,M]
diagnostics are related to [pg-207,E] A) Vitamin E B) Vitamin K
A) Biochemistry C) Omega-3 D) Vitamin A
B) Microbiology 10. ____ produced by Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Biotechnology [pg-208,E]
D) Medical Science A) t- toxin B) Bt toxin
4. ____ is/are the critical research area(s) of C) An acid D) All of these
biotechnology. [pg-207,E] 11. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
A) Creating optimals conditions for produce ____ plants which reduces the
catalyst function amount of ____ used. [pg-208,M]
B) Providing best catalyst A) disease resistant, insecticide
C) Developing down streaming B) insect resistant, fertilizers
processing technique C) disease resistant, industrial enzyme
D) All of the above D) insect resistant, insecticide
PARAGRAPH- 12.1 BIOTECHNOLOGY 12. Which of the following crops are modified
APPLICATIONS IN AGRICULTURE using Bacillus thuringiensis? [pg-208,E]
A) Corn and cotton
5. Which of the following is not for B) Tomato and rice
increasing food production? [pg-208,E] C) Potato and soyabean
A) Agrochemical based agriculture D) All of the above
B) Organic agriculture 13. Which of the following is being grown in
C) Genetic engineered crop-based India by farmers as Bt crop? [pg-208,E]
agriculture A) Maize B) Brinzal
D) None of these C) Cotton D) Soyabean
6. Organic agriculture is a technique of 14. By inserting a piece of DNA from ____
raising crops for [pg-208,M] insect resistant transgenic cotton has
A) increased food production been produced. [pg-208,H]
B) reduction in required labour A) a wild relative of cotton
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B) bacterium A) Cry I Ac, Cry II Ab

C) an insect B) Cry I Ac, Cry II Ac, Cry I Ab
D) virus C) Cry II Ac, Cry I Ab
15. Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis D) Cry I Ab
produce proteins that will insect like 24. Bt corn has been made resistant to corn
[pg-208,H] borer by the introduction of gene
A) Lepidopterans B) Coleopterans [pg-209,H]
C) Dipterans D) All of these A) Cry I Ac B) Cry II Ab
16. Coleopterans examples are/is- C) Cry I Ab D) Cry II Ac
[pg-208,E] 25. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produces toxins
A) Flies B) Mosquitoes that control [pg-209,M]
C) Beetles D) All of the above A) Cotton bollworms and corn borer
17. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein resp.
crystals which contain a- [pg-208,H] B) Cotton bollworm and budworms of
A) Simple protein tobacco resp.
B) Non-toxic insecticidal protein C) Corn borer and cotton bollworms
C) Toxic insecticidal protein resp.
D) Simple lipids D) Nematodes and tobacco budworms
18. Why does Bt toxin protein crystal not kill resp.
the Bacillus? Because- [pg-208,M] 26. Which of the following nematodes infects
A) Bacteria encloses toxins in special the root of the tobacco plants which
sac reduces the production of tobacco?
B) Bacteria are resistant to toxin [Pg-209,H]
C) Toxin occurs as inactive protoxins in A) Melodiogyne incognitia
bacteria B) Ascaris
D) All of the above C) Wuckereria
19. Bt toxin kills insect by- [pg-209,M] D) Interobious
A) Inhibiting protein synthesis 27. A Novel strategy was adopted to present
B) Generating excessive heat Meloidiogyne incognita infection in
C) Creating pores leading to cell tobacco plants that was based on the
swelling and lysis in the mid gut process of [Pg-209,M]
epithelial cells A) DNA interference
D) None of these B) RNA interference
20. The choices of genes of Bacillus C) RNA initiation
thuringiensis, incorporated in to crop D) DNA initiation
depends upon [pg-209,M] 28. Resistance against a Nematode was
A) Crop B) Targeted pest introduce by implying RNA in ____
C) Both A and B D) Toxin plants. [pg-209,E]
21. The crops having cry genes need A) Tomato B) Bt corn
[pg-209,M] C) Bt cotton D) Tobacco
A) Small amount of fungicide 29. RNAi stand for [pg-209,E]
B) Large amount of pesticide A) RNA inteteron
C) Small amount of insecticide B) RNA interference
D) None of the above C) RNA inactivation
22. The Bt toxin protein [pg-209,E] D) RNA initiation
A) Obstruct a biosynthetic pathway 30. RNAi take place in all ____ organisms as
B) Causes death of the insect method of ____. [pg-209,M]
C) Stops egg laying of adult A) prokaryotes, insect resistant
D) Generating excessive heat B) eukaryotes, insect resistant
23. Cotton bollworm controlled by- C) eukaryotes, cellular defence
[pg-209,M]
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D) prokaryotes, cellular defence C) C-chain D) Both A and B

31. ____ is used for silencing of an unwanted 39. The main challenge for production of
gene [Pg-209,M] insulin using rDNA techniques was
A) RNA [Pg-211,M]
B) DNA polymerase A) Splitting A and B- peptide chains
C) Restriction enzyme B) Addition of C- peptide to proinsulin
D) All of these C) Getting insulin assembled to mature
32. Silencing of mRNA molecule in order to form
control the production of a harmful D) Removal of C- peptide from active
protein has been used in the protection insulin
of plants from [Pg-209,H] 40. Which of the following companies
A) Beetles B) Armyworm prepared human insulin in 1983?
C) Budworm D) Nematodes [Pg-211,E]
33. Transposons are also known as A) Monsanto B) Eli Lily
[Pg-209,E] C) Genetech D) GEAC
A) Silenced gene PARAGRAPH-12.2.2 GENE THERAPY
B) Plesotropic genes
C) Mobile genetic elements 41. Treatment of genetic disorder by
D) Both A and C
manipulating gene is called- [Pg-211,M]
34. Tobacco plant resistant to a nemotode
A) Gene therapy
have been developed by the introduction B) rDNA technology
of DNA and it is produced in the lost cells C) Bone marrow transplantation
as [Pg-209,M] D) Enzyme replacement therapy
A) A particular hormone 42. For the first time, therapy was tried on a
B) Toxic protein 4 year old girl in 1990 to treat ____.
C) Both sense and antisense RNA [Pg-211,E]
D) An antifeedant A) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA)
PARAGRAPH-12.2 BIOTECHNOLOGY B) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
APPLICATIONS IN MEDICINE C) Tyrosine oxidase
D) Glutamate tryhydrogenase
35. The first human hormone produced by 43. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990
recombinant technology is [Pg-210,E] to 4 year old girl with enzyme deficiency?
A) Oestrogen B) Progesterone [Pg-211,E]
C) Thyroxine D) Insulin A) Gene therapy
36. The demerits of using bovine insulin B) Chemotherapy
(from cow) and porcine insulin (from pig) C) Immunotherapy
in diabetic patients is- [Pg-211,M] D) Radiation therapy
A) It leads to hypercalcemic 44. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
B) It may cause allergic reaction can be treated by ____ and ____ but it is
C) It is expensive not fully curative. Here A and B can be
D) All of the above [Pg-211,M]
37. The two polypeptides of human insulin A) A- gene therapy, B- radiation
are linked together by [Pg-211,M] therapy
A) Phosphodiester bonds B) A- bone marrow transplantation, B-
B) Disulphide bridge enzyme replacement therapy
C) Hydrogen bonds C) A- organ transplantation, B-
D) None of the above hormone replacement
38. ____ is removed during the maturation of D) A- radiation therapy, B- enzyme
proinsulin to insulin. [Pg-211,H] replacement therapy
A) A-chain B) B-chain
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45. The advantage of beginning gene therapy 51. Technique used to detect mutation in
prior to birth is- [Pg-211,H] genes is known as- [Pg-212,E]
A) The body would not reject it as it A) Gel electrophoresis
has not yet recognised 'self'. B) PCR
B) This would give the body plenty of C) Gene therapy
time. D) Autoradiography
C) The cell being extremely young are 52. Which of the following technique is based
more receptive to gene therapy. on the principle of antigen – antibody
D) None of these interaction? [Pg-212,H]
PARAGRAPH-12.2.3 MOLECULAR A) PCR
DIAGNOSIS B) ELISA
C) Recombinant DNA technology
46. Why using conventional method for D) Gene therapy
diagnosis is not very relevant? PARAGRAPH-12.3 TRANSGENIC
[Pg-212,M] ANIMALS
A) Early detection is not possible
B) Not reliable 53. Animals whose DNA is manipulated to
C) Results are incorrect possess and express an extra (foreign)
D) All of these gene are known as [Pg-212,E]
47. Which of the following molecular A) Transgenic animals
diagnostic technique is used to detect the B) Hybrid animals
presence of a pathogen in its early stage C) Transferrin animals
of infection- [Pg-212,E] D) All of the above
A) Angiography 54. Transgenic animals are those which have
B) Radiography foreign? [Pg-212,M]
C) Enzyme replacement technique A) DNA in all of their cells
D) Polymerase chain reaction B) Proteins in all of their cells
48. Why PCR is used? [Pg-212,E] C) RNA in all their cells
A) to detect HIV in suspected AIDS D) RNA in some of their cells
patients 55. 95% of all the existing transgenic
B) to detect Mutation in the genes of animals are [Pg-212,E]
suspected cancer patients A) Pigs B) Cows
C) Diagnose many genetic disorders C) Mice D) All of these
D) All of the above 56. Transgenic animals can be used to
49. A single stranded Nucleic acid tagged [Pg-212,213,E]
with a radioactive molecule is called A) Study normal physiology
[Pg-212,E] B) Study the biological effects
A) Plasmid C) Study the vaccine safety
B) Probe D) All of the above
C) Vector 57. Transgenic animals made to serve as
D) Selectable market models for human diseases. The disease
50. In which of the following method, a probe are- [Pg-213,M]
is allowed hybridise to its complementary A) Alzheimer's disease
DNA in the clone of cells? [Pg-212,M] B) Cancer
A) Enzyme linked Immono sorbent C) Cystic fibrosis
Assay (ELISA) D) All of these
B) PCR 58. Which of the following transgenic human
C) Autoradiography protein products development are used
D) Gene therapy to treat emphysema? [Pg-213,H]
A) 𝛼-1 antitrypsin B) 𝛼-1 trypsin
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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C) 𝛼-1 albumin D) 𝛼-1 globulin invented a new process of making a

59. When was the first transgenic cow, Rosie product is called- [Pg-214,M]
produced? [Pg-213,E] A) bioethics
A) 1979 B) 1997 B) patent
C) 1996 D) 1999 C) bio piracy
60. ____ was introduced in the first trans D) genetic recombination
genetic cow- [Pg-213,M] 66. Bio patent means [Pg-214,E]
A) 𝛼-1 antirypsin A) Right to use an invention
B) Human 𝛽-Lactalbumin B) Right to use application are
C) 𝛽-1 antitrypsin processes
D) None of these C) Both A and B
61. The first transgenic cow, Rosie produced D) None of these
[Pg-213,H] 67. ____ have been present in India from long
A) Human calcium enriched milk (2.4 time yet foreign country got patent
g/l) through the US patent and Trademark
B) Human protein enriched milk (2.4 office. [Pg-214,M]
g/l) A) Brown rice B) Basmati rice
C) Human calcium enriched milk (2.6 C) Co-667 D) All of these
g/l) 68. Bioethics is- [Pg-214,E]
D) Human protein enriched milk (2.8 A) Process of discovery and
g/l) commercialisation of new products.
62. ____ are used in testing safety of polio B) Use of bio resources with proper
vaccine before they are used on human. authorisation.
[Pg-213,E] C) Standards used to regulate human
A) Transgenic pig activities in relation to the biological
B) Transgenic monkey world.
C) Transgenic rabbits D) All of these
D) Transgenic mice 69. Exploitation of bio resources of a nation
63. ____ animals are made that carry genes by multinational companies without
which makes them more sensitive to authorisation from the concerned
toxic substances than non-transgenic country is referred to- [Pg-214,E]
animals. [Pg-213,M] A) Bioethics
A) Transgenic B) Mutaled B) Bioweapon
C) Transverred D) Transformed C) Bio piracy
D) Bio-exploitation
PARAGRAPH-12.4 ETHICAL ISSUE
70. Bio piracy is related with the- [Pg-214,E]
64. Which committee takes decision A) Stealing of bio resources
regarding the validity of GM research and B) Traditional knowledge and
the safety of introducing GM-organisms utilization
for public services? [Pg-213,E] C) Biomolecules and regarding bio
A) Indian Council of Medical Research resources exploitation
(ICMR) D) Both A and C
B) Genetic Engineering Approval 71. ____ was taken by Indian parliament to
committee (GEAC) meet and fulfill the requirements of
C) Indian Institute of Science patent terms and other emergency
Education and Research (IISER) provisions in this regard? [pg-214,E]
D) Genetic Engineering Appraisal A) Indian patents bill
Committee (GEAC) B) Bioethics act
65. A ____ granted to a person who has either C) Bio piracy act
invented a new and useful product, made D) All of these
improvement existing product or
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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72. Basmati is unique for its aroma and A) A-37, B-India B) A-27, B-India
flavour, whose __A__ documented C) A-27, B-USA D) A-30, B-USA
verities cultivated in __B__. [pg-214,E]
Answer Key
BIOTECHNOLOGY & ITS APPLICATION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C B C D D A D C D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D D C B D C C C C C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D B A C A A B D B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A D C C D B B C C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A B A B C A D D B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B B A A C D D A B D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D A B B C B A C D
Q 71 72
Ans A B
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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ZOOLOGY

1. CHAPTER – 1 Animal kingdom ……………5

11. CHAPTER – 11 Reproduction in Organisms ………….132

A) organisms having incomplete

D) Mesoglea is an undifferentiated layer

17. Metamerism is present in [Pg-48,E] C) II, III and IV

C) coelomate B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,

41. Cnidocytes are [Pg-50,H]

(B) Adamsia (2) Sea pen B) Fasciola Tapewor Liverfluke Aurelia

A) dorsoventrally flattened, thus called D) Taenia is a triploblastic animal

ASCHELMINTHES 62. Which of the following animals are true

C) like Nereis, Pheretima and

Which of the following information’s

84. Choose the correct statement for the

C) Pneumatic bones B) Dolphins, seals, trygon

B) 2 3 4 1 5 A) The organism belongs to

D) Possess creeping or crawling mode of B) In aquatic mammalian males, testes

2 Structural Organisation in Animals

PARA – 7.1.1 EPITHELIAL TISSUES

a. Goblet cells (1) Multicellular glandular

A) loose connective tissue 26. Match the following columns:

C) 3 1 2 b Boat-shaped (2) 9th segment in males

C) D – Ileum – Food absorption 73. Select the incorrect statement regarding

c Phallomere (3) Bundles of sperms c Gonapophysis (3) Helps in the formation

C) Labrum Mandi Hypopha Maxilla Labium

D) Labium Hypop Labrum Maxilla Mandibl

Identify A to F in above diagram –

B Collater Collateral Phallic Phallic gland

The above figure shows open circulatory A B C

Go through the above figure. Identify A to

D Caecae Caecae Caecae Liver

E Lymph Lymph Lymph Villi

96. Go through the blood vascular system of

D Ventral Dorsal Ventral Dorsal

B) Seminal Testis Accessory Prostate

C) Testis Seminal Prostate Accessory

I. Septal nephridia D) Seminal Testis Prostate Accessory

III. Forest of integumentary nephridia

Identify the structures labeled A to E in

D. Vasa Thyroid Urinogenital Cloaca

102. The above figure is related with female

103. Identify A, B and C respectively – [Pg-

A B C D A) Trunk, Tympanum, Web

D) Any of the above D) All of the above

PARAGRAPH – 9.2 PRIMARY AND

37. Alkaloids; Flavonoids; Rubber; Essential

B) Galactose D) None C) Disaccharide; 2’ deoxyribose

[Pg- 150,M] B) Carboxyl & amino group

v) A of one strand bound with U on biomolecules and also made from

C) iv & ii D) iv & iii D) Non – equilibrium steady – state to be

B) Short lived; reactant, changed

iii) optimum temperature is C) It shut off enzyme kinetics

A. Addition ; double (iv) Haem catalyse the formation of

TG: @Chalnaayaaar Answer Key

4 Digestion and absorption

C) Proteins and lipids

[Pg-258,E] 24. Small intestine is distinguishable into 3

(C) Formation of digestive enzyme D) A- Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct, C

D) Dust of Santorini 99. What is the pH of intestinal juice:-

107. The undigested and unabsorbed [Pg-264,M]

A) Assimilation B) Absorption A) North & North – east Asia

5 Breathing and exchange of gases

(A) Respiratory or exchange part of (B) A- Epiglottis, B -Alveoli, C - Bronchioles, D