Law Enforcement Operations and Planning With Crime Mapping

LAW ENFORCEMENT OPERATIONS AND PLANNING WITH CRIME MAPPING
1. It cover the mission-critical aspects of a police organization: policies, institutional

arrangements, processes and resources for the performance of the policeman’s main
functions.
A. Law Enforcement
B. Operational Units
C. Philippine National Police
D. Police Operations
2. They shall respect the human rights and dignity of the suspect/s during police operations.
A. Law Enforcement
3. Subject to the oversight of the National Police Commission, an agency attached to the
Department of Interior and Local Government.
A. Law Enforcement
4. The backbone of the police department
A. Discretion C. Patrol Officer
B. Patrol D. Police Discretion
5. Simply refers to the wise use of one’s judgment, personal experience and common sense
to decide a particular situation by a police officer.
6. Most visible form of police activity
7. It serves as the “ears and eyes” of the Police Organization
8. Accountable for preventing or reducing crime commission.

9. Wise use of one’s judgement.
10. Policemen are considered as servants of the community, who depend on their
effectiveness in performing their functions.
A. Old Concept C. Continental Theory
B. Modern Concept D. Home-Rule Theory
11. Policemen are considered as servants of higher authorities.
12. The public look at policemen as more effective if they conduct numerous arrests and
place behind bars what they have arrested.
13. The public look at policemen as more effective in the absence of crime.
14. It is the fundamental obligation of the Police and it is the most important function
performed by the patrol service.
A. Crime Investigation
B. Crime Prevention and Suppression
C. Law Enforcement
D. Preservation of Peace and Order
15. It is the Primary goal of the Patrol officer since they are the one who has direct contact
with the society.
C. Law Enforcement
16. Patrol force has the utmost responsibility because of the nature of their duties and
responsibilities. The law must be enforced neutrally and with full recognition of the intent and
purposes.
C. Law Enforcement
17. They play only a minor role in investigation nevertheless it is still one of its objectives
for the reason that they are the first responder.
C. Law Enforcement
18. tending to reduce criminal opportunity and accidents.
A. Called-for service C. Routine Patrol
B. Inspectional Service D. None of these
19. incidents requiring immediate police action.
20. directed at less tangible hazards, such as poor lighted areas, business section etc.
21. They should familiarize how crimes are committed, when and who committed them.
A. Chronological Distribution C. Crime Map
B. Crime Clock D. Patrol Deployment
22. It may have an effect on Patrol operation since some patrol officers have different
variation of moving on to specific factors.
23. It signifies what time crime is often or frequently committed.
24. Location or place or crime prone areas wherein crime is frequently or often committed.
25. it refers to any person, place, thing, situation, or condition which, if allowed to exist may
induce an accident
A. Hazard
B. Police Hazard
C. Regular Post
D. Shift/ Post Rotation
26. it is the process of assigning members of Patrol force from post to post.
A. Hazard
B. Police Hazard
C. Regular Post
27. assigning members to its regular or usual post usually based on seniority.
A. Hazard
B. Police Hazard
C. Regular Post
28. Anything that possesses a high potential for criminal attack that may induce incidents
calling for some kind of police action.
A. Hazard
B. Police Hazard
C. Regular Post
29. It starts at one corner of the patrol area and work your way diagonally across it to the
opposite corner.
A. Clockwise Patrol Pattern
B. Cloverleaf Pattern
C. Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol Pattern
D. Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern
30. The officer walk from one beat to another making sure that he stays on the left side and
at the center or middle portion of any street between adjoining beats.
31. It involves patrolling the length of the street, therefore, movement of the officer is easy
to observe.
32. A highway intersection designed to route traffic without interference, by means of a
system of curving ramps from one level to another.
33. In this method, the officers dressed in civilian clothes and try to blend into an area and
patrol it on foot or unmarked police cars in an attempt to catch a criminal in the act of
committing a crime.
A. Aggressive Patrol C. Target-Oriented Patrol
B. Blending Patrol D. Split Force Patrol
34. It combines the elements of high visibility and low visibility patrol, and directed deterrent
patrol to identify persons, places or events which attract to create crime problems.
35. A strategy that can result in arrests for both minor and serious offenses
36. It involves assigning one part of the patrol force the responsibility of conducting
preventive patrol and assigning another part of the patrol force the task of responding to
calls for service.
37. It refers to a process of conveying information/ message from one point to another by
means of electromagnetic waves (radio waves) propagated in the space
A. satellite communication
B. signal communication
C. radio communication
D. radar communication
38. An apparatus or system that converts a coded messages into electric impulses and
sends it to a distant receiver or simply the long distance transmission of written messages
without physical transport of letters is referred to as;
A. Telephone C. Radio Message
B. Telegraphy D. Fax Machine
39. consist of the use of spoken words or verbalization to send messages to others.
A. Non-verbal Communication C. Police Communication
B. Verbal Communication D. Police Radio Communication
40. What patrol shift is considered as the busiest of which most calls for service were being
received?
A. 7AM-3PM
B. 3PM-11PM
C. 11PM-7AM
D. None of the above
II. IDENTIFICATION. Identify what is being defined and write your answer on the space
provided before the number.
_______________1. The Manning Level of Patrol Force as stated in Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 as
to police-to-population ratio.
_______________2. Percentage of police personnel allotment
_______________3. It involved determining man hours needed to cover the streets and
alleys to inspect the police hazards prevails within the AOR.
_______________4. Most economical type of Patrol
_______________5. A dog is capable of recognizing an odor how many times better than a
human can?
_______________6. It involves recognition of crime risk and initiation of positive action to
remove or reduce risk, its main objective is to eliminate or reduce the desire to commit
crime.
_______________7. It is the actual prevention of the commission of crime.
_______________8. Deployment of Patrol personnel in their respective Area of
Responsibility with definite objectives.
_______________9. An old concept in patrolling wherein officers and units drive around
their area of responsibility waiting for something to happen or waiting for a call that they will
respond.
_______________10. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the desire of
human being to commit crime.
_______________11. Its objective is to increase the “aura of police omnipresence” in the
community which can reduce certain types of crimes.
_______________12. The objectives are the increase number of arrest engaged in street
crime.
_______________13. is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle,
based on reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining the
individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
_______________14. a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of an individual for
weapons only.
_______________15. It is an immediate response to block the escape of lawless elements
from a crime scene and is also established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or during
hot pursuit operations.
_______________16. Actual stopping or accosting of armed and dangerous person or
persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal
means to accomplish such end.
_______________17. Strategic predetermined area strongly sealed off, barricaded and
occupied by tactical forces in a lawful display of authority to maintain law and order or in
defensive response to an event of criminal nature or of such gravity that occurred or likely to
occur calling for a high risk stop or arrest.
_______________18. Police operation purposely to seal-off the probable exit points of
fleeing suspects from the crime scene to prevent their escape.
_______________19. Means the highest degree of restraint that the police, military and
other peace keeping authorities shall observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of
the same.
_______________20. It is an attempt to integrate the police and the community interest into
a working relationship so as to produce the desired objective of peace keeping in the
community.
III. ENUMERATION
A. Organization Principles (5)
B. Territorial Units in Patrol (6)
C. Preparations For Patrol Operations (5)
D. Methods of Patrol (7)
E. Breeds of Police Dog (5)
F. Composition of Police Checkpoint (7)
FUNDAMENTALS OF INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT
_____1. What barrier is established to protect the surroundings of an installation?

A. Animal Barrier C. Human Barrier
B. Energy Barrier D. Structural Barrier
_____2. The first line defense of an industrial complex viewing it from the outside
is__________.
A. Perimeter barriers C. Doors, lock and windows barrier
B. The building wall D. First line barrier
_____3. This is an act of conditions affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by
human action, accidental or intentional is
A. Human Hazard C. Security Hazard
B. Natural Hazard D. Hazard
_____4. Protective lighting, perimeter barrier and ________ system are known in industrial
security as physical security.
A. reporting C. relieving
B. accounting D. guarding
_____5. What is the system of natural and man-made barriers placed between the potential
intruder and the object/person/matter being protected?
A. Communication Security C. Document Security
B. Physical Security D. Personnel Security
_____6. Under physical security, what should be placed between the prospective intruder
and target installation?
A. Hazard C. Perimeter Barrier
B. Risk D. Barrier
_____7. These are barbed wires placed above the vertical fence in order to increase
physical protection of establishment or installation.
A. Top Tower C. Top Guard
B. Cellar Guard D. Tower Guard House
_____8. Its function is to alert the security personnel for any attempt for intrusion into a
protected area, building or compound.
A. Alarm C. Emergency Alarm
B. Protective Security D. Standby alarm
_____9. A line protection surrounding and removed from protected areas.

A. Clear Zone C. Outside Perimeter
B. Inside Perimeter D. Restricted Areas
_____10. Refers to a line protection adjacent to a protected area and passing thru points of
possible entry.
_____11. It serves as a trigger apparatus for protective alarm

A. Circuit C. Signaling Device
B. Sensor D. Alarm Device
_____12. A type of detection system wherein the security has been breached, the siren is
sounded in remote station located in the vicinity of the installation.
A. Central Station System C. Proprietary Alarm System
B. Local Alarm System D. Local Alarm by Chance System
_____13. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound.
A. Local Alarm System C. Proprietary System
B. Central Alarm System D. Auxiliary System
_____14. Who developed the “theft proof lock” which is a combination lock that worked on a
timer?
A. Linus Yale Jr. C. August Pope
B. Walter Bruch D. James Sargent
_____15. An alarm that can detect any sound caused by attempted force entry. A
supersonic microphone speaker sensor is installed in walls, ceilings, and floors of the
protected area.
A. Vibration Detection Device C. Audio Detection Device
B. Metallic Foil or Wire D. Microwave Detection Device
_____16. It is designed to reserve to use or to supplement continuous lighting system most

useful to selectively light a particular area in an occasional basis.
A. Portable Lighting C. Stationary Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Standby Lighting
_____17. An unfortunate event caused unintentionally by a human agent that results from
carelessness or failure to have or enhance security rules.
A. Accident C. Human Error
B. Threats D. Hazard
_____18. Barriers refers to any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of
restricting, deterring, delaying or?
A. controlling unauthorized access to an installation
B. preventing illegal and unauthorized access to an installation
C. checking the entry of customers in an installation
D. giving warning to unauthorized entry
_____19. The employment of mechanical, electrical, electronic energy that impresses

deterrence to entry by potential intruder or to provide warning to guard personnel.
A. Electronic Barrier C. Energy Barrier
B. Mechanical Barrier D. Electrical Barrier
_____20. An act or condition which may result in compromise of information, loss of life or
destruction of property or destruction of the objective of the installation is called what?
A. Security hazards C. Accident
B. Danger D. Hazard
_____21. One of the most widely used physical security devices in the asset protection
program of an installation.
A. Lock C. Keying System
B. Key D. None of these
_____22. It is defined as a mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to

prevent entry into a building, room, container or hiding place and to prevent the removal of
items without the consent of the owner.
_____23 Instrument for locking and unlocking: a metal bar with notches or grooves that,
when inserted into a lock and turned, operates the lock’s mechanism
_____24. An English term used to describe a lock picker.

A. Notch C. Padlock
B. Criminal D. Peterman
_____25. Is a specific key, which operates the lock and has particular combinations of cuts,
or battings, which match the tumblers of the tumblers in the lock.
A. Change Key C. Master key
B. Sub Master key D. Grand Master key
_____26. Is a key that could open all the lock within a particular area of grouping in a
particular facility.
_____27. is a special key that is capable of opening a series of locks.

_____28. Is a type of a key that will open everything in a system involving two or more
master key groups.
_____29. It is the management of keys in plant or business organization to prevent

authorized individuals access to the keys.
A. Key Control C. False key
B. Key Record D. Security Key
_____30. Some administrative means must be made set up to the record code numbers of
the locks and to whom the keys of a specific locks was issued.
A. Key Control C. False key
B. Key Record D. Security Key
_____31. A safe should not have at any one time a temperature above 350 degrees
Fahrenheit.
A. Fire and Impact Test C. Safe Fire
B. Fire Endurance Test D. Fire and Impact Test
_____32. Test to determine if sudden rise in temperature will not cause the safe to rupture if
the safe can be withstand 2000 degrees Fahrenheit for 30 minutes and will not crack or
open, then it has passed the explosion test.
B. Fire Endurance Test D. Hazard Test
_____33. It aimed at determining the strength of a safe to withstand the collapse of a

building the fire
B. Fire Endurance Test D. Hazard Test
_____34. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container is usually a part of the
building structure used to keep and protect cash, documents and negotiable instruments.
A. Safe C. Vault
B. File room D. Security Cabinet
_____35. What is the Private Security Law of the Philippines?

A. Republic Act 5487 C. Republic Act 4857
B. Republic Act 9165 D. Republic Act 3815
_____36. Security guard is otherwise called the following except:

A. Private security guard C. Security guard
B. Watchman D. none of these
_____37. A written order or schedule issued by a superior officer usually the private security
agency or branch manager or operations officer assigning the performance of private
security or detective service duties.
A. Duty Detail Order
B. License to Exercise Profession
C. License To Operate
D. None of these
_____38. SAGSD stands for?

A. Security Agency and Guard Supervision Division
B. Security Agency and Guard Monitoring Department
C. Security Agency and Guard Supervision District
D. Security Agency and guard Supervision Division
_____39. What type of license is issued after complying with licensing requirements by a
person who wants to engage in security management?
A. Regular License to Operate
B. Temporary License to Operate
C. Regular License to Exercise Profession
D. Temporary License to Exercise Profession
_____40. A private security agency should have a minimum of ______ licensed private
security under its employ before a regular license shall be granted.
A. 30 C. 1,000
B. 200 D. 60
_____41. Company guard force or private detective agency shall have a minimum of _____
licensed private security personnel under its employ before a regular license shall be
granted.
A. 30 C. 1,000
B. 200 D. 60
_____42. The application of renewal of license to operate shall be filed at least ______ Days
before expiry date of license to operate.
A. 30 days C. 120 days
B. 60 days D. 180 days
_____43. An application for license to operate must at least have a minimum capitalization
of:
A. Php 500,000 C. Php 1,000,000
B. Php 100,000 D. Php 5,000,000
_____44. What is the validity of a license to operate?

A. 2 years C. 6 years
B. 4 years D. 1 year
_____45. Who are considered the greatest threat to the security organization because they
create the security holes?
A. People in the world C. People of the Philippines
B. People in the organization D. Hey you people
_____46. The following are purpose of personnel security:

A. To insure that a film hires those employees best suited for the firm
B. Ones hired, to assist in providing the necessary security to these employees while
they are carrying out their functions
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
_____47. Is a process of inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals
and loyalty of an individual to determine the suitability for appointment or access to classified
matter.
A. Security Education C. Personnel Security Investigation
B. Key Functions D. Document Security System
_____48. It has a goal to acquaint all the employees the rationale behind the security
measures and to insure their cooperation at all times
_____49. This is the aspect of security which involves the application of security measures
for the proper protection and safeguarding of classified information.
_____50. The assurance that information is accessible only to those authorized to have
success.
A. Confidentiality C. Availability
B. Integrity D. None of these
_____51. The assurance that information and processing methods are the accurate and
complete
_____52. The assurance that authorized users has access to information and associated
assets when needed.
_____53. These records are daily files, routine in nature even if lost or destroyed, will not
affect operation or administration.
A. Class I Vital Document
B. Class II Important Document
C. Class III Useful Document
D. Class IV Non Essential Document
_____54. These include records whose loss might cause inconvenience but could be readily
replaced and which would not in the meantime present an insurmountable to the prompt
restoration of the business
_____55. These include records the reproduction of which will close considerable expense
and labor or considerable delay.
_____56. In this category these are records that are irreplaceable, records of which
reproduction does not the same value as the original, records needed to recover cash , to
replace building, equipment, raw materials finished products, and work in process and
records needed to avoid delay in restoration of production, sales and services.
_____57. Information which contains reportable time sensitive, order of battle and
significance information.
A. Category A C. Category C
B. Category B D. Category D
_____58. Anything that contains communications, cryptographic documents or system that

should be classified a secret and requires a special training.
_____59. Other information, which contains something, that could be an intelligence value.
_____60. No value, yet lower level will ever classify document as category
_____61. Refers to the way information is processed and distributed and how it changes
over time.
A. Information Cycle C. Creation
B. Document Cycle D. Retention
_____62. What barrier is established to protect the surroundings of an installation?
A. Animal Barrier C. Human Barrier
B. Energy Barrier D. Structural Barrier
_____63. The first line defense of an industrial complex viewing it from the outside
is__________.
A. Perimeter barriers C. Doors, lock and windows barrier
B. The building wall D. First line barrier
_____64. This is an act of conditions affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by
human action, accidental or intentional is
A. Human Hazard C. Security Hazard
B. Natural Hazard D. Hazard
_____65. Protective lighting, perimeter barrier and ________ system are known in industrial
security as physical security.
A. reporting C. relieving
B. accounting D. guarding
_____66. What is the system of natural and man-made barriers placed between the potential
intruder and the object/person/matter being protected?
A. Communication Security C. Document Security
B. Physical Security D. Personnel Security
_____67. Under physical security, what should be placed between the prospective intruder
and target installation?
A. Hazard C. Perimeter Barrier
B. Risk D. Barrier
_____68. These are barbed wires placed above the vertical fence in order to increase
physical protection of establishment or installation.
A. Top Tower C. Top Guard
B. Cellar Guard D. Tower Guard House
_____69. Its function is to alert the security personnel for any attempt for intrusion into a
protected area, building or compound.
A. Alarm C. Emergency Alarm
B. Protective Security D. Standby alarm
_____70. A line protection surrounding and removed from protected areas.

_____71. Refers to a line protection adjacent to a protected area and passing thru points of
possible entry.
_____72. It serves as a trigger apparatus for protective alarm

A. Circuit C. Signaling Device
B. Sensor D. Alarm Device
_____73. A type of detection system wherein the security has been breached, the siren is
sounded in remote station located in the vicinity of the installation.
A. Central Station System C. Proprietary Alarm System
B. Local Alarm System D. Local Alarm by Chance System
_____74. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound.
A. Local Alarm System C. Proprietary System
B. Central Alarm System D. Auxiliary System
_____75. Who developed the “theft proof lock” which is a combination lock that worked on a
timer?
A. Linus Yale Jr. C. August Pope
B. Walter Bruch D. James Sargent
_____76. An alarm that can detect any sound caused by attempted force entry. A
supersonic microphone speaker sensor is installed in walls, ceilings, and floors of the
protected area.
A. Vibration Detection Device C. Audio Detection Device
B. Metallic Foil or Wire D. Microwave Detection Device
_____77. It is designed to reserve to use or to supplement continuous lighting system most

useful to selectively light a particular area in an occasional basis.
A. Portable Lighting C. Stationary Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Standby Lighting
_____78. An unfortunate event caused unintentionally by a human agent that results from
carelessness or failure to have or enhance security rules.
A. Accident C. Human Error
B. Threats D. Hazard
_____79. Barriers refers to any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of
restricting, deterring, delaying or?
A. controlling unauthorized access to an installation
B. preventing illegal and unauthorized access to an installation
C. checking the entry of customers in an installation
D. giving warning to unauthorized entry
_____80. The employment of mechanical, electrical, electronic energy that impresses

deterrence to entry by potential intruder or to provide warning to guard personnel.
A. Electronic Barrier C. Energy Barrier
B. Mechanical Barrier D. Electrical Barrier
_____81. Any instrument notarized by a notary public or public official with solemnities
A. Public Document C. Private Document
B. Official Document D. Commercial Document
_____82. Any instrument issued by the government or its agents or its officers having the
authority to do so and the offices, which in accordance with their creation, they are
unauthorized t issue and to be issue in the performance of their duties
_____83. Every deed or instrument by a private person without the intervention of a notary
public or of any person legally authorized to issue, by which the documents, some
disposition or agreement is proved, evidence or set forth
_____84. Any instrument executed in accordance with the code of commerce or any
Mercantile Law, containing disposition of commercial rights obligations
_____85. Verify information on the application form as certain past employment experience
and obtain other information pertinent to the decision to employ.
A. Background Investigation C. Profiling
B. Positive Betting D. Security Program
_____86. The process whereby a subject’s reaction in a future critical situation is predicted
by observing his behavior by interviewing him or by analyzing his response to a
questionnaire.
_____87. This involves the protection of documents and classified papers from loss, access
by unauthorized persons, damage, theft and compromise through disclosure.
A. Computer Security C. Information Security
B. Document and information Security D. Document Security
_____88. The means protecting information and information systems from unauthorized
access, use disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction
A. Computer Security C. Information Security
B. Document and information Security D. Document Security
_____89. The means of ensuring that data is kept safe from corruption and that access to it
is suitably controlled
A. Computer Security C. Data Security
B. Network Security D. Document Security
_____90. It encompasses measures taken to prevent exceptions in the security policy of an

application or the underlying system (vulnerabilities) through flaws in the design,
development or destruction of the application
A. Application Security C. Data Security
B. Network Security D. Document Security
_____91. This concern with the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized access
to equipment, facilities, material and document and to safeguard them against espionage,
sabotage, damage, loss and theft.
A. Application Security C. Personnel Security
B. Physical Security D. Document Security
_____92. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents or small items in an
office or installation
A. Protective Cabinet C. Vault
B. Safe D. File Room
______93. 11. It is the process of inspecting or examining with careful thoroughness and it is
based on the information previously given by the applicant.
A. Profiling C. Deception Detection Techniques
B. Positive Vetting D. Undercover Intelligence
_____94. This is the placement of an agent in a role in which the agent’s true identity and
role remains unknown, in order to obtain information for criminal prosecution or for recovery
or limitation of asset losses.
_____95. This is a valuable tool because it gives departing employees an opportunity to list
grievances. It offers security managers an opportunity to learn of problems not previously
known.
A. Undercover Intelligence C. Exit Interview
B. Financial and Lifestyle Inquiry D. Positive Vetting
_____96. It is the process whereby a subject’s reaction in a future critical situation is

predicted by observing his behavior, or by interviewing him, or analyzing his responses to a
questionnaire, such as honesty test.
______97. This type of investigation seeks to gather information on income and mode of
living, sometimes referred to as the earning-to-debt ratio.
A. Undercover Intelligence C. Exit Interview
B. Financial and Lifestyle Inquiry D. Positive Vetting
______98. This technique serves to verify information on the application form and to obtain
other information pertinent to decision to employ.
A. Background Investigation
B. Personnel Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Security Investigation
______99. This is conducted to develop security awareness among employees of the

company. It should cover all employees, regardless of rank or position.
A. Personnel Education C. Security Education
B. Security Reminders D. Security Training
______100. This is designed to remind employees of the company about their

responsibilities, review the guidelines and policies, introduction of new policies and
regulations and a moment of getting employees feedback about the company policies that is
being implemented.
A. Orientation and Training C. Security Reminder
B. Refresher Conference D. Security Promotion
CLAW 02 (HUMAN RIGHTS EDUCATION)
1. The powers and function of the CHR is located on what section of Article XIII of the 1987
Philippine Constitution?
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 19
D. Section 20
2. Article XIII of 1987 Philippine Constitution is

A. Animal Rights
B. Bill of Rights
C. Human Rights Education and Social Justice
D. Social Justice and Human Rights
3. Grant immunity from prosecution to any person whose testimony or whose possession of
documents or other evidence is necessary or convenient to determine the truth in any
investigation conducted by it or under its authority, is power and function of?
A. Commission on Human Rights
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
D. none of the aforesaid
4. Since its founding in 1986, it serves as an advocacy center and has been committed to
work for the respect and promotion, protection and fulfillment of human rights.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
5. Is a non-profit, national human rights organization in the Philippines, Manila. The

research and information arm of PAHRA and is a research and information institution that
provides information, documentation, research and analyses.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
6. It envisions a just, democratic, peaceful and prosperous Philippines founded on a culture
of human rights and gender equity. It envisions a society where each individual is able to
fully realize one’s potential as a human person, to participate effectively in the economic,
political and cultural life, and to share equitably in the benefits of economic progress.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
7. The organization are committed to work for the recognition and realization of all human
rights embodied in the international instruments such as the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights, the International Covenant on Social, Economic and Cultural Rights, the International
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, the Declaration on the Right to Development, and the
Universal Declaration on the Rights of the Peoples.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
8. This convention (A/RES/61/106) was adopted on 13 December 2006 at the United

Nations Headquarters in New York, and was opened for signature on 30 March 2007.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
9. As of May 2019, 180 countries have signed this convention and 16 countries including
Myanmar, North Korea and Malaysia has not signed.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
10. Adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by UN General Assembly
resolution 39/46 of December 10, 1984. Effective June 26, 1987 in accordance with Article
27.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
11. Adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by General Assembly
resolution 2200A (XXI) of 16 December 1966.iduals. The UK ratified ICCPR in 1976.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
12. On _____ racial discrimination started.

A. 1930’s C. 1950’s
B. 1940’s D. 1960’s
13. Which of the following is not in the composition of International Bill of Rights?
A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
B. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
C. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
D. World Programme on Human Rights Education
14. Is a key international human rights treaty, providing a range of protections for civil and
political rights.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
15. It focuses on issues such as the right to life, freedom of speech, religion and voting.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
16. The ICESCR focuses on food, education, health and shelter.

A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
17. Importance of ICERD

A. Distinction between citizens and non-citizens; not between groups of citizens
B. Special Measures – adequate advancement
C. To prohibit and put a stop to racial discrimination by person, groups and age.
D. All of the above
18. Shall mean any distinction, exclusion, restriction or preference based on race, colour,
descent, or national or ethnic origin which has the purpose or effect of nullifying or impairing
the recognition, enjoyment or exercise, on an equal footing, of human rights and
fundamental freedoms in the political, economic, social, cultural or any other field of public
life.
A. Discrimination on the basis of disability
B. Enforced Disappearance
C. Racial Discrimination
D. Torture
19. Means any distinction, exclusion or restriction on the basis of disability which has the
purpose or effect of impairing or nullifying the recognition, enjoyment or exercise, on an
equal basis with others, of all human rights and fundamental freedoms in the political,
economic, social, cultural, civil or any other field.
D. Torture
20. Means any act by which severe pain or suffering, whether physical or mental, is
intentionally inflicted on a person for such purposes as obtaining from him or a third person
information or a confession, punishing him for an act he or a third person has committed or
is suspected of having committed, or intimidating or coercing him or a third person, or for any
reason based on discrimination of any kind, when such pain or suffering is inflicted by or at
the instigation of or with the consent or acquiescence of a public official or other person
acting in an official capacity.
D. Torture
21. considered to be the arrest, detention, abduction or any other form of deprivation of
liberty by agents of the State or by persons or groups of persons acting with the
authorization, support or acquiescence of the State, followed by a refusal to acknowledge
the deprivation of liberty or by concealment of the fate or whereabouts of the disappeared
person, which place such a person outside the protection of the law.
D. Torture
22. Known as the Anti-Discrimination Act of 2011, according to its sponsor Sen. Loren
Legarda, would provide a lasting and effective solution to discrimination in the country.
A. BP 881 C. RA 10353
B. RA 9745 D. Senate Bill 2814
23. An act penalizing torture and cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment or punishment
and prescribing penalties thereof
A. BP 881 C. RA 10353
24. An act defining and penalizing enforced or involuntary disappearance

A. BP 881 C. RA 10353
25. Omnibus Election Code

A. BP 881 C. RA 10353
26. Republic Act 9201 declares

A. Tatakbo Tatalon Sisigaw Act of 2019
B. General Assembly of UN
C. National Human Rights Consciousness Week
D. United Nations Human Rights Day
27. The UN Human Rights Day commemorates what?

A. Commemorative Coins
B. Comme to me Papa
C. Proclamation of UDHR
D. United Nations Human Rights Day
28. United Nations Human Rights Day is celebrated annually every

A. January 10 C. September 10
B. May 10 D. December 10
29. In the Philippines, the National Human Rights Consciousness Week is celebrated evey
A. January 4-10 C. September 4-10
B. May 4-10 D. December 4-10
30. The legal basis of the definition for ‘Enforced Disappearance’

A. Article I C. Article III
B. Article II D. Article IV
31. The 1987 Philippine Constitution Article III

A. Bill Ding C. Bill Aht
B. Bill Bill D. Bill of Rights
32. We, the sovereign Filipino people, imploring the aid of Almighty God, in order to build a
just and humane society, and establish a Government that shall embody our ideals and
aspirations, promote the common good, conserve and develop our patrimony, and secure to
ourselves and our posterity, the blessings of independence and democracy under the rule of
law and a regime of truth, justice, freedom, love, equality, and peace, do ordain and
promulgate this Constitution.
A. Praemble C. Preamable
B. Primeble D. Preamble
33. No law shall be passed abridging the freedom of speech, of expression, or of the press,
or the right of the people peaceably to assemble and petition the government for redress of
grievances.
A. Section 1 C. Section 3
B. Section 2 D. Section 4
34. No person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law, nor
shall any person be denied the equal protection of the laws.
35. The right of the people to information on matters of public concern shall be recognized.
Access to official records, and to documents and papers pertaining to official acts,
transactions, or decisions, as well as to government research data used as basis for policy
development, shall be afforded the citizen, subject to such limitations as may be provided by
law.
36. No law shall be made respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free
exercise thereof. The free exercise and enjoyment of religious profession and worship,
without discrimination or preference, shall forever be allowed. No religious test shall be
required for the exercise of civil or political rights.
37. The right of the people, including those employed in the public and private sectors, to
form unions, associations, or societies for purposes not contrary to law shall not be abridged.
38. The liberty of abode and of changing the same within the limits prescribed by law shall
not be impaired except upon lawful order of the court. Neither shall the right to travel be
impaired except in the interest of national security, public safety, or public health, as may be
provided by law.
39. No person shall be held to answer for a criminal offense without due process of law.
40. All persons, except those charged with offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua when
evidence of guilt is strong, shall, before conviction, be bailable by sufficient sureties, or be
released on recognizance as may be provided by law.
41. All persons shall have the right to a speedy disposition of their cases before all judicial,
quasi-judicial, or administrative bodies.
42. The privilege of the writ of habeas corpus shall not be suspended except in cases of
invasion or rebellion when the public safety requires it.
43. Double jeopardy

44. Involuntary servitude

45. Excessive fines

46. Jay-V “the good one” a Muslim, entered an eskinita where people hate anyone who do
not believe their savior; St. Eusebius The Great. Jay-V has been detained due to his religion.
What specific section in the bill of rights had been violated?
B. Section 19 D. None of these
47. After Jay-V been detained, the public officers flagellated him for no reason until he
fainted. What specific section in the bill of rights had been violated?
48. Mr. A hated the government. He stated to his friend that the government must change
specially its officials and administrators. His friend then call the police and eventually leads
towards the arrest of Mr. A and locked up in jail for further investigation. What specific
section in the bill of rights had been violated?
49. For the purpose of road widening, the property of Mr. Ian Yaman have been destroyed
and after the contractor promised that he will be properly compensated. After 25 years Mr.
Ian Yaman died due to boredom. To date, no compensation given. What specific section in
the bill of rights had been violated?
50. Mr. Boxs Mapagmahal married for 20 years with his wife Ms. Vente Siete whom he love
wholeheartedly. Suddenly a girl named Ivana Alawi come to his life and had an affair.
Several months later, Ms. Vente Siete become aware of the said affair and kill Ivana Alawi.
Because of fear Mr. Boxs Mapagmahal charge a case against his wife. Without any
proceeding, the court decided to punish Ms. Vente Siete with death penalty. What specific
section in the bill of rights had been violated?
51. Learning that develops the KNOWLEDGE, SKILLS, and VALUES of human rights with
the broad goal of building a universal human rights culture.
A. Human Rights
B. Human Rights Education
C. Rights
D. Privilege
52. Something that is claimed by almost all people and recognized by almost all people as
an inherent property or quality of human beings that imposes a passive or negative
obligation on other human beings.
A. Human Rights
C. Rights
D. Privilege
53. Rights inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity,
language, religion, or any other status. Everyone is entitled to this rights, without
discrimination. (United Nations)
A. Human Rights
C. Rights
D. Privilege
54. The basic rights and freedoms that belong to every person in the world, from birth until
death. These basic rights are based on shared values like dignity, fairness, equality, respect
and independence. (Equality and Human Rights Commission)
A. Human Rights
C. Rights
D. Privilege
55. Something that people ask for or that somebody voluntarily grants to another as a
special favor that imposes an active or positive obligation on the one providing it
A. Human Rights
C. Rights
D. Privilege
56. All are the objectives of Human Rights Education except,

A. Knowledge C. Values
B. Skills D. Education
57. Develop the skills and abilities necessary for the defense of human rights
58. Promote awareness and understanding of human rights issues so that people recognize
violations of human rights.
59. Develop attitudes of respect for human rights, so people do not violate the rights of
others.
60. All except one, are part of the Framework of the HRE.
A. Anti-social C. Gender Equality
B. Anti-bullying D. Diversity
61. The powers and function of the CHR is located on what section of Article XIII of the
1987 Philippine Constitution?
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 19
D. Section 20
62. Article XIII of 1987 Philippine Constitution is

A. Animal Rights
B. Bill of Rights
C. Human Rights Education and Social Justice
D. Social Justice and Human Rights
63. Grant immunity from prosecution to any person whose testimony or whose possession
of documents or other evidence is necessary or convenient to determine the truth in any
investigation conducted by it or under its authority, is power and function of?
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
64. Since its founding in 1986, it serves as an advocacy center and has been committed to
work for the respect and promotion, protection and fulfillment of human rights.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
65. Is a non-profit, national human rights organization in the Philippines, Manila. The
research and information arm of PAHRA and is a research and information institution that
provides information, documentation, research and analyses.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
66. It envisions a just, democratic, peaceful and prosperous Philippines founded on a
culture of human rights and gender equity. It envisions a society where each individual is
able to fully realize one’s potential as a human person, to participate effectively in the
economic, political and cultural life, and to share equitably in the benefits of economic
progress.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
67. The organization are committed to work for the recognition and realization of all human
rights embodied in the international instruments such as the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights, the International Covenant on Social, Economic and Cultural Rights, the International
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, the Declaration on the Right to Development, and the
Universal Declaration on the Rights of the Peoples.
B. PhilRights
C. PAHRA
68. This convention (A/RES/61/106) was adopted on 13 December 2006 at the United
Nations Headquarters in New York, and was opened for signature on 30 March 2007.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
69. As of May 2019, 180 countries have signed this convention and 16 countries including
Myanmar, North Korea and Malaysia has not signed.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
70. Adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by UN General Assembly
resolution 39/46 of December 10, 1984. Effective June 26, 1987 in accordance with Article
27.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
71. Adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by General Assembly
resolution 2200A (XXI) of 16 December 1966.iduals. The UK ratified ICCPR in 1976.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
72. On _____ racial discrimination started.

A. 1930’s C. 1950’s
B. 1940’s D. 1960’s
73. Which of the following is not in the composition of International Bill of Rights?
A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
B. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
C. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
D. World Programme on Human Rights Education
74. Is a key international human rights treaty, providing a range of protections for civil and
political rights.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
75. It focuses on issues such as the right to life, freedom of speech, religion and voting.
A. CAT C. ICCPR
B. CRPD D. ICERD
76. The ICESCR focuses on food, education, health and shelter.

A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
77. Importance of ICERD

A. Distinction between citizens and non-citizens; not between groups of citizens
B. Special Measures – adequate advancement
C. To prohibit and put a stop to racial discrimination by person, groups and age.
D. All of the above
78. Shall mean any distinction, exclusion, restriction or preference based on race, colour,
descent, or national or ethnic origin which has the purpose or effect of nullifying or impairing
the recognition, enjoyment or exercise, on an equal footing, of human rights and
fundamental freedoms in the political, economic, social, cultural or any other field of public
life.
D. Torture
79. Means any distinction, exclusion or restriction on the basis of disability which has the
purpose or effect of impairing or nullifying the recognition, enjoyment or exercise, on an
equal basis with others, of all human rights and fundamental freedoms in the political,
economic, social, cultural, civil or any other field.
D. Torture
80. Means any act by which severe pain or suffering, whether physical or mental, is
intentionally inflicted on a person for such purposes as obtaining from him or a third person
information or a confession, punishing him for an act he or a third person has committed or
is suspected of having committed, or intimidating or coercing him or a third person, or for any
reason based on discrimination of any kind, when such pain or suffering is inflicted by or at
the instigation of or with the consent or acquiescence of a public official or other person
acting in an official capacity.
D. Torture
81. No person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law, nor
shall any person be denied the equal protection of the laws.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
82. The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects
against unreasonable searches and seizures of whatever nature and for any purpose shall
be inviolable, and no search warrant or warrant of arrest shall issue except upon probable
cause to be determined personally by the judge after examination under oath or affirmation
of the complainant and the witnesses he may produce, and particularly describing the place
to be searched and the persons or things to be seized.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
83. No law shall be passed abridging the freedom of speech, of expression, or of the press,
or the right of the people peaceably to assemble and petition the government for redress of
grievances.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
84. No law shall be made respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free
exercise thereof. The free exercise and enjoyment of religious profession and worship,
without discrimination or preference, shall forever be allowed. No religious test shall be
required for the exercise of civil or political rights.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
85. The liberty of abode and of changing the same within the limits prescribed by law shall
not be impaired except upon lawful order of the court. Neither shall the right to travel be
impaired except in the interest of national security, public safety, or public health, as may be
provided by law.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
86. Access to official records, and to documents and papers pertaining to official acts,
transactions, or decisions, as well as to government research data used as basis for policy
development, shall be afforded the citizen, subject to such limitations as may be provided by
law.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
87. The right of the people, including those employed in the public and private sectors, to
form unions, associations, or societies for purposes not contrary to law shall not be abridged.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
88. No torture, force, violence, threat, intimidation, or any other means which vitiate the free
will shall be used against him. Secret detention places, solitary, incommunicado, or other
similar forms of detention are prohibited.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
89. All persons, except those charged with offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua when
evidence of guilt is strong, shall, before conviction, be bailable by sufficient sureties, or be
released on recognizance as may be provided by law.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
90. The employment of physical, psychological, or degrading punishment against any
prisoner or detainee or the use of substandard or inadequate penal facilities under
subhuman conditions shall be dealt with by law.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
91. It can be defined as education, training and information aimed at building a universal
culture of human rights.
A. Human Rights C. Gender Equality
B. Human Rights Education D. Diversity
92. It was established by the General Assembly’s resolution 59/113 (10 December 2004).
A. World Programme on Human Rights Education
B. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
C. Millennium Declaration
D. All of the above
93. The extraordinary vision and resolve of the drafters produced a document that, for the
first time, articulated the rights and freedoms to which every human being is equally and
inalienably entitled.
D. All of the above
94. OHCHR means:

A. Office of the United Nations Higher Commission for Human Rights
B. Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights
C. Office of the United Nations Higher Commission for Human Rights Education
D. Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights Education
95. It is currently composed of 4 phases.

D. All of the above
96. Seeks to promote a common understanding of basic principles and methodologies of

human rights education, to provide a concrete framework for action and to strengthen
partnerships and cooperation from the international level down to the grass roots.
D. All of the above
97. Considered as the most translated document in the world.

D. All of the above
98. UDHR is proclaimed on

A. 10 December 1949 C. 10 December 2005
B. 10 December 1948 D. 10 December 2004
99. The Phase Four of the WPHRE will end on

A. 2009 C. 2019
B. 2014 D. ongoing
100. Article III of the 1987 Philippine Constitution

A. Bill of Attainder C. Bill of Rights
B. No ex post facto law D. Bill Ding
CLJ 1 (PHILIPPINE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM)
1. Is defined as “the machinery of the state or government which enforces the rules of
conduct
necessary to protect life and property, and maintain peace and order.”
A. Criminal Justice Perspective
B. Criminal Justice
C. Criminal Justice System
D. Criminal Justice Principle
2. The frontline defender of democracy in the criminal justice system.
A. Prosecution C. Correction
B. Police D. Court
3. Any person who violated a certain law; one who committed an offense punishable by
law.
A. Criminal
B. Victim
C. Witness
D. Police
4. Rendering what is due or merited; just and fairness.
A. Criminal C. System
B. Justice D. All of these
5. All are pillars of criminal justice system, except:
A. Community C. Court
B. Correction D. Corporation
6. It is a branch of public law which define crimes, treats of their nature and provides for
their
punishment.
A. Substantive Law C. Procedural Law
B. Administrative Law D. Criminal Law
7. Which among the following are the basic principles of Criminal Law?
A. Presumption of innocence
B. Burden of proof
C. No answer
D. Both a and b
8. The following statements are true, except:
A. Felonies are punishable by RPC
B. Offenses are punishable by Special Penal Laws
C. Misdemeanor are punishable by ordinances
D. Crimes are not punishable
9. Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
A. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. August Vollmer
D. Cesare Lombroso
10. It means government or city.
A. Politeia C. Poena
B. Politia D. Pobre
11. So called the earlier mounted riflemen in the history of Philippine police system.
A. Guardrilleros C. Cuero de riple
B. Carabineros de Seguridad Publica D. Guardia Civil
12. The Japanese Military Police.
A. Keme C. Kempetai
B. Kempet D. Kempetagaytay
13. By the virtue of this law, the Bureau of Investigations is created.
A. RA 183 C. Act 183
B. RA 181 D. Act 181
14. Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990.
A. Act 3815 C. RA 6975
B. RA 8551 D. Act 6975
15. “Must possess a formal baccalaureate degree from a recognized institution of learning”
is found in what section of RA 8551?
A. Section 14
B. Section 30
C. Section 15
D. Section 31
16. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
A. Warrantless Arrest C. Arrest
B. Warrant D. Search and Seizure
17. Types of Warantless Arrest, except:
A. Inflagrante Delicto C. Prisoner’s Arrest
B. Hot Pursuit Arrest D. Cardiac Arrest
18. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a
judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property
described therein and bring it before the court.
A. Search and Seizure C. Warrant
B. Search Warrant D. Warrant of Arrest
19. Defined as the wise use of one’s judgement that requires immediate and decisive
action.
A. Police Discretion C. Discretion
B. Prosecutorial Discretion D. Discretion of the Court
20. Policemen are considered as the servant of higher authority.
A. Classical Theory C. Positivist Theory
B. Continental Theory D. Home-Rule Theory
21. Policemen are considered as the servant of the community.
A. Classical Theory C. Positivist Theory
B. Continental Theory D. Home-Rule Theory
22. It is legally defined as a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense,
subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other public officer charged with the
enforcement of the law violated.
A. Complaint C. Warrant
B. Information D. Mittimus
23. Elements of complaint or information:
A. The name of the accused
B. The designation of the offense committed
C. The act or omission complained of
D. All of the above
24. The complaint can be filed directly to the first level of court.
A. Yes C. True
B. No D. False
25. Legal basis of the Complaint:
A. Sec. 3, Rule 110, RRC C. Sec. 1, Rule 116
B. Sec. 1, Rule 112, RRC D. None of these
26. An inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is a sufficient
ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and that the
suspect/respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
A. Probable Cause C. Inquest
B. Preliminary Investigation D. Arraignment
27. It exist when the evidence submitted to the inquest officer engenders a well founded
belief that a crime has been committed and that the arrested or detained person is probably
guilty thereof.
A. Probable Cause C. Inquest
B. Preliminary Investigation D. Arraignment
28. Refers to the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished
by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under
the conditions specified by the court.
A. Bail C. Cash Deposit
B. Release by Recognizance D. Property Bond
29. An undertaking constituted as a lien on the real property given as security for the
amount of bail
A. Bail C. Cash Deposit
B. Release by Recognizance D. Property Bond
30. Which of the following is not a form of bail?
A. Cash Deposit
B. Corporate Surety
C. Property Bond
D. Release by Representative
31. Is Detention the same as Preventive Imprisonment?
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
32. Considered as the star and center of significance of the pillars for prevention and control.
A. Crime C. Victim
B. Criminal D. Justice
33. Detention may be applied to:
A. accused persons who cannot post bail while their case is under trial or
investigation;
B. accused persons who are waiting for the court’s decision of their case; and
C. minors and insane people who need police custody for security or protection
purposes.
D. All of the above
34. Victim is the forgotten man/ individual in the justice system. Termed also as the _____.
A. Third Party C. Involved Party
B. Offended Party D. Party Party
35. The maxim Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege means:
A. The law is harsh but it is the law
B. There is no crime when there is no law punishing the act
C. Ignorance of the law excuses no one in compliance therewith
D. An act done by me against my will is not my act
36. The maxim Dura lex sed lex means:
A. The law is harsh but it is the law
B. There is no crime when there is no law punishing the act
C. Ignorance of the law excuses no one in compliance therewith
D. An act done by me against my will is not my act
37. This pillar is responsible in conducting trial or court adjudication and impose penalty if
found guilty, otherwise render dismissal or acquittal of the case.
A. Law enforcement C. Court
B. Prosecution D. Correction
38. What is the lowest court among the following?
A. Regional Trial Court C. Court of Appeals
B. Municipal Trial Court D. Appellate Court
39. Created by PD #1606 to hear graft and corrupt cases of government officials
A. Sandiganbayan C. Court Martial
B. RPC D. RTC
40. Jurisdiction of court that has authority to hear and determine only a few specified cases.
A. Original C. Appellate
B. Limited D. Concurrent
41. Two or more courts may take cognizance of a case
42. Take a case already heard and decided by a lower court removed from it by appeal.
43. Judgment rendered by a court of justice or other competent tribunal after the
presentation of the respective positions of the parties in ordinary or criminal cases or upon a
stipulation of facts upon which the disposition of the case is based.
A. Criminal C. Discretion
B. Civil D. Decision
44. Goals of Sentencing states the use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the
likelihood that an offender will be capable of committing future offenses.
A. Retribution C. Incapacitation
B. Deterrence D. Rehabilitation
45. The act of taking revenge upon a criminal perpetrator.
46. It is a means, which seeks to prevent others from committing crimes or repeating
criminality. An example of this is public execution; and it is also classified as specific and
general.
47. Which among the following statements is false?
A. The penalty must be certain, that everyone may escape its effect.
B. The penalty must be productive of suffering without affecting the integrity of the
human personality.
C. The penalty must be commensurate with the offense, that different crimes must be
punished with different penalties.
D. The penalty must be equal for all.
48. The following can extinct ones criminal liability except;
A. By the death of the convict, as to personal penalties; and as to pecuniary
penalties, liability therefore is extinguished only when the death of the offender
occurs before final judgment.
B. By service of sentence
C. By amnesty
D. By participating in Law Enforcement Activities
49. What is the highest prescriptive period of crimes among the following?
A. 20 years C. 15 years
B. 10 years D. 5 years
50. A public officer so named in his commission and appointed to preside over and to
administer the law in a court of justice.
A. Chairman of the Lupon C. Court
B. Judge D. Secretary of the Lupon
51. It is subsidiary personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property with
which to meet the fine, at the rate of one (1) day for eight pesos, for its imprisonment.
A. Preventive Imprisonment
B. Subsidiary Imprisonment
C. Detention
D. Incapacitation
52. It is the authority to hear and determine cases. It is the authority by which judicial
officers take cognizance and decide cases correctly or incorrectly.
A. Jurisdiction C. Court
B. Venue D. Court Martial
53. The branch of Criminal Justice System concerned with the custody, supervision and
rehabilitation of criminal offenders.
A. Law Enforcement C. Court
B. Prosecution D. Correction
54. What are the remedies or recourses that an accused should avail before conviction?
A. Exercise the right to appeal
B. Serve the sentence in jail or pay fine impose
C. Apply for probation
D. All of the foregoing
55. Offenders who are committed to the jail or prison in order to serve their sentence after
final conviction by a competent court.
A. Detention Prisoners
B. Sentenced Prisoners
C. Prisoners on Safekeeping
D. None of these
56. Those sentence to suffer a term of sentence of 3 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
as classified as sentenced prisoners.
A. Insular or National Prisoners C. City Prisoners
B. Provincial Prisoners D. Municipal Prisoners
57. A place for locking-up of persons who are convicted of minor offenses imposed upon
them by a competent court, or for confinement of persons who are awaiting trial or
investigation of their cases.
A. Workhouse C. Ordinary Jails
B. Lock-up Jail D. Jail
58. A security facility, common to police stations used for temporary confinement of an
individual held for investigation.
59. A facility that houses minimum custody offenders who are serving short sentences or
those who are undergoing constructive work programs.
60. Best open institution that is recognized worldwide and known as “Prison without walls”.
A. New Bilibid Prison C. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm D. Davao Penal Colony
61. What is the largest penal institution in terms of number of population?
62. It often houses political offenders and Muslim rebels and known to have 75,000 coconut
trees that the custody is transferred to PCA.
63. Second to the NBP in terms of large population and also second to the largest from
Iwahig Penal Farm in terms of land area.
64. The youngest correctional institution in the Philippines.
A. Leyte Regional Prison Farm C. Correctional Institution for Women
B. Sablayan Penal Farm D. BJMP
65. The only penal institution that is dedicated for women only.
66. Police- to population ratio in urban areas, ideally should be, _________.
A. 1:1000 C. 1:900
B. 1:750 D. 1:500
67. Which of the following is not included in the US Criminal Justice System?
A. Law Enforcement C. Correction
B. Court D. Community
68. A concept of Police Service that focuses on punishment as a way of eliminating crimes.
A. Old Concept C. Home-Rule Concept
B. Modern Concept D. Continental Concept
69. Has the highest congestion rate among the following penal institutions.
A. CIW C. DaPeCol
B. NBP D. LRP
70. It supervises jails
A. BJMP C. None of these
B. BuCor D. All of these
71. Approval of the Revised Penal Code:
A. Jan. 1, 1932 C. Dec. 8, 1932
B. Jan. 1, 1930 D. Dec. 8, 1930
72. Best open institution that is recognized worldwide and known as “Prison without walls”.
73. What is the largest penal institution in terms of number of population?
74. It often houses political offenders and Muslim rebels and known to have 75,000 coconut
trees that the custody is transferred to PCA.
75. Second to the NBP in terms of large population and also second to the largest from
Iwahig Penal Farm in terms of land area.
76. The youngest correctional institution in the Philippines.
77. The only penal institution that is dedicated for women only.
78. Police- to population ratio in urban areas, ideally should be, _________.
A. 1:1000 C. 1:900
B. 1:750 D. 1:500
79. One of the Correctional Administration states the prisoner will serve its sentence outside
the penal institution.
A. Institutional Correction C. BJMP
B. Non-institutional Correction D. BuCor
80. It supervises prisons
A. BJMP C. None of these
B. BuCor D. All of these
81. Law that created the Revised Penal Code:
A. RA 6506 C. Act 6506
B. RA 3815 D. Act 3815
82. Considered as the weakest pillar of the CJS due to the notion that they failed to
rehabilitate the criminal offenders which is their major function.
A. Prosecution C. Correction
B. Court D. Community
83. It means the body of crime
A. Corpus Delicti C. Mens Rea
B. Corpus Juris D. Pro bono
84. Legal work done for free
A. Corpus Delicti C. Mens Rea
B. Corpus Juris D. Pro bono
85. A circumstance that removes their criminal as well as civil liability; example is self
defense circumstance
A. Justifying C. Aggravating
B. Mitigating D. Exempting
86. Circumstance that increases the penalty of the criminal liability
A. Justifying C. Aggravating
B. Mitigating D. Exempting
87. Violations committed by the youth that is not punishable if committed by adult.
A. Juvenile Delinquency C. Status Offenses
B. Child in conflict with the law D. Delinquent
88. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case which would convince a reasonable
mind based on moral certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of
error.
A. Preponderance of EvidenceC. Substantive Evidence
B. Clear and convincing evidence D. proof beyond reasonable doubt
89. The court of last resort
A. Court Martial C. Court of Appeals
B. Supreme Court D. Court of Tax Appeals
90. In Latin, it literally mean “Stand by things decided.”
A. Aberatio Ictus C. Stare Decisis
B. Pro Reo D. Actus Reus
91. Local Government Code
A. RA 7160 C. RA 8551
B. BP 22 D. Act 3815
92. Father of Local Government Code and Katarungang Pambarangay
A. Nene Oronico C. Nene Bonel
B. Nene Pimentel D. Nene Watchme
93. Punong barangay will be the chaiman of the Lupon. The statement is?
A. True C. Maybe True
B. False D. Maybe False
94. The composition of the Lupon Tagapamayapa
A. 5-10 members C. 10-20 members
B. 10-15 members D. 10-15 members
95. Barangay Secretary will be the secretary of the Lupon. The statement is?
A. True C. Maybe True
B. False D. Maybe False
96. Composition of the Pangkat Tagapagkasundo
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6
97. Has force and effect of a final judgment of a court after ten days from the date of the
settlement, unless a protest or repudiation of the settlement is made. Only when the BJS has
failed to resolve the dispute, can the parties bring their case to court.
A. Barangay Justice System
B. Katarungang Pambarangay
C. Amicable Settlement
D. Arbitrary Detention
98. Other term for Barangay Justice System:
97. Has force and effect of a final judgment of a court after ten days from the date of the
settlement, unless a protest or repudiation of the settlement is made. Only when the BJS has
failed to resolve the dispute, can the parties bring their case to court.
98. Approval of the Revised Penal Code:
A. Jan. 1, 1932 C. Dec. 8, 1932
B. Jan. 1, 1930 D. Dec. 8, 1930
99. August Vollmer is the Father of Modern Military Espionage.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
100. The Philippine Criminal Justice System have 5 pillars namely; Law Enforcement, Prosecution,
Court, Correction and Community.
A. True C. Yes
B. False D. No
Cavite State University
COLEEGE OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE
Indang, Cavite
FINAL EXAMINATION
POLICE ETHICS AND VALUES
Name: _____________________________ Section: _______________ Date: ___________
I. Multiple choice. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. The police service is a noble profession which demands from its members
specialized knowledge and skills, as well as high standard of ethics and morality.
a. PNP Service c. PNP Patrol Plan

b. PNP Core Values d. PNP Master Plan
2. The image of every organization affects the esprit de corps, morale and welfare of
the members, and sense of pride to the organization.
a. PNP Uniform c. PNP Image

b. PNP Appearance d. PNP Presence
3. The PNP shall promote and maintain a lifestyle for its members which the public will
find credible and respectable.
a. Police Lifestyle c. Police Integrity

b. Police Management d. Police Dignity
4. PNP members shall perform their duties with dedication thoroughness, efficiency
enthusiasm, determination, and manifest concern for public welfare, and shall refrain
from engaging in any activity which shall be conflict with their duties as public
servants.
a. Devotion to service c. Devotion to duty

b. Devotion to work d. Devotion to public interest
5. PNP members shall recognize the fact that they are public servants and not the
masters of the people and towards this end; they should perform their duties without
attracting attention or expecting the applause of others.
a. Humility c. Modesty
b. Humbleness d. Responsible
6. PNP members shall follow original procedures in accomplishing tasks assigned to
them to minimize waste in the use of time, money and effort.
a. Cleanliness c. Industriousness
b. Orderliness d. Diligent
7. Once a decision is made, PNP members shall take legitimate means to achieve the
goal even in the face of internal or external difficulties and despite anything which
might weaken their resolve in the course of time.
a. Perseverance c. Discretion
b. Assurance d. Decision Making
8. The proper implementation of the PNP’s Career Management will greatly enhance
the personnel professionalization process with regard on procurement, promotion,
assignment, placement awards, and retirement.
a. True c. Possibly True

b. False d. Possibly False
9. The PNP shall promote and maintain a lifestyle for its members which the public will
find credible and respectable.

10. PNP members shall perform their duties with integrity, intelligence and competence
in the application of specialized skills and technical knowledge with excellence and
expertise.

11. Established usage or social practices carried on by tradition that have obtained the
force of law.
a. Tradition c. Ceremony
b. Custom d. Courtesy
12. Bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usages handed down from generation to
generation with the effect of an unwritten law.
13. A formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to
special occasion.
14. A set of norms and standards practiced by members during social activities and other
functions.
a. Social Decorum c. Ceremony

15. A manifestation of expression of consideration and respect for others.
a. Social Decorum c. Ceremony

16. It is the usual greetings rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and
recognizing person entitled to a salute.
a. Nodding c. Salute
b. Greet d. Address
17. On this occasion, they are usually given due recognition and congratulations by their
peers for such deserved accomplishment.
a. Promotion Call c. Christmas Call

b. Exit Call d. New Year’s Call
18. The host unit extend hospitality to visiting personnel who pay respect to the
command or unit.
a. Courtesy of the Post c. Christmas Call

19. PNP members pay an ________ on their superiors in the unit or command when
relieved or reassigned out of the said unit or command.
a. Courtesy of the Post c. Christmas Call

20. Immediate commanders or other available officers of the unit visit PNP Members who
are sick in the hospital, their residence or any place of confinement in order that their
needs are attended to.
a. Visiting the Sick

b. Survivor Assistance of Heir of Deceased Members
c. Visiting the Religious Leaders
d. Happy Hour
21. A survivor officer is designated whenever PNP members die, to render maximum
assistance to their bereaved family until all benefits due shall have been received.

d. Happy Hour
22. Usually on Friday or any other day suitable for the occasion, PNP members gather
together at their PNP club for a light hearted jesting or airing of minor gripes.

d. Happy Hour
23. PNP members are upright in character, gentle in manners, dignified in appearance,
and sincere in their concern to fellowmen.
a. Gentlemanliness
b. Word of Honor
c. Loyalty
d. Duty
e. Camaraderie
24. PNP members’ word is their bond. They stand by and commit to uphold it.
a. Gentlemanliness
b. Word of Honor
c. Loyalty
d. Duty
e. Camaraderie
25. PNP members have historically exemplified themselves as dedicated public servants
who perform their tasks with a deep sense of responsibility and self-sacrifice.
a. Gentlemanliness
b. Word of Honor
c. Loyalty
d. Duty
e. Camaraderie
26. PNP members are traditionally loyal to the organization, country and people as borne
by history and practice.
a. Gentlemanliness
b. Word of Honor
c. Loyalty
d. Duty
e. Camaraderie
27. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police
organization, extending to the people they serve, in manifested by the PNP members’
deep commitment and concern for one another.
a. Gentlemanliness
b. Word of Honor
c. Loyalty
d. Duty
e. Camaraderie
28. PNP members always wear appropriate and proper attire in conformity with the
occasion.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe True
d. Maybe False
29. PNP members conduct themselves properly in dealing with people during social
functions.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe True
d. Maybe False
30. The PNP adopts the generally acceptable customs and traditions based on the
desirable practices of the police service.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe True
d. Maybe False
II. Write T if the statement is True and write F if the statement is False.
_______ 1.Law enforcement official shall at all times fulfill the duty imposed upon them by
law, by serving the community and by protecting all persons against illegal acts, consistent
with the high degree of responsibility required by their profession.
_______ 2.In the performance of their duty, law enforcement officials shall respect and
protect human dignity and maintain and uphold the human rights of all persons.
_______ 3.Law enforcement officials may use force only when strictly necessary and to the
extent required for the performance of their duty.
_______ 4.No law enforcement official may inflict, instigate or tolerate any act of torture or
other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment, nor may any law enforcement
official invoke superior order or exceptional circumstances such as a state of war, a threat to
national security, internal political instability or any other public emergency as a justification
of torture or other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
_______ 5.Law enforcement officials shall ensure the full protection of the health of persons
in their custody and, in particular, shall take immediate action to secure medical attention
whenever required.
_______ 6.Law enforcement officials shall not commit any act of corruption. They shall also
rigorously oppose and combat all such acts.
_______ 7.Law enforcement officials shall respect the law and the present Code. They shall
also, to the best of their capability, prevent and rigorously oppose any violation of them.
_______ 8.PNP members are traditionally religious and God-loving person. They attend
religious services togetherwith the members of their family.
_______ 9.The PNP members are traditionally patriotic by nature. They manifest their love
of country with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the constitution.
_______ 10.The discipline of the PNP members is manifested by instinctive obedience to
lawful orders and thorough and spontaneous actions towards attainment of organizational
objectives guided by moral, ethical and legal norms.
III. Write the Police Officer’s Pledge (10 pts)
Prepared by:
JOSELITO B BILUGAN
Instructor
“there is no such thing as destiny but the power to choose”

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LAW ENFORCEMENT OPERATIONS AND PLANNING WITH CRIME MAPPING

1. It cover the mission-critical aspects of a police organization: policies, institutional

8. Accountable for preventing or reducing crime commission.

_____1. What barrier is established to protect the surroundings of an installation?

_____9. A line protection surrounding and removed from protected areas.

_____11. It serves as a trigger apparatus for protective alarm

_____16. It is designed to reserve to use or to supplement continuous lighting system most

_____19. The employment of mechanical, electrical, electronic energy that impresses

_____22. It is defined as a mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to

_____24. An English term used to describe a lock picker.

_____27. is a special key that is capable of opening a series of locks.

_____29. It is the management of keys in plant or business organization to prevent

_____33. It aimed at determining the strength of a safe to withstand the collapse of a

_____35. What is the Private Security Law of the Philippines?

_____36. Security guard is otherwise called the following except:

_____38. SAGSD stands for?

_____44. What is the validity of a license to operate?

_____46. The following are purpose of personnel security:

_____58. Anything that contains communications, cryptographic documents or system that

_____70. A line protection surrounding and removed from protected areas.

_____72. It serves as a trigger apparatus for protective alarm

_____77. It is designed to reserve to use or to supplement continuous lighting system most

_____80. The employment of mechanical, electrical, electronic energy that impresses

_____90. It encompasses measures taken to prevent exceptions in the security policy of an

_____96. It is the process whereby a subject’s reaction in a future critical situation is

______99. This is conducted to develop security awareness among employees of the

______100. This is designed to remind employees of the company about their

2. Article XIII of 1987 Philippine Constitution is

5. Is a non-profit, national human rights organization in the Philippines, Manila. The

8. This convention (A/RES/61/106) was adopted on 13 December 2006 at the United

12. On _____ racial discrimination started.

16. The ICESCR focuses on food, education, health and shelter.

17. Importance of ICERD

24. An act defining and penalizing enforced or involuntary disappearance

25. Omnibus Election Code

26. Republic Act 9201 declares

27. The UN Human Rights Day commemorates what?

28. United Nations Human Rights Day is celebrated annually every

30. The legal basis of the definition for ‘Enforced Disappearance’

31. The 1987 Philippine Constitution Article III

43. Double jeopardy

44. Involuntary servitude

45. Excessive fines

56. All are the objectives of Human Rights Education except,

62. Article XIII of 1987 Philippine Constitution is

72. On _____ racial discrimination started.

76. The ICESCR focuses on food, education, health and shelter.

77. Importance of ICERD

94. OHCHR means:

95. It is currently composed of 4 phases.

96. Seeks to promote a common understanding of basic principles and methodologies of

97. Considered as the most translated document in the world.

98. UDHR is proclaimed on

99. The Phase Four of the WPHRE will end on

100. Article III of the 1987 Philippine Constitution

CLJ 1 (PHILIPPINE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM)

Name: _____________________________ Section: _______________ Date: ___________

I. Multiple choice. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

a. PNP Service c. PNP Patrol Plan

a. PNP Uniform c. PNP Image

a. Police Lifestyle c. Police Integrity

a. Devotion to service c. Devotion to duty

a. True c. Possibly True

Name: _____________________ Section: _ Date: _____