UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
INTRODUCTION TO BIOLOGY
(UHS UNIT-1)

Q.1 Which of the following diseases can be prevented through vaccination? (2011)
A) AIDS and cancer C) Typhoid and cancer
B) Malaria and AIDS D) Measles and mumps
Q.2 Newly produced cells/ individuals which are identical to each other are known as: (2011)
A) Genetically modified C) Transgenic bacteria
B) Transgenic animals D) Clones
Q.3 Which of the following is a blood born disease? (2011)
A) Hepatitis C) Influenza

S
B) Cholera D) Candidiasis

OR
Q.4 The control of pests has traditionally meant regulation by natural enemies,

CT
predators, parasites and pathogens. This type of control is known as: (2011)
A) Cultural control C) Pesticide control

DO
B) Biological control D) Insecticide control
Q.5 A method in which pests are destroyed by using some living organisms or natural
enemies is called: (2012)
A) Pasteurization
B) Integrated disease management
RE
C) Biological control
D) Genetic engineering
TU
Q.6 Chemicals produced by microorganisms which are capable of destroying the growth
of microbes are called: (2012)
FU

A) Antigen C) Antiseptics
B) Bactericidal D) Antibiotics
R

Q.7 The plants having foreign DNA incorporated into their cells are called: (2013)
FO

A) Clonal plants C) Transgenic plant

B) Biotech plants D) Tissue cultured plants
Q.8 Pasteurization technique is widely used for preservation of: (2013)
Y

A) Water C) Meat
ET

B) Milk products D) Vaccines

Q.9 The production of genetically identical copies of organisms by asexual reproduction
CI

is called: (2013)
A) Genetic engineering C) Integrated disease management
SO

B) Cloning D) Hydroponic culture technique

Q.10 The use of living organisms in industry for the production of useful products is
known as: (2014)
T
CA

A) Parasitology C) Biotechnology
B) Biochemistry D) Molecular Biology
MD

Q.11 Plants having foreign DNA incorporated into their cells are called: (2014)
A) Clone plants C) Parthenocarpic plants
B) Transgenic plants D) Mutant plants
Q.12 Treatment by using attenuated cultures of bacteria is called: (2014)
A) Chemotherapy C) Antisepsis
B) Sterilization D) Vaccination
Q.13 The major cause of hepatitis B is: (2014)
A) Blood transfusion C) Absence of fibrinogen
B) Blood clotting D) Contaminated soil
Q.14 Which one of the following edible products is widely pasteurized? (2015)
A) Soft drinks C) Milk
B) Mango squash D) Orange juice
Q.15 The modified plasmid or phage DNA is called: (2016)
A) Clone DNA C) cDNA
B) Recombinant DNA D) rDNA

PAGE 1 OF 43
Q.16 ___ is the branch of biology used for the identification and interpretation of fossils. (2016)
A) Palaeontology C) Zoogeography
B) Evolution D) Biodiversity

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
CELL BIOLOGY
(UHS UNIT-2)
Q.17 Which of the following organelles is concerned with cell secretion? (2011)
A) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes
B) Golgi apparatus D) Mitochondria
Q.18 Which of the following contains peptidoglycan cell wall? (2011)
A) Penicillium C) Adiantum
B) Bacterium D) Polytrichum

S
Q.19 The inner membrane of mitochondria folded to form finger like structures called: (2011)

OR
A) Cristae C) Matrix
B) Vesicles D) Cisternae

CT
Q.20 The interior of the chloroplasts is divided into heterogeneous structures embedded

DO
in the matrix known as: (2011)
A) Grana C) Thylakoids
B) Stroma D) Cisternae
Q.21 Plastids are only found in the:
A) Animals and plants C) Plants
RE (2012)
TU
B) Animals D) Viruses
Q.22 Plasma membrane is chemically composed of: (2012)
FU

A) Phospholipids only C) Lipids and carbohydrates

B) Lipids and proteins D) Glycoproteins
Q.23 Endoplasmic reticulum contains a system of flattened membrane-bounded sacs
R
FO

which are named as: (2012)

A) Cristae C) Cisternae
B) Marks D) Tubules
Y

Q.24 The ribosomal RNA is synthesized and stored in: (2012)

ET

A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi complex

B) Nucleolus D) Chromosomes
CI

Q.25 Lipids synthesis/metabolism takes place in which of the following organelle? (2012)
A) Mitochondria C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
SO

B) Vacuoles D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Q.26 Ribosomes exist in two forms, either attached with the RER or freely dispersed in the: (2012)
A) Tonoplast C) Cytoplasm
T

B) Golgi bodies D) SER

CA

Q.27 The ---------- model of plasma membrane suggests that proteins are embedded in
MD

lipid bilayer: (2013)

A) Unit membrane C) Ultracentrifuge
B) Permeable D) Fluid mosaic

Q.28 The function of nucleolus is to make: (2013)

A) rDNA C) Ribosomes
B) RNA D) Chromosomes
Q.29 Lipid metabolism is the function of: (2013)
A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) Mitochondria D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q.30 The enzymes of lysosomes are synthesized on: (2013)
A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Chloroplast
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus
Q.31 Centrioles are made up of _______microtubules: (2013)
A) 9 C) 12
B) 3 D) 27
PAGE 2 OF 43
Q.32 Which of the following structures is absent in higher plants and found in animal
cells? (2013)
A) Cytoskeleton C) Centriole
B) Mitochondria D) Cytoplasm
Q.33 The soluble part of the cytoplasm or fluid that remains when all organelles are
removed is known as: (2013)
A) Cytosol C) Gelatin material
B) Solution D) Cytoplasm
Q.34 The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is at places continuous with the: (2013)
A) Golgi apparatus C) Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Lysozymes D) Peroxisomes
Q.35 The process by which unwanted structures within the cell are engulfed and digested
with lysosome is known as: (2013)
A) Endocytosis C) Exocytosis
B) Autophagy D) Hydrolysis

S
Q.36 During animal cell division, the spindle fibers are formed from: (2014)

OR
A) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes
B) Centrioles D) Lysosomes

CT
Q.37 Which component of the cell is concerned with cell secretions? (2014)
A) Plasma membrane C) Cytoskeleton

DO
B) Golgi complex D) Mitochondria
Q.38 In mitochondria, small knob like structures called F1 particles are found in: (2014)
A) Outer membrane C) Inner membrane
B) Outer compartment RE
D) Inner compartment
Q.39 The intake of liquid material across the cell membrane: (2014)
TU
A) Phagocytosis C) Pinocytosis
FU

B) Endocytosis D) Exocytosis
Q.40 Which one of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria? (2014)
A) Cristae C) Outer membrane
R

B) Matrix D) Ribosomes
FO

Q.41 Organelle involved in the synthesis of ATP is: (2014)

A) Ribosome C) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria D) Centriole
Y

Q.42 Peptidoglycan or murein is a special or distinctive of cell wall for: (2014)

ET

A) Algae C) Bacteria
B) Fungi D) Plants
CI

Q.43 Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane states that protein molecules float in a
SO

fluid of ______ bilayer: (2015)

A) Galactose C) Glucose
B) Phospholipids D) Carbohydrate
T

Q.44 How many triplets of microtubules are present in centrioles? (2015)

CA

A) Ten C) Nine
B) Eight D) Seven
MD

Q.45 Which one of the following cell structure is involved in the synthesis of lipids? (2015)
A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Centriole
B) Golgi complex D) Mitochondrion
Q.46 Ribosomes are tiny organelles, which are involved in the synthesis of: (2015)
A) Protein C) Nucleus
B) RNA D) Nucleosome
Q.47 Which organelle is bounded by two membranes? (2015)
A) Ribosome C) Lysosome
B) Mitochondrion D) Nucleolus
Q.48 At the beginning of nuclear division, the number of microtubule triplets in two pairs
of centrioles that migrate to opposite poles are: (2015)
A) 9 C) 108
B) 18 D) 36
Q.49 The rapid exchange of materials through carrier proteins across the plasma
membrane is called: (2016)
A) Passive diffusion C) Endocytosis
B) Active transport D) Facilitated diffusion
PAGE 3 OF 43
Q.50 The inner membrane of mitochondria form extensive infoldings called: (2016)
A) Cristae C) Lamella
B) Cisternae D) Bifidae
Q.51 Which one of the following organelle is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
(2016)
A) Centriole C) Nucleus
B) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Ribosome
Q.52 Out of the given option, choose the one which shows the structures found only in plants:
(2016)
A) Vacuole, chloroplast, ribosomes C) Chloroplast, cell wall, mitochondria
B) Chloroplast, microtubules, peroxisomes D) Chloroplast, cell wall, vacuole
Q.53 Presence of large central vacuole is the characteristic of: (2016)
A) Prokaryotes C) Plants
B) Protists D) Fungi
Q.54 The basic structure of plasma membrane is provided by: (2016)

S
A) Proteins C) Phospholipids

OR
B) Cholesterols D) Cytoskeleton
Q.55 The organelle involved in detoxification of drugs and poisons in the liver cells is:

CT
(2016)
A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus

DO
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosomes
Q.56 Select the organelle which is only present in animal cells: (2017)
A) Centriole C) Microtubule
B) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum RE
D) Ribosome
Q.57 Which one of the following structures is present in both animal and plant cells but
TU
absent in prokaryotic cells? (2017)
A) Centrioles C) Plastids
FU

B) Microtubules D) Sieve tubes

Q.58 Cilia and flagella are absent in: (2017)
R

A) Viruses C) Higher plants

FO

B) Bacteria D) Lower animals

Q.59 Nuclear membrane is continues with: (2017-Retake)
A) E.R C) Lysosome
Y

B) Golgi Body D) Peroxisome

ET

Q.60 Group of ribosomes attached to mRNA is called: (2017-Retake)

A) Polyploid C) Polysome
CI

B) Polynucleotide D) Polysaccharide
Q.61 Which of the following organelle consist of two subunits: (2017-Retake)
SO

A) Golgi body C) Ribosome

B) Mitochondria D) Plastids
T

Q.62 Ribosome present in prokaryotes: (2017-Retake)

CA

A) 70S C) 60S
B) 80S D) 40S
MD

Q.63 Which of the following is common organelle in plant and animal: (2017-Retake)
A) Peroxisome C) Centrioles
B) Flagella D) Plastids
Q.64 Organelle involved in aerobic respiration: (2017-Retake)
A) Mitochondria C) Plastids
B) Lysosome D) Ribosome
Q.65 Self eating of lysosomes is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Phagocytosis C) Autophagy
B) Pinocytosis D) Exocytosis
Q.66 Taking in of solid particle by cell is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Phagocytosis C) Exocytosis
B) Pinocytosis D) Endocytosis
Q.67 Ribosomal RNA is synthesize in: (2017-Retake)
A) Nucleolus C) Golgi body
B) Peroxisome D) Nucleoplasm
Q.68 Inner membrane of mitochondria is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Cisternae C) Lemma
PAGE 4 OF 43
 B) Cristae D) Tonoplast

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
CARBOHYDRATES
(UHS UNIT-3A)
Q.69 The covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides is called: (2011)
A) Glycosidic bond C) Peptide bond
B) Hydrogen bond D) Disulphide bond
Q.70 The bond formed between glucose and fructose to form sucrose is: (2011)
A) 1, 4 glycosidic linkage C) 1, 6 glycosidic linkage
B) 1, 2 glycosidic linkage D) 1, 3 glycosidic linkage
Q.71 Carbohydrates are organic molecules and contain three elements: (2012)
A) Carbon, water and oxygen C) Carbon, calcium and hydrogen

S
B) Carbon, sulphur and hydrogen D) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

OR
Q.72 Which one are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis both? (2012)

CT
A) Ribose and heptolose C) Glucose and galactose
B) Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone D) Fructose and ribulose

DO
Q.73 ________________ is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature: (2013)
A) Cellulose C) Glycerol
B) Waxes D) Starch
Q.74 Which of the following is a keto sugar?
A) Glyceraldehyde
RE
C) Dihydroxyacetone
(2013)
TU
B) Ribose D) Glucose
Q.75 The most common respiratory substrate as a source of energy is: (2014)
FU

A) Glucose C) Fructose
B) Sucrose D) Insulin
R

Q.76 The simplest monosaccharide containing keto group is: (2014)

FO

A) Glyceraldehyde C) Glucose
B) Dihydroxyacetone D) Ribose
Q.77 Monosaccharides are major components of: (2015)
Y

A) DNA, ATP, Ribulose bisphosphate and cystein

ET

B) DNA, NAD and Insulin

C) DNA, NADP, ATP and ribulose bisphosphate
CI

D) DNA, RNA and myosin

Q.78 Blood group antigen contains: (2015)
SO

A) Glycoprotein C) Glycolipid
B) Phospholipids D) Sphingomyelin
Q.79 The compounds which on hydrolysis yield polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone sub-units are:
T
CA

(2016)
A) Lipids C) Polynucleotides
MD

B) Proteins D) Carbohydrates
Q.80 Which one of the following is the formula structure of D (  ) glucose? (2016)

A) C)

B) D)
Q.81 ________ are the specific structures related to monosaccharides: (2017)
A) Glycosidic bond C) Maltose
B) Keto group D) Fructose
Q.82 _________ are the major sites for the storage of glycogen in animal’s body: (2017)
A) Muscles and liver: C) Around belly and hips
B) Around thighs and belly D) Liver and kidneys
PAGE 5 OF 43
Q.83 What is general formula of Monosaccharides: (2017-Retake)
A) CX (H2O) Y C) C n (H2O) n
B) (CH2O) n D) C n (H2O) n-1
Q.84 Which of the following is light molecular weight and sparingly soluble in water:
(2017-Retake)
A) Monosaccharide C) Oligosaccharides
B) Disaccharides D) Polysaccharides

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
PROTEINS
(UHS UNIT-3B)
Q.85 In an amino acid in which R-group is hydrogen, the amino acid will be: (2011)
A) Alanine C) Leucine

S
B) Glycine D) Valine

OR
Q.86 Which of the following is a peptide bond? (2012)
A) – C – N C) – C – P

CT
B) – C – O D) – C – S

DO
Q.87 Amino acid in which the R-group is hydrogen is: (2013)
A) Alanine C) Valine
B) Leucine D) Glycine
Q.88 Myosin is a ____________ type of protein:
A) Intermediate
RE
C) Globular
(2015)
TU
B) Simple D) Fibrous
Q.89 Secondary structure of protein is found in: (2016)
FU

A) Trypsin C) Insulin
B) Keratin D) Glucagon
R

Q.90 Waxes are formed by combination of fatty acids with: (2016)

FO

A) Alcohol C) Serine
B) Glycerol D) Cysteine
Q.91 The number of amino acids that have been found to occur in cells and tissues are:
Y

(2017)
ET

A) 170 C) 25
B) 20 D) 45
CI

Q.92 Most proteins are made up of ______ types of amino acids: (2017)
A) 25 C) 20
SO

B) 170 D) 280
Q.93 Backbone of amino acid is: (2017-Retake)
A) C-C-N C) –NH2 Group
T

B) –COOH group D) –H group

CA

Q.94 Sequence of amino acids is important in: (2017-Retake)

MD

A) Primary structure C) Tertiary structure

B) Secondary structure D) Quaternary structure

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
LIPIDS
(UHS UNIT-3C)
Q.95 Fatty acids are organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the
following group: (2011)
A) Carboxylic C) Acyl
B) Amino D) Sucrose
Q.96 Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid? (2012)
A) Acetic acid C) Oleic acid
B) Butyric acid D) Palmitic acid
PAGE 6 OF 43
Q.97 Acylglycerols like fats and oils are esters formed by condensation reaction between: (2013)
A) Fatty acids and water C) Fatty acids and alcohol
B) Fatty acids and glucose D) Fatty acids and phosphates
Q.98 Waterproof surface like cuticle of leaf and protective covering of an insect’s body
are: (2014)
A) Phospholipids C) Terpenoids
B) Waxes D) Acylglycerols
Q.99 Which one of the following is an example of unsaturated fatty acid? (2015)
A) Butyric acid C) Palmitic acid
B) Oleic acid D) Acetic acid
Q.100 If in lipid there is a higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acids then it will be:
(2017)
A) Oil C) Phenols
B) Waxes D) Fat
Q.101 Identify the unsaturated fatty acid: (2017-Retake)

S
A) Acetic acid C) Plamitic acid

OR
B) Butyric acid D) Oleic acid

CT
UHS PAST PAPERS

DO
(UNIT WISE)
NUCLEIC ACIDS
(UHS UNIT-3D)
RE
TU
Q.102 The combination of a pentose sugar with a base results in a compound known as: (2011)
A) Nucleotide C) Nucleic acid
FU

B) Nucleoside D) Polynucleotide
Q.103 Which of following combination of base pair is absent in DNA? (2012)
A) A – T C) A – U
R

B) C – G D) T – A
FO

Q.104 Which of the following is a purine? (2013)

A) Cytosine C) Uracil
Y

B) Thymine D) Guanine
ET

Q.105 If the genetic code is made up of three nucleotides, the total possible genetic codes
will be: (2014)
CI

A) 4 C) 64
B) 20 D) 61
SO

Q.106 In translation, the terminating codon is: (2014)

A) GUA C) UUG
B) UAA D) AGU
T
CA

Q.107 Number of base pairs in one turn of DNA is: (2015)

A) 10 C) 34
MD

B) 2 D) 54

Q.108 Phosphodiester bond is: (2016)

A) P – O – C – P – O – C C) C – O – P – O – C
B) C – O – P D) C – C – O – P
Q.109 When X-rays are passed through crystalline DNA, it shows helix making one
complete twist every:
A) 2 nm C) 34nm
B) 3.4 nm D) 4 nm
Q.110 Following is the structure of ________ :

A) Uracil C) Guanine
B) Thymine D) Cytosine
PAGE 7 OF 43
Q.111 Bonds present in alpha helix are: (2017-Retake)
A) Hydrogen bonds C) Ionic bonds
B) Disulphide linkage D) Peptide bonds
Q.112 All of the following are subunits of DNA EXCEPT: (2017-Retake)
A) Deoxy ribose sugar C) Nitrogenous base
B) Phosphate group D) Choline

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
ENZYMES
(UHS UNIT-3E)
Q.113 An enzyme and substrate react through a specific feature or site present in enzyme
known as: (2011)

S
A) Building site C) Catalyst site

OR
B) Active site D) Inhibition site

CT
Q.114 The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is
called: (2011)

DO
A) Prosthetic group C) Co-enzyme
B) Co-factor D) Activator
Q.115 One of the following pyrimidine bases is absent in DNA: (2011)
A) Uracil
B) Thymine
RE
C) Cytosine
D) Adenine
TU
Q.116 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by: (2011)
A) Increasing temperature C) Decreasing activation energy
FU

B) Decreasing pH D) Increasing activation energy

Q.117 The type of inhibition in which inhibitor has no structural similarity to substrate
R

and combines with enzyme at other than the active site is called: (2012)
FO

A) Irreversible inhibition C) Non-competitive and reversible inhibition

B) Cementation inhibition D) Reversible inhibition
Q.118 The inhibitors that bind tightly and permanently to enzymes and destroy their
Y

globular structure as catalytic activity are: (2012)

ET

A) Reversible inhibitors C) Competitive inhibiters

B) Irreversible inhibitors D) Non-competitive inhibitors
CI

Q.119 Enzyme succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into: (2012)

A) Malate C) Citrate
SO

B) Malonic acid D) Fumarate

Q.120 If the detachable co-factor is an inorganic ion then it is designated as: (2012)
A) Coenzyme C) Holoenzyme
T
CA

B) Prosthetic group D) Activator

Q.121 The view that active site of an enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines
MD

with it, causes change in enzyme structure is known as: (2013)

A) Lock and key model C) Induce fit model
B) Sliding filament model D) Specificity model
Q.122 All coenzymes are derived from: (2013)
A) Proteins C) Nucleic acids
B) Vitamins D) Carbohydrates
Q.123 If the cofactor is covalently or tightly and permanently bonded to enzyme then it
will be called: (2013)
A) Coenzyme C) Apoenzyme
B) Activator D) Prosthetic group
Q.124 Optimum pH value for the working of pancreatic lipase is: (2013)
A) 4.50 C) 9.00
B) 7.60 D) 2.00
Q.125 All coenzymes are derived from: (2014)
A) Proteins C) Metal ions
B) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins
Q.126 The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with: (2014)
PAGE 8 OF 43
 A) Active site C) Substrate
B) Binding site D) Co-enzyme
Q.127 Which one of the following is the optimum pH of pancreatic lipase enzyme? (2014)
A) 7.60 C) 9.00
B) 8.00 D) 9.70
Q.128 A co-factor tightly bound to the enzyme on the permanent basis is called: (2014)
A) Activator C) Prosthetic group
B) Co-enzyme D) Apo-enzyme
Q.129 Which molecular structure of enzyme is essential for activity of enzyme? (2015)
A) Quaternary structure C) Secondary structure
B) Primary Structure D) Tertiary structure
Q.130 Some enzymes require helper which is a non-protein part for its efficient
functioning; that is called: (2015)
A) Accelerator C) Prosthetic group
B) Cofactor D) Apoenzyme

S
Q.131 Pepsin, protein digesting enzyme acts best at pH: (2015)

OR
A) 3.00 C) 2.00
B) 4.5 D) 6.00

CT
Q.132 Which one of the following is an example of competitive inhibitor? (2015)
A) Glucose C) Succinic acid

DO
B) Fumarate D) Melonate
Q.133 An enzyme required Mg to catalyze the substrate. The Mg++ is best identified as:
++

(2016)
A) Prosthetic group RE
C) Co-enzyme
B) Activator D) Inhibitor
TU
FU
R
FO

Q.134 This figure represents _____________ inhibitor. (2016)

Y

A) Non-competitive C) Irreversible
ET

B) Competitive D) Isosteric
Q.135 According to ___________ model the active site of enzyme is modified as the
CI

substrate interacts with enzyme: (2016)

A) Induced fit C) Emil Fischer
SO

B) Lock and key D) Fluid mosaic

Q.136 Which one of the following graphs shows how the rate of reaction of pepsin is
affected by pH? (2016)
T
CA
MD

A) C)

B) D)
Q.137 All enzymes are: (2017)
A) Fibrous proteins C) Lipoproteins
PAGE 9 OF 43
 B) Low molecular weight proteins D) Globular Proteins
Q.138 The reactants on which enzyme works are: (2017)
A) Products C) Substrates
B) Metabolites D) Catabolites
Q.139 Which one of the following comprises of inorganic ions? (2017)
A) Coenzymes C) Prosthetic group
B) Activators D) Apoenzyme
Q.140 Which of the following type of inhibitor can be neutralize by adding more substrate
into reaction: (2017-Retake)
A) Irreversible inhibitor C) Irreversible non-competitive
B) Reversible inhibitor D) Irreversible competitive
Q.141 What is true about enzymes: (2017-Retake)
A) Fibrous proteins C) No effect on end product
B) Use in reaction D) Non-specific
Q.142 Modified form of Lock and model was proposed by: (2017-Retake)

S
A) Koshland C) Watson

OR
B) Fischer D) Rosalind Fraklin

CT
UHS PAST PAPERS

DO
(UNIT WISE)
MICROBIOLOGY
(UHS UNIT-4)
RE
TU
Q.143 Which one of the following diseases is caused by enveloped RNA virus and spread in
epidemic form? (2011)
FU

A) Influenza C) Polio
B) Herpes simplex D) Small pox
R

Q.144 The structure which contain the gene for drug resistance in bacteria are: (2011)
FO

A) Nucleoids C) Chromatin bodies

B) Mesosomes D) Plasmids
Q.145 Antibiotics that kill microbes immediately are called: (2011)
Y

A) Microbistatic C) Biostatic
ET

B) Microbicidal D) Chemotherapeutic
Q.146 Which one of the following fungi causes vaginal thrush? (2011)
CI

A) Candida C) Tortula
B) Aspergillus D) Penicillium
SO

Q.147 In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase converts single stranded RNA into double
stranded viral DNA. This process is called: (2012)
A) Translation C) Replication
T
CA

B) Duplication D) Reverse transcription

Q.148 Mesosomes are infoldings of the cell membrane and are involved in: (2012)
MD

A) DNA replication C) Protein synthesis

B) RNA synthesis D) Metabolism
Q.149 Most wide spread problem of the antibiotic misuse is the: (2012)
A) Rapid cure C) Disturbance of metabolite
B) Increased resistance in pathogens D) Immunity
Q.150 Which of the following component is found in the cell wall of fungi? (2012)
A) Cellulose C) Proteins
B) Chitin D) Glycerin
Q.151 Reverse transcriptase is used to make DNA copies of: (2013)
A) Host RNA C) Viral DNA
B) Host DNA D) Viral RNA
Q.152 Antibiotics are produced by fungi and certain bacteria of group: (2013)
A) Oomycetes C) Actinomycetes
B) Ascomycetes D) Basidiomycetes
Q.153 Which statement about bacteria is true? (2013)
A) Gram positive bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall
B) Lipids are absent in cell wall of both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
PAGE 10 OF 43
 C) Both have equal amount of lipids
D) Gram negative bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall
Q.154 Fungi which cause thrush in humans are: (2013)
A) Lovastatin C) Saccharomyces
B) Aspergillus fumigatus D) Candidiasis
Q.155 Which one of the following antibiotic causes permanent discoloration of teeth in
young children if it is misused? (2014)
A) Penicillin C) Sulphonamide
B) Streptomycin D) Tetracycline
Q.156 What are the sequence of steps in which a bacteriophage attacks bacteria and
injects its DNA? (2014)
A) Landing → Tail contraction → Penetration → DNA injection
B) Penetration → Landing → Tail contraction → DNA injection
C) Tail contraction → Landing → DNA injection → Penetration
D) Landing → Penetration → Tail contraction → DNA injection
Athlete’s foot is a disease caused by:

S
Q.157 (2014)

OR
A) Bacteria C) Fungus
B) Virus D) Arthropod

CT
Q.158 Which one of the following cells is mainly infected by HIV? (2014)
A) T-killer lymphocytes C) B-plasma cells

DO
B) T-helper lymphocytes D) B-memory cells
Q.159 HIV is classified as: (2015)
A) Bacteriophage C) Retrovirus
B) Oncovirus RE
D) Icosahedral virus
Q.160 Cyanobacteria are: (2015)
TU
A) Photo autotrophic bacteria C) Saprotrophic bacteria
FU

B) Chemosynthetic bacteria D) Parasitic bacteria

Q.161 During unfavorable conditions certain bacteria produce: (2015)
A) Ribosomes C) Mitochondria
R

B) Plasmids D) Spores
FO

Q.162 In Rhizopus, zygote forms temporary, dormant, thick-walled resistant structure

called: (2015)
A) Zygospore C) Sporangia
Y

B) Spore D) Hypha
ET

Q.163 All viruses can reproduce within living organisms only, so they are known as: (2016)
A) Ectoparasites C) Obligate intracellular parasites
CI

B) Endoparasites D) Facultative intracellular parasites

SO

Q.164 Many bacteria are motile due to presence of: (2016)

A) Flagella C) Cilia
B) Pili D) Microtubules
T

Q.165 _________ is an invagination of cell membrane which helps in cell division: (2016)
CA

A) Fimbriae C) Mesosome
B) Nucleoid D) Endospore
MD

Q.166 ________ is the yeast that grows in the mucous membrane of mouth or vagina.
(2016)
A) Candida albicans C) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae D) Aspergillus flavus
Q.167 DNA molecule in prokaryotes is: (2017)
A) Single, circular, double stranded molecule, not bounded by membrane
B) Double, circular molecule
C) Linear, double stranded molecule
D) Single, circular, double stranded molecule, membrane bound
Q.168 Nucleoid is a structure NOT found in: (2017)
A) Campylobacter C) Spirochete
B) Cyanobacteria D) Goblet cells
Q.169 Cell wall structure of a cell of unknown origin was studied and found to contain
polysaccharide chain linked with short chain of amino acid. What do you think it
can be? (2017)
A) Bacteria C) Algae
B) Fungi cell D) Cortex cell
PAGE 11 OF 43
Q.170 Ribosomes present in prokaryotes are: (2017)
A) 80S C) 50S
B) 60S D) 70S
Q.171 Functionally, mesosomes can be compared with: (2017)
A) Ribosomes C) Polysomes
B) Mitochondria D) Golgi bodies
Q.172 Students were asked to give a guess about a unicellular organism with darkly
stained nucleus. Which one of the following can be straight away excluded from the
list: (2017)
A) Paramecium C) Plasmodium
B) Amoeba D) Lactobacillus
Q.173 Binary fission is a characteristic cell division NOT found in: (2017)
A) Pseudomonas C) Euglena
B) Campylobacter D) E. coli
Q.174 In which one of the following shapes, gut living symbiont Escherichia coli is found?

S
(2017)

OR
A) Round C) Spiral
B) Oval D) Rod

CT
Q.175 Which one of the followings is a non-cellular infectious entity? (2017)
A) Mycoplasma C) Herpes virus

DO
B) Escherichia coli D) Diplococcus
Q.176 The viruses can reproduce: (2017)
A) Without invading any cell C) By mitosis
B) In bacterial cell RE
D) By meiosis
Q.177 The life cycle in which phage kills the bacteria is known as: (2017)
TU
A) Transduction C) Lytic cycle
FU

B) Temperate phage cycle D) Lysogenic phage cycle

Q.178 Chitin, a chemical found in exoskeleton of arthropods is also found in cell wall of:
(2017)
R

A) Bacteria C) Cyanobacteria
FO

B) Fungi D) Algae
Q.179 What is size range of viruses: (2017-Retake)
A) 250nm to 200nm C) 200nm to 20nm
Y

B) 250nm to 100nm D) 250nm to 20nm

ET

Q.180 Reverse transcriptase is used to make DNA copies of: (2017-Retake)

A) Host RNA C) Viral DNA
CI

B) Host DNA D) Viral RNA

SO

Q.181 Arrangement of cocus bacteria in chain is called: (2017-Retake)

A) Streptococci C) Tetrad
B) Staphylococci D) Sarcina
T
CA

Q.182 Find the characteristic true for Gram +ve bacteria: (2017-Retake)
A) Periplasmic space present in all C) Two major layers
MD

B) Less lipids than Gram -Ve D) Outer membrane present

Q.183 DNA of bacteria is present in: (2017-Retake)
A) Nucleoid C) Mitochondria
B) Nucleus D) Mesosome
Q.184 Mycorrhizae association is present in: (2017-Retake)
A) Fungi and green algae C) Fungi and Cyanobacteria
B) Fungi and roots of higher plants D) Fungi and Dead human

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
KINGDOM ANIMALIA
(UHS UNIT-5)
PAGE 12 OF 43
Q.185 Body cavity of round worms is called: (2011)
A) Pseudocoelom C) Acoelom
B) Coelom D) Enteron
Q.186 Fasciola is endoparasite of: (2011)
A) Colon C) Small intestine
B) Liver D) Bile duct
Q.187 Trypanosoma is transmitted in human beings by: (2011)
A) Plasmodium C) House fly
B) Anopheles D) Tse-tse fly
Q.188 The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embryonic
development in animals: (2011)
A) Mesoderm C) Endoderm
B) Ectoderm D) Mesoderm and endoderm
Q.189 Fasciola is the name given to: (2012)
A) Tapeworm C) Liver fluke

S
B) Planaria D) Earthworm

OR
Q.190 Ascaris is: (2012)
A) Diploblastic C) Haploid

CT
B) Triploblastic D) Acoelomate
Q.191 During development in an animal, mesoderm layer gives rise to: (2012)

DO
A) Nervous system C) Muscular and skeletal system
B) Alimentary canal lining D) Mouth
Q.192 Polymorphism is characteristic feature of: (2012)
A) Porifera RE
C) Annelida
B) Cnidria D) Nematodes
TU
Q.193 When beef which is not properly cooked is consumed by humans, they may become
FU

infected by: (2013)

A) Hook worm C) Tape worm
B) Pin worm D) Round worm
R

Q.194 Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by: (2013)

FO

A) Anopheles C) Trypanosoma
B) Aedes D) Plasmodium
Q.195 Schistosoma is a parasite that lives in the ________of its host: (2013)
Y

A) Liver C) Intestine
ET

B) Blood D) Kidney
Q.196 The cavity between body wall and alimentary canal is: (2013)
CI

A) Pseudocoelom C) Coelom
SO

B) Acoelom D) Gastro vascular cavity

Q.197 The layer which forms the lining of digestive tract and glands of digestive system is: (2013)
A) Endoderm C) Mesoderm
T

B) Ectoderm D) Mesoglea
CA

Q.198 Ascaris is which one of the following? (2014)

A) Ectoparasite C) Respiratory tract parasite
MD

B) Intestinal parasite D) Urinogenital tract parasite

Q.199 Polymorphism is a feature exhibited by members of: (2014)
A) Coelenterates C) Porifera
B) Arthropoda D) Platyhelminthes
Q.200 Which one of the following is the primary host of liver fluke? (2014)
A) Man C) Snail
B) Sheep D) Dog
Q.201 Which one of the following is free living carnivorous flatworm? (2014)
A) Liver fluke C) Tapeworm
B) Dugesia D) Schistosoma
Q.202 ______________ is a triploblastic organism: (2015)
A) Jelly fish C) Tapeworm
B) Sea anemone D) Corals
Q.203 In arthropods, the body cavity is in the form of: (2015)
A) Coelom C) Pseudocoelom
B) Haemocoel D) Enteron
Q.204 _________ is a good example of polymorphism: (2015)
PAGE 13 OF 43
 A) Hydra C) Obelia
B) Star fish D) Euplectella
Q.205 Name common gut roundworm parasite of human and pig: (2015)
A) Ascaris lumbericoides C) Pheretima posthuma
B) Lumbricus terrestris D) Hirudo medicinalis
Q.206 ____________ is also called liver fluke: (2015)
A) Dugesia C) Fasciola
B) Taenia D) Coral
Q.207 Taenia is an endoparasite of human, pig and cattle which belongs to phylum: (2016)
A) Cnidaria C) Annelida
B) Aschelminthes D) Platyhelminthes
Q.208 Body of ____ consists of segments called proglottids which contain mainly sex organs.
(2016)
A) Planaria C) Acaris
B) Liver fluke D) Tapeworm

S
Q.209 ______________ is a common parasite of the intestine of human and pig which

OR
belongs to phylum nematoda. (2016)
A) Taenia solium C) Ascaris lumbricoides

CT
B) Schistosoma D) Fasciola hepatica
Q.210 In radial symmetry all body parts are arranged around the central axis. Radial

DO
symmetry represents ___________ mode of life. (2016)
A) Sessile C) Active
B) Streamlined D) Parasitic
Q.211 RE
Pseudocoelomates have a body cavity but it is not true coelom. Which one of the
following is included in the group? (2016)
TU
A) Planaria C) Earthworm
B) Tapeworm D) Ascaris
FU

Q.212 Snails are the intermediate hosts in: (2017)

A) Fasciola hepatica C) Schistosoma
B) Taenia solium D) Ancylostoma duodenale
R

Q.213 ______ is an intestinal parasite of man belonging to phylum nematoda: (2017)

FO

A) Taenia solium C) Ascaris lumbricoides

B) Wuchereria bancrofti D) Schistosoma
Y

Q.214 Ascaris lumbricoide is parasite of: (2017-Retake)

ET

A) Mouth C) Intestine
B) Liver D) Lungs
CI

Q.215 Which of the following stage of metamorphosis resembles to its mother:

(2017-Retake)
SO

A) Egg C) Tadpole
B) Nymph D) Pupa
T

UHS PAST PAPERS

CA
MD

(UNIT WISE)
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
(UHS UNIT-6A)
Q.216 Which of the following enzyme is released in an inactive form? (2011)
A) Amylase C) Enterokinase
B) Lipase D) Pepsin
Q.217 Which of the following hormone stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juices from
pancreas and liver? (2011)
A) Secretin C) Gastrin
B) Pepsinogen D) Both secretin and gastrin
Q.218 In large intestine vitamin K is formed by the activity of: (2011)
A) Symbiotic bacteria C) Parasitic bacteria
B) Obligate parasite D) Facultative bacteria
Q.219 The muscles of the stomach walls thoroughly mix up the food with gastric juice and
the result semi-solid/ semi-liquid material is called: (2012)

PAGE 14 OF 43
 A) Bolus C) Mucus
B) Chyle D) Chyme
Q.220 Trypsinogen is converted into trypsin by the activity of: (2012)
A) Goblet cells C) Enterokinase
B) Absorptive cells D) Peptidase
Q.221 In large intestine, vitamin K is formed by the activity of: (2012)
A) Symbiotic bacteria C) Parasitic bacteria
B) Obligate parasite D) Facultative bacteria
Q.222 Goblet cells secrete: (2012)
A) HCL C) Enzymes
B) Mucus D) Amylase
Q.223 Which one of the following vitamins is produced by the microflora of large intestine? (2013)
A) Vitamin D C) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin K D) Vitamin A
Q.224 _______ is activated to ________, by enterokinase / enteropeptidase enzyme secreted

S
by the lining of duodenum: (2013)

OR
A) Trypsinogen, trypsin C) Pepsinogen, trypsin
B) Pepsinogen, pepsin D) Chymotrypsinogen, chymotrypsin

CT
Q.225 Which of the followings are absorbed in the large intestine? (2013)
A) Water and peptones C) Water and salts

DO
B) Salts and glycerol D) Amino acids and sugars
Q.226 Saliva is basically composed of water, mucus, amylase and: (2013)
A) Sodium hydroxide C) Sodium bicarbonate
B) Hydrocarbons RE
D) Sodium chloride
Q.227 In human, Escherichia coli is involved in the formation of: (2014)
TU
A) Calcium C) Vitamin A
FU

B) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K
Q.228 The function of goblet cells is to secrete: (2014)
A) Gastrin C) Pepsinogen
R

B) Hydrochloric acid D) Mucus

FO

Q.229 Gastric glands are made up of ______ type of cells: (2014)

A) Two C) Four
B) Three D) Five
Y

Q.230 HCL in gastric juice is secreted by which one of the following cells? (2014)
ET

A) Chief cells C) Mucous cells

B) Oxyntic cells D) Kupffer cells
CI

Q.231 The lymph vessel of villi is called: (2015)

SO

A) Epithelium C) Adenoids
B) Afferent lymph vessel D) Lacteal
Q.232 Oxyntic cells in stomach produce: (2015)
T

A) Pepsin C) Gastrin
CA

B) Pepsinogen D) HCl
Q.233 The hormone which inhibits the secretion of gastric juice is: (2015)
MD

A) Secretin C) Thyroxin
B) Gastrin D) Parathormone
Q.234 Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by: (2015)
A) HCl C) Mucus
B) Enterokinase D) Gastrin

Q.235 The emulsification of fats is the role of: (2015)

A) Saliva C) Gastrin
B) Pancreatic juice D) Bile
Q.236 Digestion of ____starts in oral cavity due to the action of enzyme present in saliva.
(2016)
A) Starch C) Fatty acids
B) Cellulose D) Polypeptides
Q.237 Food enters from stomach into small intestine through: (2016)
A) Pyloric sphincter C) Semilunar valve
B) Cardiac sphincter D) Diaphragm
PAGE 15 OF 43
Q.238 ____________ are the part of gastric gland which produce hydrochloric acid. (2016)
A) Parietal cells C) Chief cells
B) Goblet cells D) Zymogen cells
Q.239 Protein components of food are digested by the enzymatic secretion of: (2016)
A) Goblet cells C) Zymogen cells
B) Parietal cells D) Oxyntic cells
Q.240 Digestive system consists of different layers, the innermost is known as: (2016)
A) Submucosa C) Muscularis
B) Mucosa D) Serosa
Q.241 Food is diverted into the esophagus by: (2017)
A) Glottis C) Cheeks
B) Tongue D) Epiglottis
Q.242 Label ‘a’ in the following diagram: (2017)

S
OR
CT
DO
RE
TU
FU

A) Cardiac sphincter C) Stomach valve

B) Sinoatrial valve D) Pyloric sphincter
Q.243 Enzyme pepsin acts on: (2017)
R

Option Substrate Product

FO

A) Proteins Polypeptides
B) Polypeptide Dipeptides
C) Fats Fatty acids / glycerol
Y

D) Proteins Amino acids

ET

Q.244 Following is the structure of a gastric gland in stomach wall where ‘X’ is: (2017)
CI

Zymogen
“x”
SO

Cells
T
CA

A) Mucosa C) Visceral fat cells

MD

B) Mucous cells D) Oxyntic cells

Q.245 Which of the following cells secrete HCl: (2017-Retake)
A) Oxyntic cells C) G Cells
B) Zymogen cells D) Mucous cells

Q.246 Appendix is finger like process arise from: (2017-Retake)

A) Colon C) Caecum
B) Rectum D) Small intestine
Q.247 All kind of absorption take place in: (2017-Retake)
A) Duodenum C) Ileum
B) Jejunum D) Colon

UHS PAST PAPERS

PAGE 16 OF 43
 (UNIT WISE)
GASEOUS EXCHANGE AND TRANSPORTATION
(UHS UNIT-6B)
Q.248 During swallowing of food which structure closes nasal opening? (2011)
A) Hard palate C) Epiglottis
B) Soft palate D) Larynx
Q.249 The right atrium of the heart usually receives the: (2011)
A) Deoxygenated blood C) Filtered blood
B) Oxygenated blood D) Non-filtered blood
Q.250 Largest lymph duct called thoracic lymph duct drains into: (2011)
A) Subclavian vein C) Pulmonary vein
B) Renal vein D) Hepatic portal vein
Q.251 Which protein plays a major role in maintaining osmotic balance? (2011)
A) Albumin C) Fibrinogen

S
B) Globulin D) Prothrombin

OR
Q.252 The type of agranulocytes which stay in blood for few hours and then enter the
tissues and become macrophages are: (2011)

CT
A) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils
B) Monocytes D) Basophils

DO
Q.253 What is the residual volume of air which always remains inside the lungs of human? (2012)
A) 3.5 liters C) 5.0 liters
B) 0.5 liters
Q.254 Mature mammalian red blood cells do not have:
RE
D) 1.5 liters
(2012)
TU
A) Nucleus C) Fluids
B) Red color D) Hemoglobin
FU

Q.255 In a normal person plasma constitutes about ________ by volume of blood: (2012)
A) 50% C) 45%
B) 60% D) 55%
R

Q.256 Which vein has oxygenated blood? (2012)

FO

A) Renal vein C) Pulmonary vein

B) Subclavian vein D) Jugular vein
Y

Q.257 The total inside capacity of the lung is _______for men: (2013)
ET

A) 7 liters C) 6-7 liters

B) 5 liters D) 2.5 liters
CI

Q.258 The average life span of red blood cell is about: (2013)
A) Two month C) One month
SO

B) Five months D) Four months

Q.259 The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into the blood stream at the: (2013)
A) Bile duct C) Sub-clavian vein
T

B) Abdominal vein D) Jugular vein

CA

Q.260 Right atrium is separated from right ventricle by: (2013)

A) Semilunar valve C) Bicuspid valve
MD

B) Tricuspid valve D) Septum

Q.261 Histamine is secreted by which one of the following cells? (2014)
A) Basophils C) Monocyte
B) Platelets D) Eosinophils

Q.262 Which one of the following is the most numerous/ commonest of white blood cells? (2014)
A) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes
Q.263 The oxygenated blood from lungs to heart is transported by the: (2014)
A) Pulmonary artery C) Pulmonary vein
B) Coronary artery D) Hepatic artery
Q.264 Which one of the following proteins takes part in blood clotting? (2014)
A) Prothrombin C) Immunoglobulin
B) Fibrinogen D) Globulin
Q.265 Right atrium is separated from right ventricle by: (2015)
PAGE 17 OF 43
 A) Bicuspid valve C) Tricuspid valve
B) Semilunar valve D) Inter atrial septum
Q.266 The flaps of tricuspid valves are attached to the muscular extensions of right
ventricle known as: (2015)
A) Smooth muscles C) Inter coastal muscle
B) Papillary muscles D) Skeletal muscles
Q.267 One complete heartbeat consists of one systole and one diastole and lasts for about: (2015)
A) 0.8 sec C) 0.4 sec
B) 0.2 sec D) 0.5 sec
Q.268 The heart beat cycle starts when electric impulses are generated from: (2015)
A) AV node C) SA node
B) SV node D) PQ node
Q.269 About 70-85 % CO2 in blood is carried: (2015)
A) As carboxyhaemoglobin C) Freely as CO2
B) With proteins in plasma D) As bicarbonate

S
Q.270 Granulocytes are: (2015)

OR
A) Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils C) Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils
B) Basophils, Macrophages, Neutrophils D) Monocytes, Macrophages, Basophils

CT
Q.271 In human the closed sac which surrounds the heart is: (2016)
A) Endocardium C) Pericardium

DO
B) Myocardium D) Epicardium
Q.272 Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords attached with: (2016)
A) Cardiac end of stomach valve C) Pyloric sphincter of stomach
B) Tricuspid valve of heart RE
D) Eye lid
Q.273 Bicuspid valve controls the flow of blood from: (2016)
TU
A) Right atrium to right ventricle C) Left ventricle to aorta
FU

B) Right ventricle to pulmonary artery D) Left atrium to left ventricle

Q.274 Carboxyhaemoglobin (10-20%) is formed when CO2 combines with: (2016)
A) Amino group of haemoglobin C) Haem portion of haemoglobin
R

B) Iron part of haemoglobin D) Plasma proteins

FO

Q.275 Breathing consists of: (2016)

A) Four phases C) One phase
B) Three phases D) Two phases
Y

Q.276 Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues favors the ______ of oxyhemoglobin:(2017)
ET

A) Dissociation C) Stability
B) Formation D) Transformation
CI

Q.277 Respiratory tubules are known as bronchioles when they attain the diameter of
SO

_______ or lesser: (2017)

A) 1.2 cm C) 1.0 mm
B) 1.0 cm D) 1.2 mm
T

Q.278 Elastic fibers are absent in the wall of: (2017)

CA

A) Aorta C) Capillaries
B) Arteries D) Veins
MD

Q.279 A type of blood cell that produces heparin is: (2017)

A) Basophil C) Eosinophil
B) Neutrophil D) Monocyte
Q.280 Thoracic lymph duct of the lymphatic system opens into: (2017)
A) Superior vena cava C) Inferior vena cava
B) Subclavian vein D) Renal vein
Q.281 In ECG, QRS wave represents: (2017)

PAGE 18 OF 43
 A) Ventricular systole C) Diastole
B) Atrial systole D) Recovery systole
Q.282 Label the part ‘Y’ in the following diagram: (2017)

A) Pleura C) Chest cavity

B) Diaphragm D) Intercostal muscles
Q.283 Which one of the following is a respiratory disorder that is related to malnutrition?
(2017)

S
OR
A) Cancer C) Emphysema
B) Asthma D) Tuberculosis

CT
Q.284 Breakdown of thin wall of alveoli occurs in: (2017-Retake)
A) Emphysema C) T.B

DO
B) Cancer D) Asthma
Q.285 Site of gaseous exchange in humans is: (2017-Retake)
A) Trachae C) Bronchus

Q.286
B) Alveloi D) Nose
Exhaled air contain how much percentage of CO2:
RE (2017-Retake)
TU
A) 4 C) 21
B) 0.04 D) 16
FU

Q.287 Gaseous exchange in animals takes place with the help of process called as:
(2017-Retake)
R

A) Active transport C) Cyclosis

FO

B) Phagocytosis D) Diffusion
Q.288 Which of the following is agranulocyte cell? (2017-Retake)
A) Neutophils C) Basophils
Y

B) Eosinophils D) Lymphocytes
ET

Q.289 Bicuspid valve is present in which part of heart? (2017-Retake)

A) Right atrium and right ventricle C) Left atrium and left ventricle
CI

B) Right atrium and left ventricle D) Left atrium and right ventricle
Q.290 Cardiac cycle lasts abaout: (2017-Retake)
SO

A) 0.4 sec C) 0.01 sec

B) 0.8 sec D) 0.5 sec
T

Q.291 Percentage of protein in human blood is: (2017-Retake)

CA

A) 1-2 C) 7-9
B) 7-10 D) 6-9
MD

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
EXCRETION AND OSMOREGULATION
(UHS UNIT-6C)
Q.292 Reabsorption of water by counter current multiplier mechanism takes place at: (2011)
A) Proximal tubule C) Collecting duct
B) Distal tubule D) Loop of Henle
Q.293 Antidiuretic hormone helps in reabsorption of water by changing permeability of: (2011)

PAGE 19 OF 43
 A) Proximal tubule C) Collecting tubule
B) Distal tubule D) Loop of Henle
Q.294 During peritoneal dialysis, the dialysis fluid is introduced into which part of human
body: (2011)
A) Liver C) Kidney
B) Abdomen D) Pancreas
Q.295 Aldosterone helps in conservation or active absorption of: (2011)
A) Sodium C) Potassium
B) Calcium D) Bicarbonate ions
Q.296 Maximum reabsorption takes place in which part of the nephron? (2011)
A) Distal tubule C) Cortical tissue
B) Villi D) Proximal tubule
Q.297 In nephron, most of the reabsorption takes place in the: (2012)
A) Distal tubule C) Ascending limb
B) Proximal tubule D) Descending limb

S
Q.298 Detections of change are signaling for effectors' response to the control system is a: (2012)

OR
A) Negative feedback C) Inter-coordination
B) Positive feedback D) Feedback mechanism

CT
Q.299 What are three components of mechanism of homeostatic regulation? (2012)
A) Receptors, control center and effectors

DO
B) Sensory, motor and associative neurons
C) CNS, peripheral nervous system and diffused nervous system
D) Cerebrum Cerebellum and pons
Q.300 Blood enters the glomerulus through: RE (2012)
A) Efferent arteriole C) Renal artery
TU
B) Afferent arteriole D) Renal vein
FU

Q.301 Which portion of nephron is under the control of ADH? (2012)

A) Bowman’s capsule C) Distal and collecting ducts
B) Ascending arm D) Descending arm
R

Q.302 Site of filtration in nephrons is: (2013)

FO

A) Proximal end and distal end C) Loop of Henle

B) Ascending arm and descending arm D) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
Q.303 Antidiuretic hormone increases the reabsorption of: (2013)
Y

A) Water C) Salts
ET

B) Amino acids D) Ammonia

Q.304 Active uptake of ________ in the ascending limb or thick loop of Henle is promoted
CI

by the action of Aldosterone: (2013)

A) K+ C) Cl-
SO

B) Na+ D) Ca++
Q.305 The process through which the body maintains its internal environment from the
T

fluctuations of external environment is called as: (2013)

CA

A) Homeostasis C) Adaptation
B) Behavior for organisms D) Thermoregulation
MD

+
Q.306 Active pumping out of Na occurs at which part of nephron? (2013)
A) Proximal tubule C) Descending limb of loop of Henle
B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle D) Collecting duct
Q.307 Which one of the following is responsible for the production of concentrated urine? (2014)
A) Juxtamedullary nephrons C) Proximal tubule
B) Cortical nephrons D) Distal tubule
Q.308 Reabsorption of useful constituents normally takes place in which one of the
following? (2014)
A) Proximal tubule C) Bowman’s capsule
B) Distal tubule D) Glomerulus
Q.309 Which one of the following parts of excretory system in humans acts as counter
current multiplier? (2014)
A) Kidney C) Medulla
B) Cortex D) Loop of Henle
Q.310 Anti-diuretic Hormone (ADH) is released from: (2014)
A) Anterior pituitary lobe C) Hypothalamus
B) Posterior pituitary lobe D) Thalamus
PAGE 20 OF 43
Q.311 Which one of the following is the main nitrogenous waste product in humans? (2014)
A) Urea C) Salts
B) Ammonia D) Uric acid
Q.312 Those nephrons which are present along the border of the cortex and medulla are
called: (2015)
A) Juxtamedullary nephrons C) Internal nephrons
B) Cortical nephrons D) Outer nephrons
Q.313 When water is in short supply, increased water retention occurs through the: (2015)
A) Cortical nephrons C) Juxtamedullary nephrons
B) Proximal convoluted tubule D) The tissue of cortex
Q.314 In nephrons, counter-current multiplier occurs at: (2015)
A) Loop of Henle C) Bowman’s capsule
B) Collecting duct D) Glomerulus
Q.315 Ascending loop of Henle does not allow outflow of: (2015)
+ -
A) Na ions C) Cl ions

S
B) K+ ions D) Water

OR
Q.316 A larger quantity of dilute urine is produced in Diabetes Inspidus. This disease is
due to the deficiency of: (2015)

CT
A) Antidiuretic Hormone C) Thyroxin
B) Aldosterone D) Cortisol

DO
Q.317 Water and sodium ions are reabsorbed in: (2015)
A) Urinary bladder and urethra
B) Ureter
C) Adrenal cortex RE
D) Proximal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
TU
Q.318 Bowman’s capsule continues as extensively convoluted portion known as: (2016)
FU

A) Peritubular capillaries C) Efferent arterioles

B) Proximal convoluted tubules D) Afferent arterioles
Q.319 The concentration of sodium ions in body fluids is controlled by the hormone:
R

(2016)
FO

A) Renin C) Angiotensin
B) Aldosterone D) CPK
Q.320 A hormone released from posterior pituitary lobe acts to actively transport water
Y

from filtrate in collecting tubules back to kidney is known as: (2016)

ET

A) Renin C) Angiotensin
B) Anti-diuretic hormone D) Growth factor
CI

Q.321 The removal metabolic waste from the blood is called: (2016)
SO

A) Thermoregulation C) Kidney failure

B) Osmoregulation D) Excretion
Q.322 Highly toxic nitrogenous excretory product is: (2016)
T

A) CO2 C) Urea
CA

B) Uric acid D) Ammonia

Q.323 Select the part of nephron which is NOT permeable to water and stops its outflow:
MD

(2017)
A) Glomerulus C) Ascending loop
B) Proximal tubule D) Descending loop
Q.324 Vessels which carry blood to the glomerulus are called: (2017)
A) Efferent arterioles C) Vasa recta
B) Renal veins D) Afferent arterioles
Q.325 When water content in body becomes high, what will happen? (2017)
A) ADH release will be inhibited C) Aldosterone will be released
B) ADH will be released in large amount D) Anterior pituitary will produce ADH
Q.326 The main factor in producing hypertonic urine is: (2017)
A) Glomerulus
B) Influence of aldosterone
C) Gradual increase in osmolarity from cortex to inner medulla
D) ADH influence on collecting duct
Q.327 What is the least selective process during urine formation? (2017)
A) Reabsorption C) Secretion
B) Pressure filtration D) Differential permeability
PAGE 21 OF 43
Q.328 The mechanism of regulation and its environment, of solute and the gain and loss of
water is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Thermoregulation C) Excretion
B) Osmoregulation D) Relaxation
Q.329 All of the following are endotherms except: (2017-Retake)
A) Birds C) Amphibians
B) Some fishes D) Flying insects

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
NERVOUS SYSTEM
(UHS UNIT-6D)
Q.330 Over-activity of sympathetic nervous system causes: (2011)

S
A) Disturbance of vision C) Decrease in blood pressure

OR
B) Constipation D) Increase in heart rate

CT
Q.331 Which structures respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming through
motor neuron? (2011)

DO
A) Receptors C) Effectors
B) Responses D) Transducers
Q.332 Respiratory center is located in: (2011)
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
RE
C) Medulla
D) Hypothalamus
TU
Q.333 A neurological condition characterized by involuntary tremors, diminished motor
activity and rigidity is called: (2011)
FU

A) Epilepsy C) Alzheimer’s disease

B) Parkinson’s disease D) Cerebellar tremors
R

Q.334 The part of neuron fiber which conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is: (2012)
FO

A) Dendron C) Axon
B) Dendrites D) Peripheral branch
Q.335 The number of cranial nerves in humans is: (2012)
Y

A) 31 pairs C) 24 pairs
ET

B) 12 pairs D) 62 pairs
Q.336 The part of brain which controls breathing, heart rate and swallowing is: (2012)
CI

A) Cerebrum C) Medulla
B) Cerebellum D) Hypothalamus
SO

Q.337 Cause of Parkinson’s disease is death of brain cells that produce: (2012)
A) Dopamine C) ADH hormone
B) Acetylcholine D) Oxytocin
T
CA

Q.338 Thalamus and cerebrum are the part of: (2013)

A) Spinal cord C) Hind brain
MD

B) Forebrain D) Mid brain

Q.339 There is also evidence that high levels of ___________ may contribute to the onset of
Alzheimer’s disease: (2013)
A) Ca C) Mo
B) Mg D) Al
Q.340 L-dopa or levodopa is used to get some relief from: (2013)
A) Epilepsy C) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease D) Dementia
Q.341 The structures which respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming through
motor neuron are: (2013)
A) Effectors C) Responsers
B) Receptors D) Transductors
Q.342 The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected by a thick band of nerve
fibers called: (2014)
A) Medulla C) Pons
PAGE 22 OF 43
 B) Corpus callosum D) Hippocampus
Q.343 The part of the brain which guides smooth and accurate motions and maintains
body position is called: (2014)
A) Cerebrum C) Pons
B) Cerebellum D) Medulla
Q.344 Which one of the following is the effect of sympathetic nervous system? (2014)
A) Constriction of bronchi C) Promotes digestion or peristalsis
B) Decrease in heart rate D) Dilates the pupil
Q.345 High levels of aluminum may contribute to the onset of which one of the following? (2014)
A) Parkinson’s disease C) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Epilepsy D) Gonorrhea
Q.346 Which disease is responsible for dementia (memory loss)? (2015)
A) Parkinson’s disease C) Epilepsy
B) Alzheimer’s disease D) Grave’s disease
Q.347 Neurotransmitter secreted at synapse outside the central nervous system is: (2015)

S
A) Dopamine C) Androgen

OR
B) Polypeptide D) Acetylcholine
Q.348 Conduction of action potentials from one node of Ranvier to another in myelinated

CT
neurons is through: (2015)
A) Hyperpolarization C) Depolarization

DO
B) Resting membrane potential D) Saltatory conduction
Q.349 In the following diagram of action potential in a neuron, “x” depicts

+50
RE
TU
Membrane
Potential 0
(mv)
FU

-50 ' x ' 

-100
(2015)
R

A) Depolarization Time (milliseconds) C) Repolarization

FO

B) Polarization D) Hyperpolarization
Q.350 Random, uncontrolled activity of some cells in the brain leading to chaotic activity
in both sensory and motor nerves causes patients of to see and hear different strange
Y

things. (2016)
ET

A) Epilepsy C) Alzheimer’s disease

B) Parkinson’s disease D) Huntington’s disease
CI

Q.351 Part of hind brain responsible for the balance and equilibrium of body is called:
(2016)
SO

A) Medulla C) Pons
B) Cerebellum D) Thalamus
T

Q.352 Brain is protected and enclosed in: (2016)

CA

A) Lumbar vertebrae C) Vertebral column

B) Coccyx D) Cranium
MD

Q.353 Humans have homeostatic thermostat present in a specified portion of the brain that
is: (2016)
A) Lateral ventricle C) Spinal cord
B) Thalamus D) Hypothalamus
Q.354 The disease in which death of small number of cells in the basal ganglia leads to
inability to select and initiate patterns of movement is known as: (2016)
A) Fever C) Epilepsy
B) Alzheimer’s disease D) Parkinson’s disease
Q.355 A neurological disorder characterized by the decline in brain function is _________.
Its symptoms are similar to those diseases that cause dementia: (2016)
A) Parkinson’s disease C) Alzheimer’s disease.
B) Epilepsy D) Diabetes
Q.356 The nerve impulse which jumps from node to node in myelinated neurons is: (2017)
A) Resting membrane potential C) Threshold stimulus
B) Saltatory nerve impulse D) Initial nerve impulse
Q.357 The CNS is protected by (2017)
A) Three layers of meninges C) Four layers of meninges
PAGE 23 OF 43
 B) One layer of meninx D) Two layers of meninges
Q.358 White matter of spinal cord is made up of: (2017)
A) Sensory nerve fibres C) Motor nerve fibres
B) Myelinated nerve fibres D) Mixed nerve fibres
Q.359 There is evidence that high levels of aluminum may contribute to the onset of:
(2017)
A) Parkinson’s disease C) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B) Alzheimer’s disease D) Fragile X-syndrome
Q.360 Pick out the pressure receptors: (2017-Retake)
A) Chemoreceptors C) Photoreceptors
B) Mechanoreceptors D) Thermoreceptors
Q.361 Which of the following produce response: (2017-Retake)
A) Effectors C) Nerve
B) Stimulators D) Brain
Q.362 Band of axons between two hemispheres is called: (2017-Retake)

S
A) Corpus callosum C) Synapsis

OR
B) Corpus luteum D) Sunapse
Q.363 Reflexes of eyes is detected by which part of brain: (2017-Retake)

CT
A) Mid brain C) Hind Brain
B) Fore brain D) Cerebral hemisphere

DO
Q.364 Spinal cord is protected by how many layers of menninges: (2017-Retake)
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
RE
UHS PAST PAPERS
TU
FU

(UNIT WISE)
REPRODUCTION
R
FO

(UHS UNIT-6E)
Q.365 A type of cells in human testes which produce testosterone is called: (2011)
A) Interstitial cells C) Sertoli cells
Y

B) Germ cells D) Spermatocytes

ET

Q.366 Breakdown of endometrium during menstruation is due to: (2011)

A) Increase in level of LH C) Increase in level of progesterone
CI

B) Decrease in level of progesterone D) Increase in level of estrogen

Q.367 Oogonia are produced in germ cells of: (2011)
SO

A) Both uterus and cervix C) Uterus

B) Cervix D) Ovary
Q.368 Luteinizing hormone triggers: (2011)
T
CA

A) Cessation of oogenesis C) Ovulation

B) Breakdown of oocyte D) Development of zygote
MD

Q.369 Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by: (2011)

A) HIV/ AIDS C) Treponema pallidum
B) Pseudomonas pyogenes D) Neisseria
Q.370 Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by: (2012)
A) Neisseria gonorrhea C) Treponema pallidum
B) Pseudomonas D) Mycobacterium evium
Q.371 Discharge of ovum or secondary oocyte from ovary or from Graffian follicle is
called: (2012)
A) Fertilization C) Follicular atresia
B) Pollination D) Ovulation
Q.372 Second meiotic division in the secondary oocyte proceeds as far as: (2012)
A) Metaphase C) Anaphase
B) Prophase D) Telophase
Q.373 Which one of the followings differentiates directly into mature sperm? (2012)
A) Primary spermatocyte C) Spermatogonia
B) Secondary spermatocyte D) Spermatid
PAGE 24 OF 43
Q.374 Uterus opens into the vagina through: (2012)
A) Cervix C) External genitilia
B) Fallopian tube D) Vulva
Q.375 Spermatogonia differentiate directly into: (2013)
A) Secondary spermatocytes C) Primary spermatocytes
B) Spermatozoa D) Spermatids
Q.376 Treponema pallidum causes: (2013)
A) Gonorrhea C) Genital Herpes
B) AIDS D) Syphilis
Q.377 What is the location of interstitial cells in testis? (2013)
A) Inside the seminiferous tubules C) Between the seminiferous tubules
B) Among germinal epithelial cells D) Around the tests
Q.378 A type of cells in human testes which produce testosterone are called: (2013)
A) Sertoli cells C) Germ cells
B) Spermatocytes D) Interstitial cells

S
Q.379 The hormone produced from corpus luteum is: (2013)

OR
A) Prolactin C) Progesterone
B) Follicle stimulating hormone D) Luteinizing hormone

CT
Q.380 Testosterone is produced by which one of the following? (2014)
A) Sertoli cells C) Interstitial cells

DO
B) Germinal epithelium D) Spermatogonia
Q.381 The oocyte released during ovulation is in: (2014)
A) Anaphase I C) Metaphase I
B) Prophase I RE
D) Metaphase II
Q.382 Yellow glandular structure formed after the release of egg from follicle is called: (2014)
TU
A) Corpus callosum C) Corpus luteum
FU

B) Graffian follicle D) Follicle atresia

Q.383 On puberty, development of primary follicles is stimulated by: (2014)
A) ICSH C) LH
R

B) FSH D) Estrogen
FO

Q.384 Causative agent of a sexually transmitted disease that affects mucous membrane of
the urinogenital tract is: (2014)
A) Staphylococcus aureus C) Neisseria gonorrhea
Y

B) Treponema pallidum D) Escherichia coli

ET

Q.385 In human testis, which structure is responsible for carrying sperm from inside the
testis? (2015)
CI

A) Seminiferous tubules C) Seminal vesicle

SO

B) Urinogenital duct. D) Vasa efferentia

Q.386 In which part of female reproductive system fertilization takes place? (2015)
A) Proximal part of oviduct C) Placenta
T

B) Uterus D) Vagina
CA
MD

Q.387 In females, FSH stimulates the ovary to produce: (2015)

A) Progesterone C) Oestrogen
B) Lactin D) Oxytocin
Q.388 Syphilis, sexually transmitted disease is caused by: (2015)
A) HIV C) Neisseria gonorhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum D) Type ‘2’ virus
Q.389 In which phase of human female menstrual cycle, endometrium prepares for the
implantation of embryo? (2015)
A) Proliferative phase C) Secretary phase
B) Menstrual phase D) Ovulation phase
Q.390 Events of menstrual cycle are regulated by the: (2016)
A) Ethylene C) Auxins
B) Gonadotropins D) Gibberellins
Q.391 Decrease of FSH and increase of estrogen cause pituitary gland to secrete: (2016)
A) Somatotropin C) Testosterone
B) Luteinizing Hormone D) Spermatogonium

PAGE 25 OF 43
Q.392 Transmission of Neisseria gonorrhea is best described by which one of the
following? (2016)
A) Oro-faecal route C) Vector borne
B) Unsafe sex D) Droplet infection
Q.393 Syphilis is caused by: (2016)
A) Spirochaete C) Waterblooms
B) Nostoc D) Cyanobacteria
Q.394 AIDS is caused by: (2016)
A) Bacteria C) Fungi
B) Virus D) Alga
Q.395 Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease and can also damage: (2017)
A) Hair C) Peripheral nervous system
B) Heart D) Birth canal
Q.396 ____________ is structure in female reproductive system where fertilization takes
place: (2017)
A) Ovaries C) Cervix

S
B) Uterus D) Oviduct

OR
Q.397 Which one of the following directly develops into sperms? (2017)
A) Primary spermatocytes C) Secondary spermatocytes

CT
B) Spermatids D) Spermatogonia

DO
Q.398 FSH stimulates the production of estrogen hormone which has two targets_______
and ________: (2017)
A) Uterus, posterior pituitary C) Uterus, anterior pituitary
B) Ovaries, uterus RE
D) Ovaries, hypothalamus
Q.399 Which of the following hormone suppresses ovulation? (2017-Retake)
TU
A) Progesterone C) F.S.H
B) Insulin D) Prolectin
FU

Q.400 Which of the following hormone causes ovulation? (2017-Retake)

A) L.H C) Estrogen
B) Progesterone D) F.S.H
R
FO

Q.401 All of the following are the parts of male reproductive system except: (2017-Retake)
A) Epididymis C) Cervix
B) Seminiferous tublues D) Bulbourethral gland
Y

Q.402 Meiosis occurs in human females during: (2017-Retake)

ET

A) Ovulation C) Spermatogenesis
B) Gametogenesis D) Spermiogenesis
CI

UHS PAST PAPERS

SO

(UNIT WISE)
T

SUPPORT AND MOVEMENT

CA

(UHS UNIT-6F)
Q.403 Muscle is made up of many cells which are referred to as: (2011)
MD

A) Myofilaments C) Sarcolemma
B) Myofibrils D) Muscle fiber
Q.404 The length of the myofibril from one Z-band to the next is known as: (2011)
A) Sarcomere C) Sarcoplasm
B) Sarcolemma D) Muscle fiber
Q.405 The calcium ions released during a muscle fiber contraction attach with: (2011)
A) Myosin C) Tropomyosin
B) Actin D) Troponin
Q.406 A muscle condition resulting from the accumulation of lactic acid and ionic
imbalance is called: (2011)
A) Tetany C) Cramp
B) Muscle fatigue D) Tetanus
Q.407 The pigment which stores oxygen in muscles is: (2011)
A) Haemoglobin C) Myosin
B) Myoglobin D) Actinomyosin
Q.408 Each muscle fibre is surrounded by a membrane which is called: (2012)

PAGE 26 OF 43
 A) Sarcomere C) Twitch fibre
B) Sarcolemma D) Capsule
Q.409 When calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum they bind with
________ during muscle contraction: (2012)
A) Tropomyosin C) Cytosol’s ions
B) Sarcotemma D) Troponin
Q.410 Human and mammalian skeleton can be divided into two parts, axial skeleton and: (2012)
A) Appendicular skeleton C) Endoskeleton
B) Exoskeleton D) Hydrostatic skeleton
Q.411 Last four vertebrae in humans are fused to form a structure called: (2012)
A) Sacrum C) Pubis
B) Cervical vertebrae D) Coccyx
Q.412 How many bones are involved in the formation of each half of pelvic girdle? (2012)
A) 3 bones C) 2 bones
B) 4 bones D) 1 bone

S
Q.413 The length of the myofibril from one Z-band to the next is described as: (2013)

OR
A) Sarcolemma C) Muscle fibre
B) Sarcoplasm D) Sarcomere

CT
Q.414 The calcium ions released during a muscle fibre contraction attach with: (2013)
A) Troponin C) Actin

DO
B) Myosin D) Tropomyosin
Q.415 The joint that allows the movements in several direction is called: (2013)
A) Hinge joint C) Gliding joint
B) Ball and socket joint RE
D) Fibrous joint
Q.416 Where can we find H-zone in the figure of fine structure for skeletal muscle’s
TU
myofibril? (2013)
A) In the mid of “A-band”. C) Besides the “Z-line”
FU

B) In “I-band”. D) Along the “I-band”.

Q.417 First vertebra of cervical region of vertebral column is known as: (2013)
R

A) Axis C) Thoracic
FO

B) Sacral D) Atlas
Q.418 In a human vertebral column, the number of _____ vertebrae is 7: (2014)
A) Cervical C) Lumbar
Y

B) Thoracic D) Sacrum
ET

Q.419 Which one of the following structure holds the bones together? (2014)
CI

A) Joints C) Fibrous capsules

SO

B) Cartilages D) Ligaments
Q.420 Which one of the following cartilages is the most abundant in human body? (2014)
A) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage
T

B) Chondrous cartilage D) Hyaline cartilage

CA

Q.421 The repeated protein pattern of myofibril is called: (2014)

MD

A) Sarcomere C) Sarcolemma
B) Zyomere D) Cross bridges
Q.422 When more energy is required in muscle contraction then that energy can also be
produced by _________ as a secondary source: (2014)
A) Glucose C) Fructose
B) Phosphocreatin D) Lactic acid
Q.423 The total number of cervical and thoracic vertebrae in human vertebral column is: (2015)
A) 7 C) 14
B) 19 D) 33
Q.424 A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive: (2015)
A) M-lines C) I-bands
B) Z-lines D) T-tubules
Q.425 The sarcolemma of muscle fiber folds inwards and forms a system of tubes which
runs through the sarcoplasm called: (2015)
A) Myofilament C) Z-lines
B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum D) Transverse tubules

PAGE 27 OF 43
Q.426 According to sliding filament theory, when muscle fibers are stimulated by nervous
system, which of the following changes occurs? (2015)
A) I-bands shorten C) Z-lines move further apart
B) H-zone becomes more visible D) A-bands broaden
Q.427 If lactic acid builds up in thigh muscles, it causes muscle tiredness and pain. This
condition is called: (2015)
A) Muscle fatigue C) Cramps
B) Tetany D) Oxygen debt in muscles
Q.428 Longest bone in the human skeleton is: (2016)
A) Ulna C) Tibia
B) Fibula D) Femur
Q.429 Hip and shoulder joints are examples of: (2016)
A) Hinge joints C) Synovial joints
B) Ball and socket joints D) Cartilaginous joints
Q.430 In pelvic region of human body, sacrum is formed by the fusion of: (2016)
A) 4 vertebrae C) 6 vertebrae

S
B) 5 vertebrae D) 3 vertebrae

OR
Q.431 Each muscle fibre is surrounded by a modified cell membrane called: (2016)

CT
A) Sarcolemma C) Myosin filament
B) Sarcomere D) Myofilament\

DO
Q.432 Spongy bone is always surrounded by: (2017)
A) Compact bone C) Osteoblast cells
B) Cartilage D) Osteoclast cells
Q.433 Bone matrix is hardened by the:
A) Haversian canals
RE
C) Bone marrow tissue
(2017)
TU
B) Canaliculi D) Calcium phosphate
Q.434 The number of bones forming skull in man is: (2017)
FU

A) 8 C) 29
B) 14 D) 22
R

Q.435 The spin consists of a linear series of: (2017)

FO

A) 33 bones C) 12 bones
B) 24 bones D) 07 bones
Q.436 Which one of the following change occurs when skeletal muscle contracts? (2017)
Y

A) I-band shortens only

ET

B) A-band shortens and Z line moves farther apart

C) I-band shortens and Z lines get closer
CI

D) Actin filament contracts

Q.437 Connective tissues which join muscles to bone are: (2017-Retake)
SO

A) Ligaments C) RBC
B) Tendons D) Osteocytes
T
CA

Q.438 Clavicle is the part of: (2017-Retake)

MD

A) Pectoral Girdle C) Rib cage

B) Pelvic Girdle D) Vertebrae
Q.439 Second vertebrae of Human vertebral column is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Atlas C) Phalanges
B) Axis D) Tibia
Q.440 Over lapping of thick filament occurs in: (2017-Retake)
A) A Band C) M line
B) I Band D) Z line
Q.441 Pectoral Girdle is the part of: (2017-Retake)
A) Appendicular skeleton C) Skull
B) Axial skeleton D) Ribs

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
PAGE 28 OF 43
 HORMONAL CONTROL
(UHS UNIT-6G)
Q.442 Neurosecretory cells are present in which part of brain? (2011)
A) Hypothalamus C) Pons
B) Hindbrain D) Cerebellum
Q.443 Which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone? (2011)
A) Glycogen → Glucose C) Glucose → Lipid
B) Glucose → Glycogen D) Glucose → Protein
Q.444 Addison’s disease is caused due to destruction of: (2011)
A) Adrenal cortex C) Adrenal medulla
B) Pituitary adrenal axis D) Hypothalamus
Q.445 Which group of hormones is made up of amino acids and their derivatives? (2011)
A) Vasopressin and antidiuretic hormone C) Oestrogen and testosterone
B) Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine D) Insulin and glucagon
Q.446 Ductless glands are known as: (2012)

S
A) Endocrine glands C) Salivary glands

OR
B) Exocrine glands D) Bile glands
Q.447 Gastrin is the hormone which is produced by the: (2012)

CT
A) Liver C) Pyloric region of stomach
B) Adrenal gland D) Mucosal lining of intestine

DO
Q.448 -cells of liver secrete a hormone that is called: (2012)
A) Insulin C) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Glucagon RE
D) Gastrin
Q.449 Vasopressin and Oxytocin are released from the: (2012)
TU
A) Placenta C) Anterior pituitary
B) Ovary D) Posterior pituitary
FU

Q.450 Chemically, insulin and glucagon are: (2013)

A) Carbohydrates C) Lipids
B) Proteins D) Nucleic acids
R

Q.451 Hormones secreted by anterior pituitary and which control the secretions of
FO

hormones of other endocrine glands are known as: (2013)

A) Release factor C) Accelerator
Y

B) Inhibitor D) Tropic or trophic hormone

ET

Q.452 Alpha (a) cells of islets of Langerhans secrete hormone called: (2013)
A) Glucocorticoid C) Glucagon
CI

B) Insulin D) Aldosterone
Q.453 Which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone? (2013)
SO

A) Glucose  Lipids C) Glucose  Glycogen

B) Glucose  Proteins D) Glycogen  Glucose
T
CA

Q.454 Which of the following is a steroid hormone? (2014)

MD

A) Glucagon C) Epinephrin
B) Thyroxine D) Oestrogen
Q.455 The gonadotrophic hormones of anterior lobe of pituitary include: (2014)
A) Prolactin, Thyroid stimulating hormone, Somatotrophin hormone
B) Follicle stimulating hormone, Luteinizing hormone, Prolactin
C) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone, Luteinizing hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone
D) Lutenizing hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone, Thyroid stimulating hormone
Q.456 Over activity of cortical hormone of adrenal gland causes: (2014)
A) Addison’s disease C) Cushing’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease D) Down’s syndrome
Q.457 How many iodine atoms are present in thyroxin? (2014)
A) 3 C) 2
B) 4 D) 5
Q.458 Thyroxin deficiency in adults results in a condition called: (2015)
A) Cretinism C) Thyrotoximia
B) Hypothyroidism D) myxoedema
Q.459 -cells of pancreas secrete a hormone known as: (2015)
PAGE 29 OF 43
 A) Glucagons C) Gastrin
B) Insulin D) Rennin
Q.460 Over-secretion of cortical hormone causes a disease called: (2015)
A) Cushing’s disease C) Hypoglycemia
B) Diabetes mellitus D) Addison’s disease
Q.461 Ejection of milk from mammary glands is under the control of which one of the
following hormones? (2015)
A) Androgen C) Progesterone
B) Oxytocin D) Estrogen
Q.462 __________hormone is antagonistic to insulin and causes increase in blood glucose level.
(2016)
A) Glucagon C) Calcitonin
B) Nor-epinephrine D) Thyroxine
Q.463 Beta cells of islets of Langerhans produce _________________ hormone. (2016)
A) Glucagon C) Pancreatic juice
B) Insulin D) Parathormone

S
Q.464 The central portion of adrenal gland (adrenal medulla) produces ____ hormone.

OR
(2016)

CT
A) Aldosterone C) Androgen
B) Epinephrine D) Corticosterone

DO
Q.465 ___________ hormones are called fight and flight hormones as they prepare an
organism to face stressful situation. (2016)
A) Adrenaline, aldosterone C) Cortisone, oxytocin

Q.466
B) Epinephrine, nor-epinephrine RE
D) Thyroxine, nor-epinephrine
B-cells release antibodies in blood plasma, tissue fluid and lymph. This kind of
TU
immune response is called: (2016)
A) Cell mediated response C) Active response
FU

B) Humoral response D) Compound response

Q.467 The thyroxin hormone of thyroid gland acts directly on (2017)
A) Iodine metabolism C) Glucose metabolism
R

B) Protein metabolism D) Basal metabolic rate

FO

Q.468 All the hormones released by anterior pituitary are tropic EXCEPT: (2017)
A) Thyroid stimulating hormone C) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
B) Somatotrophin hormone D) Gonadotrophic hormone
Y
ET

Q.469 Which one of the followings is exocrine as well as endocrine? (2017)

A) Liver C) Thyroid
CI

B) Adrenals D) Pancreas
Q.470 Ovulation is suppressed by progesterone via: (2017)
SO

A) Only by inhibition of LH C) Inhibition of LH and stimulation of FSH

B) Inhibition of FSH and stimulation of LH D) Inhibition of FSH and inhibition of LH
T

Q.471 Which of the following hormone is antagonistic to insulin? (2017-Retake)

CA

A) Thymosin C) Gastrin
B) Cortisol D) Secretin
MD

Q.472 Deficiency of thyroxin in children causes: (2017-Retake)

A) Cretinism C) Addison’s disease
B) Graves disease D) Cushing’s disease

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
IMMUNITY
(UHS UNIT-6H)
Q.473 Thymus gland is involved in maturation of: (2011)
A) Platelets C) Eosinophils
B) B-lymphocytes D) T-lymphocytes
Q.474 In passive immunity which of the following components are injected into the body: (2011)
A) Antigens C) Serum
B) Immunogens D) Immunoglobulins
PAGE 30 OF 43
Q.475 Mucous membranes are part of the body defense system and they offer: (2011)
A) Physical barriers C) Chemical barriers
B) Mechanical barriers D) Biological barriers
Q.476 Immediate protection is obtained from: (2011)
A) Passive immunity C) Vaccination
B) Active immunity D) Natural active immunity
Q.477 The immunity in which T cells recognize the antigens or micro-organisms is known as: (2011)
A) Tissue grafting C) Cell mediated immunity/ response
B) Phagocytosis D) Humoral immunity/ response
Q.478 Antigen is a foreign protein or any other molecule which stimulates the formation of: (2012)
A) MHC complex C) Mucus
B) Immunogens D) Antibodies
Q.479 Antibodies are produced by which of the following lymphocytes? (2012)
A) B lymphocytes C) T lymphocytes
B) A lymphocytes D) B and T lymphocytes

S
Q.480 T-lymphocytes become mature and competent under the influence of: (2012)

OR
A) Liver C) Thymus gland
B) Bursa of fabricius D) Spleen

CT
Q.481 Skin and mucous membranes are part of the body defense system and they form the: (2012)
A) Physical barriers C) Chemical barriers

DO
B) Mechanical barriers D) Biological barriers
Q.482 Snake bite is treated with which type of immunization: (2012)
A) Active C) Humeral
B) Passive RE
D) Specific
Q.483 In passive immunity which of the following components are injected into the body? (2013)
TU
A) Immunoglobulins C) Immunogens
FU

B) Antigens D) Saliva
Q.484 Which part of antibody recognizes the antigen during immune response? (2013)
A) Heavy part C) Light part
R

B) Variable part D) Constant part

FO

Q.485 Two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains in antibody molecule are
linked by: (2013)
A) Disulfide (S-S) bridges C) Glycosidic bond
Y

B) Peptide bond D) Ionic bond

ET

Q.486 In the structural diagram of an antibody molecule which portion is occupied by

variable chains? (2013)
CI

A) Lower region C) Middle region

SO

B) Upper region D) In between chains

Q.487 Antibodies are produced against invading cells by: (2013)

T

A) Lymphocytes C) Basophils
CA

B) Eosinophils D) Neutrophils
Q.488 T-lymphocytes recognize antigen and attack microorganisms or transplanted organ
MD

and tissues. This effect is called: (2014)

A) Cell mediated response C) Active immunity
B) Humoral immune response D) Passive immunity
Q.489 Which part of antibody recognizes the antigen during immune response? (2014)
A) Heavy part C) Constant part
B) Light part D) Variable part
Q.490 Which type of immunity is achieved by injecting antibodies, antiserum, and
antivenome serum? (2014)
A) Active immunity C) Artificially induced immunity
B) Passive immunity D) Naturally induced immunity
Q.491 Which one of the following glands is involved in the production of lymphocytes? (2014)
A) Pineal C) Thymus
B) Pituitary D) Adrenal
Q.492 Antibodies are proteins and made up of how many polypeptide chains? (2014)
A) One C) Three
B) Two D) Four

PAGE 31 OF 43
Q.493 In ______________response, B-cells produce plasma cells that synthesize antibodies
and release in blood plasma and tissue fluid: (2015)
A) Cell mediated C) Humoral
B) Hormonal D) Phototactic
Q.494 Passive immunity is used against: (2015)
A) Malaria C) Dengue
B) Typhoid D) Tetanus
Q.495 B-lymphocytes are named due to their relationship with: (2015)
A) Blood C) Bone marrow
B) Bursa of Fabricius D) Bile duct
Q.496 Response of body against transplanted organs is: (2015)
A) Homeostatic response C) Primary response
B) Behavioral response D) Cell mediated response
Q.497 The type of immunity in which antibodies are passed from one individual to another
is called: (2016)

S
A) Passive immunity C) Natural active immunity

OR
B) Artificial active immunity D) Humoral immunity
Q.498 To combat the active infections of tetanus, rabies and snakes the _________ method

CT
of immunization is used. (2016)
A) Active C) Active artificial

DO
B) Humoral D) Passive
Q.499 In antibody molecule, two heavy and two light chains are bonded by: (2016)
A) Disulphide bond C) Hydrogen bond
B) Monosulphide bond RE
D) Ionic bond
Q.500 Variable amino acid sequences in antibody molecule are found in_____________.
TU
(2016)
A) Both light chains only C) One heavy and one light chain
FU

B) Both heavy chains only D) Both heavy and light chains

Q.501 The antibody molecule consists of ________ polypeptide chains: (2017)
A) Eight C) Six
R

B) Four D) Two
FO

Q.502 __________ cells survive for few days and they secrete huge number of antibodies in
blood, tissue fluid or lymph: (2017)
Y

A) Memory cells C) T lymphocytes

ET

B) B lymphocytes D) Plasma cells

Q.503 The immediate protection by infection of snake bite can be obtained by: (2017)
CI

A) Active immunity C) Passive immunity

B) Natural active immunity D) Vaccination
SO

Q.504 Diagram is given below find the variable region of antibody: (2017-Retake)
T
CA
MD

A) C)
B) D)
Q.505 Vaccination is: (2017-Retake)
A) Natural active immunity C) Artificial active immunity
B) Natural passive immunity D) Artificial passive immunity
Q.506 How many polypeptide chains are present in an typical antibody structure:
(2017-Retake)
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
BIOENERGETICS

PAGE 32 OF 43
 (UHS UNIT-7)
Q.507 Oxidative phosphorylation, synthesis of ATP in presence of oxygen, occurs in: (2011)
A) All types of cells C) All primitive cells
B) All anaerobic cells D) All aerobic cells
Q.508 Glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of: (2011)
A) Glycerate C) Pyruvate
B) Lactic acid D) Succinic acid
Q.509 Before entering into Krebs cycle, the pyruvate is first decarboxylated and oxidized into: (2011)
A) Alpha ketogluteric acid C) Glyceric acid
B) Citric acid D) Acetic acid
Q.510 Some electrons from the second primary acceptor may pass back to chlorophyll
molecule by electron carrier system yielding ATP. This process is called: (2011)
A) Phosphorylation C) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
B) Photophosphorylation D) Cyclic photophosphorylation
Q.511 Z-scheme is used for: (2011)

S
A) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation C) Both cyclic and non-cyclic

OR
B) Cyclic photophosphorylation D) Oxidative phosphorylation
Q.512 The product (s) of cyclic photophosphorylation is/are: (2012)

CT
A) ATP C) NADP and ATP
B) NADP D) NADP, ATP and O2

DO
Q.513 Total NADH formed by one glucose molecule during Krebs cycle are: (2012)
A) 6 C) 8
B) 3 D) 18
RE
Q.514 The terminal electron acceptor in electron transport chain is: (2012)
TU
A) Hydrogen C) Cytochrome
B) Iron D) Oxygen
FU

Q.515 The end product of glycolysis is: (2012)

A) ADP C) Citric acid
B) Reduced FAD D) Pyruvate
R

Q.516 One molecule of FADH2 is produced in Krebs cycle during conversion of: (2012)
FO

A) Fumarate  Malate C) Melate  Oxaloacetate

B) Succinate  Fumarate D) -Ketoglutarate  Succinate
Q.517 Which part of chlorophyll molecule absorbs light? (2013)
Y
ET

A) Phytol C) Pyrrole
B) Porphyrin ring D) Thylakoid membrane
CI

Q.518 A biochemical process which occurs within a cell to breakdown complex compounds
SO

to produce energy is called: (2013)

A) Respiration C) Oxidation reduction
B) Photosynthesis D) Photophosphorylation
T
CA

Q.519 The end product of anaerobic respiration in humans and other animals is: (2013)
A) Pyruvic acid C) Lactic acid
MD

B) Ethanol D) Glucose
Q.520 Final acceptor of electrons in respiratory chain is: (2013)
A) Cytochrome-A C) Cytochrome-A3.
B) Oxygen D) Cytochrome-C
Q.521 Every molecule of NADH fed into electron transport chain produces: (2013)
A) 6 ATP C) 4 ATP
B) 2 ATP D) 3 ATP
Q.522 Oxidative phase of glycolysis starts with dehydrogenation of: (2014)
A) Glucose C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
B) Fructose 6-phosphate D) NADH
Q.523 In one turn, the Krebs cycle produces one molecule of ATP, one molecule of FADH2,
and _______ molecule/s of NADH: (2014)
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
Q.524 Which one of the following is the stage of cellular respiration for which oxygen is
not essential? (2014)
A) Glycolysis C) Kreb’s cycle
PAGE 33 OF 43
 B) Pyruvate oxidation D) Electron transport chain
Q.525 Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis, moves from cytosol to mitochondrial matrix
where it is oxidized into _______ producing CO2 as a by-product: (2014)
A) Acetic acid (active) C) NAD
B) Citrate D) FAD
Q.526 Pyruvate Acetyl CoA:
?
? (2014)
A) FAD+ → FADH C) NADH → NAH + H+
B) NAD+ → NADH D) FADH → FAD + H+
Q.527 In light independent stage of photosynthesis the CO2 combines with _________ to
form an unstable 6-carbon intermediate: (2015)
A) Ribulose bisphosphate C) Glycerate-3-phosphate
B) Hexose sugar D) Glyceraldehyde-9-phosphate
Q.528 In glycolysis, glycerate 1, 3-bispohosphate is converted into glycerate-3-phosphate

S
by losing ____________ phosphate molecules: (2015)

OR
A) 3 C) 1
B) 2 D) 4

CT
Q.529 Malate is oxidized by ________ to oxaloacetate in Krebs cycle: (2015)
A) ATP C) NAD

DO
B) NADP D) FAD
Q.530 In electron transport chain, the electrons from NADH and FADH2 are passed to: (2015)
A) Cytochrome a C) Co-enzyme c
B) Cytochrome a3 RE
D) Co-enzyme Q
Q.531 Carriers of the respiratory chain are located on: (2015)
TU
A) Matrix of mitochondria C) Inner membrane of mitochondria
FU

B) Outer membrane of mitochondria D) Cytoplasmic matrix

Q.532 Each ________ consists of a light gathering antenna complex and reaction center.
(2016)
R

A) Chlorophyll C) Photon
FO

B) Photosystem D) Electron
Q.533 Photosystem ‘I’ has chlorophyll ‘a’ molecules which absorb maximum light of:
(2016)
Y

A) 680 nm C) 700 nm
ET

B) 780 nm D) 580 nm
CI

Q.534 Cyclic flow or C4 photosynthesis produces: (2016)

A) ATP and CO2 C) Only CO2
SO

B) ATP D) Only oxygen

Q.535 Immediate product formed after CO2 fixation in Calvin cycle is: (2016)
T

A) Unstable 6-carbon compound C) Unstable 4-carbon compound

CA

B) Unstable 5-carbon compound D) Unstable 3-carbon compound

Q.536 Functional group of chlorophyll ‘a’ is: (2016)
MD

A) –CH3 C) -COOH
B) -CHO D) –OH
Q.537 Chlorophyll molecule contains: (2017)
++ +
A) Mg C) K
B) Ca++ D) Na+
Q.538 The tail of chlorophyll molecule is embedded in: (2017)
A) Membrane of mitochondria
B) Thylakoid membrane
C) Membrane of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) Membrane of rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q.539 Carotenoids absorb light of: (2017)
A) Yellow-orange range C) Orange-red range
B) Yellow-red range D) Blue-violet range
Q.540 Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b differ from each other in only one of the functional
groups; chlorophyll a has: (2017)
A) —CHO C) —CH3
B) —OH D) —NH2
PAGE 34 OF 43
Q.541 Glycerate 3-phosphate in the presence of ATP and reduced NADP from light
dependent stage is reduce to: (2017)
A) 3 carbon compound C) 5 carbon compound
B) Ribulose bisphosphate D) 6 carbon compound
Q.542 Calvin cycle occurs in: (2017)
A) Grana of chloroplast C) Chlorophyll (reaction center)
B) Stroma of Chloroplast D) Roots of plant
Q.543 Pick the characteristic of tail of cholorophyll: (2017-Retake)
A) Hydrophilic C) Present in stroma
B) Hydrophobic D) C20H20
Q.544 Splitting of water in sun light is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Lysis C) Photolysis
B) Condensation D) Hydrolysis
Q.545 Which of the following color is maximum absorbed by chlorophyll: (2017-Retake)
A) Red C) Yellow

S
B) Green D) Indigo

OR
Q.546 Graph showing effectiveness of absorbed light is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Absorption spectrum C) Light spectrum

CT
B) Action spectrum D) Dark spectrum
Q.547 CO2 acceptor in calvin cycle is: (2017-Retake)

DO
A) Rubisco C) RuP
B) RuBP D) G3P
Q.548 Glycolysis is conversion of: (2017-Retake)
A) Glucose to Acetyle CoA RE
C) Glucose to pyruvate
B) Glucose to G3P D) Glucose to Serine
TU
Q.549 Acceptor of acetyle CoA in Kreb’s cycle is: (2017-Retake)
FU

A) Oxaloacetate C) Succinate
B) Citrate D) Fumarate
R
FO
Y
ET

UHS PAST PAPERS

CI
SO

(UNIT WISE)
BIOTECHNOLOGY
T

(UHS UNIT-8)
CA

Q.550 Liposome are used in gene therapy against: (2011)

MD

A) Hypercholesterolemia C) Cystic fibrosis

B) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome D) Coronary artery angioplasty
Q.551 Genetically engineered cells are introduced into bone marrow cells in the treatment of: (2011)
A) Hypercholesterolemia C) Cystic fibrosis
B) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome D) Coronary artery angioplasty
Q.552 The common vectors used in recombinant DNA technology are: (2011)
A) Probes C) Plasmids
B) Palindromes D) Prions
Q.553 The enzyme used to isolate gene from DNA is: (2011)
A) Helicase C) Restriction enzymes
B) Reverse transcriptase D) DNA polymerase
Q.554 Which one of the following enzymes is temperature insensitive? (2011)
A) DNA polymerase-I C) DNA polymerase-III
B) Taq polymerase D) RNA polymerase
Q.555 In recombinant DNA technology __________ are tools for manipulating DNA: (2012)
A) Viruses C) Enzymes
B) Chromosomes D) Genes
PAGE 35 OF 43
Q.556 In DNA finger printing process, the use of ________ produces distinctive pattern on
autoradiography or X-ray film: (2012)
A) Restriction enzymes C) Macro satellites
B) Micro satellites D) Probes for genetic markers
Q.557 In the recombinant DNA technology plasmids are used as: (2012)
A) Genetic material C) Vectors
B) Enzymes D) Probes
Q.558 In which process multiple copies of the desired genes are produced? (2012)
A) Polymerase chain reaction C) Analyzing DNA
B) Gene sequencing D) DNA finger printing
Q.559 The enzyme adenosine deaminase is missing is persons suffering from: (2012)
A) Cystic fibrosis C) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
B) Hypercholesterolemia D) Parkinson’s disease
Q.560 The DNA molecule formed from mRNA by reverse transcriptase is called: (2013)
A) Recombinant DNA C) Plasmid DNA

S
B) Chimaeric DNA D) Complementary DNA

OR
Q.561 The agent which separates the two strands of DNA in PCR is: (2013)
A) DNA ligase C) Primer

CT
B) Heat D) Helicase
Q.562 Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carrier of: (2013)

DO
A) Na+ ion C) Cl- ions
B) Ca+2 ions D) K+ ions
Q.563 The phage commonly used as a vector in genetic engineering is: (2013)
A) Gamma phage RE
C) T4-phage
B) T2-phage D) Lambda phage
TU
Q.564 Restriction endonucleases are naturally occurring enzymes of: (2013)
FU

A) Viruses C) Plants
B) Fungi D) Bacteria
Q.565 pBR322 have antibiotic resistant genes for: (2014)
R

A) Ampicillin and aspirin C) Ampicillin and tetracyclin

FO

B) Streptomycin and metronidazole D) Penicillin and metronidazole

Q.566 Cystic fibrosis affects which one of the following cells of the body? (2014)
A) Epithelial cells C) Plasma cells
Y

B) Endothelial cells D) Blood cells

ET

Q.567 The enzymes which act as molecular scissors in recombinant DNA technology: (2014)
A) Exonucleases C) Polymerases
CI

B) Endonucleases D) Reverse transcriptase

SO

Q.568 Which one of the following is a correct sequence of PCR? (2014)

A) Heating → Cooling → Add Primer → Copying of strand
B) Heating → Add primer → Cooling → Copying of strand
T

C) Add primer → Heating → Cooling → Copying of strand

CA

D) Cooling → Add primer → Heating → Copying of strand

Q.569 When two pieces of DNA are joined together, the result is which one of the following? (2014)
MD

A) Complementary DNA C) Recombinant DNA

B) Mutated DNA D) Cloned DNA
Q.570 In cystic fibrosis, liposomes-microscopic vesicles are used which are coated with: (2015)
A) Healthy gene C) Protein
B) Chromosome D) Carbohydrate
Q.571 The DNA formed by the reverse transcription is called: (2015)
A) rDNA C) cDNA
B) dDNA D) DNA
Q.572 Bacterial cells take up recombinant plasmids when they are treated with: (2015)
A) CaCl2 C) KCl
B) NaCl D) NaOH
Q.573 Which one of the following is made up of radioactively labeled nucleotides? (2015)
A) Phage DNA C) Recombinant DNA
B) Genomic library D) Gene probe
Q.574 A technique in transgenic animals in which desired gene is inserted into the eggs of
animal is called: (2015)
A) Embryonic stem cell mediated transfer C) Retro-virus mediated gene transfer
PAGE 36 OF 43
 B) Microinjection D) virus vectors
Q.575 Restriction endonucleases cleave the ___________ of duplex DNA. (2016)
A) Nitrogenous base C) Phosphodiester bond
B) Pentose sugar D) Hydrogen bond
Q.576 The enzyme which is responsible for the formation of bond between two double
stranded DNA fragments is: (2016)
A) Endonuclease C) Ligase
B) Lipase D) Helicase
Q.577 _________ acts as an ideal expression system in recombinant DNA technology.
(2016)
A) Retrovirus C) Algae
B) Rotavirus D) Bacteria
Q.578 ___________ enzyme is very stable and active even at very high temperature.
(2016)
A) RNA polymerase C) Helicase
B) DNA polymerase II D) Taq polymerase

S
Q.579 Restriction enzyme EcoR1 cuts DNA to produce: (2017)

OR
A) Blunt ends C) Sticky ends
B) Non-palindromic ends D) Split ends

CT
Q.580 Restriction endonucleases are produced by: (2017)

DO
A) Fungi C) Bacteria
B) Algae D) Viruses
Q.581 DNA fragments of different lengths can be separated by a process of: (2017)
A) Western blotting
B) Northern blotting
RE
C) Autoradiography
D) Gel electrophoresis
TU
Q.582 _________ is the first heat stable component used in PCR: (2017)
A) Taq isomerase C) Taq polymerase
FU

B) Taq helicase D) Taq SSBP

Q.583 Patients of Cystic Fibrosis (CF) produce thick mucus due to faulty: (2017)
+
A) Trans-membrane carrier C) Na ions
R

B) CI- ions D) Mucus membrane

FO
Y

Q.584 Formation of new strand of DNA from template strand is the function of:
ET

(2017-Retake)
A) DNA polymerase C) DNA ligase
CI

B) RNA Polymerase D) Helicase

Q.585 Commonly used restriction enzyme is: (2017-Retake)
SO

A) EcoR1 C) pBR 322

B) pSC 101 D) BAH1
Q.586 Gene can be from mRNA using: (2017-Retake)
T

A) Reverse transcriptase C) DNA ligase

CA

B) DNA polymerase D) Helicase

Q.587 Collection of bacterial or bacteriophage clones is called: (2017-Retake)
MD

A) Gene pole C) Genomic library

B) Genome D) Bean bag
Q.588 Commercial method of producing thousands, even million of identical seedlings in
limited amount of space can be achieved through: (2017-Retake)
A) Micropropagation C) Cell suspension culture
B) Anther culture D) Tissue culture

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
ECOSYSTEM
(UHS UNIT-9)
Q.589 Which one of the following is depleting and causing thinning of ozone? (2011)
A) Chlorine C) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

PAGE 37 OF 43
 B) Bromine D) Carbon
Q.590 The typical environment of a particular organism, population or community is called: (2011)
A) Niche C) Habitat
B) Ecosystem D) Biosphere
Q.591 Excessive enrichment of water with nutrients by human activity by which large
amount of living organic matter grows is called: (2011)
A) Archeotrophication C) Enrichment
B) Eutrophication D) Low trophication
Q.592 In an ecosystem, mycorrhizae is an example of: (2011)
A) Symbiosis C) Commensalism
B) Predation D) Parasitism
Q.593 Successive stages of eating and being eaten by which recycling of materials and flow
of energy takes place is called: (2011)
A) Food chain C) Trophic level
B) Food web D) Food link

S
Q.594 What is the niche of an organism in an ecosystem? (2012)

OR
A) Role played by many organisms in an ecosystem
B) Role played by a dead organism in an ecosystem

CT
C) Role played by community of microorganisms in their ecosystem
D) Role played by an organism in its ecosystem

DO
Q.595 The distinct levels or links of food chain are called: (2012)
A) Trophic level C) Energy pyramid
B) Food web D) Food chain
Q.596 RE
A relationship between two or more organisms of different species in which all
partners get benefit is called: (2012)
TU
A) Symbiosis C) Commensalisms
FU

B) Parasitism D) Predation
Q.597 Bacteria and fungi are examples of: (2012)
A) Producers C) Consumers
R

B) Decomposers D) Derivers
FO

Q.598 The cause of acid rain is: (2012)

Y

A) Oxides of carbon C) Oxides of sulphur

ET

B) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur D) Oxides of nitrogen

Q.599 In an ecosystem mycorrhizae is an example of: (2013)
CI

A) Predation C) Symbiosis
SO

B) Mutualism D) Parasitism
Q.600 As a result of destruction of ozone layer, there is a significant increase in: (2013)
A) Green house gases C) Sulphur oxide
T

B) Nitrogen oxide D) Ultraviolet radiation

CA

Q.601 Higher rate of biological activity in a nutrient rich pond water is called: (2013)
A) Land pollution C) Air pollution
MD

B) Eutrophication D) Industrial effluents

Q.602 Living part of ecosystem is: (2013)
A) Community C) Hydrosphere
B) Lithosphere D) Detritus
Q.603 A close association between two living organisms of different species which is
beneficial to both partners is called: (2013)
A) Predation C) Parasitism
B) Commensalism D) Mutualism
Q.604 How many food chains are present in the following food web? (2014)
A) 5 C) 6
B) 3 D) 4
Q.605 Which one of the following is the ultimate distributional unit within which a species
is restrained by the limitations of its physical structure and physiology? (2014)
A) Niche C) Ecosystem
B) Biome D) Habitat
Q.606 All herbivores belong to which trophic level in the food chain? (2014)
A) T1 C) T3
PAGE 38 OF 43
 B) T2 D) T4
Q.607 Individual successions are known as: (2014)
A) Primary successions C) Seres
B) Secondary successions D) Xeroseres
Q.608 The relationship in which one organism gets benefit and the other is not affected is
called: (2014)
A) Mutualism C) Predation
B) Commensalism D) Parasitism
Q.609 Ozone is a layer of atmosphere extending from _____________ Km above earth and
absorbs ultraviolet radiations: (2015)
A) 10-50 C) 5-30
B) 50-60 D) 10-80
Q.610 Light rays from the sun are absorbed by CO2 and re-radiate as ________
radiations: (2015)
A) Ultraviolet C) Infra-red
B) Indigo D) Green

S
Q.611 The gases which are produced by burning of fossil fuels and are responsible for acid

OR
rain are: (2015)
A) CFCs C) HCl and oxides of nitrogen

CT
B) CO2 and CO D) SO2 and oxides of nitrogen
Q.612 During successions, the first organisms that develop on bare rock are: (2015)

DO
A) Lichens C) Moss
B) Shrubs D) Herbs
Q.613 Trophic level of a herbivore in given food-web is:
Fox
Owl Dog
RE
TU
Beetle Rat Rabbit
FU

Grass (2015)
A) 1 C) 4
R

B) 3 D) 2
FO

Q.614 The organisms of third trophic level are: (2016)

A) Primary consumers C) Tertiary consumers
B) Primary producers D) Secondary consumer
Y

Q.615 The ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem is: (2016)

ET

A) Photosynthesis C) Plants
B) Sun D) Water
CI

Q.616 All the food chains and food webs begin with: (2016)
A) Detritus C) Green plants
SO

B) Herbivores D) Omnivores
Q.617 The change from bare rock or open water is rapid, especially in the initial stages, and
T

follows a series of recognizable and hence predictable stages. This process is called.
CA

(2016)
A) Pioneers C) Succession
MD

B) Xerosere D) Secondary succession

Q.618 The decline in the thickness of ozone layer is caused by: (2016)
A) Increasing level of nitrogen oxide C) Decreasing level of CFCs
B) Decreasing level of O3 D) Increasing level of CFCs
Q.619 Chemicals used for destroying agricultural competitors are known as: (2017)
A) Antibiotics C) Disinfectants
B) Pesticides D) Chemotherapeutic agents
Q.620 How denitrification does occur in soil? (2017)
A) Bacterial reduction pf NO3- ions to N2 gas
B) Active uptake of nitrate ions by plant roots
C) Drainage of manure from fields
D) Leaching of nitrate ion
Q.621 Succession in previously existing ecosystem is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Primary succession C) Tertiary succession
B) Secondary succession D) Quaternary succession
Q.622 Pick the weed killers: (2017-Retake)
A) Insecticide C) Herbicide
PAGE 39 OF 43
 B) Fungicide D) Fertilizer
Q.623 CO is highly toxic due to: (2017-Retake)
A) Stability C) Color
B) C and O bond D) Smell

UHS PAST PAPERS

(UNIT WISE)
EVOLUTION AND GENETICS
(UHS UNIT-10)
Q.624 The sex of individuals of next generation always depends on one of the parents, who is: (2011)
A) Heterogametic C) Isogametic
B) Homogametic D) Isomorphic
Q.625 Which of the following will be hemophilic? (2011)

S
H h h
A) X X C) X Y

OR
B) XHXH D) XHY

CT
Q.626 Which of the following is an example of X-linked recessive trait in humans? (2011)
A) Hypophosphatemic rickets C) Baldness

DO
B) Colour blindness D) Beard growth
Q.627 Which trait in humans is an example of multiple alleles? (2011)
A) Eye colour C) ABO-blood group
B) Skin colour RE
D) Rh-Blood group
Q.628 When a gene pair at one locus interacts with another gene at another locus, the
TU
interaction is called: (2011)
A) Dominance C) Pleiotropy
FU

B) Multiple alleles D) Epistasis

R

Q.629 Mental retardation, short stature, broad face and squint eyes all are symptoms of: (2011)
A) Down’s syndrome C) Turner’s syndrome
FO

B) Klinefelter’s syndrome D) XYY syndrome

Q.630 Which one of the following is main cause of cancer? (2011)
Y

A) Mutations C) Regulated mitosis

ET

B) Controlled cell division D) Haploid division

Q.631 When the presence of a gene at one locus suppresses the effect of a gene at another
CI

locus phenomenon is called: (2012)

A) Hypostasis C) Epistasis
SO

B) Pleiotropy D) Dominance
Q.632 The gene for ABO-blood group system in humans is represented by symbol: (2012)
A) X C) Y
T
CA

B) I D) O
Q.633 When a single gene affects two or more traits, the phenomenon is called: (2012)
MD

A) Epistasis C) Dominance
B) Pleiotropy D) Over dominance
Q.634 The comparative embryology of all vertebrates shows development of: (2012)
A) Hairs C) Scales
B) Gill pouches D) Fins
Q.635 In men sex-determination depends upon the nature of: (2012)
A) Heterogametic male C) Heterogametic female
B) Homogametic female D) Homogametic male
Q.636 If a person has 44 autosomes + XXY, he will suffer from: (2012)
A) Klinefelter’s syndrome C) Turner’s syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome D) Edward’s syndrome
Q.637 In Down’s syndrome which one of the following pair of chromosome fails to segregate? (2012)
A) 7 C) 21
B) 18 D) 19
Q.638 The structures which are reduced during the course of evolution and have no
apparent functions are called: (2013)
A) Regenerated organs C) Vestigial organs
PAGE 40 OF 43
 B) Saltatory organs D) Useless organs
Q.639 When a gene suppresses the effect of another gene at another locus, the phenomenon
is termed as: (2013)
A) Over-mutation C) Pleiotropy
B) Epistasis D) Co-dominance
Q.640 Phenylketonuria is example of: (2013)
A) Point mutation C) Translocation
B) Polyploidy D) Inversion
Q.641 A situation in which one gene affects two or more unrelated characteristics is called: (2013)
A) Epistasis C) Pleiotropy
B) Dominance relation D) Polygenes
Q.642 The mutation which causes change in sequence of DNA is called: (2013)
A) Chromosomal mutation C) Inversion
B) Deletion D) Point mutation
Q.643 Down’s syndrome is a result of non-disjunction of _______ pair of chromosomes

S
that fails to segregate: (2013)

OR
nd th
A) 22 C) 14
B) 18th D) 21st

CT
Q.644 When a gene suppresses the effect of a gene at another locus, this is called: (2014)
A) Epistasis C) Complete dominance

DO
B) Co-dominance D) Mutation
Q.645 In male, the sex determining gene is: (2014)
A) XY C) SXY
B) SRY D) SXX RE
Q.646 A gene which affects two or more unrelated characteristics is called: (2014)
TU
A) Pleiotropic C) Dominant
FU

B) Epistatic D) Mutated
Q.647 Position of an allele within a DNA molecule is: (2014)
A) Locus C) Amplicon
R

B) Origin D) Filial
FO

Q.648 Sickle cell anemia is a type of: (2014)

A) Insertion C) Deletion
B) Transposition D) Base substitution
Y

Q.649 Non-disjunction of 21st pair of chromosome in one of the gametes leads to 47

ET

chromosomes in new individual. This condition is called: (2014)

A) Turner’s syndrome C) Down’s syndrome
CI

B) Klinefelter’s syndrome D) Jacob’s syndrome

SO

Q.650 X-linked recessive trait is: (2015)

A) Hypophosphatemia C) Haemophilia
B) Vitamin-D resistant rickets D) Diabetes mellitus
T

Q.651 Human skin color is a good example of: (2015)

CA

A) Sex linked inheritance C) x-linked inheritance

B) Polygenic inheritance D) y-linked inheritance
MD

Q.652 From evolutionary point of view, which respiratory protein is common in many
organisms? (2015)
A) Cytochrome a C) Cytochrome c
B) Cytochrome b D) Cytochrome d
Q.653 Number of pairs of autosomes in humans is: (2015)
A) 23 C) 21
B) 24 D) 22
Q.654 ABO blood system is an example of: (2015)
A) Polygenes C) Multiple alleles
B) Multiple genes D) Multiple mutation
Q.655 During maternal meiosis, non-disjunction of autosomal chromosomal pair results in
the formation of an egg having 24 chromosomes in: (2015)
A) Klinefelter’s syndrome C) Turner’ syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome D) Jacob’s syndrome
Q.656 Typical symptoms like enlarged breasts and small testes in males are attributed to: (2015)
A) Down’s syndrome C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
B) Turner’ syndrome D) Phenylketonuria
PAGE 41 OF 43
Q.657 Turner’s syndrome is characterized by having: (2015)
A) Trisomy 21 C) Trisomy 18
B) 44+XXY D) 44+XO
Q.658 The disease in which an individual has extra sex chromosome (44+XXY) is known
as: (2015)
A) Down’s syndrome C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
B) Turner’s syndrome D) Jacob’s syndrome
Q.659 Which one of the following is considered as strong evidence of evolution? (2016)
A) Embryology record C) Biochemical record
B) Molecular record D) Fossil record
Q.660 Structures found in different species which are believed to have a common
evolutionary origin are: (2016)
A) Homologus C) Vestigeal
B) Analogous D) Fossilized
Q.661 Which one of the following is X-linked trait? (2016)
A) Male pattern baldness C) Haemophilia

S
B) Diabetes mellitus D) Erythroblastosis foetalis

OR
Q.662 A character determined by three alleles is: (2016)
A) Human skin color C) Human eye color

CT
B) Human blood group D) Human Rh factor

DO
Q.663 The total number of genes in a population is called: (2016)
A) Gene pool C) Genome
B) Allele pool D) Genomic library

________ syndrome:
RE
Q.664 Infertility, short height, webbed neck and low hairline at back are symptoms of
(2016)
TU
A) Down’s C) Edward’s
B) Turner’s D) Patau’s
FU

Q.665 Down’s syndrome is characterized by _____________ at chromosome 21: (2016)

A) Monosomy C) Polysomy
B) Trisomy D) Disomy
R

Q.666 Which one of the following is an example of autosomal non-disjunction? (2016)

FO

A) Turner’s syndrome C) Down’s syndrome

B) Jacob’s syndrome D) Metafemales
Q.667 Process by which unrelated species evolve to functionally resemble each other is
Y
ET

called: (2017)
A) Convergent evolution C) Co-evolution
CI

B) Divergent evolution D) Parallel evolution

Q.668 Which one of the followings shows evidence of evolution from Molecular Biology?
SO

(2017)
A) Development of bronchial arches in vertebrate embryo
B) Distribution of species
T

C) Comparison of genes and proteins in different species

CA

D) Study of vestigial organs

Q.669 Large population size, random mating, no mutation and no emigration or
MD

immigration are postulates of: (2017)

A) Hardy-Weinberg equation
B) Mendel’s law of independent assortment
C) Mendel’s law of segregation
D) Theory presented by Schleiden and Schwann
Q.670 Pure breeding lines of Pea were taken regarding seed shape – Round and Wrinkled
and were crossed with no intermediate between parents. All offsprings were found
to be round. These results show: (2017)
A) Co-dominance
B) Dominant – recessive relationship of alleles
C) Incomplete dominance
D) Over dominance relationship
Q.671 Base substitution, deletion and insertion are examples of: (2017)
A) Chromosomal aberrations C) Aneuploidy
B) Point mutation D) Euploidy

PAGE 42 OF 43
Q.672 The condition in which heterozygote has a phenotype intermediate between
contrasting homozygous parents is called: (2017)
A) Dominance C) Over dominance
B) Co-dominance D) Incomplete dominance
Q.673 The interaction between different genes occupying different loci is: (2017)
A) Dominance C) Pleiotropy
B) Co-dominance D) Epistasis
Q.674 Locus stands for: (2017)
A) Position of gene on homologous chromosomes
B) Regions of chromosomes
C) Position of an allele within a DNA molecule
D) Close regions of same chromosomes
Q.675 Self-fertilization of F1 dihybrids, following independent assortment of alleles will
result in: (2017)
A) 3/16 Tall, round : 3/16 Dwarf, wrinkled

S
B) 9/16 Tall, wrinkled : 1/16 Dwarf, round

OR
C) 9/16 Tall, round : 1/16 Dwarf, round
D) 3/16 Tall, wrinkled: 3/16 Dwarf, round

CT
Q.676 As a result of cross-fertilization of true breeding pea plant having purple colored
flowers with that of white colored flowers, the offsprings will have flower with:

DO
(2017)
A) ¼ purple and ¾ white C) All white
B) ¼ white and ¾ purple D) All purple
RE
Q.677 The gene for red-green color blindness is present on: (2017)
A) Y–chromosome C) Autosome No. 7
TU
B) X–chromosome D) Autosome No.9
Q.678 “If one were to unzip the molecule, one would need only to assemble the appropriate
FU

complementary nucleotides on the exposed single strand to form two daughter

complexes with the same sequence” is the definition of: (2017-Retake)
R

A) Semi-conservative model C) Dispersive model

FO

B) Conservative model D) Destruction model

Q.679 Formation of RNA from DNA is called: (2017-Retake)
A) Translation C) Replication
Y

B) Transcription D) Reverse transcription

ET

Q.680 XO-XX is the sex determing pattern present in: (2017-Retake)

A) Grasshopper C) Butterfly
CI

B) Drosophila D) Man
SO

Q.681 Different alleles of a gene that are both expressed in a heterozygous condition are
called: (2017-Retake)
A) Complete dominance C) Co-dominance
T

B) Incomplete dominance D) Over dominance

CA

Q.682 Effect cause by a gene or gene pair at a locus interferes with or hides the effect
caused by another gene or gene pair ay another locus, such a phenomenon of gene
MD

interaction is called: (2017-Retake)

A) Epistasis C) Dominance
B) Pleiotropy D) Co-dominance
Q.683 Acquired characteristics are inherited, that is the concept given by: (2017-Retake)
A) Lamarck C) Cuvier
B) Malthus D) Lyell
Q.684 Functionally different and structurally alike organs are called: (2017-Retake)
A) Vestigial organs C) Extinct organs
B) Analogous organs D) Homologous organs
Q.685 Change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is called:
(2017-Retake)
A) Mutation C) Non-random mating
B) Migration D) Genetic drift
Q.686 Which of the following factor causes change in gene frequency: (2017-Retake)
A) Meiosis C) Mutation
B) Sexual recombination D) Random mating

PAGE 43 OF 43