2017mbbs-Stomatology-2021FSE

There are some answers to each question, but only one is right. Please choose the right one. (100
points, 1 point/question)

1. The most common bacteria that causes gingivitis is（）

A. Gram-positive bacillus B. gram negative bacilli

C. Spirochete D. Chlamydia E. Viscous actinomycetes

2. The normal depth of gingival sulcus is（）

A. ≤0.5mm B. ≤1mm C. ≤2mm

D. ≤2-3mm E. ≤3mm

3. The main contents of periodontal exploration, except （）.

A. Subgingival calculus B. Periodontal pocket C. Root furcations

D. Attachment level E. Bone pocket type

4. The causes of tooth loosening in periodontal patients do not include （）

A. Periodontal ligament inflammation B. Occlusal trauma

C. Alveolar bone resorption D. Bruxism E. Root fracture

5. Which is the risk factors of periodontitis（）

A. Genetic susceptibility B. Diabetes C. Smoking

D. No teeth brushing E. All of the above

6. Gingivitisisa[n] is （）.
A. Early form of bone loss. B. Inflammation of the soft tissue.

C. Periodontal disease. D. All of the above

7. The main contents of periodontal examination, except（）

A. Subgingival calculus B. Shape of periodontal pocket

C. Overflow pus D. Attachment level

E. Type of Bone pocket

8. Signs of chronic gingival inflammation, except （）

A. Overflow pus B. Bleeding C. Color changes
D. The pain E. The gums are red and swollen

9. The normal width of attached gingival is（）

A. 4 to 5 mm B. 1-9 mm C. 2 -- 3 mm

D. More than 10mm E. 3 to 8 mm

10. Periodontal pocket deepening can reflect （）.

A. Height of alveolar bone B. Bacterial retention site

C. Degree of attachment loss D. The severity of inflammation

E. The prognosis of periodontal disease is poor

11. The lower part fracture of maxilla was called （） fracture.

A. LeFort I B. Le fort II C. Le Fort III D. Le Fort IV

12. The largest of the salivary gland is （）.

A. Parotid gland B. Submandibular gland

C. Sublingual gland D. Palatine gland

13. （） nerve related to the lip sensory ?

A. Masseteric never B. Posterior and anterior temporal never

C. Inferior alveolar nerve D. External pterygoid never

E. Internal pterygoid never

14. The facial area was mostly supplied by（）?

A. Ascending pharyngeal artery B. Occipital artery C. Lingular artery

D. Superior thyroid artery E. Facial artery

15. （） is not the weakness point of mandible bone?

A. Condyle process B. Mandible angle C. Mental symphysis

D. Mental foramen E. Mandibel body

16. The submandibular gland produces about （） of all saliva.

A. 20% B. 30% C. 50%

D. 70% E. 90%

17. There are （） cranial nerves.

A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14 E. 15

18. The right neck lymph eventually drains from the （） into the internal jugular vein.
A. Lymphatic trunk B. Thoracic duct

C. External jugular vein D. Transverse cervical veins

19. The left neck lymph eventually drains from the （） into the internal jugular vein.
A. Lymphatic trunk B. Thoracic duct

C. External jugular vein D. Transverse cervical veins

20. The facial nerve passes through （）foramen and passes through the skull to supply the
facial expression muscle.
A. Rotundum B. Oval C. Stylomastoid D. Lacerum

21. Which is the best way of pain control for endodontic treatment （）
A. Local anesthetics B. Devitalization C. Analgesics

D. Occlusal reduction E. Incising and drainage

22. Which is the most danger area of tooth in dental caries occurred after you have learned
dental caries? （）
A. Pits and fissures on occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars

B. Approximal surfaces of all teeth.

C. Gingival thirds of all teeth, both on facial and lingual surfaces

D. Pits and fissures near the lingual of maxillary incisors and canines (lingual pits)

E. Pits and fissures on the buccal of molars

23. The three step of the root canal therapy is （）

A. Root canal expansion, root canal irrigation, root canal filling

B. Root canal preparation, root canal disinfection, root canal filling

C. Root canal preparation, root canal irrigation, root canal filling

D. Root canal preparation, root canal filling, tooth restoration

E. Root canal expansion, root canal disinfection, root canal filling

24. The most effective treatment method of acute pulpitis is （）.

A. Extraction of teeth B. Open pulp for drainage
C. Incision and drainage at the corresponding gum

D. Remove corrosion E. Anti-inflammatory and analgesic

25．Which is not of the diseases that Operative Dentistry-Endodontics deals with？（）

A. Dental caries B. Periodontitis C. Hypersensitivity

D. Pulpitis and periapical disease E. Crown fracture

26. The diagnosis of dental pulp status can be divided into 4 categories except （）.
A. Normal B. Reversible pulpitis C. Irreversible pulpitis

D. Necrotic Pulp E. Acute pulpitis

27. In oral clinic, which one is not Clinical examination? （）

A. Explore B. Percussion C. Bite Pressure Test

D. Open dental pulp E. Radiographic Interpretation

28. Which of the following is not the cause of pulpitis? （）

A. Dental caries B. Dentl trauma

C. Thermal insult from repeated dental procedures

D. Stained teeth E. Periodontitis

29. The prevention of dental caries inludes (E).

A. Oral hygiene B. Dietary modification

C. Brush teeth D. All of above

30. The classification of dental caries according to the rate of progression includes except （）.
A. Acute caries B. Rampant caries C. Enamel caries

D. Chronic caries E. Arrested caries

31. Which is not the Symptoms of Dental Caries （）.

A. Cold/hot pain B. Pain when take sweet food C. Percussion/Biting pain

D. Pain without stimulation E. No symptoms

32. The most common symptom of pulpitis is （）

A. Increased sensitivity to stimuli, specifically hot and cold

B. Prolonged throbbing pain C. No pain

D. Biting pain E. Swelling

33. A tooth with Percussion “+” might means （）

A. A sequela of trauma

B. Periapical inflammation due to necrotic pulp.

C. Periapical inflammation due to acutely inflamed pulp.

D. A symptom of occlusal trauma

E. All of above

34. Bite pressure test is done with （）

A. Endodontic explorer B. A wooden stick C. Ice stick

D. Metal stick E. Dental stopping

35. What is the effect of Dental Caries （_）

A. Destruction of tooth structure B. Compromised esthetic

C. Pulpal abcess D. Loss of tooth E. All of above

36. What is the main cause of Oral and maxillofacial trauma? （）

A. traffic accident B. war C. fight

D. sports E. industrial injury

37. The first Step of Hemostasia is （）.

A. Estimating bleeding property. B. Inquiry. C. Checking.

D. Treatment. E. None of above

38. The main cause of dry socket is （）

A. Loss of blood clot B. Pain C. Swelling

D. Take rest E. Low pulse

39. What complications can be there during or after tooth extraction? （）

A. Dry socket B. Swelling C. Bleeding

D. Infection E. Above all

40. What is the most common used local anesthetic drug applied in oral surgery?（）
A. Procaine B. Lidocaine C. Bupivacaine

D. Mepivacaine E. Prilocaine

41. The most common cause of maxillofacial space infection is （）.

A. Blood B. Glandular

C. Traumatic D. Odontogenic

42. Absolute indication of incision and drainage is （）.

A. Incision and drainage should be performed in the early stage of infection.

B. Local swelling and pain

C. There is concave edema, wave motion or pus in puncture.

D. The abscess has been punctured

* 43. The causes of pericoronitis are （）.

A. Because wisdom teeth sprout the latest

B. The blind bag between the pericoronal gingival flap and the crown is easy to accumulate food and
bacteria

C. Insufficient jaw length

D. Mandibular wisdom tooth dysplasia

44. The typical symptom of sialolithiasis is（）.

A. Inflammatory symptoms B. Obstructive symptoms

C. Neurological symptoms D. Systemic symptoms

45. Sialolithiasis is most common in clinic（）.

A. Submandibular gland B. Parotid duct

C. Submandibular gland duct D. Junction of parotid gland and duct

46. Submandibular adenitis occurs repeatedly for a long time, and conservative treatment is
ineffective. Hard masses can be touched under the jaw. Stones are proved at the junction of
duct and gland, which should be taken （）.
A. Stone removal B. Removal of submandibular gland
C. Systemic antibiotic application D. Extraction of adjacent decayed and loose teeth

47. The most common pathogen of acute mumps is （）.

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus

C. Pneumococcus D. Spirochetes fensennae

48.Superficial parotid mixed tumor should be treated with （）.

A. Enucleation of tumor B. preservation of facial nerve, superficial parotid lobectomy

C. Total parotidectomy D. Radiotherapy

49. The incidence of salivary gland malignant tumors is relatively high （）.
A. Palatal gland B. Sublingual glan

C. Submandibular gland D. Parotid gland

50. How does adenoid cystic carcinoma often spread （）.

A. Diffusion along nerve B. Spread along lymph nodes

C. Diffusion along blood circulation D. Diffusion along periosteum

51. The most suitable scheme for the treatment of parotid deep lobe mixed tumor is （）.
A. Chemotherapy B. Radiotherapy

C. Tumor excision D. Total lobectomy of tumor and parotid gland

52. What is the nature of the contents of sublingual gland cyst （）.
A. White curd C. Colorless transparent viscous liquid

B. Gray white keratinocyte D. Bean curd residue like substance

53. Which is the most common type in oral cancer? （）.

A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma

C. kaposis sarcoma D. Adenocarcinoma

54. The staging of oral cancer using the TNM system, What is the meaning of T（）.
A. Primary tumor B. Regional lymph node metastasis

C. Distant metastasis D. Tumor of jaw

55. The most common pathological type of Facial skin cancer is （）?
A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma

C. Melanoma D. Sarcoma

56. Which is the gold standard for the diagnosis of oral cancer? （）
A. CT B. MRI C. Biopsy D. Ultrasound

57. Which cyst is the most frequent odontogenic cyst? （）

A. Radicular cyst B. Nasopalatine cysts

C. Residual cyst D. Dentigerous cyst

58. Which isn’t precancerous lesion of the oral cavity? （）

A. Leukoplakia B. Erythroplakia

C. lichen planus D. mucous cyst

59. Which remains the cornerstone of most treatment regimens for oral cavity cancer?（）
A. Surgery B. Radiotherapy

C. Chemotherapy D. Immunotherapy

60. Which cyst is often attached to the crown of the tooth? （）

A. Radicular cyst B. Residual cyst

C. Dentigerous cyst D. Eruption cyst

61. Which is the most important risk factor in oral cancer? （）

A. Salt B. HIV

C. HPV D. Cigarette smoking and Alcohol

62. Which is the most frequent lesions of the jaws. （）

A. Non-odontogenic cysts B. Odontogenic cysts

C. Ossifying fibroma D. Fibrous dysplasia

* 63. Odontogenic cysts arise from the （）?

A. Basal cell C. epithelial remnants of the nasopalatine ducts

B. epithelial remnants of tooth D. Langerhans cell

64. Which is not the variants type of the ameloblastoma. （）

A. Solid B. Multicystic or unicystic

C. Peripheral D. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma

65. Which treatment options for cyst is effective in reducing lesions and increasing bone
density. （）
A. Decompression B. Enucleation

C. Resection D. peripheral ostectomy

66. Which treatment options is not suitable for cyst and benign tumors of the jaws （）
A. Decompression B. Enucleation and curettage

C. Resection D. Neck dissection

67. Which is the most common location for intraoral squamous cell carcinoma? （）
A. Floor of the Mouth B. Lip

C. Oral Tongue D. Buccal Mucosa

* 68. Herpes zoster is more common in （）

A. Infants B. Adolescents C. Young adults D. the elderly

69 The pathogenic forms of Candida albicans are （）

A. Yeast B. Pseudohyphae C. Fungal filaments

D. Blastospores E. Thick-walled spores

70. Recurrent aphthous ulcers in the oral mucosa are less frequent sites （）
A. Lip B. Buccal C. Tip of tongue, margin of tongue, abdomen of tongue

D. Gingiva, hard palate E. Gestibular sulcus

71. The damage characteristics of major RAU are （）

A. Large number of ulcers, large and deep.

B. Round or oval ulcers scattered in segments.

C. Single ulcers with indindation of the base.

D. Single ulcers, large and deep.

E. In addition to oral ulcers, often accompanied by genital damage.

72. Behcet’s disease besides common oral cavity ulcer, still can appear in （）
A. Erythema iridosa on the back of the hand and palm

B. Iridocyclitis, erythema nodosa C. Xerokeratitis

D. Furrow tongue E. Atrophy of the dorsal papilla of the tongue

73. The most typical characteristic of OLP in gingiva is （）

A. Ulcer B. Erythema C. Pseudomembrance

D. Tumor E. Blister

74. Which virus is likely causing OLP? （）

A. HBV B. HIV C. HCV D. HHV E. HPV

75. Which type of ulcer manifest lager number of ulcer? （）

A. Herprti-form ulcer B. Major-form ulcer C. Minor apthous ulcer

D. Traumatic ulcer E. Herpes simplex

76. The characteristics of erosive OLP on buccal, except （）

A. White stretch B. Congestion C. Erosion

D. Pseudomembrance E. Blister

77. Which feature is riskiest in OLK? （）

A. White patch B. Thick C. Ulcer

D. Smooth E. White stretch

78. A man presents with a 6 month history of recurrent oral ulceration. He has yellowish
ulcerations on his lip which are housemasters, with a central halo and nodular lesions on his
shin. Diagnosis is（）
A. Behcet's disease B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Fixed drug eruption

D. Herpes labialis E. Herpes zoster

79. Which kind of ulcer should be distinguished with major aphthous ulcer? （）
A. Oral cancer B. Oral herpes simplex C. Oral lichen planus

D. Oral candidosis E. Oral leukoplakia

80. Which kind of oral candidosis present which large area of white membrane on oral mucosa?
A. Acute erythematous candidosis
B. Pseudomembranous candidosis

C. Chronic erythematous candidosis

D. Chronic hyperplastic candidosis

E. Ulcer candidosis

81. If the pemphigus happened on the oral mucosa, which kind of lesion is more common
present
A. Oral pigment B. Oral soft tissue swelling C. Big oral ulcer

D. Oral little vesicle E. Oral white patch

82. Which drug is the first choice for pemphigus systemic therapy? （）
A. Thalidomide B. Transfer factor C. Thymosin

D. Glucocorticoid E. Vitamin A

83. The most commonly used superficial anesthesia in dental clinic is

A．Procaine B. Lidocaine C. Articaine

D. Dicaine E. Mepivacaine

84. After tooth extraction, the dentist or oral surgeon should do .

A. Inspection of the tooth C. Inspection of the tooth and the socket

B. Inspection of the socket D. Inspection of the dental plate

E. Nothing

85. Tooth extraction for hypertension patients should control the blood pressure under .
A. 160/90mm Hg B. 150/80mm Hg C. 160/80mm Hg

D. 150/90mm Hg E. 180/100mm Hg

86. The most commonly used vasocontrictor in tooth extraction to block the inferior alveolar
nerve is （）
A. Adrenalin B. Dopamine C. Ephedrine

D. Norepinephrine E. Vasopressin

87. Before tooth extraction，patients with diabetics should control their fasting blood-glucose
under （）.
A. 6.1mmol/L B. 7.8mmol/L C. 8.88mmol/L

D. 9.8mmol/L E. 11.1mmol/L
88. Acute periocoronitis usually happens in
A. Maxillary first premolar B. Mandibular first premolar

C. The third molar (wisdom tooth) D. The first molar

E. Maxillary central incisor

89. Which of the following is an ester anesthetic （）

A. Lidocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine

D. Mepivacaine E. Prilocaine

90. The concentration of epinephrine in articaine is （）

A. 1∶100 00 B. 1∶300 00 C. 1∶50 000

D. 1∶100 000 E. 1∶100 0000

91. Which of the following is mandibular nerve anesthesia? （）

A. Lingual nerve anesthesia B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve anesthesia

C. Infraorbital nerve anesthesia D. Anterior palatine nerve anesthesia

E. Nasopalatine nerve anesthesia

92. The anesthesia area for infraorbital nerve block anesthesia is: （）
A. Lower lip B. Tongue C. Upper eyelid

D. Upper lip E. Left cheek

93. Which of the following is not a complication of anesthesia （）

A. Syncope B. Overdose reaction C. Pain on injection site

D. Infections E. Tooth fracture

94. The most common and widely accepted reason to remove a tooth is （）
A. Non-restorable severe Caries B. Orthodontic reasons

C. Retained Baby Teeth D. Malposed teeth

E. Cracked teeth

95. Which of the following situations requires tooth extraction （）

A. Hypermobile teeth (III°) B. Shallow caries C. Acute pulpitis

D. Acute pericoronitis E. Deep caries

96. The most commonly teeth to be extracted in orthodontic reasons are（）
A. The second premolar B. The first premolar C. The third molar (wisdom tooth)

D. The first molar E. Maxillary central incisor

97. The most common impacted teeth are（）

A. The canines B. The first premolar C. The third molar (wisdom tooth)

D. The first molar E. Maxillary central incisor

98. Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to tooth extraction? （）

A. Central hemangioma

B. Teeth embedded in malignancies

C. 6 months after the myocardial infarction

D. Teeth have undergone radiation therapy before

E. Patient with Diabetes (8.88 mmol/L)

99. Which of the following is commonly used clinical anesthesia method （）

A. Superficial anesthesia B. Cryoanaesthesia

C. Acupuncture anesthesia D. Spinal anesthesia

E. Tracheal intubation anesthesia

100. When used for topical anesthesia, the concentration of dicaine is （）

A. 0.1% B. 0.2% C. 2%

D. 3% E. 4%

70++ MARKS

1-5: B, C, B, C, E 6-10: D, B, E, B, A 11-15: A, A, C, E, E

16-20: D, B, A, B, C 21-25: C, A, B, A, B 26-30: E, D, D, D, C

31-35: D, A, E, B, E 36-40: A, A, A, E, B 41-45: D, C, B, B, A

46-50: A, D, C, D, B 51-55: D, D, B, B, B 56-60: C, A, C, A, C

61-65: D, B, B, D, A 66-70: D, C, D, B, B 71-75: D, B, B, C, A

76-80: D, A, D, A, B 81-85: C, D, B, C, C 86-90: A, C, C, B, D

91-95: A, D, E, A, A 96-100: C, C, E, A, C