Cybercrime and environmental Law

Medium questions

Hard questions

51. These places are the location of PNP Offices that has the capability of performing computer, mobile ,
audio and video forensic examination and may react within their geographical areas of responsibility to
investigate the occurrence of cybercrime operations, except:
A. Zamboanga city C. Cebu city
B. Antipolo city B. General Santos city

52. The division of PNP-ACG whose one of the functions is to attend court trials.
A. Administrative and resource management division
B. Cyber security unit
C. Investigation management division
D. ATCCD-CIDG

53. Which of the following is the function of Investigation Management Division?

A. Attend court trials
B. Conduct digital forensic research on confiscated evidence
C. To send the the Director, PNP ACG , periodic reports
D. All of the above

54. The unit of PNP-ACG whose has the function to manage the website of the PNP ACG and other
associated public web services.
A. Administrative and resource management division
B. Investigation management division
C. Cyber security unit
D. ATCCD-CIDG

55. What division of PNP-ACG whose one of the functions is to create and maintain the PNP ACG
database, including data from evidence?
A. Administrative and resource management division
B. Cyber security unit
C. ATCCD-CIDG
D. Investigation management division

56. The first responder of Cybercrime investigation should be an expert in IT because retrieving data is
the first thing that they have to do as to responding to the crime. Is the statement is true or false?
A. True
B. False
C. False, because first responder officer and investigators are different person
D. True, because if you are a first to respond in a cybercrime investigation you should be an IT expert

57. Abu Jamal commited a crime by hacking which made the public fear for their own safety and made
the public in state of panic. What crime did Abu Jamal did?
A. Logic bomb C. Cyber hacking
B. Cyber stalking D. Cyber terrorism

58. Which of the following is the inter-agency body under the adminstrative supervision of the Office of
the President , for policy coordination among concerned agencies and for formulation and enforcement
of the national cyber security plan?
A. DOJ C. Cybercrime investigation and coordinating center
B. SOCO D. Cyber investigation and cooperation center

59. Refers to any depiction of facts, data, or ideas in a format that can be processed by a computer
system, including programs that can be used to make computers work. This includes electronic
documents and/or electronic data messages that can be saved locally or online.
A. Computer network C. Computer data
B. Computer system D. Cybercrime

60. Within how many hours should the service provider must provide the computer data which is
ordered by LEA.
A. 72 hours C. 24 hours
B. 48 hours D. 12 hours

61. Regardless of whether the data is immediately accessible and understandable, the unauthorized
entry, alteration, or deletion of any computer data results in inauthentic data that is intended to be
regarded or used in legal proceedings as authentic.
A. Computer-related forgery C. Computer-related identity theft
B. Computer-related fraud D. Cyber-squatting

62. The court cyber warrant shall be issued or granted upon written application, after the examination
under oath or affirmation of the applicant and the witnesses he may produce, and the showing the
following, except:
A. There are reasonable grounds ti believe that any of the crimes have been committed, are being
committed or are about to be committed.
B. There are reasonable grounds to believe that the evidence that will be obtained is essential to the
conviction of any person for, or to the solution of, or to the prevention of any such crimes.
C. There are no other means readily available for obtaining such evidence
D. A warrant of arrest has already been issued for the person subject of the cyber warrant.
63. Refers to an electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other data processing or
communications device, or grouping of such devices, capable of performing logical, arithmetic, routing,
or storage functions and which includes any storage facility or equipment or communications facility or
equipment directly related to or operating in conjunction with such device. It covers any type of
computer device including devices with data processing capabilities like mobile phones, smart phones,
computer networks and other devices connected to the internet.
A. Alteration
B. Communication
C. Computer
D. Cyber

64. Refers to a set of instructions executed by the computer to achieve intended results.
A. Computer program B. Critical infrastructure C. Service provider D. Information

65. Refers to the computer systems, and/or networks, whether physical or virtual, and/or the computer
programs, computer data and/or traffic data so vital to this country that the incapacity or destruction of
or interference with such system and assets would have a debilitating impact on security, national, or
economic security, national public health and safety, or any combination of those matters.

A. Computer program B. Critical infrastructure C. Service provider D. Information

66. In determining whether an act is punishable under the Cybercrime Prevention Act, you know as a
criminologist that such act should be under any of the three major categories of cybercrime offenses.
Which among the following is included in the said major categories?
1. System interference
2. Offenses against confidentiality, integrity, and availability of computer data and systems
3. Data interference
4. Computer-related offense
5. Content-related offense
6. Illegal interception.

A. 1,2,3,
B. 4,5,6
C. 2,4,5
D. 2,4,6

67. Edgar is hired by ALCE Information Solutions as one of its IT personnel. He is tasked to fix ALCE's
computer system to reverse the effects or recover pertinent computer data that have been affected by
hacking. He utilized Beerus, the same computer application that was used by the hackers, but this time,
to fix ALCE's computer system. Edgar shall be considered:
A. Unethical hacker
B. Ethical hacker
C. Illegal hacker
D. Legal hacker

68. They are professionals who employ tools and techniques used by criminal hackers but would neither
damage the target systems nor steal information. They do their job with prior permission from the
client.
A. Unethical hacker
B. Ethical hacker
C. Illegal hacker
D. Legal hacker

69. Edgar Dumali through PayPal paid Php20,000 to acquire a website domain. He registered the same
domain under the name "mcdo.ph" which will be used as food delivery application. McDonald's Foods
Corporation wants to press criminal charges against Edgar Dumali under Republic Act 10175. As
criminologist, you know that Edgar Dumali may have committed what offense under the said law?
A. Illegal access and Identity theft
B. Cyber-squatting
C. Illegal interception
D. Computer-related Forgery

70. The Tingloy Corporation's human resource supervisor made the announcement that a performance
review will be conducted for the goal of promoting certain employees. Following such a performance
review, Balmond was informed that he would not be receiving a promotion. Balmond slipped into the
store manager's office while he was not there and entered his name into the list of workers who were
eligible for promotions. The human resources supervisor was told to modify the prior list after receiving
this list via the store manager's email account. Balmond was introduced as the new assistant sales
supervisor at the awards ceremony. He could be accountable for:
A. Illegal access C. Illegal interception
B. Cyber-squatting D. Computer-related forgery
71. Kardo Ling registered in Factbuk, a social networking site. Because Factbuk, requires a display
picture, Kardo used the naughty pictures of his friend, Bung Guw. Kardo, using the said Facebol account,
added Leni Lenlen. Knowing that the person behind such account was Bung, Leni Lenlen confirmed the
friend request. They interacted with each other, sending chats through messenger. If Kardo will be
caught, he may be held liable for:
A. Computer-related forgery
B. Computer-related offense.
C. Computer-related identity theft
D. Computer-related interception

72. Pinggoy was an IT major in his third year. Pinggoy's part-time job prevented him from attending the
majority of his online synchronous classes when the epidemic struck. His professor awarded him a failing
grade of five at the conclusion of the semester. final score. Pinggoy, frustrated and infuriated by his
professor's lack of consideration for his circumstances, studied and created a malicious application,
dubbed "Titowh." He uploaded it to the school's portal and used it to change his grade from 5 to 1
without anyone else—not even the IT department—realizing the change. Pinggoy could be accountable
in this case for:
A. Data interference
B. Misuse of device
C. System interference
D. Illegal interception

73. Otnis studied IT for four years. Because of his part-time job, Otnis was unable to attend the majority
of his online synchronous classes when the epidemic struck. His professor awarded him a final mark of 5
and failed him at the conclusion of the semester. Feeling let down and enraged by his professor's lack of
consideration for his circumstances, Otnis set about creating a malicious application, which he named
"Titowh." He uploaded it onto the school's portal and deleted all of its contents without anyone else—
not even the IT department—realizing the change. In this case, Otnis might be accountable for:
A. Data interference
B. Misuse of device
C. System interference
D. Illegal interception

74. Mia and Johnny had been chat acquaintances for a long time. They decided to use Viber to video call
each other one evening. As their talk went on, Johnny opened up about his previous sex encounters,
which excited Mia. Mia had a suggestion that maybe they might try exposing each other's privates
through some odd activities. Johnny gave in and instructed Mia to moan for him in order for them to
experience an orgasm. Mia's father discovered them in the act of lewd behavior at their climax. Should
Mia's father bring legal action against Johnny, will cybersex be considered a crime?
a. Yes, because RA 10175 expressly punishes this act as an offense.
b. Yes, it is immoral for 2 male persons to engage in lascivious acts with each other.
c. No. RA 10175 does not include private obscene shows between two private persons.
d. No, RPC only punishes prostitution committed by a woman.

75. Jamal hires kids to perform live sex shows on Zoom through his cybersex lair. By making an initial
payment using Gcash, Jamal's patrons were able to see the live sex shows. The client would then receive
a zoom link to view the sexy live scenes. After receiving complaints of these instances, police officers
raided Jamal's cybersex den. As a criminologist, are you in favor of the prosecution's decision to file two
criminal complaints for the same offense—one for cybersex, namely RA 10175, and another for
cyberchild pornography, specifically RA 9775—for the same offense?
A. Yes, because of the nature of the acts committed by Jamal.
B. Yes, because both laws may be used in convicting Jamal for said act.
C. No, because the prosecution cannot prove the guilt of Jamal.
D. No, because that would violate the constitutional prohibition against double
jeopardy.

76. The 'EIA' is the abbreviated form of-

A. Environmental Impact Assessment
B. Environmental Implementation Arrangement
C. Environmental Impact Apparatus
D. Environmental Institute for Awareness

77. Which of the following statement is correct about the National Park?
A. Multipurpose protected areas to preserve genetic diversity in representative ecosystem.
B. A reserves area meant for preserving its natural vegetation, wildlife and natural beauty.
C. A reserved area meant for preservation and development of endangered species.
D. All of the above

78. Which of the following statement is correct about the Sanctuary?

A. Multipurpose protected areas to preserve genetic diversity in representative ecosystem.
B. A reserves area meant for preserving its natural vegetation, wildlife and natural beauty.
C. A designated area set aside for the development and protection of endangered species.
D. All of the above

79. The forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 intends to:

I. recognize marginal and tribal communities's rights over forest lands over which they were traditiona
dependent.
II. Empower local self-governance
III. Towards Issue of poverty alleviation and pro-poor growth is paid heed to
IV. Towards Conservation and management of natural resources of India are highlighted and addressed
the FRA

A. Only I
B. Only I and II
C. All of the Above
D. None of the Above

80. Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
1. National Parks
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries
3. Biosphere Reserves

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

81. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to control the production
and use of :
1. Dichloromethane
2. CFCs
3. HFCs

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

82. What causes thermal pollution primarily?

A. Increase in the temperature of the ecosystem
B. Increase in the chemical contains in water
C. Hot water released by power plants and industries
D. Pollution causing by vehicles

83. Which of the following is false?

A. Global warming is the rise in the average temperature of the earth's climate system
B. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
C. Ozone is harmless to breathe
D. Organic food is dangerous to health

84. Which of the following is the primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol?
A. Regulation of hazardous wastes
B. Regulate the production of nuclear energy
C. Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases
D. All of the above
85. According to the EIA Notification, 2006, It is the correct sequence of stages in obtaining
environmental clearance by new projects.
A. Screening-Appraisal-Scoping-Public Consultation.
B. Screening-Scoping-Public Consultation-Appraisal.
C. Public Consultation-Screening-Scoping-Appraisal.
D. Appraisal-Public Consultation-Screening-Scoping.

86. Under the Precautionary principle, the government and statutory authorities must anticipate,
prevent and attack the cause of environmental degradation. Is the statement true or false?
A. True
B. False, because it is under the Preliminary Principle
C. Yes, it was said according to the principle
D. No, it was a wrong statement

87. The protection and improvement of the environment including forests and wildlife of the country is-
A. Directive Principle of State Policy
B. Fundamental National Policy
C. Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
D. Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen

88. What is an eco mark means?

A. A scheme for labelling pollution free industrial unit.
B. A scheme for labelling environment friendly consumer product
C. A cost-effective production technique
D. An international certification recognizing eco-friendly buildings.
89. Based on the principle of Inter-Generational Equity, which of the following statements is true?
I. Anticipate, prevent & attack causes of environmental degradation
II.Conserving the diversity and resources
III.Right to inherit from the cultural & natural inheritance of past generations
IV.Compensate the victims of pollution & the costs of environmental degradation"

A. Only I & II
B. Only III & IV
C. Only II & III
D. Only I & IV

90. Which following best describes vicarious liability in environmental law?

I. The occupier or any person in charge of the functioning of the business of the industry cannot be held
liable for any damages caused by wrongful actions of the industry which cause environmental damage.
II. The Head of Departments can be held liable for the polluting actions of the government
department/s.
III. The Directors and Managers can be held liable for the polluting actions of the industry.
IV. State is the trustee of all-natural resources and the public is the beneficiary for the same.

A. I, II, III & IV

B. II,III
C. I, II
D. III, IV

91. Which of the following is not the main objective of Air Act?
I. To provide for ensuring standard of pollution from automobiles
II. To put restrictions on establishment of certain industries
III. To provide for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution
IV. To establish air laboratory to determining air quality standard

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. III only

92. Which of the following governs the development activities along the seacoast and tidal-influenced
water bodies?
I. The coastal regulation zone
II. Island protection zone

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither of the two

93. Ensuring sustainable use of resources within designated protected areas, preserving genetic variety,
maintaining key ecological processes and life-support systems, and preserving natural conditions are the
goals of their classification and administration.
A. Buffer zones C. Protected Area
B. NIPAS D. Natural Resources

94. National Park is defined as:

A. Refers to a relatively small area focused on the protection of small features to protect or preserve
nationally significant natural features on account of their special interest or unique characteristics.
B. Refers to the lands of the public domain classified as such in the Constitution which include all
areas under the NIPAS under this Act, primarily designated for the conservation of native plants and
animals, their associated habitats, and cultural diversity.
C. Neither of the two
D. Both defined National Park

95. What is the main purpose of NIPAS Act of 1992 as amended by RA 11038?
A. To provide guidelines on how to utilize our natural resources
B. To enable future generations to protect the environment
C. To require government agencies to consider the environmental effects of private and public projects.
D. To secure the existence of all native beings by establishment of integrated protected areas.

96. All of the following are the functions of the PAMB, except:
A. Approve policies, plans and programs, proposals, agreements, and other related documents for the
management of the protected areas.
B. Set standards, procedures, and protocols for the establishment and management of protected
areas and the System, such as, but not limited to conduct of study, zoning, review of plans and project
proposals, specifications and types of buildings and other structures, and installation of uniform
markers and symbols.
C. Allocate financial resources for the implementation of the management plan and manage the
Protected Area Retention Income Account and other funds in accordance with the accounting and
budgeting rules and regulations.
D. None of these

97. If an establishment was constructed within 200 meters from dumpsites and sanitary landfill, it has
the fine and penalty of:
A. Php300 to 1,000 and/or imprisonment of not less than 1day to not more than 15days
B. Php1,000 to 3,000 and/or imprisonment of not less than 15days to not more than 6months
C. Php100,000 to 1,000,000 and/or imprisonment of not less than 1year but not more than 6years
D. None of the above

98. Unauthorized removal of recyclable material intended for collection by authorized persons has the
fine and penalty of -
A. Php300 to 1,000 and/or Imprisonment of not less than 1 day to not more than 15 days
B. Php1,000 to 3,000 and/or Imprisonment of not less than 15 days to not more than 6 months C.
Php100, 000 to 1,000,000 and/or Imprisonment of not less than 1 year but not more than 6 years.
D. Php10, 000 to 200,000.00 and/or Imprisonment of not less than 30 days but not more than 3 years.

99. A permit issued to land owners themselves by the Secretary of DENR to cut, gather, collect, or
remove narra and other premium hardwood species found in their private land.
A. Timber License Agreement (TLA) and other existing license permits
B. Private Land Timber Permits (PLTP)
C. Special Private Land Timber Permit (SPLTP)
D. Timber Production Sharing Agreement (TPSA)
100. Dexter has a private land, one day he wants to settle and build a house for his family but the land
was occupied by a huge Narra tree. What permit does Dexter need for him to cut down the tree?
A. Timber License Agreement (TLA) and other existing license permits
B. Private Land Timber Permits (PLTP)
C. Special Private Land Timber Permit (SPLTP)
D. Timber Production Sharing Agreement (TPSA)