Csir Paper-2 Mock 2

Q.
1) Insert the correct sign & find out the result:

24 * 7 * 5 * 5 * 8 = 23
*[1] + , ÷, ×, –
[2] ÷, + , –, ×
[3] ×, –, + , ÷
[4] –, ×, ÷, +
[MARKS] 1
[NEGATIVE MARKS] 0.33
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] 24 × 7 × 5 × 5 × 8 = 23
let’s try all the options:
1) + , ÷, ×, – ⇒ 24 + 7 ÷ 5 × 5 – 8 = 23
⇒ 24 + 7 – 8 = 23
⇒ 23 = 23 ⇒ This is our answer.
2) ÷, + , –, × ⇒ 24 ÷ 7 + 5 – 5 × 8 = 23
⇒ 3.4(approx.) + 5 – 40 = 23
⇒ - 31.6 ≠ 23
3) ×, –, + , ÷ ⇒ 24 × 7 – 5 + 5 ÷ 8 = 23
⇒ 168 – 5 + 5 ÷ 8 = 23
⇒ 163 + 58 = 25 ⇒ 163 + 58 = 25 ⇒ 1304 + 58
= 25 ⇒ 1304 + 58 = 23
⇒ 163.5(approx) ≠23
4) –, ×, ÷, + ⇒ 24 – 7 × 5 ÷ 5 + 8 = 23
⇒ 24 – 7 + 8 = 23
⇒ 25 ≠ 23
24× 7× 5× 5× 8 = 23
Q.2) Find the missing number from the given responses.
[1] 30
*[2] 42
[3] 22
[4] 06
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] 184 1 +8 + 4 = 13
512  5 +1 + 2 = 8 13 + 8 = 21
462  4 +6 + 2 = 12
378 3 +7 + 8 = 18 12+18=30
253  2 +5 + 3 = 10
471  4 +7 + 1 = 12 10 + 1
Q.3) NBT : PZV :: LDZ : ?

[1] NCB
[2] NBA
*[3] NBB
[4] OBA
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION]
Q.4) Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Cell : Cytology :: Fish : ?
[1] Odontology
[2] Mycology
*[3] Ichthyology
[4] Fetology
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] The branches of biology and medicine concerned with the structure and function of plant and
animal cells. Similarly Ichthyology, also known as fish science, is the branch of zoology devoted to the
study of fish.
Q.5) Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

XPHB : LHDA ∷ ? : CMEI
*[1] FZJR
[2] YXRQ
[3] XYZA
[4] KIWO
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] We know that position of alphabet is A = 1; B = 2; C = 3…and so on.
In VTHB : KJDA
XPHB their position in English alphabet. ⇒ X = 24, P = 16, H = 8, B = 2
LHDA their position in English alphabet. ⇒ L = 12, H = 8, D = 4, A = 1
Similarly,
FZJR their position in English alphabet ⇒ F = 6, Z = 26, J = 10, R = 18
CMEI their position in English alphabet. ⇒ C = 3, M = 13, E = 5, I = 9
Hence, “FZJR” is missing term.
Q.6) Select the related numbers from the given alternatives.

5 : 24 ∷ 9 : ?
[1] 82
*[2] 28
[3] 38
[4] 60
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[SOLUTION] Here, 5 + 4 = 9
Similarly, 24 + 4 = 28
Hence, “28” is correct option.
Q.7) Find out the mismatched words from the given options.
[1] Owl
*[2] Bats
[3] Kiwi
[4] Ostrich
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] Owl, Kiwi and Ostrich are birds whereas Bat is a Mammal.
Q.8) Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

[1] O
[2] I
[3] E
*[4] A
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Here water image of O, I, E are same as letter but water image of A gets changed.
Therefore, A is odd one among given alternatives.
Q.9) Find the odd numbers from the given alternatives.

[1] 15
[2] 75
[3] 45
*[4] 5
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
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[SOLUTION] 1) 15 ⇒ 5 × 3
2) 75 ⇒ 5 × 5 × 3
3) 45 ⇒ 5 × 3 × 3
4) 35 ⇒ 5 × 7
15, 45, 75 are multiple of 5 and 3 but 35 is multiple of only 5 but not of 3.
Therefore, “35” is odd one among given alternatives.
Q.10) A series is given below with one term is wrong. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.
17, 20, 22, 31, 47, 72, 108
*[1] 20
[2] 21
[3] 30
[4] 46
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] 108 - 72 = 36
72 - 47 = 25
47 - 31 = 16
31 - 22 = 9
22 - 20 = 2≠4
20 should be replaced by 18 for which 22 - 18 = 4
Hence, 20 is wrong term in series.
Q.11) A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones
that will
complete the series.
SCD, TDE, VFH, ?, CMN
[1] CMN
[2] VJI
[3] VIJ
*[4] YIJ
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The pattern followed in series shown below is,
S + 1 = T; T + 2 = V; V + 3 = Y; Y + 4 = C
C + 1 = D; D + 2 = F; F + 3 = I; I + 4 = M
D + 1 = E; E + 2 = G; G + 3 = J; J + 4 = N
Therefore, “YIJ” is correct option.
Q.12) Arrange the following word as per logical order.

I. Silver jubilee II. Golden jubilee
III. Platinum jubilee IV. Ruby jubilee
V. Diamond jubilee VI. Sapphire jubilee
[1] I, IV, VI, III, II, V
[2] I, IV, VI, V, III, II
[3] IV, I, V, VI, II, III
*[4] I, IV, II, V, VI, III
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] Celebrations in the reign of a monarch (see List of Jubilees of British monarchs):
Silver jubilee, for a 25th anniversary
Ruby jubilee, for a 40th anniversary
Golden jubilee, for a 50th anniversary
Diamond jubilee, for a 60th anniversary
Sapphire jubilee, for a 65th anniversary
Platinum jubilee, for a 70th anniversary
Therefore, logical order of given words will be “I, IV, II, V, VI, III”.
Q.13) Select the alternative which is most appropriate.
“All trained are workers"
"Dumb people are always trained.”
Inference: All dumb persons are workers.
*[1] The inference is true
[2] The inference is false
[3] The inference is probably true is probably false
[4] The inference is irrelevant
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[SOLUTION] We can solve this problem with the help of a Venn-Diagram:
1. All workers are trained.
2. Trained people are always dumb.
Clearly, from the above diagram, we can infer that All dumb person is worker.
Q.14) Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete
it?
WX__ZWX__ZW__YZW__Y__WXY__
[1] YYXZYZ
[2] YXXYZX
[3] YXYXXZ
*[4] YYXXZZ
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] 1) YYXZYZ ⇒ WXYZWXYZWXYZWZYYWXYZ
2) YXXYZX ⇒ WXYZWXXZWXYZWYYZWXYX
3) YXYXXZ ⇒ WXYZWXXZWYYZWXYXWXYZ
4) YYXXZZ ⇒ WXYZ/WXYZ/WXYZ/WXYZ/WXYZ (Repeated pattern of WXYZ)
Therefore, “YYXXZZ” is a group of letter which will complete the series.
Q.15) R is the brother of A. S is the sister of T. A is the son of S. How is R related to T?

*[1] Nephew
[2] Son
[3] Brother
[4] Can’t be determined
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Given below table represent symbol and their meaning used to draw family tree,
R is the brother of A. S is the sister of T. A is the son of S.
Therefore R is nephew of T.
Q.16) Three persons Aman, Balram and Chhavi are standing in a queue. There are five persons between
Aman and Balram and eight persons between Balram and Chhavi. If there be three persons ahead of
Chhavi and 21 persons behind Aman, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?
[1] 41
[2] 40
*[3] 28
[4] 27
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] Aman – A
Balram - B
Chhavi - C
Three persons A, B, C can be arranged in a queue in six different ways, ie ABC, CBA, BAC, CAB, BCA,
ACB. But since there are only 3 persons ahead of C, so C should be in front of the queue. Thus, there are
only two possible arrangements, ie CBA and CAB.
We may consider the two cases as under:
Case I:
Clearly, number of persons in the queue = (3 + 1 + 8 + 1 + 5 + 1 + 21 = ) 40

Case II:
Number of persons between A and C
TRUE
Clearly number of persons in the queue = (3 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 21) = 28
Now, 28 < 40. So, 28 is the minimum number of persons in the queue.
Q.17) Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when mirror is held on the
line M, N?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
[1] (A)
[2] (B)
[3] (C)
*[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] The mirror image is the lateral inversion of the real image. The figure in the option 4 matches
with the requirement.
Q.18) A sum of Rs. 1260 has to be used to give 9 prizes to the customers of a super market for their overall
academic purchases. If each prize is Rs. 30 less than its preceding price, what is the least value of the
price?
*[1] 20
[2] 95
[3] 80
[4] 85
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Let the least value of the prize = Rs. x
Then the next value of the prize is x + 30 , x + 60, x + 90, ....x + 240.
Given total amount of cash prizes = Rs.1260
⇒ x + (x + 30) + (x + 60) + (x + 90) + .... + (x + 240) = 1260
⇒ 9x + (30 + 60 + 90 + 120 + 150 + 180 + 210 + 240) = 1260
⇒ 9x + 30 (1 + 2 + 3 + 4.... + 8) = 1260
⇒ 9x + 30(36) = 1260
⇒ 9x = 180 ⇒ x = 20
Hence the least value of the prize x = 20
Q.19) In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain
trend, row - wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
[1] U
[2] V
*[3] W
[4] X
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The letters in the first row follow the sequence + 5, + 7.
The letters in the second row follow the sequence + 6, + 8.
In the third row, the first letter G moves 7 steps forward to give the second letter N.
Clearly, the missing letter will be 9 steps ahead of N i.e. W.
Q.20) Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given assumptions can definitely
be drawn from the given statement.
Statement:
Cafeteria should be repaired urgently so that office staff can relax during lunch.
Assumptions:
I. Efficiency of people working in the office cannot be improved unless cafeteria is repair.
II. Repairing of cafeteria require funds.
[1] Only I follow
[2] Only II follows
[3] Both I and II follow
*[4] Neither I nor II follows
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Nothing can be deduced regarding the effect of repairs of cafeteria on efficiency of workers,
or the requirement of funds for repairs, from the given statement. So, neither 1 nor 2 follow.
Q.21) Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct relationship with the Bat, Cat and
Mammals?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
[1] (A)
[2] (B)
[3] (C)
*[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] As Cat and Bat both are Mammal.
Therefore above diagram best express relationship between them.
Q.22) In a certain code, '147' means 'spread red pen'; '156' means 'dust one pen' and '164' means 'one red
pen'. Which digit in that code means 'dust'?
[1] 2
[2] 3
*[3] 5
[4] 6
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] In the first and second statements, the common code digit is '1' and the common word is
‘pen’.
So, '1' means 'pen'.
In the second and third statements, the common code digit is '6' and the common word is 'one'.
So, '6' means 'one'.
Therefore, in the second statement, '5' means 'dust'.
Q.23) Neelam started walking from North to South. She turned 5 times right at right angle and then again
turned left at right angle then in which direction was she ultimately walking?
[1] North
[2] East
*[3] South
[4] West
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] Direction diagram can be traced as,
Therefore Neelam is walking in South direction.
Q.24) Find the answer figure which will complete the pattern of the question figure.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
[1] (A)
*[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] Below diagram represent complete diagram of given question figure,
Therefore option (2) is correct diagram.
Q.25). A words is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets
of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given
below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from
5 to 9. A letter from theses matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘M’ can
be represented by 42, 31. etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 95, 88 etc. Similarly, can have to identify the
set for the word given ‘ROSTE’
Matrix – I Matrix - II
[1] 56, 44, 67, 40, 96

[2] 97, 21, 66, 29, 32
[3] 75, 00, 10, 92, 24
*[4] 68, 33, 65, 58, 40
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
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[SOLUTION] Following the given criteria,
56 → R, 44 → O, 67 → T, 40 → E, 96 → Q ⇒ ROEQ
97 → R, 21 → O, 66 → P, 29 → Not Applicable, 32 → E
75 → R, 00 → O, 10 → M, 92 → Not Applicable, 24 → E
68 → R, 33 → O, 65 → S, 58 → T, 40 → E ⇒ ROSTR
Hence 68, 33, 65, 58, 40 gives the correct answer.
1
=119, then the value of x− 1 is
4
Q.26) If, x + 4
x x
[1] 6
[2] 12
[3] 11
*[4] 3
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION]
Q.27) The side BC of the ΔABC is extended to the point D. If ∠ ACD = 105° and ∠B = 2 / 3 ∠A, then the
value of ∠B is
[1] 64°
*[2] 42°
[3] 46°
[4] 50°
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] Let ∠B be x
Given: ∠B = 2/3 ∠A
⇒ ∠A = 3/2 ∠B = 3/2 x
We know that, sum of two interior angle = exterior angle opposite to them.
⇒ 3/2 x + x = 105°
⇒ 5x/2 = 105
⇒ x = 42°
Q.28) ΔABC is a right angled triangle, the radius of its circumcircle is 6 cm and the length of its altitude
drawn from the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse is 4 cm. Then the area of the triangle is
[1] 12 square cm
[2] 3 square cm
*[3] 24 square cm
[4] 5 square cm
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The radius of the circumcircle is always bisector of the hypotenuse of the right-angled
triangle.
∴ Hypotenuse = 2 × radius
=2 x 6
= 12 cm
Area of the triangle = ½ × base × height
= ½ x 12 x 4
= 24 sq. cm
Q.29) The height of a mosque is 150√3 m. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 150 m from its
feet is
[1] 30°
[2] 45°
*[3] 60°
[4] 90°
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION]
Elevation angle =
Q.30) The amount of Rs. 20,000 after 2 years, compounded annually with the rate of interest being 12%
per annum during the first year and 15% per annum during the second year, would be (in rupees)
[1] 11320
[2] 12000
*[3] 25760
[4] 12500
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION]
=25760
Q.31) The value of tan80° tan10° + sin 2 70° + sin 2 20° is

[1] 0
[2] 1
*[3] 2
[4] √3/2
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] tan80° tan10° + sin 2 70° + sin 2 20°
We know that, tan (π/2 – θ) = cot θ
Also, sin (π/2 – θ) = cos θ
∴ tan80° tan10° + sin 2 70° + sin 2 20° = tan (π/2 – 10°) tanº 10 + sin 2 (π/2 – 20) + sin 2 20°
= Cot 10° tan 10° + cos 2 20° + sin 2 20°
∵ Cot 10° tan 10° = 1 and cos 2 20° + sin 2 20° = 1
=1+1=2
Q.32-35) Direction (32-35): The bar graph given below shows the per acre yield (in kg) of different
countries. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions:
Q.32) The average yield of the given countries is:
1
[1] 132
3
1
[2] 133
3
[3] 134.33%
1
*[4] 135
3
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION]
Q.33) By how much percentage is India's per acre yield more than that of Pakistan's?
[1] 20%
*[2] 25%
[3] 33 (1/3)%
[4] 35%
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION]
Q.34) Sri Lanka's yield (approximately) is what percent of total yield of all the countries?
[1] 17.80%
*[2] 16.20%
[3] 18.20%
[4] 15.40%
[MARKS] 1
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[SOLUTION] 16.20%
Q.35) Writing the yields of all countries in ascending order, the difference between the sum of yields of first
three countries to that of last three countries is:
[1] 200 kg
[2] 212 kg
*[3] 172 kg
[4] 162 kg
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Yields of all the countries in ascending order (in kg) = 80, 120, 120, 132, 160, 200
Sum of first three yields = 80 + 120 + 120 = 320 kg
Sum of first last three yields = 132 + 160 + 200 = 492 kg
Difference between them = 492 – 320 = 172 kg
Q.36) If 10 men working 16 hours per day can complete a piece of work in 21 days. How many hours per
day must 24 men work to complete the same job in 14 days?
[1] 12 hr
[2] 20 hr
*[3] 10 hr
[4] 15 hr
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[SOLUTION] 10 × 16 × 21 = 24 × t × 14
=10 hours
Q.37) PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. ∠SQP = 50° and ∠PSQ = 33°. Then the measure of ∠QRS is
*[1] 83°
[2] 80°
[3] 75°
[4] 60°
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Let ∠ SPQ be x, then in triangle PSQ,
∠SPQ + ∠PQS + ∠QSP = 180° (∵ sum of all three angles of a triangle = 180°)
∴ x + 50° + 33° = 180
⇒ x = 97°
In cyclic quadrilateral, sum of opposite angles = 180°
∴ ∠QRS + x = 180°
⇒ ∠QRS = 180° – 97° = 83°
Q.38) A shopkeeper earns a profit of 20% on selling a book at 20% discount on the printed price. The ratio
of cost price to the printed price of the book is:
[1] 45 : 56
[2] 50 : 61
[3] 99 : 125
*[4] None of these
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[SOLUTION] Let the CP be 100
Hence, SP = 100 + 20% of 100 = 120
If the marked price be x, then
80% of x = 120
x = 120 × 100/80 = 150
Hence, required ratio = 100 : 150 = 2 : 3
Q.39) The number of pupils of a class is 55. The ratio of the number of male pupils to the number of female
pupils is 5: 6. The number of female pupils is:
[1] 11
[2] 25
*[3] 30
[4] 35
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[SOLUTION] Let the number of male and female pupils be 5x and 6x respectively.
Total number of pupils = 55
∴ 5x + 6x = 55
⇒ 11x = 55
⇒x=5
∴ Number of females = 6x = 6 × 5 = 30
Q.40) 15% more is gained by selling a pen for Rs. 330 than by selling it for Rs. 300. The cost price of the
watch is
[1] Rs. 110
[2] Rs. 140
*[3] Rs. 200
[4] Rs. 250
[MARKS] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] 15% = 30
1% = 2
100% = Rs. 200
Q.41) If 40% of the students in a school are girls and number of boys is 1218, how many girls are there in
the school?
[1] 1128
*[2] 812
[3] 1821
[4] 1281
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] 60% = 1218
then, 40% = 1218×40/60 = 812
Q.42) It takes two hours for a 150 km journey, if 30 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 5
minutes more, if 50 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the
car is:
[1] 3:5
*[2] 3:4
[3] 4:3
[4] 4:5
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Let the speed of train be x and the speed of the car is y,
From the first restriction,
30 / x + 120 / y = 2
1 / x + 4 / y = 1/15 - - - - - - - - - - (I)
From the second restriction,
50 / x + 100 / y = 2 + 5/60
50 / x + 100 / y = 25/12
1 / x + 2 / y = 1/24 - - - - - - - - - - (II)
From equ. (I) and (II)
x = 60
y = 80
Ratio = 60: 80 = 3: 4
2
a −a+1
Q.43) If a + 1/a = 1, then what is the value of 2 (a≠0)
a + a+1
[1] -1
[2] 1
*[3] 0
[4] 2
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] a + 1/a = 1
a2 + 1 = a
a2 – a + 1 = 0
So,
Q.44) If p + q = 1, then the value of p3 + q3 + 3pq is equal to

[1] 0
*[2] 1
[3] 2
[4] 3
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Given that, p + q = 1
Taking cube of both sides, we get
(p + q) 3 = 1
⇒ p 3 + q 3 + 3pq (p + q) = 1
⇒ p 3 + q 3 + 3pq = 1
Q.45) The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 126 cm if its base is 36 cms. Find the length of equal sides?
[1] 13.12 cm
[2] 42 cm
[3] 40 cm
*[4] 45 cm
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Perimeter (P) = 2a +b
126 = 2a + 36
2b = 90
b = 45 cms
Q.46) In figure, ST || QR. If ST = 3 cm, QR = 6 cm and area of ΔPST = 15 sq cm, then the area of ΔPQR is
[1] 75 sq cm
[2] 45 sq cm
[3] 30 sq cm
*[4] 60 sq cm
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Area of a triangle = ½ × base × height
Here, h’ = 2h’’ ----(i)
h’ = height of triangle PQR
h’’ = height of triangle PST
Also, ST = 3cm, QR = 6cm
∴ Area of triangle PST = ½ × 3 × h’’
⇒ ½ × 3 × h’’ = 15
⇒ h’’ = 10cm
By eq. (i),
h’ = 2 × 10 = 20cm
∴ Area of triangle PQR = ½ × 6 × 20 = 60 sq. cm
Q.47) If cos4 θ – sin 4 θ = 1/3, then the value of tan 2 θ is

*[1] 1/2
[2] 1/3
[3] 1/4
[4] 1/5
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Here, cos 4 θ - sin 4 θ = 1/3
⇒ (cos 2 θ – sin 2 θ)(cos 2 θ + sin 2 θ) = 1/3
⇒ (cos 2 θ – sin 2 θ) = 1/3
⇒ (cos 2 θ – 1 + cos 2 θ) = 1/3
⇒ (2cos 2 θ – 1) = 1/3
Let cos θ be x
⇒ 2x 2 – 1 = 1/3
⇒ 2x 2 = 1 + 1/3
⇒ x 2 = 2/3
sin 2 θ = 1 – x 2
= 1 – 2/3 = 1/3
∴ tan 2 θ = (1/3)/(2/3) =1/2
Q.48) If a perfect square, not divisible by 8, be divided by 8, the remainder will be

[1] 1, 3 or 5
[2] 1, 2 or 5
*[3] 1, 3 or 4
[4] 1, 2 or 4
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Every perfect square end with any of these numbers: 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 9
Among these numbers, 1, 5, 9 are the numbers that are not divisible by 8, also multiples of 8 ends with
either 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, so if any number ending with these three numbers will produce remainders either 1, 3, or
4
Q.49) A batsman in his 12th innings makes a score of 150, and thereby increases his average by 10. The
average score after 12th innings is:
*[1] 40
[2] 55
[3] 65
[4] 70
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Let average run of 11 innings = x
∴ Total runs made by him in 11 innings = 11x
Score of 12th innings = 150
Average run of 12 innings = x + 10
Total runs of 12 innings = 12(x + 10)
12(x + 10) – 11x = 150
⇒ 12x + 120 – 11x = 150
⇒ x = 60 Thus, average run after the 12th innings = 30 + 10 = 40
√ √
Q.50) The value of −√ 6+ 2+ √ 4+ 4 √ 9
[1] -4
[2] 4
*[3] 0
[4] -2
[MARKS] 1
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[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION]
=0
Q.51) A solid disc and a solid sphere have the same mass and same radius. Which one has the higher
moment of inertia about its centre of mass?
*[1] The disc
[2] The sphere
[3] Both have the same moment of inertia
[4] The information provided is not sufficient to answer the question
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The disc
Q.52) Two substances of densities P, and P2 are mixed in equal volume and their relative density is 4.
When they are mixed in equal masses, relative density is 3. The values of p, and p, respectively, are
*[1] 6, 2
[2] 3, 5
[3] 12, 4
[4] 9, 3
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] 6, 2
Q.53) A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight line towards South, immediately turns around
and returns to Bengaluru. The time taken for this round trip is 2h. The magnitude of the average velocity of
the car for this round trip
*[1] is zero
[2] is 50 km/h
[3] is 25 km/h
[4] Cannot be calculated without knowing acceleration
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] According to question, a round trip mentioned by a car But as we know, for round trip the
displacement is zero. So displacement/ time = 0/2 = 0 ms-1
Hence, option (1) is correct.
Q.54) "The sum of emf and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero" is a consequence of
[1] Ohm's law
[2] Conservation of charge
[3] Conservation of momentum
*[4] conservation of energy
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] It is Kirchhoff's second law also known as loop's law. i.e. £E = iR
It is based on conservation of energy, since work done in a closed path is zero.
Q.55) A student measures certain lengths using a meter scale having least count equal to 1 mm. Which
one of the following measurement is more precise?
[1] 0.50 mm
[2] 29.07 mm
*[3] 0.925 mm
[4] 910 mm
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Using instrument of higher precision improving experimental techniques, etc., we can reduce
the least count error.
Here, option (3) 0.925 mm is more precise than other.
Q.56) If the work done on the system or by the system is zero, then which one of the following statement
for a gas kept at a certain temperature is correct?
*[1] Change in internal energy of the system is equal to flow of the heat in or out of the system
[2] Change in internal energy of the system is less than heat transferred.
[3] Change in internal energy of the system is more than the heat flow.
[4] Cannot be determined.
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Change in internal energy of the system is equal to flow of the heat in or out of the system.
Q.57) Ammonia (NH3) obtained from different sources always has same proportion of nitrogen and
hydrogen. It proves the validity the law of:
[1] Reciprocal proportion
*[2] constant proportion
[3] Multiple proportions
[4] None of the above
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The law of definite or constant proportion was given by Joseph Proust. It states that
irrespective of source, a given compound always contains exactly the same elements in the same
proportion by weight. Hence, it follows law of constant proportion, not multiple and reciprocal proportion
laws.
Q.58) Boric acid is an acid because its molecule?

*[1] accepts oH from water release proton
[2] combines with proton from water molecule
[3] contains replaceable H ion
[4] gives up a proton
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Boric acid is a weak monobasic acid. It is not a protonic acid, but acts as a Lewis acid by
abstracting OH- from water.
Q.59) The main constituent of vinegar is?

*[1] acetic acid
[2] Ascorbic acid
[3] Citric acid
[4] Tartaric acid
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The main constituent of vinegar is acetic acid (CH3COOH). Commercially, it is produced by
fast or slow fermentation process which involves yeast (fungus).
Citric acid is present in lemons or oranges. Tartaric acid is present in tamarind. Ascorbic acid is present in
all citrus fruits.
Q.60) White phosphorus glows in the dark due to

[1] amorphous character
*[2] slow oxidation
[3] high ignition temperature
[4] good conducting property of electricity
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The slow oxidation is actually a reaction of white phosphorus with oxygen (at some partial
pressure) forming short lined molecules such as HPO and P2O2 that on stabilising its visible light.
White phosphorus + Oxygen → (P2) (O2)
[Short – lined intermediates] → [Final product]
(HPO P2O2 etc) Light-energy (Glow)
Q.61) Which of the following are the properties of an electron?

1. Electron is a constituent of cathode ray.
2. Electron is a negatively charged particle.
3. The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the proton.
4. Electron is deflected by the electric field but not by magnetic field.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
*[1] 1 and 2
[2] 1, 2 and 3
[3] 3 and 4
[4] 1 and 4
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] J.J. Thomson discovered electron in cathode ray tube experiment so it is considered as the
constituent of cathode ray.
It is a negatively charged particle and is deflected by both electric and magnetic field.
Q.62) Which of the following statements regarding heavy water are correct?
1. It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
2. It cannot be used in exchange reaction to study reaction mechanism.
3. Viscosity of heavy water is relatively smaller than that of ordinary water.
4. The dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that of ordinary water.
[1] 1 and 2
[2] 2 and 3
[3] 3 and 4
*[4] 1 and 4
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors and its dielectric constant is smaller
than the ordinary water [Deuterium is heavier than hydrogen]
It is extensively used in exchange reactions for the study of reaction mechanism.
Its density is higher than water. Hence, its viscosity is also higher than ordinary water.
Q.63) Which one of the following is not a place of action in human body for the malarial parasite
Plasmodium?
[1] Liver
*[2] Kidney
[3] Red blood cell
[4] Brain
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Malarial parasite Plasmodium affects several body parts. In early stages, liver and red blood
cells get affected Later on, malaria parasite affects liver and spleen causing hepatomegaly and
splenomegaly respectively. Also advance cases, brain gets affected causing cerebral malaria. This parasite
does not affect kidney.
Q.64) Who among the following discovered antibiotic producing fungus from Penicillium genus?
[1] Louis Pasteur
*[2] Sir Alexander Fleming
[3] Stanley Prusiner
[4] Robert Hooke
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Sir Alexander Fleming was a Scottish biologist His best known discovery is the antibiotic
penicillin obtained from mold Penicillium notatum. Louis Pasteur was a French scientist well known for his
discovery of various vaccination microbial fermentation and pasteurisation Stanley Prusiner was an
American, well known for his discovery of prions. Robert Hooke first time discovered the cell.
Q.65) Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotic organism?

[1] Yeast
*[2] Bacteria
[3] Plant
[4] Human being
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Out of all, bacteria is not an example of eukaryotic organism. These are prokaryotes with a
primitive nucleus without nuclear membrane. Yeast, plant and human being belong to eukaryotic organisms
because they have well developed nuclear membrane separating nucleus from cytoplasm.
Q.66) Which one of the following vitamins is synthesised in our own skin?
[1] Vitamin A
[2] Vitamin B
[3] Vitamin C
*[4] Vitamin D
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Vitamin-D also known as calciferol refers to a group of fat-soluble vitamin responsible for
enhancing intestinal absorption of calcium, iron, magnesium, phosphate and zinc. It is synthesised in our
skin when we get exposed to sunlight. Vitamin A, B and C are not synthesise in our body.
Q.67) Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by

*[1] photosynthesis
[2] gluconeogenesis
[3] glycogenesis
[4] external sources
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The energy and carbon requirements of autotrophic organisms like plants are fulfilled by the
process known as photosynthesis. In this process, water and carbon dioxide are taken from outside and in
the presence of chlorophyll and sunlight, these raw materials are converted into carbohydrates which
provides energy Excess of carbohydrates are stored in the form of starch. Gluconeogenesis is the process
of formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. Glycogenesis is the process of formation of
glycogen from glucose External sources do not fulfil carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic
organisms.
Q.68) Statement I. Growth of plants is smooth with a complete fertilizer.

Statement II. A complete fertiliser always contains N, P and K.
[1] Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
*[2] Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
[3] Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Plants grow smoothly with complete essential nutrients which are supplied in the form of
fertilisers and there are 16 essential nutrients for proper growth of a plant. N. P and K are the parts of
essential nutrients.
Q.69) Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by a process called

*[1] metabolism
[2] phagocytosis
[3] photorespiration
[4] decomposition
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Energy required for maintenance of life is obtained by one of the most important life process,
lo. metabolism. This process includes anabolism (constructive) and catabolism destructive) process
Respiration is a catabolic process which supplies energy for the maintenance of life Process of Intake of
solids by the cell is known as phagocytosis: Photorespiration occurs in plants, In this process, O, acts as an
Inhibitor of photosynthesis. This process occurs in chloroplast, mitochondria and peroxisomes.
Q.70) A global network made up of thousands of privately owned computers and networks is called -
[1] World Wide Web.
*[2] Internet
[3] Specialized search engine.
[4] Internet2
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The Internet is a global wide area network that connects computer systems across the world.
It includes several high-bandwidth data lines that comprise the Internet "backbone. "These lines are
connected to major Internet hubs that distribute data to other locations, such as web servers and ISPs.
Q.71) Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the operating system?
[1] Manage memory
*[2] Provide the word processing system
[3] Start the computer
[4] Provide the user interface
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Provide the word processing system is not a basic function of operating system. word
processing system is typically entering a text by typing, and the software provides tools for copying,
deleting and various types of formatting. Some of the functions of word processing software include:
Creating, editing, saving and printing documents. Copying, pasting, moving and deleting text within a
document.
Q.72) Which of the following scrambles a message by applying a secret code?

*[1] Encryption
[2] Audits
[3] UPS
[4] Firewalls
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Encryption is a process that encodes a message or file so that it can be only be read by
certain people. Encryption uses an algorithm to scramble, or encrypt, data and then uses a key for
the receiving party to unscramble, or decrypt, the information.
Q.73) The Internet began with the development of___.

[1] USENET
*[2] ARPANET
[3] Ethernet
[4] Intranet
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] ARPANET, in full Advanced Research Projects Agency Network, experimental computer
network that was the forerunner of the Internet. The Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA), an arm
of the U.S. Defense Department, funded the development of the Advanced Research Projects Agency
Network (ARPANET) in the late 1960s.
Q.74) Website is a collection of ________.

[1] HTML documents
[2] Graphic files
[3] Audio and Video files
*[4] All of the above
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] A website (also written as web site) is a collection of web pages and related content that is
identified by a common domain name and published on at least one web server. Notable examples are
wikipedia.org, google.com, and amazon.com. All publicly accessible websites collectively constitute the
World Wide Web.
Q.75). Who designed the first electronic computer -ENIAC?

*[1] Van Neuman
[2] Joseph M Jacquard
[3] J presper Eckert
[4] Both 1 and 2
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] ENIAC was designed by John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert of the University of
Pennsylvania, U.S. John William Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert are the scientists credited with the
invention of the Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer (ENIAC), the first general-purpose electronic
digital computer completed in 1946.
Q.76) In the making of which among the following are hydrofluorocarbons used?
1. Aerosols
2. Foam Agents
3. Fire Retardants
4. Lubricants
Mark the correct option
[1] 1 2 and 4 only
[2] 1 2 and 3 only
[3] 2 3 and 4 only
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of industrial chemicals primarily used for cooling and
refrigeration. HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-
conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection.
Also, synthetic lubricants used in stationary HFC-based refrigeration equipment.
Q.77) Consider the economic activities

1. Public Administration
2. Financial Services
3. Mining and Quarrying
Which of the above economic activities fall under the tertiary sector?
[1] 1 and 3 only
[2] 1 2 and 3
[3] 2 and 3 only
*[4] 1 and 2 only
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Except Mining and Quarrying which belongs to Secondary sector, all other belong to Tertiary
sector
Q.78) Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of
'sterilization'?
*[1] Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
[2] Oversight of settlement and payment systems
[3] Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
[4] Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] To ease the threat of currency appreciation or inflation, central banks often attempt what is
known as the "sterilization" of capital flows. In a successful sterilization operation, the domestic component
of the monetary base (bank reserves plus currency) is reduced to offset the reserve inflow, at least
temporarily. In theory, this can be achieved in several ways, such as by encouraging private investment
overseas, or allowing foreigners to borrow from the local market. The classical form of sterilization,
however, has been through the use of open market operations, that is, selling Treasury bills and other
instruments to reduce the domestic component of the monetary base.
Q.79) ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs
to which one of the following organizations?
*[1] The International Union for Conservation of Nature
[2] The United Nations Environment Programme
[3] The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
[4] The World Wide Fund for Nature
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global organization that works to reduce
the spread and impact of invasive species. The ISSG was established in 1994 and is part of the Species
Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Q.80) Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of
water
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point
of water
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
Which of the above statements are correct?
[1] 1 and 2 only
[2] 2 and 3 only
[3] 1 and 3 only
*[4] 1 2 and 3
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] All statements are correct.
Acidophiles - Most bacteria grow best at neutral pH levels, between 6.5 and 7.0. However, some bacteria
can thrive in acidic conditions and even tolerate a pH as low as 1.0. These acid-loving microbes are called
acidophiles.
Extremophiles - Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures above the boiling
point of water. These microorganisms are known as extremophiles, and they are adapted to extreme
conditions and can tolerate high temperatures.
Cryophiles - Some microorganisms can grow in temperatures below freezing. These microorganisms are
known as psychrophiles or cryophiles, which means "cold-loving" in Greek. They are typically bacteria, but
can also include other microbes.

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of
Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
[1] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-
I
[2] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
[3] Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
*[4] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The Finance (No.2) Act, 2014 introduced a special taxation regime for Real Estate
Investment Trust (REIT) and Infrastructure Investment Trust (InVIT) (commonly referred to as business
trusts). InvITs provide two different types of returns to investors – Dividend Income and Capital Gains.
Each type of income has a different tax treatment. Any dividend or interest income that you get
from an InvIT is completely taxable as per your Income Tax Slab rate. This income has to be declared
every year in your Income Tax Return under the head “Income from Other Sources”.
Q.82) Correct the following statements:

Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out
interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising
consumer prices via monetary policy means.
*[1] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
Statement-I
[4] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] A central bank with a high degree of credibility firmly anchors expectations of price stability.
The monetary policy transmission mechanism is characterized by long, variable and uncertain time lags.
Thus it is difficult to predict the precise effect of monetary policy actions on the economy and price level.
Hence Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices
via increasing interest rates. Hence both statements are correct and statement II is the correct explanation
of statement I.

Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against
climate change.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
*[1] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
Statement-I
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Carbon markets, have at last become one of the most widespread tools in the fight against
climate change. By the end of 2021 more than 21% of the world’s emissions were covered by some form of
carbon pricing, up from 15% in 2020.
Also, the World Bank estimates that trading in carbon credits could reduce the cost of implementing NDCs
by more than half - by as much as $250 bn by 2030. So, carbon markets will likely be an effective tool
against Climate change. Hence statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
Q.84) Consider the following markets:

1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
[1] 1 2 & 3 only
[2] 1 and 2 only
[3] 2 and 3 only
*[4] 1 and 4 only
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] A capital market is a financial market where long-term debt or equity-backed securities are
bought and sold. It includes
Government Bonds - In India, fall under the broad category of government securities (G-Sec) and are
primarily long term investment tools issued for periods ranging from 5 to 40 years. It can be issued by both
Central and State governments of India.
Capital market refers to a broad spectrum of tradeable assets that includes the stock market as well as
other venues for trading different financial products. Treasury bills are money market instruments issued by
the Government of India and call money market is an essential part of the Indian Money Market, where the
day-to-day surplus funds (mostly of banks) are traded.
Q.85) Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
[1] Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their them a large cultivable land which they
cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce.
*[2] Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize
selected agricultural operations.
[3] Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their
land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed
amount to the farmers.
[4] A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an
area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing
process and commercial production
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[SOLUTION] Small Farmers Large Field (SFLF) is a collective action model to overcome the
disadvantages faced by millions of small and marginal farmers due to diseconomies of scale and lack of
bargaining power in the supply chain. This model is participatory and flexible and allows small farmers to
benefit from achieving economies of scale by organizing themselves into groups and synchronizing and
harmonizing selected operations.
Q.86) Consider the investments in the following assets:

1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
[1] 1 2 and 3 only
*[2] 1 3 and 4 only
[3] 2 3 and 4 only
[4] 1 2 and 4 only
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[SOLUTION] An intangible asset is an identifiable non-monetary asset, without physical substance, held for
use in the production or supply of goods or services, for rental to others, or for administrative purposes.
Enterprises frequently expend resources, or incur liabilities, on the acquisition, development, maintenance
or enhancement of intangible resources such as scientific or technical knowledge, design and
implementation of new processes or systems, licences, intellectual property, market knowledge and
trademarks (including brand names and publishing titles).
Common examples of items encompassed by these broad headings are computer software, patents,
copyrights, motion picture films, customer lists, mortgage servicing rights, fishing licences, import quotas,
franchises, customer or supplier relationships, customer loyalty, market share and marketing rights.
Goodwill is another example of an item of intangible nature which either arises on acquisition or is internally
generated. Tangible assets are typically physical assets or property owned by a company, such as
equipment, buildings, and inventory.
Q.87) Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above
as criteria other than population area and income distance?
[1] Only two
*[2] Only three
[3] Only four
[4] All five
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[SOLUTION] Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as follows.
Criteria Weight(%) 1. Population - 15.0 2. Area - 15.0 3. Forest & ecology - 10 4. Income distance - 45 5.
Tax & fiscal efforts - 2.5 6. Demographic performance - 12.5 on horizontal devolution, while XVFC agreed
that the Census 2011 population data better represents the present need of States, to be fair to, as well as
reward, the States which have done better on the demographic front, XVFC has assigned a 12.5 per cent
weight to the demographic performance criterion. XVFC has re-introduced tax effort criterion to reward
fiscal performance.
Q.88) Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation
(S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
[1] Only one
[2] Only two
*[3] Only three
[4] All four
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[SOLUTION] Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (‘S3i’) In March 2020, Sustainable
Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) was formally established as a stand-alone business unit
in the UNOPS governance structure, making UNOPS the first United Nations organization able to make
direct investments from its own balance sheet.
In line with the UNOPS Strategic Plan, 2022-2025, the S3i office will seek to enhance and accelerate the
effort of engaging public and private sector investors to work collectively to scale up infrastructure
investments and consider co-creating innovative financing options. The UNOPS S3i will continue rolling out
the initiative across its three focus-areas: (a) affordable housing; (b) renewable energy; and (c) health
infrastructure.
Q.89) Consider the following heavy industries:

1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above
industries?
[1] Only one
[2] Only two
*[3] All three
[4] None
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[SOLUTION] Green hydrogen is the hydrogen produced through electrolysis of water using electricity from
renewable sources. Hydrogen use today is dominated by industry, namely: oil refining, ammonia
production, methanol production and steel production.
Central to a decarbonized India will be a widespread adoption of renewable power and vehicle
electrification. Targets and policies such as the 500 GW non-fossil fuel electricity capacity by 2030, scheme
for Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles- Phase II (FAME II) etc represent a concrete
policy push towards fulfilling these ambitions.
To further complement these ongoing efforts, India is prioritising green hydrogen as a potential solution to
decarbonise hard-to-abate sectors such as refinery, ammonia, methanol, iron and steel and heavy-duty
trucking.
Q.90) Consider the following Statements:

Statement-I Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
I
Statement-I
*[3] Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
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[SOLUTION] Statement I is correct: In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold, making it the 1st largest
exporter of Gold in the world. Switzerland is consistently the world's leading gold exporting country based
on value. Statement II is not correct: Australia is way out in front as the country with the largest gold mine
reserves in the world at 10,000 tonnes. Russia is ranked second on the USGS’s list of the countries with
the biggest gold mine reserves in the world with 5,300 tonnes – nearly half the amount of Australia.

Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken
advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
I
Statement-I
*[4] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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[SOLUTION] Statement I is incorrect: India’s share in global merchandise trade is only 1.8% and 4% in
global services. India plans to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027 and 10%
by 2047.
Statement II is correct: The PLI scheme is open to both domestic and international manufacturers.
Samsung as well as Indian firms such as Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International,
Optiemus Electronics and Micromax are also expanding their factories to take advantage of the PLI
scheme.
Q.92) Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned
subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and
sequestration?
[1] 1 only
[2] 1 and 3 only
*[3] 1 and 2 only
[4] All of the above
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[SOLUTION] Statement 1 is correct: Adding crushed rock dust to farmland could draw down up to two
billion tonnes of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air per year. The technique, known as enhanced rock
weathering, involves spreading finely crushed basalt, a natural volcanic rock, on fields to boost the soil’s
ability to extract CO2 from the air.
Statement 2 is correct: When you add lime to seawater, it reacts with that acid and neutralizes it, forming
a carbonate ion. The effect is a boost in alkalinity to the ocean, and greater ocean alkalinity means more
CO2 can be absorbed.
Statement 3 is correct: Geological storage involves injecting CO2 captured from industrial processes into
rock formations deep underground, thereby permanently removing it from the atmosphere. An extensive
cap rock or barrier at the top of the formation to contain the CO2 permanently.

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
*[1] 1 only
[2] 2 only
[3] Both 1 and 2
[4] Neither 1 nor 2
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[SOLUTION] Carbon fibers can be defined as fibers with a carbon content of 90% or above. It is made up
of long, thin strands of carbon that are bonded together. Carbon fiber is made by heating a carbon-
containing material, such as polyacrylonitrile (PAN), rayon, or pitch, to a very high temperature in an inert
atmosphere.
This process causes the carbon atoms to bond together and form long, thin strands. The strands are then
twisted together to form yarn, which can be woven into fabric or mats. The fabric or mats can then be
impregnated with a resin, such as epoxy, to form a composite material. It is very strong and lightweight, and
they are also corrosion-resistant and have a good electrical conductivity.
Thus making it ideal for use in a variety of applications, including aircraft manufacturing and automobiles.
Hence statement 1 is correct. Carbon fibre is not currently biodegradable. Because carbon fibre is a
composite built to hold its strength and shape – most carbon fibres are difficult to recycle and repurpose –
especially since they cannot be melted down and used to make new products or items. Currently, carbon
fibre waste or other fibre composites can be recycled using several types of technologies including virgin
carbon fibre offcuts, carbon fibre-reinforced composites (CFRC), utilizing chemical reactions, size-reduction
method using high-voltage, electrohydraulic and electrodynamic fragmentation. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.
Q.94) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
[1] 1 and 3 only
[2] 2 and 3 only
[3] 1 and 2 only
*[4] 1 2 and 3 only
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[SOLUTION] Statement 1 is correct: Artisanal gold mining currently contributes more than 35 percent of all
global mercury emissions created by people.
Statement 2 is correct: Mercury is emitted in the combustion process of coal and other fossil fuels. Coal has
much higher mercury concentrations than other fossil fuels, which explains why coal-fired power plants
often emit larger quantities of mercury pollution than do power plants that burn other fossil fuels.
Statement 3 is correct: Mercury is a highly toxic element; there is no known safe level of exposure. Ideally,
neither children nor adults should have any mercury in their bodies because it provides no physiological
benefit.
Q.95) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
[1] 1 and 2 only
[2] 1 and 3 only
[3] 2 and 3 only
[4] 1 2 and 3 only
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[SOLUTION] Green hydrogen is any hydrogen that is produced from renewable energy. This includes
electrolysis with electricity coming from green sources such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric power.
Various uses of Green Hydrogen- Industry: Oil refining, ammonia production, methanol production, steel
production etc. Buildings: Hydrogen could be blended into existing natural gas networks, with the highest
potential in multifamily and commercial buildings, particularly in dense cities.
Power generation: Hydrogen is one of the leading options for storing renewable energy, and hydrogen and
ammonia can be used in gas turbines to increase power system flexibility. Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell
Electric Vehicle (FCEV): Powered by Hydrogen, it is one of the best Zero Emission solutions. It is
completely environment friendly with no tailpipe emissions other than water. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It can also serve as fuel for internal combustion engines. Hydrogen has a wide flammability range in
comparison with all other fuels. As a result, hydrogen can be combusted in an internal combustion engine
over a wide range of fuel-air mixtures. A significant advantage of this is that hydrogen can run on a lean
mixture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Recently NTPC Ltd commissioned India's first green hydrogen blending project. The green hydrogen
blending has been started in the piped natural gas (PNG) network of NTPC Kawas township, Surat. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
Q.96) Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the
'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15
crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector.
[1] 1 Only
[2] 2 Only
[3] Both 1 and 2
*[4] Neither 1 nor 2
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[SOLUTION] Union Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (M/o MSMEs) has issued Gazette
notification to pave way for implementation of the upward revision in the definition and criteria of MSMEs in
the country. The new definition and criterion will come into effect from 1st July, 2020. As per the new
criteria, a medium enterprise is where the investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment does not
exceed fifty crore rupees and turnover does not exceed two hundred and fifty crore rupees.
In terms of Master Direction on ‘Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification’ dated
September 4, 2020, all bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the conditions prescribed therein qualify for
classification under priority sector lending. According to these directions, MSMEs should be engaged in the
manufacture or production of goods, in any manner, pertaining to any industry specified in the First
Schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 or engaged in providing or rendering of
any service or services. All bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the above guidelines qualify for
classification under priority sector lending.
Q.97) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT
system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-
fame for spending it.
[1] 1 Only
[2] 2 Only
*[3] Both 1 and 2
[4] Neither 1 nor 2
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[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Alternatives to SWIFT and the U.S. dollar are coming from two directions: cryptocurrencies
and central bank digital currencies. Countries will be able to directly exchange digital currencies in a
bilateral way and without going through SWIFT or similar settlement systems. When the technology allows
seamless and instantaneous convertibility from one sovereign currency into another, it changes the
practical need for a dominant global reserve currency.
CBDC could be employed for fiscal transfers to households or firms, such as relief or stimulus payments.
Such helicopter drops or subsidies would potentially become easier when there is widespread adoption of
CBDC accounts. The transfer payments could also be “programmable”, with conditions such as expiration
upon a certain date or a requirement to spend the funds at certain vendors.

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by
providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member
takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial banks support SHGs.
[1] 1 and 3 only
[2] 1 and 2 only
*[3] 2 and 3 only
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[SOLUTION] The origin of self-help group can be traced is from Grameen bank of Bangladesh, which was
founded by Mohamed Yunus. SGHs were started and formed in 1975. In India NABARD initiated in 1986-
1987. The absence of institutional credits available in the rural area has led to the establishment of SHGs.
The concept of self-help groups has been evolved to organize the rural poor to meet their productive and
consumption needs out of their saving. Though the cash credit facility is to be sanctioned by the bank to
SHG, the sanction of credit by SHG to its individual members will be guided as per their terms and duration
as decided by the groups.
This is expected to remain unchanged and thus ensure continuance of financial discipline at the member
level. A few members of an SHG may graduate faster to start or expand economic activities requiring much
higher levels of loans than required by other SHG members. In such cases, all other members may not like
to stand mutual guarantee for a few large sized loans. In such cases, a smaller “Joint Liability Group (JLG)”
from members of an SHG may be created. The members of JLG will continue to remain members of the
SHGs and continue to participate in the activities of SHGs are earlier. Banks may encourage creation of
such enterprise / livelihood based JLGs as a separate entity.

Statement-I: According to the United Nation's 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India
extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to
satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its
territory.
[1] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
Statement-I
*[3] Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
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[SOLUTION] According to United Nation's 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India accounts for
nearly 26% of groundwater abstracted globally. The Asia-Pacific region is the largest groundwater
abstractor in the world, containing seven out of the ten countries that extract most groundwater
(Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Iran, Pakistan and Turkey). These countries alone account for
roughly 60% of the world’s total groundwater withdrawal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
India, as the largest groundwater user globally, at an estimated 251 km³ per year abstracted, uses 89% of
its groundwater abstraction for irrigation. The report says, reduced electricity tariffs or free electricity to
agriculture, as exist in many Indian states, coupled with assured state or government procurement of crops,
encourage farmers to grow water-intensive crops, such as sugarcane, including in semi-arid regions with
low natural recharge. This is responsible for unprecedented groundwater depletion in large parts of India.
Hence statement 2 is not correct. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q.100) Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a
'Community Reserve'
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area
3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
Which of the above statements are correct?
*[1] 1 2 and 3 only
[2] 1 2 and 4 only
[3] 1 3 and 4 only
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-1
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas
of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established
national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.
Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the
Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands are
privately owned. These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection)
Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected
areas due to private ownership of land, and land use. The provisions of the WLPA apply to an area once it
has been declared a community reserve. Section 33 of the WLPA passes the authority of the sanctuary to
the chief wildlife warden. Hence statement 1 is correct.
After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people cannot hunt there, nor can they use it for
agricultural practices. Hence statement 2 and statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is not correct.
Q.101) Which of the following is not the criteria of “Values”

[1] It must be chosen freely
[2] It must be chosen from alternatives
*[3] A value should never be cherished
[4] A value must be performed
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[SOLUTION] A value should never be cherished
Q.102) The rules of Ethics are also called as ____________?

*[1] Law
[2] Responsibility
[3] Rules
[4] Thoughts
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[SOLUTION] Law
Q.103) Lawrance give which of the following examples for better understanding of “Heinz Dilemma”?
[1] Stanford Dilemma
[2] Locke Dilemma
*[3] Heinz Dilemma
[4] Robert Kartz Dilemma
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[SOLUTION] Heinz Dilemma
Q.104) The first use of the term “Emotional Intelligence” is usually attributed to
*[1] Wayne Payne’s
[2] Robert
[3] Stanford
[4] Gestalt
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[SOLUTION] Wayne Payne’s
Q.105) “Organismic Theory” is given by whom?

*[1] Kurt Goldstein
[2] Gestalt
[3] Sir Henry Maine
[4] Rousseau
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[SOLUTION] Kurt Goldstein
Q.106) As per the theory of “George Levinger” which of the following is not one of the stages of a
relationship?
[1] Acquaintance
[2] Build Up
[3] Deterioration
*[4] Switching
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[SOLUTION] Switching
Q.107) Who conducted the “Marshmallow Experiment”?

[1] Henri Maine
[2] Elton Mayo
*[3] Walter Mischel
[4] Durkheim
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[SOLUTION] Walter Mischel
Q.108) The word “Society” is primarily used in the context of human- ___________ relationship?
*[1] Human
[2] Nature
[3] Both
[4] None
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[SOLUTION] Human
Q.109) Identify which statement is false or true.

A. School should not involve parents in any manner in education of their children.
B. Establishing links of the school with the community hinders meaningful learning for
students.
[1] A is true but B is false.

[2] B is true but A is false
[3] Both A & B are true
*[4] Both A & B are false.
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[SOLUTION] Both A & B are false.
Q.110) What is the age of “pre-conventional” level?

*[1] 3-7
[2] 3-6
[3] 4-6
[4] 2-7
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[SOLUTION] 3-7
Q.111) Which of the following moral reasoning a child pursue in the age of 6-13 years?
[1] Moral reasoning based on reward and punishment
*[2] Moral reasoning based on external ethics
[3] Moral reasoning based on personal ethics
[4] Moral reasoning based on friends.
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[SOLUTION] Moral reasoning based on external ethics
Q.112) Which of the following is known as hybrid between “Act” and “Rule” Utilitarianism?
*[1] Motive
[2] Total
[3] Negative
[4] Average
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[SOLUTION] Motive
Q.113) “Anti- discrimination” laws are example of which of the following?

*[1] Social Egalitarianism
[2] Economic Egalitarianism
[3] Political Egalitarianism
[4] Legal Egalitarianism
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[SOLUTION] Social Egalitarianism
Q.114) Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?

1. Political Egalitarianism: Universal Suffrage
2. Progressive Taxation: Economic Egalitarianism
3. Publicly funded healthcare and education: Social Egalitarianism
4. Jury Trials: Legal Egalitarianism
[1] 1 only
[2] 2 only
[3] Both 3 and 4
*[4] None of the above
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[SOLUTION] None of the above
Q.115) Teleological theory has been criticized often for the fact that:
[1] An act is moral if it could become a universal rule for society.
*[2] One cannot predict the outcome of actions in advance.
[3] Help justify one’s personal actions and try to convince everyone.
[4] All of the above.
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[SOLUTION] One cannot predict the outcome of actions in advance.
Q.116) Which dimension of ethics focuses on the ethical obligations we have towards individual people?
*[1] Individual Ethics (Think of a single person making a moral decision)
[2] Social Ethics (Think of a group of people interacting with each other)
[3] Professional Ethics (Think of a doctor treating a patient)
[4] Environmental Ethics (Think of humans interacting with the natural world)
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[SOLUTION] Individual Ethics (Think of a single person making a moral decision)
Q.117) Which branch of ethics deals primarily with knowledge?

*[1] Epistemology
[2] Metaphysics
[3] Logic
[4] Aesthetics
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[SOLUTION] Epistemology
Q.118) Who among the following divided the soul into three parts: Rational, Appetitive, or Spirited?
*[1] Plato
[2] Marx
[3] Aristotle
[4] Socrates
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[SOLUTION] Plato
Q.119) The “Categorical Imperative” theory of Deontology is given by __________.

*[1] Immanuel Kant
[2] Gandhiji
[3] Nishkam Karma
[4] None of the above
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[SOLUTION] Immanuel Kant
Q.120) Which theory of Consequentialism states that “An action is right if it maximizes happiness for the
greatest number of people”.
*[1] Utilitarianism
[2] Welfarism
[3] Egoism
[4] Altruism
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[SOLUTION] Utilitarianism
Q.121) Which family trait is most likely to lead to children developing strong ethical values?
[1] Authoritarian discipline
*[2] Open communication and positive role models
[3] Strict religious adherence
[4] High academic expectations
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION]
Q.122) Which factor is NOT a challenge to effective moral development within a family?
[1] Single-parent households
[2] Substance abuse among family members
[3] Strong sibling rivalry and conflict
*[4] Consistent and loving interactions with parents
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[SOLUTION] Consistent and loving interactions with parents
Q.123) Peer pressure can influence adolescents' ethical decisions by:
[1] Encouraging conformity to group norms, even if unethical
[2] Providing support and positive reinforcement for good values
[3] Offering alternative perspectives and critical thinking opportunities
*[4] Both 1 and 2
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[SOLUTION] Both 1 and 2
Q.124) Which teaching method is most effective for ethical development in students?
[1] Direct instruction and memorization of ethical rules
*[2] Collaborative learning and discussion of ethical dilemmas
[3] Standardized testing and assessment of moral knowledge
[4] Rote learning of historical figures and their achievements
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[SOLUTION] Collaborative learning and discussion of ethical dilemmas
Q.125). Character education programs can contribute to students' moral development by:
[1] Teaching critical thinking skills and ethical decision-making models
[2] Providing opportunities for community service and prosocial activities
[3] Creating a safe and supportive learning environment with clear expectations
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[SOLUTION] All of the above
I.126-130) Directions (126-130): Answer the questions below based on the passage given below:
Smoking is very injurious to health. Not only the smoker but also the individuals surrounding them can be
harmed by tobacco smoke. Children are put at further risk since they are three times likely to smoke if their
parents do. One out of every two smokers who start smoking at a young age and continue throughout their
lives will ultimately be killed by tobacco related diseases. With prolonged smoking, smokers have a death
rate about three times higher than non-smokers at all ages. Stopping smoking decreases health risks
associated with tobacco use. It can decrease the burden of diseases such as heart or respiratory diseases.
There are clear health benefits including a longer life even for those who quit smoking at the age of 60 and
above.
Q.126) Smokers who start smoking at an early age are less likely to quit smoking.
[1] If the interference is definitely true.
*[2] If the interference is probably true.
[3] If the interference is cannot be determined.
[4] If the interference is probably false.
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[SOLUTION] If the interference is probably true.
Q.127) Non-smokers who are victims of passive smoking have one-third death rate as compared to
smokers.
[2] If the interference is probably true.
*[4] If the interference is probably false.
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[SOLUTION] If the interference is probably false.
Q.128) Non-smoking adults who surround smokers constantly are less likely to be harmed.
[1] If the interference is definitely true
[2] If the interference is probably true
*[3] If the interference is cannot be determined.
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[SOLUTION] If the interference is cannot be determined.
Q.129) If parents stop smoking, then their children are less likely to give up smoking.
[2] If the interference is probably true
[3] If the interference is cannot be determined

*[4] If the interference is probably false.
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[SOLUTION] If the interference is probably false.
Q.130) Quitting smoking at an old age does not reduce the chances of health risks
*[2] If the interference is definitely false.
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[SOLUTION] If the interference is definitely false.
Q.131) The school’s drama club is putting on a production of Romeo and Juliet, and the director
needs to cast the lead roles. Which students would be best suited for the parts of Romeo and
Juliet?
[1] The football team’s quarterback and the cheerleading captain.
[2] The school’s valedictorian and the student council president.
*[3] The drama club president and the choir club president.
[4] The school’s mathlete and the debate team captain.
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[SOLUTION] The drama club president and the choir club president.
Q.132) The teachers of a school want to hold an essay competition. The topic of the essay has to be
such that it resonates with the current affairs going around in the country. At the same time, they
want to highlight the issues facing the environment. Which of the following topics is suitable for the
test?
*[1] New Forest Policy Act

[2] Upcoming Elections and Their Expected Results
[3] Drought and Its Prevention
[4] Panchayat Elections and Farmer Issues
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[SOLUTION] New Forest Policy Act
Q.133) Alladin is planning a surprise birthday party for his friend’s 25th birthday. He wants to
celebrate a memorable evening with his friend, but his friend is a very shy man who would rather
spend the evening at home playing video games than go to a fancy restaurant for dinner. Which
restaurant should Alladin choose, if any?
[1] Ahmad Bhai’s Bry and Dry – fine South Indian cuisine and elegant Malayali decor. Customers will feel
as though they’ve spent the evening in a luxurious South Indian villa.
[2] Mainland China’s Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family-style sandwich with the best-fried rice and rolls in
town.
[3] The Persian Heaven – a famous Parsi restaurant where customers are treated like Sultans. Chef
Rustumjee is famous for his mutton biryani.
*[4] Bhau’s Vada Paw serves delicious, hearty meals in a wonderful environment that reminds people of a
homely leisure-filled evening.
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[SOLUTION] Bhau’s Vada Paw serves delicious, hearty meals in a wonderful environment that reminds
people of a homely leisure-filled evening.
Q.134) Mr. Anand is a graduate in commerce with a certificate in banking. He has been working in the PRQ
Bank for last 6 years. You need to take a decision whether:
*[1] The candidate is to be selected.
[2] The candidate is to be referred to the selection panel.
[3] The candidate is to referred to the managing director.
[4] The candidate is to be rejected.
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[SOLUTION] Since Mr. Anand fulfils all the conditions given, he will be selected.
Q.135) You, a recruitment manager, are interviewing Mayank, a hardworking young man, who has
problems in speaking fluent English. He has studied in vernacular medium schools and colleges. Amongst
the following options, what would you choose to do, if your company has vacancies?
[1] I would hire him at all costs.
*[2] I would hire him for the job he is good at, and provide training in other areas.
[3] I would hire him for production or finance job but not for marketing job,which requires good
communication skills.
[4] I would ask him to improve his communication skills and come back again
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[SOLUTION] I would hire him for the job he is good at, and provide training in other areas.
Q.136) You have a case based on a complaint received from a shop keeper. You speak to that shop owner
where a lady sells goods at wholesale rates. The shopkeeper tells you that the young woman in her 20s
has been selling goods which could be stolen. She tells you that the woman is now in the store and has just
handed over some goods. You look for the woman but she has fled the building. What action should you
take?
[1] Interview other salespersons to determine if they can identify her.

*[2] Ask the shopkeeper to collect more information as it could lead to the identity of the woman.
[3] Get a good description of the woman and go in pursuit.
[4] Ask the shopkeeper to give some material evidence that can be used to convict the women
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[SOLUTION] Ask the shopkeeper to collect more information as it could lead to the identity of the woman
Q.137) A database software manufacturing company found out that a product it has launched recently had
a few bugs. The product has already been bought by more than a million customers. The company realized
that bugs could cost its customers significantly. However, if it informs the customers about the bug, it feared
losing credibility.
What would be the most ethical option for the company?
*[1] Apologize and fix up the bug for all customers even if it has to incur losses.
[2] Do not tell customers about bugs and remove only when customers face problems, even if it means
losses for the customers.
[3] Keep silent and do nothing.
[4] Keep silent but introduce and improved product that is bug-free at the earliest
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[SOLUTION] Apologize and fix up the bug for all customers even if it has to incur losses.
Q.138) You are in-charge of a police station in Delhi. You receive a radio message asking you to rush to an
area. Where gang of goons are teasing girls. You rush to the spot and:
[1] let them off with a warning

[2] get the names and addresses of the eve teasers.
*[3] arrest the goons.
[4] beat the eve teasers severely.
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[SOLUTION] As eve teasing is a crime, arresting them is the best option.
Q.139) Gastric bypass surgery has been shown to be effective at helping extremely obese people lose
Weight. Some patients have lost as much as 300 pounds after undergoing the surgery, thereby
substantially prolonging their lives. Despite the success of the treatment, most doctors have not embraced
the surgery. Which of the following statements, if true, best accounts for the lukewarm reaction of the
medical community to gastric bypass surgery?
*[1] Gastric bypass surgery carries a high risk of serious complications, including death.
[2] Obesity is one of the leading contributors to heart disease and hypertension, two leading causes of
death.
[3] Incidences of obesity among the Indian urban middle class population have been increasing
consistently for the last three decades.
[4] Most health insurance plans will cover the cost of gastric bypass surgery (or morbidly obese patients at
high risk of heart disease
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[SOLUTION] Gastric bypass surgery carries a high risk of serious complications,including death.
Q.140) Because of accidents involving private transport, parents in the locality have decided to stop
sending children to school by private vehicles. A major accident of a private van carrying school children
lead to deaths and injuries. What is the basic strategy that reduces such accidents. You would.
[1] cancel the affiliation of the school.

*[2] prioritize the specific areas of the problem.
[3] cancel the license of the drivers.
[4] replace private vehicles with the govt. vehicles.
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[SOLUTION] prioritize the specific areas of the problem.
Q.141) The main issues of interpretation arising from the work of professionally trained anthropologists are
that they are late in colonial/post-colonial trajectories, because professional training shapes their
interpretations. However, within field of interest and training, their works are most thorough and systematic.
The best conclusion drawn from the above paragraph is analogous to:
[1] Heisenberg uncertainty principle, which states that speed and position cannot be determined
simultaneously.
[2] Cultural relativism, which states that two or more than two cultures cannot be compared.
*[3] Personal relativism, which states that one should not study anthropological phenomenon for personal
gains
[4] Communicative relativism, which states that anthropologists should not be selective in communicating
their findings.
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[SOLUTION] Personal relativism, which states that one should not study anthropological phenomenon for
personal gains
Q.142) Consider merit pay for teachers, Schools face constant pressure to change their management
approaches to improve performance, which is usually assessed by standardized reading, math, and
science scores. In most schools teachers' pay is determined by seniority, years of total teaching
experience, and credentials. Pay is rarely based on performance, which is contrary to the belief among
parents and private sector. Parents and business leaders lament that there are no carrots/sticks used to
motivate teachers. Consequently, there has been greater push to implement some form of merit pay to
improve the motivation. Which of the following statements will disprove the claim of the parents and
business leaders?
*[1] A recent study suggested that teachers are self- motivated.
[2] Teachers are largely motivated, by financial incentives; so pay for performance will induce greater and
more effective effort.
[3] Learning cannot be measured reliably and accurately by a test given once a year.
[4] Teaching is a solo-activity; there is a little interdependence with other co-curricular and extra-curricular
activities in the school.
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[SOLUTION] A recent study suggested that teachers are self- motivated.
Q.143) You are on night patrol and get the information that a shop has its front door open. It is 2 am find
and no one else is around. It appears that someone has illegally entered and is committing a crime. As are
alone. What should be your next step?
*[1] Call for backup

[2] Hide yourself and observe the shop
[3] Enter the shop and inquire into the situation
[4] Ignore the situation
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[SOLUTION] Help is essential as nobody is aware of the situation.
Q.144) Despite good economic progress, undernourished children have increased in the country. What you
would suggest as a basic decision for improvement of the health of undernourished children ?
[1] Give employment to parents of such children.

*[2] Introduce free meal in schools.
[3] Increase taxes and use that money for helping under nourished children.
[4] Educate parents to give the children a balanced diet.
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[SOLUTION] Introduce free meal in schools.
Q.145) You are a D.M. in the Indian Railways. The AC class in trains are going half empty. This is caused
by low fares offered by airline. Passengers prefer to travel by air. To increase the rate of occupancy. You
would:
*[1] reduce the capacity of upper classes to match lower demand

[2] ignore the problem thinking that it will solve itself.
[3] reduce the fare to get back passengers.
[4] eliminate the upper class facility.
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[SOLUTION] Air travel saves times. Hence lower fares will not solve the problem. Reducing capacity is the
best option.
Q.146) You are on official inspection and find that there are three lady employees who are late due to some
reasons. What will you do in such a situation?
[1] Give them a warning for late coming.
*[2] Analyse the problem and find out the real cause and then decide upon the course of action.
[3] You will suspend them.
[4] Forgive them as they are females.
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[SOLUTION] Analyse the problem and find out the real cause and then decide upon the course of action.
Q.147) You are a senior government officer. While traveling in your official car, your driver is involved in an
accident. An individual is badly injured. You would:
*[1] take the injured to the hospital.

[2] ask the driver to surrender to the police.
[3] ask the driver to run away.
[4] Put the blame for the accident on the driver.
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[SOLUTION] The basic approach should be to save the life of the victim.
Q.148) You are posted in a remote area where you face problems in personal and professional lives. Your
other batchmates are in urban postings.
[1] leave the job.

[2] feel jealous and request for a transfer.
[3] you think that it's your fate and curse yourself for joining this job.
*[4] compromise with the situation
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[SOLUTION] compromise with the situation
Q.149) You have been asked to establish asbestos shelters for the poor. You have invited bids from
contractors. Unfortunately the bids are above the approved rates. You would:
[1] call for new bids.

*[2] refer the matter to your seniors.
[3] accept the lowest bid.
[4] send new tenders with better specifications.
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[SOLUTION] Option 2 would be the best option. This would satisfy both the parties.
Q.150) You have differences of opinion regarding the final report prepared by your subordinate that is to be
submitted, urgently. The subordinate is justifying the information given in the report. You would…
[1] Tell him to reconsider the results.

*[2] Revise the report on your own.
[3] Convince the subordinate that he is wrong.
[4] Tell him not to justify the mistake.
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[SOLUTION] (a) Here again the same argument will hold true. When he is not sure that he is wrong he
may not reconsider the results so faithfully.
(b) It would be most advisable to revise the report on your own. It would involve effort but it would be the
most peaceful and positive means.
(c) It is only possible to change oneself not others. Convincing the subordinate will not be easy because his
ego will not accept that he is wrong.
(d) This would be the most negative way of approaching the matter. Dealing with the subordinated
aggressively will only make him rebellions and quarrelsome. It would be better to avoid such a situation.
Q.151) The manager who transmits all import information received from outsiders to the members
of the organization:
[1] Figurehead
[2] Spokesperson
*[3] Disseminator
[4] Liason
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[SOLUTION] Figurehead –
 The symbolic head of the organization. Performs symbolic duties of a legal or social nature.
 As a manager, you have social, ceremonial and legal responsibilities. You're expected to be a
source of inspiration. People look up to you as a person with authority, and as a figurehead.
Disseminator –
Transmits all import information received from outsiders to the members of the organization.
Spokesperson – On the contrary to the above role, here the manager transmits the
organization’s plans, policies and actions to outsiders.
Liaison –
 Maintains the communication between all contacts and informers that compose the
organizational network.
 Maintains networks of contacts outside the work unit who provide help and information.
Negotiator –
 Represents the organization at major negotiations.
You may be needed to take part in, and direct, important negotiations within your team, department, or
organization
Q.152) The principle of division of work was given by ________

*[1] Henry Fayol
[2] Henry Lawrence Gantt
[3] Frederick Taylor
[4] Mc-Gregor
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[SOLUTION] Henry Fayol is popularly known as the father of modern management theory, since he laid
down the theory of general management applicable equally to all kinds of administration and to all fields
whether social, political or economic.
In the year 1916, he published his well-known work in French entitled “Administration Industrielle et
Generale” (Industrial and General Administration).
Fayol suggested the following fourteen principles of management.
1. Division of Work: So as to produce more and secure better performance with the same effort.
2. Authority and Responsibility: Whenever authority is used responsibility arises, and the two are co-
extensive.
3. Discipline: To ensure obedience and respect for superiors.
4. Unity of Command: An employee shall receive orders from one senior only.
5. Unity of Direction: A group of activities with common objectives shall have one head and one plan.
6. Subordination: Subordination of individual interest to general interest.
7. Remuneration: It should be fair and afford maximum satisfaction to the firm and employees as well.
8. Centralization: Top management should decide the extent to which authority is to be dispersed in the
organization or retained at higher levels. Centralisation or decentralisation should be viewed as a question
of proportion.
9. Scalar Chain: It refers to superior-subordinate relations throughout the organization. It should be
shortcircuited and not be carried to the extent that it proves detrimental to the business.
10. Order: There must be a place for everything, and each thing must be in its appointed place. Similarly,
there must be appointed place for each employee and every employee must be in his appointed place.
11. Equity: Management must have the desire for equity and equality of treatment while dealing with
people. Equity is the combination of kindliness and justice in a manager.
12. Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Management should strive to minimise employee turnover.
13. Initiative: It refers to thinking out and executing a plan.
14. Espirit de Corps: This principle emphasises the need for teamwork and the importance of effective
communication in obtaining it.
Q.153) Which of the following word did Luther Gulick coin using the initial letters of management
functions:
[1] POSBRD
[2] POSDROCB
*[3] POSDCORB
[4] PSODCORB
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[SOLUTION] Luther Gulick coined the word POSDCORB using the initial letters of management functions:
planning (P), organising (O), staffing (S), directing (D), coordinating (CO), reporting (R), and budgeting (B).
Reporting is a part of control function, while budgeting represents both planning and controlling.
Similarly, Newmann and Summer classified managing process as the functions of (i) organizing, (ii)
planning, (iii) leading, and (iv) controlling.
Q.154) _______ involve the ability to see the organisation as a whole, understand how the different
parts affect each other and recognize how the company fits into or is affected by its environment.
[1] Technical skills
*[2] Conceptual skills
[3] Analytical skills
[4] Management Skills
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[SOLUTION] Conceptual Skills Conceptual skill is the ability to visualize (see) the organization as a
whole. It includes Analytical, Creative and Initiative skills. It helps the manager to identify the causes of the
problems and not the symptoms. It helps him to solve the problems for the benefit of the entire
organisation. It helps the manager to fix goals for the whole organization and to plan for every situation.
According to Prof. Daniel Katz, conceptual skills are mostly required by the top-level management
because they spend more time in planning, organizing and problem solving.
Q.155) _______ may be defined as analysis and interpretation of the future conditions in relation to
operations of the enterprise. It involves looking ahead and projecting the future course of events.
*[1] Forecasting
[2] Long term goals
[3] Operational plans
[4] Tactical planning
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[SOLUTION] Forecasting is a technique of predicting the future based on the results of previous data. It
involves a detailed analysis of past and present trends or events to predict future events. It uses statistical
tools and techniques.
Q.156) This type of organization structure combines functional departmentation with product or
project organisation:
[1] Vertical structure
[2] Horizontal structure
*[3] Matrix organization structure
[4] Team based structure
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[SOLUTION] Matrix Organisation:
According to Stanley Davis and Paul Lawrence matrix organisation is “any organisation that employs a
multiple command system that includes not only the multiple command structure, but also related support
mechanism and an associated organisational culture and behaviour pattern.”
A matrix organisation, also referred to as the “multiple command system” has two chains of command. One
chain of command is functional in which the flow of authority is vertical.
The second chain is horizontal depicted by a project team, which is led by the project, or group manager
who is an expert in his team’s assigned area of specialisation.
Since the matrix structure integrates the efforts of functional and project authority, the vertical and
horizontal lines of authority are combination of the authority flows both down and across. The matrix form of
organisation is given below.
Q.157) ________may involve development and introduction of a new product, complete redesigning
of an existing product line, installing a new plant, and the like.
*[1] Project management organization
[2] Team based structure
[3] Matrix structure
[4] Functional organization
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[SOLUTION] Project Organisation: This organisational structure are temporarily formed for specific
projects for a specific period of time, for the project of achieving the goal of developing new product, the
specialists from different functional departments such as production, engineering, quality control, marketing
research etc., will be drawn to work together. These specialists go back to their respective duties as soon
as the project is completed.
Q.158) The Great man theory of leadership led to the raise of

[1] Behavioral theory of leadership
*[2] Trait theory of leadership
[3] Situational theory of leadership
[4] None of these
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[SOLUTION] Trait theory of leadership
Q.159) The promise of behavioral theories of leadership held that this would be possible.
[1] picking a leader out of the crowd
*[2] being able to train a person to be a leader
[3] explaining why successful leaders are so successful
[4] Eliminating ineffective leaders
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[SOLUTION] being able to train a person to be a leader
Q.160) Tannenbaum and Schmidt's continuum studies suggested that managers should move
toward_____leadership styles.
[1] manager-centered
[2] task centered
*[3] employee centered
[4] quality centered
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[SOLUTION] employee centered
Q.161) The Ohio State studies indicated that leaders who were high in consideration performed
[1] best in all situations
*[2] best when employee tasks were routine
[3] worst when employee tasks were routine
[4] best when employee tasks were non-routine
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[SOLUTION] best when employee tasks were routine
Q.162) In this type of leadership, indicates that Manager has substantial but not complete confidence and
trust in subordinates but still wishes to keep control of decisions:
[1] Exploitative-Authoritative Leadership Style
[2] Benevolent-Autocratic Leadership Style
*[3] Consultative Leadership Style
[4] Democratic Leadership Style
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[SOLUTION] Consultative Leadership Style
Q.163) In this leadership style, leaders are impatient with present conditions and press their organisations
to continuously improve. They push their organisations toward a new state by creating dissatisfaction with
the present. They continuously engage themselves in scanning the environment for new market
opportunities, predicting changes in markets and technologies and looking for ways to keep their
organisation aligned with the outside environment:
[1] Leadership continuum theory
*[2] Charismatic leadership style
[3] Transformational leadership
[4] Transactional leadership
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[SOLUTION] The charismatic leadership style relies on the charm and persuasiveness of the leader.
Charismatic leaders are driven by their convictions and commitment to their cause. Charismatic leaders
also are sometimes called transformational leaders because they share multiple similarities. Their main
difference is focus and audience. Charismatic leaders often try to make the status quo better, while
transformational leaders focus on transforming organizations into the leader’s vision.
Q.164) Which theory of Motivation states that specific and challenging goals along with appropriate
feedback contribute to higher and better task performance:
[1] Victor Vroom’s Expectancy Theory

[2] McGregor's XY theory
[3] Herzberg's two factor theory
*[4] Goal Setting Theory of Motivation
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Goal Setting Theory of Motivation: Goal Setting Theory of Motivation states that specific
and challenging goals along with appropriate feedback contribute to higher and better task performance.
Goals indicate and give direction to an employee about what needs to be done and how much efforts are
required to be put in. In 1960’s, Edwin Locke put forward the goal setting theory of motivation. The theory
states that goal setting is essentially linked to task performance.
Five Principles of Goal Setting: In goal setting theory, goals must be set bases on five principles. To
motivate, goals must have:
1. Clarity.
2. Challenge.
3. Commitment.
4. Feedback.
5. Task Complexity.
Q.165) Which theory proposes that you can change someone's behavior by using reinforcement,
punishment, and extinction. Rewards are used to reinforce the behavior you want and punishments are
used to prevent the behavior you do not want. Extinction is a means to stop someone from performing a
learned behavior:
[1] Victor Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
*[2] Reinforcement Theory
[3] Herzberg's two factor theory
[4] Goal Setting Theory of Motivation
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Reinforcement Theory of Motivation: Law of Effect of Reinforcements: Reinforcement
theory of motivation was proposed by B.F. Skinner and his associates. It states that individual’s behavior is
a function of its consequences. It is based on “law of effect”-this law of effect is the idea that behaviors are
selected by their consequences, i.e., individual’s behavior with positive consequences tends to be
repeated, but individual’s behavior with negative consequences tends not to be repeated.
The managers use the following methods for controlling the behavior of the employees:
POSITIVE REINFORCEMENT: Positive reinforcement implies giving a positive response when an
individual shows positive and required behavior. For example – immediately praising an employee for
coming early for the job. This will increase the probability of outstanding behavior occurring again. The
reward is a positive reinforce, but not necessarily.
NEGATIVE REINFORCEMENT: Negative reinforcement implies rewarding an employee by removing

negative/undesirable consequences. Both positive and negative reinforcement can be used for
increasing desirable / required behavior.
PUNISHMENT: Punishment reinforcement implies removing positive consequences so as to lower

the probability of repeating the undesirable behavior in future. In other words, punishment means
applying undesirable consequence for showing undesirable behavior. For
instance; suspending an employee for breaking the organizational rules, punishment can be
equalized by positive reinforcement from an alternative source.
EXTINCTION: Extinction reinforcement implies the absence of reinforcements. In other words, extinction
implies lowering the probability of an undesired behavior by removing reward for that kind of behavior. For
instance – if an employee no longer receives praise and admiration for his good work, he may feel that his
behavior is generating no fruitful consequence. Extinction may unintentionally lower desirable behavior.
Q.166) Expectancy theory asserts that “instrumentality” or _____ is the probability that a particular level of
performance will lead to particular outcomes or consequences.
[1] effort-to-outcome
[2] effort-to-consequences
[3] performance-to-effort
*[4] performance-to-outcome
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] performance-to-outcome
Q.167) Diffusion of routine information takes place through

*[1] Downward Communication
[2] Upward Communication
[3] Horizontal Communication
[4] External Communication
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Downward Communication
Q.168) Retranslating a message to extract meaning is known as…..

*[1] Decoding
[2] Messaging
[3] Encoding
[4] Noise
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Decoding
Q.169) Advertisement is an example for …………….. communication.

[1] Propaganda
*[2] Persuasive
[3] Personal
[4] Permanent
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Persuasive
Q.170) Raised eyebrows and shrugs are examples of:

*[1] body language
[2] cross-cultural communication
[3] poor communication
[4] good communication
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] body language
Q.171) Which of the following is not a part of Formal Networks:

[1] Chain Network
[2] Y Network
[3] Circle Network
*[4] Probability chain
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Probability chain
Q.172) The Practice of Management written by __________.

*[1] Peter F Drucker
[2] Terry
[3] Louis Allan
[4] Henry Fayol
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Peter F Drucker
Q.173) Hawthorne Experiment findings led to

[1] Behavioral Approach
[2] Systems Approach
*[3] Human Relations Approach
[4] Scientific Management Approach
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The human relations approach of management involves with the human behaviour and
focused attention on the human beings in the organisation. The growth and popularity of this approach is
attributable to Elton Mayo (1880- 1949) and his Hawthorne experiments.
The Hawthorne experiments were carried out at the Hawthorne plant of the western electric company.
These experiments were carried out by Elton Mayo and the staff of the Harvard Business School, main
researchers were Elton Mayo, White Head, Roethlisberger and Dickson.
Q.174) Which basic function of management includes setting standards such as sales quotas and quality
standards?
[1] Planning
[2] Organizing
*[3] controlling
[4] Leading
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The controlling function involves setting standards such as sales quotas and
production levels. Comparing actual performance with the standards is also an aspect of the
controlling function.
Q.175). A written statement of what the job holder does, how it is done, under what conditions it is done
and why it is done:
[1] Job Analysis
*[2] Job Description
[3] Job Specification
[4] Job Evaluation
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] A job description (JD) is a written statement of what the job holder does, how it is done, under
what conditions it is done and why it is done. It describes what the job is all about, throwing light on job
content, environment and conditions of employment.
Q.176) Which one of the following Indian states has the highest proportion of area under forest cover?
[1] Madhya Pradesh
[2] Sikkim
[3] Meghalaya
*[4] Mizoram
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Mizoram
Q.177) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
[1] (A)
*[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Chandauli district, in the South-Eastern part
of Uttar Pradesh.
The Silent Valley National Park, also known locally as Sairandhrivanam, is located in the Nilgiri hills, in
Palakkad district of Kerala.
Silent Valley Park is well-known as a unique, natural tropical evergreen rainforest region and consists of a
valuable biodiversity resource.
Valley of Flowers National Park is an Indian National Park, located in West Himalaya. It is renowned for its
meadows of endemic alpine flowers and the variety of flora found there. It is located in Uttarakhand state.
Indravati National Park is the most famous wildlife sanctuary of the state of Chhattisgarh. It has several
wildlife sanctuaries in secure areas such as Barnawapara Wildlife Sanctuary Tamor Pingla; Kanger Ghati
National Park, Pamed; Sanjay National Park, Semarsot; Sitanadi Wildlife Sanctuary, etc.
1°
Q.178) To a perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic, the Earth's axis of rotation makes an angle of 23 . Had
2
this angle been zero degree, which one mong the following would result?
[1] There would have been no season.
[2] The length of day and night would have been the same throughout the year.
[3] The length of the day and night would have been the same all over the Earth.
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
1°
[SOLUTION] The Earth axis is tilted at 23 . This tilt of the Earth is responsible for yearly cycle of
2
seasonal weather changes. 2 Earth's axis or rotation makes an angle 0 ° i.e. if it was not tilted, the plane of
the Earth's poles would always be perpendicular to the Sun. Two factors change during the course of a
year to give us seasonal variations in temperature.
The angle at which sunlight enters the atmosphere and hits the ground is angle of inclination.
Q.179) "Yakutsk' are the nomadic herders of

[1] Gobi
[2] Sahara
*[3] Tundra
[4] Kalahari
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The Yakutsk is a Siberian population that primarily lives in the Republic of Sakha (also known
as Yakutia) an autonomous region within the Russian Federation. They are traditionally cattle- and horse-
breeders who speak a Turkic language, which differs from the subsistence patterns and languages of
neighbouring populations
Q.180) The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation tropical rainforest is due to.
1. fertile soil.
2. hot and wet climate throughout the year.
3. intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.
[1] 1 and 4
*[2] 2 and 3
[3] 1, 2 and 3
[4] All of these
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Tropical rainforests are found in places with hot and wet equatorial climate. The profile of the
soil in the rainforest is called a Latosol (reddish brown and red colour of soil) due to presence of oxides and
aluminium. As there is great competition for sunlight and water in the rainforests, the trees try to grow very
tall.
Codes
A B C D
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
[1] (A)
[2] (B)
*[3] (C)
[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Selvas is the largest tract of tropical rainforest in Mexico, and contains the majority of
terrestrial biodiversity in the country. Dense vegetation in a humid, temperate climate, found only above
800m. These may represent the largest area of undisturbed cloud forest in Mexico and Central America.
Savannas is rolling grassland scattered with shrubs and isolated trees, which can be found between
tropical rainforest and desert biome.
Taiga is a biome characterised by coniferous forests consisting mostly of pines, spruces and larches In
Tundra, the vegetation is composed of dwarf shrubs, sedges and grasses, mosses and lichens.
Q.182) Which of the following statements with regard to the Western coastal plain of India are correct?
1. Is a narrow belt.
2. It is an example of submerged coastal plain.
3. It provides natural conditions for development of ports.
4. It has well developed deltas.
*[1] 1, 2 and 3
[2] 1 and 2
[3] 3 and 4
[4] All of these
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The Western Ghats are a mountain range that runs almost parallel to the Western coast of
the Indian Peninsula, located entirely in India. They are the mountainous faulted and eroded edge of the
Deccan Plateau. It is a narrow plain with an average width of 64 km This plain is an example of submerged
coastal plain. This is amply proved by the city of Dwarka. This city was a part of the mainland, but is now
submerged under seawater Because of this submergence, it is a narrow belt and provides natural
conditions for the development of ports and harbours.
Q.183) Which one of the following weather conditions indicates a sudden fall in barometer reading?
*[1] Stormy weather
[2] Calm weather
[3] Cold and dry weather
[4] Hot and sunny weather
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The word story describes weather conditions like thunder, lightening, dark clouds, wind and
pelting rain. This is the only option given in the question that indicates a sudden fall in barometer reading.
Codes
A B C D
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
*[1] (A)
[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Continental Island- An island that is near to and geographically related to a continent. is
Borneo, Java, Madagascar, New Zealand.
Coral Island An island formed from coral detritus and associated organic material, in tropical and
subtropical areas e.g. - Maldives, Lakshadweep Island etc.
Volcanic Island An Island formed from volcanoes erupting from the ocean floor e.g. Aleutian Island,
Mariana island etc.
Mountain Island An island formed by uprising of under Ocean mountains. e.g. Andaman and Nicobar
Islands etc.
Q.185) Consider the following diagram:
In which one among the following letters areas of the diagram would erosion most likely change the shapes
of the riverbed?
[1] A
*[2] B
[3] C
[4] D
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Option A have more angular surface and very small erosion will likely to change the shapes
of riverbed. C and D cannot be correct option because inside river stream will never changes the shapes of
riverbed.
Codes
A B C D
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 1 4 3
[1] (A)
[2] (B)
*[3] (C)
[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Clouds are visible mass of condensed water vapour floating in the atmosphere high above
the ground surface. Clouds are of following types
Cirrus Cloud Thin, wispy clouds formed in high altitude (about 20,000 ft).
Stratus Cloud Low level cloud characterised by horizontal layering with a uniform base
Nimbus Cloud Dark clouds formed at low altitudes and produces rainfall/ precipitation.
Cumulus Low level cloud with "Putty appearance and having flat bases."
Q.187) Which one of the following pairs of power projects is not correctly matched?
[1] Papanasam-Hydropower
*[2] Neyveli-Hydropower
[3] Ukai-Thermal power
[4] Rana Pratap Sagar-Hydropower
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Neyveli is a thermal power plant, hence this pair is not correct. Major Hydropower projects in
India are Lower Jhelum, Pong, Bhakra Nangal, Tehri, Rana Pratap Sagar. Hirakund Ukai, Salal, Koyna,
Bhadra, Iduki, Omkareshwar, Nagarjun Sagar, Kopili and Khardong, Camera etc.
Q.188) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of oil refineries in India in respect of their time of
establishment (starting from the earliest)?
[1] Brown-Haldia - Guwahati-Mathura
[2] Barauni –Mathura- Guwahati-Haldia
[3] Guwahati-Haldia-Mathura- Barauni
*[4] Guwahati-Barauni-Haldia- Mathura
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Guwahati Oil Refinery is the first public sector oil refinery of India, started in January, 1962 It
is operated by the Indian Oil Corporation. Barauni Refinery lies in the state of Bihar, and was made with the
collaboration of the USSR in July, 1964 Haldia Oil Refinery is also operated by Indian Oil Corporation It is
located in West Bengal, and was established in January 1975. Mathura Oil Refinery is also owned by the
Indian Oil Corporation. It was started in Mathura (Uttar Pradesh) in October, 1983.
Q.189) Movements of tides are mostly determined by

[1] albedo effect
[2] wind velocity
*[3] rotation of the Earth
[4] revolution of the Earth
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Tides are periodic rise and fall of sea levels. They are caused by the gravitational forces of
the Moon and the Sun However, they are also influenced by the rotation of the Earth and the relative
position of the Moon, which causes the level of tide to change in a given location.
Codes
A B C D
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
*[1] (A)
[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Sualkuchi is a town in Kamrup district of Assam. It is famous for Muga silk, Pat silk and Eri
silk. Rishra is a place in West Bengal, famous for jute textiles.
Ludhiana is one of the major towns in Punjab, and is very famous for woollen textiles: while
Davangere is a city in Karnataka, famous for cotton textiles.
Q.191) Quartzite is metamorphosed from

[1] limestone
[2] plutonic rock
*[3] sandstone
[4] shale
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] sandstone
Q.192) The permanent wind that blows from the horse latitude to the equatorial region is known as.
[1] westerly
*[2] trade winds
[3] doldrums
[4] easterly
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Trade winds are the winds blowing from 30° North and South towards the Equator. They
blow from North-East in the Northern hemisphere, and South-East in the Southern hemisphere. These
winds flow according to the distribution of pressure gradient and are steady and warm.
Westerlies are prevailing winds in the mid latitudes between 35° and 65° latitudes. They tend to blow from
the high pressure area in the horse latitudes toward the poles
Doldrums Also called as equatorial calms, these are equatorial regions of light ocean currents and winds
within the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), a belt of covering winds and rising air encircling Earth
near equator.
Easterlies The polar easterlies are the dry, cold prevailing winds that blow from the high pressure area as
of the polar highs at the North and South poles towards low pressure areas within the westerlies at high
latitudes.
Q.193) Which one of the following is a warm ocean current?

[1] Labrador current
*[2] Kuroshio current
[3] Peru current
[4] Benguela current
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The Kuroshio current is a warm ocean current flowing Northwards on the west side of the
North Pacific ocean. It is a strong Western boundary currents. Generally, the currents flown Northwards, in
Northern hemisphere and Southwards in Southern hemisphere are warm ocean currents and the opposite
are cold ocean currents.
Labrador current is a cold current in the North Atlantic ocean which flows from the Arctic ocean South
along the coast of Labrador and passes around new found land continuing South along the East coast of
Nova Scotia.
Peru current also called as Humboldt current is a cold, low-salinity ocean current that flows North along
the West coast of South America from the Southern tip of Chile to Northern Peru.
Benguela current is the broad, northward flowing ocean current that forms the Eastern portion of the
South Atlantic ocean Gyre.
Q.194) The place located at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers is
[1] Badrinath
[2] Rishikesh
[3] Rudraprayag
*[4] Devprayag
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Devprayag is the place where the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi meet to form the Ganga river.
Devprayag is located in the state of Uttarakhand, and is one of the five Prayags. It is also a very famous
Hindu religious town. In Sanskrit. the meaning of the term 'Devprayag' is 'Godly Confluence
Badrinath is one of the most important of the 4 sites in India's Char Dham pilgrimage It is located in
Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
Rishikesh is located in the foothills of Himalayas beside the river Ganga. It is located in Dehradun district
of Uttarakhand
Rudraprayag is one of the panch Prayag of Alaknanda river, the point of confluence of rivers Alaknanda
and Mandakini. It is located in Rudraprayag district of Uttarakhand
Q.195) If a news is broadcast from London at 1:45 pm on Monday, at what time and on what day it will be
heard at Dhaka (90°E)?
*[1] 7: 45 pm on Monday
[2] 7: 45 am on Monday
[3] 7: 45 pm on Tuesday
[4] 7: 45 am on Sunday
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The International Time Zone of England (+ 00: 00), that is, it falls at the International Time
Zone itself And, Bangladesh follows the time zone (+ 06 00) of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), which implies
that when it is 1:45 pm (Monday) in London, it would be 7:45 pm (Monday) in Dhaka. Bangladesh, which is
6 hours ahead of the GMT.
Codes
A B C D
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 2 1 3 4
[1] (A)
*[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] A Cirque is an amphitheatre-like valley head, formed at the head of a valley glacier by
erosion A
Yardang is a streamlined hill carved from bedrock on any consolidated or semi-consolidated material by
the dual action of wind abrasion, dust, sand and deflation.
A Barkhan or Barchan is an erosional feature of wind where curved shapes of sand are formed.
A Drumlin is an depositional feature of a glacier where a topography of elongated hill in the shape of an
inverted spoon or half buried egg are formed.
Q.197) A topographical map with scale 1: 50000 indicates I cm to

[1] 50 km
*[2] 500 m
[3] 50 m
[4] 5 km
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] A topographical map shows the topographical features in accordance with a scale, which is
expressed in ratio (like 1: 50000). Here, 1 unit at the map indicates 50000 units in real topography. Thus, 1
cm of the map indicates 50000 cm or 500 m.
Q.198) Statement I. Grand Banks are one of the major fishing grounds of the world due to the presence of
a vast continental shelf.
Statement II. Plankton grow in the shallow waters.
Codes
[1] Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
[2] Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
[3] Statement is true, but Statement II is false.
[4] Statement is false, but Statement II is true.
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Grand Banks are one of the major fishing grounds of the world, due to the presence of the
North American continental shelf which lifts the nutrients to the surface. The planktons are found in shallow
waters because there is not enough sunlight to sustain photosynthesis in deeper waters.
Q.199) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The tropical cyclones of China Sea are called 'typhoons'.
2. The tropical cyclones of the West Indies are called tornadoes'.
3. The tropical cyclones of Australia are called willy-willies'.
4. Formation of an anticyclone results in stormy weather condition.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
[1] 1, 2, 3 and 4
[2] 1, 2 and 4
*[3] 1 and 3
[4] Only 3
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] The tropical cyclones are most frequent during the late summer season when the Doldrum
belt has moved farthest from the Equator.
Q.200) Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for

[1] textiles
[2] dairying
*[3] shipbuilding
[4] paper industry
[MARKS] 1
[TAG] CSIR PAPER-2
[DIFFICULTY] MEDIUM
[ANSWER TIME] 2
[SOLUTION] Rotterdam has always been one of the main centres of the shipping industry in the
Netherlands.
Textile - Lanchashire (UK)
Dairying - Switzerland
Paper industry - Brussels

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Q.

1) Insert the correct sign & find out the result:

Q.2) Find the missing number from the given responses.

Q.3) NBT : PZV :: LDZ : ?

Q.4) Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Q.5) Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

Q.6) Select the related numbers from the given alternatives.

Q.8) Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Q.9) Find the odd numbers from the given alternatives.

Q.12) Arrange the following word as per logical order.

Q.15) R is the brother of A. S is the sister of T. A is the son of S. How is R related to T?

R is the brother of A. S is the sister of T. A is the son of S.

Clearly, number of persons in the queue = (3 + 1 + 8 + 1 + 5 + 1 + 21 = ) 40

Therefore above diagram best express relationship between them.

Therefore Neelam is walking in South direction.

Therefore option (2) is correct diagram.

[1] 56, 44, 67, 40, 96

Q.31) The value of tan80° tan10° + sin 2 70° + sin 2 20° is

Q.44) If p + q = 1, then the value of p3 + q3 + 3pq is equal to

Q.47) If cos4 θ – sin 4 θ = 1/3, then the value of tan 2 θ is

Q.48) If a perfect square, not divisible by 8, be divided by 8, the remainder will be

Q.58) Boric acid is an acid because its molecule?

Q.59) The main constituent of vinegar is?

Q.60) White phosphorus glows in the dark due to

Q.61) Which of the following are the properties of an electron?

Q.65) Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotic organism?

Q.67) Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by

Q.68) Statement I. Growth of plants is smooth with a complete fertilizer.

Q.69) Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by a process called

Q.72) Which of the following scrambles a message by applying a secret code?

Q.73) The Internet began with the development of___.

Q.74) Website is a collection of ________.

Q.75). Who designed the first electronic computer -ENIAC?

Q.77) Consider the economic activities

Q.80) Consider the following statements:

Q.81) Consider the following statements:

Q.82) Correct the following statements:

Q.83) Consider the following statements:

Q.84) Consider the following markets:

Q.86) Consider the investments in the following assets:

Q.88) Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

Q.89) Consider the following heavy industries:

Q.90) Consider the following Statements:

Q.91) Consider the following statements:

Q.92) Consider the following activities:

Q.93) Consider the following statements:

Q.94) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

Q.95) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

Q.96) Consider the following statements with reference to India:

Q.98) Consider the following statements:

Q.99) Consider the following statements:

Q.101) Which of the following is not the criteria of “Values”

Q.102) The rules of Ethics are also called as ____________?

Q.105) “Organismic Theory” is given by whom?

Q.107) Who conducted the “Marshmallow Experiment”?

Q.109) Identify which statement is false or true.

[1] A is true but B is false.

Q.110) What is the age of “pre-conventional” level?

Q.113) “Anti- discrimination” laws are example of which of the following?

Q.114) Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?

Q.117) Which branch of ethics deals primarily with knowledge?

Q.119) The “Categorical Imperative” theory of Deontology is given by __________.