27/01/2024

Evening

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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2024 (Online) Phase-1

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

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PHYSICS
SECTION - A Sol. • Positive error always subtracted during
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 measurement.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices • Defect may occur during manufacturing of
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. measuring device.
Choose the correct answer:
4. Find total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen gas at
1. If the work function of a metal is 6.63 eV, then find
 25 
its threshold frequency for photoelectric effect. 27°C. Take R = J/mol-K 
 3 
(1) 1.9 × 1015 Hz (2) 1.6 × 1015 Hz
(1) 6250 J (2) 3125 J
(3) 2 × 1016 Hz (4) 1.2 × 1015 Hz
(3) 12500 J (4) 625 J
Answer (2) Answer (1)
0 6.63  1.6  10 −19 Sol. (f = 5 for diatomic gas)
Sol. f0 = =
h 6.63  10−34 5 5 25
K= RT =  1  300
= 1.6 × 1015 Hz 2 2 3
= 250 × 25
 a 
2. If  P –  (V – b ) = nRT , where P, V, R and T are = 6250 J
 V2 
pressure, volume, universal gas constant and 5. If a current of 200 A deflects the coil of moving coil
galvanometer through 60°, then the current
a
temperature, then has same dimensional 
b2 required to cause deflection through radians is
10
formula as that of
(1) 60 A (2) 50 A
(1) R (2) PV
(3) 20 A (4) 150 A
(3) RT (4) P
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. i  
a
Sol. P ii 
V2 = 1
i 2 2
a  PV 2
200 A /3
bV =
i  / 10
a  200  3
 2   [P ] i= A
b  10
3. Statement-I : Positive zero error is added in = 60 A
measurement. 6. Consider the following current carrying structure.
Statement-II : Defect may occurs during Find the magnetic field at the centre. Given that
manufacturing of measuring instruments. r1 = 2 units and r2 = 4 units.
(1) Statement-I is correct while statement-II is
wrong
(2) Statement-I is wrong while statement-II is
correct
Assume current divides equally.
(3) Both statements are wrong (1) 10–8 T (2) 5 × 10–8 T
(4) Both statements are correct (3) 10–7 T (4) 4 × 10–7 T
Answer (2) Answer (2)

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Sol. B = |B1 – B2| l 
mg  cos   = N2  l
2 
I  I 
0   0  
2 − 2 1
= mg  = N2
4r1 4r2 4
mg
N2 =
0 I  1  4
=
2  4  4  9. If the primary side of a transformer is connected
with 230 V, 50 Hz A.C supply and the ratio of
4
=  10−7 T = 5  10−8 T number of turns of primary to the secondary
8
winding is 10 : 1, load resistance at secondary coil
7. There exists a uniform electric field of 20iˆ N/C. A is 46  then power output of the secondary
dipole of dipole moment p = 15 C-m is placed at windings is
(1) 11.5 watt (2) 13 watt
angle 30° with electric field. Torque on dipole is
(3) 16 watt (4) 15.6 watt
(1) 250 Nm (2) 150 Nm
Answer (1)
(3) 200 Nm (4) 100 Nm
Vi N
Answer (2) Sol. = i = 10
Vo No
Sol. || = P.E sin 
Vo = 23 V
= 15 × 20 × sin 30°
V 2 23  23
= 150 Nm Po = o =
R 46
8. A man holding a rod of mass m as shown in figure.
Po = 11.5 W
Find weight of rod experienced by him.
10. Find the power factor of the given A.C circuit

mg mg
(1) (2)
2 4
3mg mg
(3) (4)
2 3 (1) 0.75 (2) 0.5
Answer (2) (3) 1 (4) None of the above

Sol. Answer (3)

1
Sol. XL = L = 100  = 10 
10
1 1
XC = = = 10 
C 1
100 
1000
R = 10 
R 10
cos  = =
Z
(10 − 10 )2 + (10 )2
=1
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11. Statement I : Limiting friction depends on surface Sol.

area.
(AB(AB) + (AB) (AB)
Statement II : Kinetic friction depends on surface
area. = AB(A + B) + (A + B)AB
(1) Statement I is true and statement II is false = AB + AB + AB + AB
(2) Statement II is true and statement I is false
= AB + AB
(3) Both statements are true
A B Z
(4) Both statements are false
0 0 0
Answer (4)
 0 1 1
Sol. The surface area does not affect frictional force. 1 0 1
12. Three voltmeters are connected in a circuit as 1 1 0
shown in diagram. Find correct relation among their
readings (V1, V2 and V3). 14. Statement-1: Work done by electrostatic force is
zero if a charge is moving along an equipotential
surface.
Statement-2: Equipotential surfaces are
(1) V1 > V2 = V3 (2) V1 + V2 = V3 perpendicular to electric field.
(3) V1 = V2 = V3 (4) V1 + V3 = V2 (1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
Answer (2) (2) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true
(3) Both statements are false
Sol.
(4) Both statements are true
Across points P & Q (V1 & V2) combined is in Answer (4)
parallel to (V3) Sol. As electric field is perpendicular to the equipotential
Therefore V12 = V3  V1 + V2 = V3 surface, there is no force along the equipotential
surface.
13.
15. In meter bridge, an unknown resistance X has

X R 2
specific resistance S1 = , where R is radius
l
and l is length. If length and radius both are
Which is correct truth table for given circuit?
doubled, new specific resistance is :
A B Z A B Z
0 0 1 0 0 0 (1) S1
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 1
(2) 2S1
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 0 (3) 4S1

A B Z A B Z S1
(4)
0 0 0 0 0 0 4
(3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 1
Answer (1)
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 Sol. Specific resistance is specific to material.

 Remains same.
Answer (2)
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16. In the given reaction, find value of Q value. 18. A pendulum bob is released from angle  with the
vertical as shown in the figure. If it’s acceleration at
13
6C ⎯⎯→6 C12 + 0 n 1 + (Q − value) maximum amplitude is same as at mean position,
find 
Given : mass of 6 C13  x

mass of 6 C12  y 
1
mass of 0n  z

 1 
(1) (y + x – z) C2 (1) tan−1 ( 2) (2) 2 tan−1 
 5

(2) (y + z – x) C2
 1
(3) (y + z + x) C2 (3) 2 tan−1   (4) tan−1(2)
2
(4) (z + x – y) C2
Answer (3)
Answer (2) Sol. At max amplitude
Sol.  m = (y + z – x) a1 = gsin

Q – value = mC2 at mean position

= (y + z – x) C2 v2
a2 =
l
17. Assertion : Angular velocity of moon revolving
about earth is more than angular velocity of earth v 2 = 2gl (1 − cos )
revolving around sun.  a2 = 2g(1 – cos)
Reason : Time taken by moon to revolve around gsin = 2g (1 – cos)
earth is less than time taken by earth to revolve   
2g sin cos = 2g  2sin2
around sun. 2 2 2
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and  
cos = 2sin
reason (R) is the correct explanation of 2 2
assertion (A)  1
tan =
2 2
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but
 1
reason (R) is not the correct explanation of  = 2 tan−1  
assertion (A) 2
19. In a single slit diffraction pattern with slit width a and
(3) Assertion (A) is true and reason (R) is false
wavelength of light , find the angular position of
(4) Assertion (A) is false and reason (R) is true first minima if screen distance is D(D >> a)
Answer (1)  2
(1) (2)
a a
Sol. Time period of earth around sun is 365 days
3 3
2 (3) (4)
then 1 = 2a a
365 days
Answer (1)
Time period of moon around earth is 29 days
Sol. For first minima
2  
2 = , so 2 > 1 sin  = ,  
29 days a a

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20. An atom of atomic number Z = 50 is having nuclear 1

22. A bullet is fired into a fixed target. It loses rd of its
radius = 9 × 10–13 cm. Potential at the surface of the 3
nucleus is velocity after travelling 4 cm. It penetrates further
p × 10–3 m before coming to rest. Find p.
(1) 4 × 106 V
Answer (32.00)
(2) 8 × 106 V
Sol. v2 – u2 = 2as
(3) 106 V
Let v0 : initial
(4) 105 V
2
 2v   4 
Answer (2)   0  – v 02 = 2(– a)  
 3   100 
kQ
Sol. V = 5 2 2a
r  v0 = …(i)
9 25
9  109  50  1.6  10–19
= 4v 02
9  10 –15 Also, = 2  a  ( p  10 –3 ) …(ii)
9
= 8 × 106 V 5 1000
 =
SECTION - B 4 25  p

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section  p = 32

contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
23. The expression for longest wavelength in Paschen
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
144R
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the series (for H atom) is . Find x. R is Rydberg’s
x
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
constant.
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the Answer (07.00)
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the Sol. Longest wavelength  Minimum energy
place designated to enter the answer.
1 1 1
=R 2 – 2
21. A uniform ring and uniform solid sphere rolls down  3 4 
same inclined plane by same distance. If ratio of
7 7R 144R
their translational kinetic energies is then x is = =
x 144 7
(Given mass and radius of ring and sphere are 24. An object is dropped from certain height
equal) (from point P). It crosses 2 points A and B in interval
Answer (10.00) of 2 seconds such that AB = 80 m. Find distance
1 1 AP in meters.
Sol. K = mv 2 = m (2as )
2 2 (Take g = 10 m/s2)
g sin 
 ar = P
2
5
 as = g sin 
7 A
1
Kr 7
= 2 =
Ks 5 10
7 B

 x = 10 Answer (45)
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26. The diagram shows combination of polaroids.
P
t

A
Sol.

t+2

B
Unpolarised light of intensity I0 incident

1 1 perpendicular to the axis of polaroid P1, then angle

AB = (t + 2)2 − t 2
2 2
 for which maximum intensity passes through
80 = 5(2t + 2) (2)
polaroid P3.
4=t+1
Answer (45.00)
t=3

1 2 Sol.
AP = 8t = 5(3)2 = 45 m
2

25. Pressures at ends of a horizontal pipe are given for

water. Find speed v at end 2 if speed at end 1 is

10 m/s. (density of water = 1000 kg/m3). Find v I0 4 sin2  cos2 

I3 = 
2 4
(in m/s)

I0
= ( sin2 )2
8

For I3 → max

Answer (11.00) sin2 = 1

Sol. p1 − p2 =
1
2
(
 v 22 − v12 ) 2 = 90°

 = 45°
10.5  103 =
1
2
(
 103 v 2 − 102 )
27.

21 + 100 = v 2  v = 11 m/s
28.

p1 − p2 = 10.5  103 =
1
2

 103 v 22 − v12  29.

1.21 = v2 30.

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CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A
(1)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (2)

Choose the correct answer :

(3)
1. The quantity which changes with temperature

(1) Mole fraction

(4)
(2) Mass percentage

(3) Molarity Answer (1)

Sol. During cleavage of ethers by cold HI, when one of
(4) Molality
the alkyl group is a tertiary group, the halide formed
Answer (3)
is a tertiary halide.
Sol. Molarity of a solution depends upon temperature 4. Identify the following species in which d2sp3
because volume of a solution is temperature hybridisation is shown by central atom.
dependent. (1) BrF5

2. Which of the following cannot as an oxidising (2) SF6

agent? (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(4) [PtCl4]2–
(1) MnO4−
Answer (3)
(2) SO24−
Sol. Co3+ ⇒ 3d6 ⇒ in presence of strong ligand NH3
(3) N3− 3d6 = t 62g eg° ⇒ 2 inner d-orbitals are vacant
(4) BrO3− forming d2sp3 hybridisation.

Answer (3)

Sol. N3− ⇒ Because, it cannot further reduce itself to 5. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive

oxidise other. (1) Lucas test

N3− ⇒ –3 ⇒ lowest oxidation state

(2) Carbylamine test
(3) Phthalein test
Others ⇒ Mn+7, S6+, Br+5 ⇒ can be self reduced and
(4) Tollen’s test
oxidise others.
Answer (3)
Sol. Phenol on heating with phthalic anhydride in the
3. presence of concentrated sulphuric acid forms a
colourless condensation compound called
Products are phenolphthalein.

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Answer (3)

Sol. For SN1 reaction to occur, stable carbocation must

from as intermediate.

(1) CH
=2 CH − CH⊕
2 ⇒ Allylic → Stable

6. Which structure of protein intact after coagulation of

(2) ⇒ Phenylic ⇒ Stable
egg white on boiling

(1) Primary CH⊕ ⇒ Unstable ⇒ Vinylic C⊕

(3) CH3 − CH =
(2) Secondary
(4) ⇒ 3° Carbocation ⇒ Stable
(3) Tertiary
9. In which all have d10 configuration in their ground
(4) Quaternary
state?
Answer (1)
(1) Cu, Zn, Cd, Ag
Sol. Primary structure of protein remain intact because
(2) Cd, Au, Hg, Ni
it does not involve hydrogen bonding.
(3) Sc, Ti, Fe, Zn
7. The molecular formula of second homologue in the
(4) Fe, Cr, Co, Ni
homologous series of monocarboxylic acid is
Answer (1)
(1) CH3COOH
Sol. Cu : 3d104s1
(2) CH3CH2COOH
Zn : 3d104s2
(3)
Cd : 4d105s2

Ag : 4d105s1
(4) CH3CH2CH2 – COOH
10. Compare the stability of resonating structures :
Answer (1)

Sol. Homologous series of any functional groups differs

in 1 CH2 group, therefore;

1st Homologue ⇒ HCOOH

(1) I > II > III
2nd Homologue ⇒ CH3COOH (2) III > II > I
8. Which of the following will not give SN1. (3) I > III > II
(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl (4) II > I > III

Answer (1)
(2)
Sol. Resonating structure which does not has any

(3) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl charge is most stable.

Now, if we compare II and III, in III octet of carbon

(4)
is incomplete, therefore it is least stable.

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11. Find out product (X) Answer (1)

Ph − = (1) B2H6 /THF/H2O2 /OH

CH CH2 
−
→ X(major) Sol. ∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S°
(2) HBr
(3) Mg, dry ether
(4) HCHO = 77.2 – 300 × 48 × 10–3

(1) Ph − CH − CH2 − CH3 = 77.2 – 14.4

|
OH = 62.8 kJ

(2) Ph − CH − CH3 ∆G° = – 2.303 RT logk

|
CH2OH 62.8
− logk= = 0.0109 × 103
2.303 × 8.314 × 300 × 10 −3
(3) Ph − CH2 − CH − OH
| = 10.9  11
CH3
1
log = 11 or option (1) is correct
(4) Ph – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH k
Answer (4) 14. Which of the following statement is correct?
−
Sol. Ph − = B2H6 /THF/H2O2 /OH
CH CH2  → (1) Ce4+ is oxidising agent
Ph − CH2 − CH2 − OH (2) Ce4+ is reducing agent
HBr
 → Ph − CH2 − CH2 − Br (3) Ce3+ has noble gas configuration
Mg

dry ether
→ Ph − CH2 − CH2 − MgBr (4) Ce has stable configuration
HCHO
→ Ph − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − OH Answer (1)
12. The technique used for purification of steam volatile Sol. The E° value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 which explains
water immiscible substance is that it is oxidising agent
(1) Fractional distillation 15. Statement I : Oxygen is always present in –2
(2) Distillation under reduced pressure oxidation state.

(3) Steam distillation Statement II : Stability of oxidation state of group16

for +4 and +6 decreases down the group.
(4) Simple distillation
(1) Both the statements are correct and Statement
Answer (3)
II is correct explanation of Statement I
Sol. Substances which are steam volatile and are
(2) Both the statements are correct and Statement
immiscible in water are separated by steam
II does not support Statement I
distillation.
(3) Statement I is correct and II is false
13. If values of ∆H° & ∆S° for a process/reaction are
77.2 kJ & 48 J/k respectively. Then find value of (4) Statement II is correct and Statement I is false

1 Answer (4)
log . Given : Temp is 300K
k
1
Sol. Oxygen can show –2, –1, − , +1, +2 and 0
(1) 11 2

(2) 5 oxidation state also.

(3) 15 Stability of +6 oxidation state decreases down the

group due to inert pair effect.
(4) 100

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16. Consider the following sequence of reactions 22. If 84 g of NaOH (aq) is present in a 3 Molar Solution,
Excess NH3
Cl − (CH2 )4 − Cl  NaOH
→ A → B + H2O + NaCl find volume of solution (in mL)
Answer (700)
Find B
Sol. As we know
(1) H2N − (CH2 )4 − OH
Moles of NaOH
(2) H2N − (CH2 )4 − NH2 Molarity =
Volume of solution in L
(3) HO − (CH2 )4 − OH
84
3 M=
+ + M.W. of NaOH × Volume of Solution (L )
(4) H3 N − (CH2 )4 − NH3

Answer (2) 84
Volume of Solution = L = 0.7 L
40 × 3
Sol.
Volume of Solution in mL = 0.7 × 1000 = 700 mL
23. Number of non polar molecules given following.
H2O, SO2, BF3, H2, CHCl3
Answer (2)
Sol. Molecules having zero dipole moment (µ = 0) are
17. non polar
18.
19.
20.
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the BF3 and H2 are non polar in nature
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the 24. If longest wavelength for Paschen series in H-atom
place designated to enter the answer. α
is . Find out α
21. For a first order reaction; 7R

t99.9 = x t50% Answer (144)

Find out value of x 1  1 1 

Sol.
= R(1)2  2 − 2 
Answer (10) λ  (3) (4) 

2.303 100 1 1 1 
Sol. t 99.9 = log = R − 
k 100 − 99.9 λ  9 16 
2.303 100 1  7 
t 50 = log = R 
k 100 − 50 λ  9 × 16 
t 99.9 log (1000 ) 3 9 × 16 144
= = = 10 =λ =
t 50 log ( 2 ) 0.3 7R 7R

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25. How many compound(s) given below have chiral 0.0591

Ecell= 0 − log(H+ )2
carbon? 2

0.0591
= − × 2 × logH+
2
(i)
= 0.0591 × pH
= 0.1773 V
= 17.73 × 10–2 V
(ii)
t = 17.72
≈ 18

(iii) 28. Magnetic moment of complex [Pd(NH3)2Cl2] will be

Answer (0)
Sol. In Pd2+, NH3 and Cl– ligands behaves as SFL
(iv)
Pd+2 ⇒ 4d8
[Pd(NH3)2Cl2] is dsp2 hybridised
Answer (2) Number of unpaired electron = 0
Sol. Compound (i) and (iv) have chiral carbon. So Magnetic moment = 0
26. If work function is 6.6 eV. The threshold frequency 29. How many of the following given atomic number
is x × 1014 Hz, Find x. (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J.S) have noble gas configuration?
Answer (16) 56, 57, 70, 80, 24

Sol. hν0 =φ (work function) Answer (0)

where ν0 is threshold frequency Sol. Atomic number of noble gases are

2, 10, 18, 36, 54, 86 and 118
hν0= 6.6 × 1.6 × 10−19 J
None of the given atomic number belongs to noble
6.6 × 1.6 × 10 −19 gas
ν0 =
6.6 × 10−34 30. When 9.3 gm of aniline is reacted with acetic

ν0= 1.6 × 1015 Hz anhydride, mass of acetanilide obtained is m gm,

find out value of 2m.
14
ν0 = 16 × 10
Answer (27)
ν0 = x × 1014

x = 16
27. A hydrogen electrode is prepared by placing into a Sol.
solution of pH = 3. The magnitude of electrode
potential at 25ºC is given by t × 10–2 V. Find out t
(Nearest integer) m = (0.1) × (135)
Answer (18) = 13.5 gm

Sol. H2 → 2H+ + 2e− 2m = 27

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MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A 2. If 2 tan2θ – 5secθ = 1 has exactly 7 solutions in

n
 nπ  K
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 0,
 2 for least value of n ∈ N, then ∑ n
is
  K =12
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
equal to
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
9 91
(1) 9
(2)
Choose the correct answer : 2 213

( x 8 − x 2 )dx 7 11
(3) (4)
1. The integral ∫ 12 6  1 
is 2 7
212
( x + 3 x + 1) tan−1  x 3 + 
 x3  Answer (2)
equal to Sol. 2tan2θ – 5secθ – 1 = 0
⇒ 2(sec2θ – 1) – 5secθ – 1 = 0
1   1 
(1) ln  tan−1  x 3 +  + c ⇒ 2sec2θ – 5secθ – 3 = 0
3   x3  
⇒ 2sec2θ – 6secθ + secθ – 3 = 0
  1  ⇒ (2secθ + 1)(secθ – 3) = 0
(2) ln  tan−1  x 3 +  + c
  x3   secθ = 3
⇒ cosθ = 1/3
1   1 
(3) ln  tan−1  x 3 +  + c 2 solutions in [0, 2π]
6   x3  
2 solutions in [2π, 4π]
1   1  2 solutions in [4π, 6π]
(4) ln  tan−1  x 3 +  + c
9   x3    13π 
1 solution in 6π,
 2 
Answer (1)
⇒ n = 13
2 1
x − dx 13
K
x4 ∑ 213
Sol. ∫ 2  K =1
1  1 
  x 3 + 

+ 1 tan−1  x 3 + 
 x3    x3  1
  ⇒ (1 + 2  13 )
213
1
Put x 3 + =
t  13 ⋅ 14  1
x3 =  ⋅
 2  213
 2 3  13 ⋅ 7 91
 3x − 4  dx =
dt
= =
 x  213 213
1 dt dy x + y − 2
= ∫
3 (t + 1) tan−1 t
2 3. If
dx
=
x−y
and y (0) = 2, find y(2)

(1) 0 (2) 2
Put tan−1 t = z
(3) e (4) e2
1 Answer (1)
dt = dz
2
1+ t Sol. Let X= x − 1 and Y= y − 1
1 dz 1   1  dY X +Y
= ∫ = ln  tan−1  x 3 +  + c ⇒ =
3 z 3   x3   dX X −Y

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Now let Y = vX π
2
2(1 + a 2 )sec 2 x
⇒
dY
=+
v X
dv I= ∫ (1 + a ) 2 2
sec 2 x − 4a2
dx
dX dX 0

π
dv 1 + v
v+X = 2
dX 1 − v 2(1 + a 2 )sec 2 x
I= ∫ (1 + a 2 2
) (1 + tan2 x ) − 4a 2
dx
(1 − v )dv
dX 0
⇒ 2
=
(1 + v ) X π
2
Integration 2(1 + a 2 )sec 2 x
I= ∫ (tan 2
x )(1 + a 2 )2 + (1 − a 2 )2
dx
tan–1 v − ln ( 1+ v =) 2
ln | X | +c 0

π 2 
Re-substituting 2 2 
sec 2 x
 1 + a 
y − 1
−1   y − 1
2
I=
0
∫  1 − a 2 2
dx
tan   − ln 1 +   = ln | ( x − 1) | +c tan2 x +  2 

 x − 1  x − 1  1+ a 
At x = 0, y = 2 Now let tanx = t
−π sec2xdx = dt
⇒c= − ln 2
4 2
∞
dt
at x = 2 I=
1+ a 2 ∫
0 2  1 − a2 
2

−π t +  2 

tan−1( y − 1) − ln 1 + ( y − 1)2 = − ln 2  1+ a 
4
∞
2 
0, satisfy
⇒y= 2 (1 + a 2 )2 −1  t (1 + a ) 
= × tan  2 

⇒ y (2) =
0 1 + a2 (1 − a ) 2 2
 (1 − a )   0
π
dx 2(1 + a 2 ) π
= ×
4. ∫ 1 − 2a cos x + a
0
2
is equal to (1 − a )2 2 2

(1 + a 2 )π
(1 + a 2 )π (1 + a 2 )π =
(1) (2) (1 − a 2 )2
(1 − a 2 )2 (1 − a 2 )
5. The 20th term from the end of the progression
2 2
(1 − a )π (1 − a )π 1 1 3 1
(3) 2
(4) 20, 19 , 18 , 17 , ..., – 129 is
(1 + a ) (1 + a 2 )2 4 2 4 4
Answer (1) (1) –120 (2) –115
π (3) –125 (4) –110
1
Sol. I = ∫ 1 − 2(cos x )a + a
0
2
dx Answer (2)
–517  3
π
Sol. = 20 + (n – 1)  – 
1 4  4
I= ∫ 1 + 2(cos x )a + a
0
2
dx
⇒ –517 = 80 + (–3n + 3)
π
⇒ –597 = –3n + 3
 1 1 
=2I
0
 ∫
 1 − 2a cos x + a 2
+
1 + 2a cos x + a 2
 dx

⇒ –600 = –3n
⇒ n = 200
π nth term from end is (n – r + 1)th
2(1 + a 2 )
2I = ∫ (1 + a
0
2 2
) − 4a 2 cos2 x
dx 200 – 20 + 1 = 181th term
 3
π
a181 = 20 + (181 – 1)  – 
2
 4
2(1 + a 2 )
2I = 2 ∫ (1 + a ) 2 2
− 4a 2 cos2 x
dx a181 = 20 – 135
0 a181 = –115
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6. An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two (II) x < 0
successive draws of 4 balls are made without
replacement. The probability that the first draw
− x + 1 −1
=
gives all white balls and second draw gives all black 2x + 5 2
balls is −2 x + 2 =−2 x − 5
2 1 2 = −5 (not possible)
(1) (2)
335 495
⇒ Domain of f(g(x)) = domain of g(x)
5 3
(3) (4)  −5 
812 715 Dfog = R −  
2
Answer (4)
8. Considering the principal values of inverse
6
C4 9 C4
Sol.=P ⋅ trigonometric functions, the positive real values of
15
C4 11C4
π
‘x’ satisfying tan–1x + tan–1(2x) = is
15 × 24 9 ⋅ 8 ⋅ 7 ⋅ 6 × 24 4
= ×
15 ⋅ 14 ⋅ 13 ⋅ 12 24 ⋅ 11⋅ 10 ⋅ 9 ⋅ 8 5 −1 17 + 3
(1) (2)
1 7⋅6 2 4
= ×
13 ⋅ 7 10 ⋅ 11
17 − 3 5 +1
6 (3) (4)
= 4 2
13 ⋅ 10 ⋅ 11
Answer (3)
3
= π
13 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 11 Sol. tan–1x + tan–12x =
4
3
=  3x  π
715 ⇒ tan−1  =
2 
 1 − 2x  4
 1  5
7. Let f : R −  → R and g : R − −  → R be 3x
 2  2 ⇒ =1
2x + 3 | x | +1 1 − 2x 2
defined as f ( x ) = and g ( x ) = then
2x + 1 2x + 5 ⇒ 2x2 + 3x – 1 = 0
the domain of the function f(g(x)) is
−3 ± 9 + 8
 5 ⇒ x1, x2 =
(1) R (2) R − −  4
 2
−3 ± 17
 1 5  1 ⇒ x1, x2 =
(3) R − − , −  (4) R − −  4
 2 2  2
17 − 3
Answer (2) =
∴ x1 >0
4
Sol. f(g(x))
9. Let R be the interior region between the lines
1 3x – y + 1 = 0 and x + 2y – 5 = 0 containing the
⇒ g( x ) ≠ −
2 origin. The set of all values of ‘a’ for which the points
(a2, a + 1) lies in R is
| x | +1 −1
≠ (1) ( −∞, − 1) ∪ (3, ∞)
2x + 5 2
(I) x≥0 1 
(2) ( −3, 0) ∪  , 1
x + 1 −1 3 
=
2x + 5 2  1
(3) ( −∞, − 1) ∪  0, 
2 x + 2 =−2 x − 5  3
4 x = −7  1
(4) ( −∞, − 2) ∪  0, 
−7  3
x= (Rejected)
4 Answer (2)
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Sol.

Number of points of non-differentiability is 1

R is the shaded region where (a2, a + 1) should lie. x2 y 2 x2 y 2

11. If H: – = 1 and E : 2 + 2 = 1(a > b ) .
16 9 a b
For line L1,
Ellipse passes through the foci of the hyperbola and
∴ a2 + 2(a + 1) –5 < 0 e1. e2 = 1 (where e1, e2 are the eccentricities of
a2 + 2a –3 < 0 hyperbola and ellipse, respectively). The length of
(a + 3) (a – 1) < 0 the chord of ellipse passing through (0, 2) is equal
to
⇒ a ∈ (–3, 1) … (1)
5 10 10 5
Also, for line L2 (1) (2)
3 3
3a2 – a – 1 + 1 > 0
(3) 2 5 (4) 2 10
3a2 – a > 0
Answer (2)
a (3a – 1) > 0
9 5
Sol. e12 = 1 + ⇒ e1 =
1  16 4
a ∈ ( −∞, 0) ∪  , ∞  … (2)
3  4
∴ e2 =
∴ (1) ∩ (2) 5
Foci of hyperbola ≡ (±5, 0)
1 
a ∈ ( −3, 0) ∪  , 1 2a = 10 ⇒ a = 5
3 
10. If f(x) = 6x – x2, x ∈ [0, 2] and
min f (t ), 0 ≤ t ≤ x, x ∈ [0, 1]

g( x ) = 

 3 + x, x ∈ [1, 2]
Then number of points where g(x) is not differentiable
is
(1) 1 b2 16
1– 2
=
a 25
(2) 0
⇒ b=3
(3) 2
x2 y 2
(4) 3 E: + 1
=
25 9
Answer (1)
x2 4
min (f (t )), 0 ≤ t ≤ x, x ∈ [0, 1] + =1 … (y = 2)
Sol. g ( x ) =  25 9
 3 + x, x ∈ [1, 2]
x2 5
⇒ =
25 9
5 5
x= ±
3
5 5 5 5
∴ x1 = – , x2 =
3 3
10 5
∴ l=
For x ∈ [0, 1], min f(t) = 0 3
For x ∈ [1, 2], f(t) = 3 + x Option (2) is correct.

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12. The position vector of vertices A, B, C of ∆ are 21. If for two sets A and B, n(A) = m and n(B) = n and
iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ , iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ , 2 iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ respectively. Let (Number of subsets of A – Number of subsets of B)
l is the length of angle bisector of ∠BAC , then the = 56, then find value of (2m + n).
value of l2 is Answer (15)
(1) 4 + 2 2 (2) 4 − 2 2 Sol. n(A) = m, then number of subsets of A = 2m
(3) 2 + 2 2 (4) 2 − 2 2 n(B) = n, then number of subsets of B = 2n
Answer (2) given that
2m – 2n = 56
Sol. 2m – 2n = 26 – 23
From here, m = 6
n=3
2m + n = 2 × 6 + 3 = 15
22. If A is a 2 × 2 matrix and I is an identity matrix of
order 2 & A − λI =0 gives value of λ as –1 & 3
then trace of A2 is equal to ______
BD 1
=
DC 2 Answer (10)

2+ 2  Sol. Given A − λI =0

D , 1, 3 
 2 +1  Value of ‘λ’ are –1 and 3
 
2 Now value of ‘λ’ of A2 is equal to λ2
2+ 2
=
Now AD : l   + 1 ∴ Let λ1 = (–1)2 = 1
 2 +1
λ2 = (3)2 = 9
2
 1 
=l2   +1 Trace of A2 = 1 + 9
 2 + 1
= 10
( )
2
= 2 −1 +1 ∴ Answer is 10
= 4−2 2 23. The area bounded by 0 ≤ y ≤ min{2 x,6 x − x 2 } and
13. x-axis is A. Then 12A is
14. Answer (304)
15.
Sol. min{6 x − x 2 , y =
2x }
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the 6
1
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, Area = × 4 × 8 + ∫ (6 x − x 2 )dx
2
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. 4

06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the 6

mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
 x3 
16 +  3 x 2 −
= 
 3 
place designated to enter the answer.  4

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-1 (27-01-2024)-Evening
28 π
A 16 +
= π 2
3 =  x 2 sin x  2 – ∫ 2 x sin x dx
 0
12 A = (12 × 16 + 28 × 4) 0

= 304 square unit  π 

π
π  2

24. If the line x + y = 0 is tangent to the circle (x – λ)2 + = – 2 [ – x cos x ]02 – ∫ – cos x dx 
4  
(y – β)2 = 50, then (λ + β)2 = 0
 
Answer (100.00)
Sol. Perpendicular distance from centre = radius π2
= –2
4
λ+β
⇒ = 50
2 π2 π2
Given that –α= –2
α2 4
λ + β = 100
∴ α=2
(λ + β)2 = 100
26. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 – x – 1 =
0 and Sn = 2024 αn + 2024 βn then S3 is equal to
x
 1– t  Answer (8096)
25. If f ( x ) = ∫ g (t ) ln   dt and g is odd continuous
0  1+ t 
π Sol.
2  2 2
x cos x  π
function and ∫  f ( x ) + (1 + e x )  dx =
α2
–α then ⇒ α2 = α + 1
π 
–
2 β2 = β + 1
α is
S3 = 2024α3 + 2024β3
Answer (2)
= 2024α [α + 1] + 2024β[β + 1]
x
 1– t 
Sol. ∴ f ( x ) = ∫ g (t ) ln   dt = 2024α + 2024β + 2024α2 + 2024β2
0  1+ t 
= 2024α + 2024β + 2024 (α + 1) + 2024 (β + 1)
 1– x 
∴ f '( x ) = g ( x ). ln  
 1+ x  = 4048 (a + b) + 4048

Here f′(x) is even since g(x) and = 4048 + 4048 = 8096

 1– x  27. If the mean of 15 observations is 12 and standard

ln   both are odd deviation is 3. If 12 is replaced by 10 (in data) then
 1+ x 
the new mean is µ and variance is σ2 then what is
Hence f(x) is odd function ⇒ f(x) + f(–x) = 0 the value of 15 (µ + µ2 + σ2)
π Answer (2429)
 2
x 2cos x 
Now ∫  f ( x ) +  dx Sol. Given mean is 12 and n = 15
 (1 + e x ) 
π
– So take data as
2

π x1, x2, …., x14, 12

2
 2  1 1  x1 + x2 + ... + x14 + 12
= ∫ f ( x ) + f (– x ) + x cos x 
 1+ e x
+
1+ e– x
  dx
 so = 12
0 15
π x1 + x2 + …. + x14 = 168
2
2
= ∫ x cos x dx Now in place of 12, we need to write 10,
0
168 + 10 178
= = xnew
15 15
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And also,   3 5   2 4   2 3  
 3 + α  x − x + x − ...  + β  1 − x + x −  +  − x − x − x  

∑x 2   3! 5!   2! 4!   2 3  
lim       
i 2

=9 − (144) x →0 

3  x +
x 3
2x 5  
15 
 3
+
15
+ 


 
⇒ ∑=
x 2
i 153 × 15
−β 1 
( 3 + β ) x 0 + x1 ( α − 1) +x 2  − 
1
n
lim  2 2 =
⇒ ∑x 2
i − 144 + 100 =
2251 x →0
 x 2
2x 4 2 3
i =1 3 x 2  1 + + + 
2  3 15 
2251  178 
Variance = − σ2
 =
15  15  β = –3

2  2251 178  α=1

15(µ + µ= + σ2 ) 15  +
 15 15  − ( β + 1) 1
= ⇒ ( β + 1) = − 2
= 2429 2×3 3
3 + α sin x + β cos x + ln(1 − x ) 1 ⇒ β = –3
28. If lim 2
= .
x →0 3 tan x 3
⇒ 2α –β = 2 – (–3) = 5
Then 2α − β is equal to
29.
Answer (5) 30.
Sol. Using expansions,

  

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