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Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. Answer (3)
Angular momentum is an axial vector along axis of rotation.
2. Answer (1)
a 4 1
S3rd = 0 + (2n − 1) = [2 3 − 1]
2 3 2
4 5 20 10
= = = m
6 6 3
3. Answer (2)
1 2 1
KE = mv = m(u − gt ) 2
2 2
Graph with time must be parabola. At highest point KE is zero
4. Answer (4)
vy v sin − gt
tan = =
vx v cos
= 45 o
v sin − g 1
tan = 45o =
v cos
v cos = v sin − g .........(1)
At t = s α = 0 v sin − 2 g = 0
v sin = 2 g …………….(2)
v cos = 2 g − g = g
v = v 2 cos2 + v 2 sin 2 = ( 2 g ) 2 + ( g ) 2
= 5 g = 10 5m / s
5. Answer (3
= 2t 3 + 0.5
d
= = 6t 2
dt
At = 2s
= 6 (2)2 = 24 rad s −1
6. Answer (3)
P v−u 1
Force = = m t = second
t t 200
0.03 [50 − ( −30)]
F= = 480 N
1
(2)
7. Answer (1)
µ = 0.8 = tan θ θ = 40o is angle of repose
But so it is under static equilibrium.
f L mg sin
f = mg sin 10 = m × 10 × sin 30o m = 2 kg
8. Answer (3)
T1 = m (g + a)
T2 = m (g - a)
T1 ( g + a ) 9.8 + 4.9 3
= = =
T2 ( g − a ) 9.8 − 4.9 1
9. Answer (4)
3 3
W = Fdx = (3x 2 − 2 x + 5)dx
1 1
3 2
3
= x − x + 5x 1 = (27 − 9 + 15) − (1 − 1 + 5) = 28 J
10. Answer (2)
dU
F =− in equilibrium position F = 0 and U is minimum
dr
11. Answer (2)
m v + m2 v2
vcm = 1 1
m1 + m2
10( 2iˆ − 7 ˆj + 3kˆ) + 2( −10iˆ + 35 ˆj − 3kˆ)
=
10 + 2
3kˆ − 6kˆ
= = 2kˆ m/s
12
12. Answer (2)
2
1
l = mk 2 = 50 = 12.5 kg m 2
2
l = 12.5Nm
= l
12.5
= = 1 rad s-2
12.5
= 0 + .t
= 0 + 1 5 = 5 rad s −1
13. Answer (3)
U = K
− GmM − GmM 1 2
− − = mv − 0
R R + R 2
GmM GmM 1 2
− = mv
R 2R 2
GmM 1 2
= mv
2R 2
GM gR 2
v= = = gR
R R
(3)
14. Answer (1)
g
g' = 2
h
1 +
R
mg
mg ' = 2
h
1 +
R
1 1 h
= 2
1 + =4
16 h R
1 +
R
h
= 4 −1 = 3
R
H = 3R
15. Answer (4)
load
Breaking stress =
cross − sectional area
F1 F2
=
A1 A2
20 F2
= F4 = 4 20 = 80 kg − wt
d 2
( 2d ) 2
16. Answer (3)
Change in surface energy = work done
2 10−4 = T A
= T [2] = [10 6 − 8 3.75] 10−4
2 10−1
T= −4
= 3.3 10−2 N/m
2 30 40
17. Answer (2)
VT R 2
RT1 r12 9 r1 3
= = =
VT2 r22 4 r2 2
4
V = R 3
3
3 3
V r 3 27
1 = 1 = =
V2 r2 2 8
18. Answer (2)
Q = U + W
Q = −20 J
W = −8J
U = −20 + 8 = −12J
U = U f − U i
-12 = Uf – (40)
U f = 40 − 12 = 28 J
(4)
19. Answer (2)
Heat is path dependent so path function but internal energy does not depend on path chosen.
20. Answer (4)
T2
= 1−
T1
T2
= 1 − 0.4 T2 = 300 K
500
300
Now 0.5 = 1 − T = 600K
T
21. Answer (1)
Vav 8 8 8
= = Vav = 1260 = 0.85 1260
VRMS 3 3
3
= 0.92 × 1260 = 1161 m/s
k
22. Answer (3) =
m
k
2 n =
m
k
( 2 4) 2 =
m
200
k = 4 2 16
1000
1
k = 64 2 = 126 N / m
5
23. Answer (2)
g
The acceleration of wave is . Its speed increases as it moves up. So answer is (2)
2
24. Answer (1)
V V
f1 − f 2 = −
1 2
1 1
12 = v −
50 51
1
12 = v v = 12 × 50 × 51 cm/s
50 51
V = 306 m/s
25. Answer (1)
When positive charge moves from low potential to high potential region, work is done against electric field and potential
energy increases.
26. Answer (3)
Charge remains same
q 0 A
V= where C =
C d
Capacity decreases
q2 q
So U= increases and V = increases
2C C
27. Answer (3)
(5)
It is balanced wheatstone bridge
[60] 60
l1 = 1.4 = 1.4
(24 + 60] 84
5
= 1.4 = 0.2 5 = 1A
7
28. Answer (1)
In series
+ = l (2r + R )
2 = 10(2r + 5) ………….. (1)
In parallel
r
= l' 5 +
2
r
= 8 5 +
2
2 = 60 + 8r …………… (2)
20r + 50 = 80 + 8r
12r = 80 – 50 = 30
30
r= = 2.5
12
29. Answer (4)
µ0 30 20 10 µ0 20
BQ = − − =
2 d d 3d 2 3d
µ 30 20 10 µ0 20
BP = 0 + − =
2 3d d d 2 d
B 3
P =
BQ 1
30. Answer (2)
N 800
n= = = 1000 turns/m
L 0.8
B = µ0ni
B 2.52 10−3
i= = = 2.0 A
µ0n 4 10−7 1000
31. Answer (1)
F = E + (v B)
F = 2 2 ˆj + ( 2iˆ + 3 ˆj ) 5kˆ
= 2 2 ˆj + 10( − ˆj ) + 15iˆ = (30iˆ − 16 ˆj ) N
32. Answer (2)
µr = 1 + m 5500 = 1 + m
m = 5500 − 1 = 5499
33. Answer (2)
3.7 − Vk
R=
l
3
=
30 10−3
(6)
= 0.1 × 103
= 0. kΩ
34. Answer (1)
e = Bv v = 4 10−4 tan 45o 0.05 0.20
= 4 10−6 V
35. Answer (1)
The direction of induced emf is to oppose changing flux.
SECTION - B
36. Answer (2)
X L = 20, R = 30
X L 2 ' 100
= = =2
X L 2 f 50
X L = 40
Impedance
Z = R 2 + ( X ' L )2 = (30) 2 + ( 40) 2 = 50
V 200
Current in coil = = = 4A
Z 50
37. Answer (2)
6 108
Velocity in medium v= = = 1.5 108
k 4
8
c 3 10
µ= = =2
v 1.5 108
38. Answer (2)
R= A12 + A22 + 2 A1 A2 cos
R = (3)2 + (4)2 + 2 4 3 cos
3
= 9 + 16 + 12 = 37 = 6.1
39. Answer (4)
D
ß= ßD
d
with increase in separation of screen from slits plane, fringe width increases.
40. Answer (4)
In hypermetropia image formed by eye lens is beyond retina and is focussed to retina by a convex lens.
41. Answer (3)
Rainbow is formed due to internal reflection and dispersion.
42. Answer (2)
hc
d=
max
1
1 2 600
= = =2
2 1 300
43. Answer (3)
Y A.B
44. Answer (4)
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A− 4 A− 4
Z X A ⎯⎯→
− z − 2Y ⎯⎯→
ß− z −1Y
(8)
SECTION – A
51. Answer (4)
MnO2 + 4HCI→ MnCI2 + CI2 + 2H2O
* 87g of MnOz gives 22.4 L of Cl2
22.4
* 21.75g MnO 2 gives 21.75L of Cl2
87
= 5.6 L
2 .8
Percentage purity = 100
5 .6
= 50%
52. Answer (2)
* 14 g of N-3- ion = 1 mole of N3- ion = 10 NA electrons.
* 4 g of Ca2* ion = 0.1 mole of Ca2* ion = 1.8 NA electrons
1
* 16 g of O 3 = mole of O3 = 8 NA electrons
3
* 2.3 g of Na+ ion = 0.1 mole of Na+ ion = NA electrons.
53. Answer (2)
52.9n 2
Radii ( rn ) = pm
Z
52.9 (2)2
= = 52.9 pm
4
54. Answer (4)
For hydrogen atom, the energy of the orbital depends upon the value of principal quantum number (n) only.
55. Answer (1)
The value of electron gain enthalpy of K+ ion is –x eV.
56. Answer (2)
* As the negative charge on an atom increases, the ionic radii also increases
* As the positive charge on an atom increases, ionic radii decreases
* For isoelectronic species; as the atomic number increases, ionic radii decreases.
Correct order of ionic radii is
2−
* O O− O
2−
* S Cl K
− +
3− 2+
* N Na Mg
+
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58. Answer (4)
Species for which bond order is zero, does not exist.
59. Answer (4)
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HPO 24− ⎯
⎯→ PO34− + H +
Bronsted Conjugate
acid base
66. Answer (4)
Fluorine does not show disproportionation reaction, as it cannot exhibit any positive oxidation state.
67. Answer (3)
(11)
In electrolytic refining, impurities deposit as anode mud.
85. Answer (4)
All the hydrides except water possess reducing property and this character increases from H2S to H2Te.
SECTION - B
86. Answer (2)
Higher the number of unpaired electrons, higher will be the magnetic moment
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97. Answer (2)
BOTANY
SECTION - A
101. Answer (2)
Solanum is a genus.
102. Answer (4)
Systematics includes phylogeny not taxonomy.
103. Answer (1)
Diatoms are good indicators of H2O pollution.
104. Answer (3)
Oxygenic photosynthetic organisms can fix atmospheric CO2 and releases O2.
105. Answer (3)
Prions are infectious proteinaceous particles.
106. Answer (3)
Ribosome is non membrane bound organelle.
107. Answer (2)
Plasma membrane is phospholipid bilayer.
108. Answer (3)
DNA synthesis takes place in S-phase.
109. Answer (4)
Synapsis takes place in zygotene and desynapsis takes place in diplotene.
110. Answer (4)
Solanaceae has calyx and corolla.
111. Answer (3)
Pea has superior ovary. Plum, rose and peach have half inferior ovary.
112. Answer (2)
As collenchyma is living, it has protoplasm at maturity.
113. Answer (3)
Ground tissue of leaf is mesophyll.
114. Answer (3)
Selaginella is heterosporous
115. Answer (2)
Embryo sac is haploid.
116. Answer (3)
Active transport involves movement against concentration gradient.
117. Answer (1)
Water moves from high to low water potential.
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118. Answer (4)
Ureides contain nitrogen.
119. Answer (3)
Boron is required for pollen germination.
120. Answer (1)
PEP is CO2 acceptor in C4 plants.
121. Answer (1)
PSII has reaction centre Chl a which has maximum absorption at 680 nm.
122. Answer (3)
Glycolysis does not require O2.
123. Answer (1)
Protein and fats have RQ less than one.
124. Answer (2)
Cytokinin counteracts apical dominance.
125. Answer (2)
GA promotes bolting.
126. Answer (1)
Zoospores are most common type of asexual spores.
127. Answer (4)
Volvox shows oogamous type of sexual representation.
128. Answer (2)
Genes for these disorders are found on X- chromosome
129. Answer (4)
Xenogamy involves different types of pollen grain.
130. Answer (3)
Tapetum is innermost layer.
131. Answer (2)
Grasshopper has XX-XO type of sex determination.
132. Answer (2)
RNA pol does not bind to promoter when repressor binds to operator.
133. Answer (4)
Copy numbers of VNTR varies from chromosome to chromosome.
134. Answer (2)
135. Answer (3)
Himgiri is a variety of wheat
SECTION - B
136. Answer (2)
Statins are produced from Monascus purpureus.
137. Answer (4)
TMV cannot be biocontrol agents.
138. Answer (4)
Mutualism is (+, +) interaction
139. Answer (1)
Morality is death rate.
140. Answer (4)
Energy is maximum at producer level.
141. Answer (1)
GPP = NPP-R.
142. Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Rest are ex-situ conservation strategies.
143. Answer (2)
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 and became effective in 1989.
144. Answer (3)
Polyblend is effective for laying roads.
145. Answer (2)
146. Answer (2)
(14)
symbol represents affected male.
147. Answer (3)
AUG is start codon, codes for methionine.
148. Answer (1)
Roots have casparian strips be it monocot or dicot.
149. Answer (3)
Monocot stem lacks medullary rays.
150. Answer (2)
Companion cell has nucleus. Rest do not have nucleus.
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
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165. Answer (2)
Pleurisy: Inflammation of pleura.
Pneumoconiosis: A lung disease caused by inhalation of dust particles.
166. Answer (2)
Vital capacity (VC) = IRV + ERV + TV
167. Answer (4)
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Down’s/Down syndrome is a condition in which a child is born with an extra copy of their 21 st chromosome.
185. Answer (3)
Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD
SECTION – B
186. Answer (2)
By the end of 6 month, the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate and eyelashes are formed.
th
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