JEE Main Section

Practice Paper

Subject Topic Term Exam – PP Date

Chemical Kinetics & Radioactivity, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes & JEE Main – 12 – CT
Grignard Reagents, Electrochemistry, Alcohol, Phenol and Ethers, d and
f block elements, Aldehydes and Ketones, Matrices & Determinants,
C+M+P Relations and Functions, Vectors, Inverse Trigonometry, 3D Geometry,
Continuity, Differentiability, Limits, Electric Charges, Fields, &
Potentials, Ray Optics, Capacitors, Wave Optics, Current Electricity up
to S1- L5, Dual Nature of Radiation & Matter

Max. Marks: 300 Duration: 3 Hours

1. This paper consists of Chemistry – 01 to 30, Mathematics – 31 to 60 and Physics – 61 to 90

➢ Section – I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions with one correct answers. A correct
answer carries 4 marks and wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark.

➢ Section – II : This contains 10 numerical type questions for which the answer should be rounded off
to nearest integer. Candidates have to attempt any five questions out of ten questions in this
section. A correct answer carries 4 marks and wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark.
In Section II, Out of 10 questions, Only 5 questions are to be answered. If you answered more than 5
questions in Section II, the first 5 questions answered will be evaluated.

2. The JMN2019WT OMR sheet is to be used

3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited

4. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once entered, the
answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will automatically draw a penalty of
1 mark

5. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can be reported
to the coordinator after the exam

6. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white Ink used,
the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded

All the best!!

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207

Physical Constants:

h = 6.626  10−34 Js , N a = 6.022  1023 mol-1 , c = 2.998  108 m s-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg , R = 8.314 J mol-1 K -1
 JEE Main Section

Chemistry
Section I
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. 20 x 4 = 80
1. Select the correct option
EtONa / EtOH
Br (P) Product (Major)
Path (I)

Ph Me
EtOH
(Q) Product (Major)
Path (II)

(a) P is Ph CH CH2 (via E 1) Q is Ph CH CH3 (via S )

N2
OC2H5

(b) P is Ph CH CH2 (via E 2) Q is Ph CH CH3 (via S )

N1
OC2H5

(c) P is Ph CH CH3 (via S ) Q is Ph CH CH2 (via E1)

N2
OC2H5

(d) P is Ph CH CH3 (via S ) Q is Ph CH CH2 (via E 1)

N1
OC2H5

2. What is the order of reactivity of following aryl halides towards S reaction?

N Ar

Br Cl F Br

NO2 OCH3 NO2 OCH3

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(a) ( I ) > ( II ) > ( III ) > ( IV ) (b) ( III ) > ( I ) > ( IV ) > ( II )

(c) ( IV ) > ( III ) > ( I ) > ( II ) (d) ( III ) > ( I ) > ( II ) > ( IV )

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3. Select the incorrect order of nucleofugacity

O O O

(a) F3C S O > C6 H5 S O (b) C6H5 S O > C6 H5 O

O O O
O O

(c) C6H5 F3C S O (d) CH3 C O > C6H5 O

O >
O

4. Which of the following reaction is feasible?

CH 3 CH 3

(a) ONa CH 3 Br OCH 3 (b) CH 3 Br RO CH 3 OR

CH 3 CH 3

CH3 CH3
(c) CH 3 Br ROH (d) Br RONa OR
CH 3 CH2
CH3

5. The emf of the following cell is 0.04V at 298K .

Zn / ZnSO4 CuSO4 / Cu

If the temperature co-efficient of the cell is:

−2.4  10−4 Volt /degree, calculate the enthalpy change of the cell reaction.
(a) −21.52 kJ (b) −13.83 kJ (c) +21.52 kJ (d) −28.82 kJ

6. A first order reaction, A → Products and a second order reaction, 2B → Products have a half – life of

30 min when the initial concentrations in each case are 3 mol L−1. The number of mol of A and B

remaining after 90 minutes after the start of the reaction is ( X ) and (Y ) respectively. The value of

(Y / X ) is -----
(a) 4.5 (b) 3.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0

7. Bicyclohexane was found to undergo two parallel first order rearrangements. At 730 K , the first order

rate constant for the formation of cyclohexene was measured as 1.2  10−4 s −1 , and for the formation of

methylcyclopentene the rate constant was 4.0  10−5 s −1. What is the ratio of percentage distribution of
cyclohexene to methylcyclopentene?
(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these

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8. A first order reaction has a half-life of 1 hrs at 500 K . A catalyst lowers the activation energy of the

reaction by 30 kJ/mol. What is the time required to complete 75% of the reaction in presence of the

catalyst?  log1.36 = 0.134

(a) 10.7sec (b) 8.8sec (c) 6sec (d) 5.3sec

9. Atomic mass of thorium is 232 and its atomic number is 90. During the course of its radioactive
disintegration 5  and 4  particles are emitted. What is the atomic mass and atomic number of the final

atom?
(a) 208, 90 (b) 208,82 (c) 212, 72 (d) 212,82

10. The major product (Y) is

+
(i) mCPBA H
(X) (Y)
+
(ii) H3 O

O O

(a) CH3 (b)

O
OH

(c) H (d)

CH3

11. In the reaction sequence

MPV
(Y)
KHSO4
Glycerol (X)
H 2 /Pt/
 (Z)

(Y ) and ( Z ) can be distinguished by

(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Lucas test (c) Iodoform test (d) Any of these

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12. The product (B) of the following reaction is

O CH3
H3C D
Heat
B

OH OH
D D
H3C H3C

(a) (b)

CH2 CH3
H3C

OD OH
CH3
H3C H3C D

(c) CH2 (d)

CH3
H3C

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13. The final product T is

COOH
CH 2 OH
(1) SOCl2 +
H
CH 2 OH -
(1) NH2 NH 2 /OH
(2) H2 , Pd/BaSO4
O S T
R
+
(2) H3 O

COOH CHO

(a) (b)
O

CH3 CHO

(c) (d)
O O

14. The final major product (C) is

OH

CHCl 3 (CH3 CO) 2 O HBr

(A) (B) (C)
NaOH CH 3 COONa
Heat

Br OH Br

COOH COOH
(a) (b)

OH O OH
Br
CH3
(c) (d)
Br

Br

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15. Which of the following oxoanions is not possible?

(a) CeO2+ (b) PuO2+ (c) UO22+ (d) NpO22 +

16. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(a) An acidified solution of K 2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from iodide

(b) Ammonium dichromate on heating undergo decomposition to give Cr2O3

(c) In acidic solution dichromate ions are converted to chromate ions

(d) Potassium dichromate is used as a titrant for Fe2+

17. Match the species in Column-I that can react (oxidise, reduce, give ppt.) species in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
A. Fe 2+ p. Cr2O72−

B. C2O42− q. CrO42 −

C. Pb 2 + r. 3−
 Fe ( CN ) 
 6

D. Ag + s. MnO4−

E. SO2 t. S 2O32−

(a) (A-r, s; B-p, q; C-q; D-s, t ; E-p, s) (b) (A-q, r, t; B-p, q; C-r; D-q, t ; E-q, s)
(c) (A-p, r, s; B-p, s; C-q; D-q, t ; E-p, s) (d) (A-p, s; B-p, t; C-p; D-q, r ; E-q, t)

18. Among the elements of group 17, fluorine is the most reactive owing to its
(a) electronegativity
(b) small size
(c) extremely high oxidising power and low dissociation energy of F-F bond
(d) all the above factors are responsible for high reactivity of fluorine

19. The noble gas which behaves abnormally in liquid state is :

(a) Xe (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) He

20. Aqueous solution of Na2 S 2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives

(a) Na2 SO4 (b) Na2 S 4O6 (c) NaCl (d) NaOH

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Section II
This contains 10 numerical type questions for which the answer should be rounded off to nearest integer.
Candidates have to attempt any five questions out of ten questions in this section. A correct answer carries
4 marks and wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark. 5 x 4 = 20
21. Two litre solution of a buffer mixture containing 1M NaH 2 PO4 and 1M Na2 HPO4 is placed in two

compartments (one litre in each) of an electrolytic cell the platinum electrodes are inserted in each
compartment and 1.2 amp current is passed for 201min . Assuming electrolysis of water only at each

compartment. The pH in cathode compartment is ( X ) and that at anode is (Y ) after passage of above

charge. The value of ( X + Y ) is ------

pKaH 2 PO4− = 2.15 log 23 = 1.36, log17 = 1.23log 5 = 0.7 

22. The specific conductivity of a saturated solution of silver oxalate is 3.0  10−5 S cm −1 at 25C. Conductivity

of water from which the above solution is made is 6.0  10−8 S cm −1. Calculate the molar conductivity of

oxalate ion, given molar conductivity of Ag + ion at infinite dilution is 62 S cm 2 mol−1 and solubility

product of Ag 2C2O4 at 25C is 1.2  10−11.

23. Two weak acid solutions HA1 and HA2 each with same concentration and having pK a values 2 and 4 are

placed in contact with hydrogen electrode (1 atm and 25C are interconnected through a salt bridge.

Calculate the emf of the cell. (in m volt)

24. The population of a bacteria becomes 1.4 times the initial population in 30 minutes. Assuming that the
bacterial growth follow first order kinetics, calculate generation time in min..
25. A sample of 0.5g of an ether on treating with HI followed by the reaction with AgNO3 gave 4.357 g of

silver iodide. Calculate the number of methoxy groups present in the ether.
(Mol. Mass of ether = 162)

26. The oxidation number of Mn in the product of alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 is

27. Calculate the magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous solution if its atomic number is 25
28. Question:
O
CO 2Et
+
H3O

A; Product
EtO2C

O
Degree of unsaturation of the cyclic product is

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29. What is the molecular weight of a compound that undergoes an aldol self-condensation reaction to
result in a  - hydroxy ketone with a molecular weight of 144 ?

30. For the first order reaction C2 H 4O ( g ) ⎯⎯

→ CH 4 ( g ) + CO ( g ) , the initial presssure of C2 H 4O ( g ) is

80 torr and total pressure at the end of 20 minutes is 120 torr. The time needed for 75% decomposition

of C2 H 4 O would be________ min

Mathematics
Section I
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. 20 x 4 = 80
 −1 18 
7 −10 17   4 −6 
31. If 3 A + 4 B ' =   ,2 B − 3 A ' =   , then B =
 0 6 31   −5 −7 

 1 −3   1 3  1 −4 
 1 −2 3
(a)  −1 0  (b)  −1 0  (c)   (d)  −2 2 
 2 4   2 4   −4 2 5  3 5 

32. The values of x for which the formula 2sin −1 x =  − sin −1  2 x 1 − x 2  is true, is
 

 1   3 3  1 1 
(a) ( −1,0 ) (b)  ,1 (c)  − ,  (d)  − , 
 2   2 2   2 2

33. The unit vectors perpendicular to the plane determined by the vectors a = 4iˆ + 3 ˆj − kˆ and b = 2iˆ − 6 ˆj − 3kˆ

are

 3iˆ + 2 ˆj + 6kˆ   3iˆ + 2 ˆj − 6kˆ   −3iˆ + 2 ˆj − 6kˆ   3iˆ − 2 ˆj − 6kˆ 

(a)    (b)    (c)    (d)   
 7  7  7  7
       

x −3 y −8 z −3 x+3 y +7 z −6
34. The shortest distance between the lines = = and = = is
3 −1 −1 −3 2 4
136 156
(a) (b) 2 30 (c) 5 30 (d)
94 94

x +1 y − 2 z +1
35. The perpendicular distance from the point (1,0,2 ) onto the line = = is
3 −2 −1

3 3 3 3
(a) (b) 2  (c) 3  (d) 4 
2 2 2 2

36. If R be the relation on the set R of all real numbers defined by aRb if and only if a − b  1 . Then R is

(a) reflexive and symmetric (b) symmetric only

(c) transitive only (d) equivalence
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37. The domain of the function f ( x ) = log (1 − x ) + x 2 − 1 is

(a) ( −, −1 (b) (1, ) (c) ( 0,1) (d) ( −, −1)

  1 1
 − + 
38. If f ( x) =  xe  x x  , x  0 then f ( x ) is

0 , x=0

(a) continuous everywhere except at x = 0

(b) continuous as well as differentiable for all x
(c) continuous for all x but not differentiable at x = 0
(d) neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0

39. The derivative of sin −1  2 x 1 − x 2  with respect to sin −1 3x − 4 x3 is

 
( )
2 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
3 2 2

40. If the lines x = a1 y + b1, z = c1 y + d1 and x = a2 y + b2 , z = c2 y + d 2 are perpendicular, then

(a) a1a2 + c1c2 = 1 (b) a1a2 + b1b2 = 1 (c) a1a2 + b1b2 = 0 (d) a1a2 + c1c2 = −1

x2 + x + 2
41. The function f : R → R given by f ( x ) = , is
x2 + x + 1
(a) one-one and onto (b) one-one but not onto
(c) onto but not one-one (d) neither one-one nor onto

−1
 1 − tan    1 tan    b −a 
42. If  =  , then
 tan  1   − tan  1  a b 

(a) a = b = 1 (b) a = cos 2 , b = sin 2

(c) a = sin 2 , b = cos 2 (d) a = 1, b = sin 2

 i −i   1 −1 6
43. If A =   and B =  −1 1  , then A equals
 −i i   

(a) −32B (b) 128B (c) −128B (d) −64B

 1 b  1 b
44. tan  + cos−1  + tan  − cos −1  =
4 2 a 4 2 a

a b 2b 2a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
b a a b

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( ) ( )
45. If 6sin x  y 2 + 8cos x  y 2 = 10 , then
dy
dx
=

(a)
( )
6sin( x  y 2 ) + 8cos x  y 2
(b)
y2
6cos ( x  y 2 ) − 8sin ( x  y 2 ) x

y2 −y
(c) − (d)
x 2x

46. Let A = 2,5, 6,8 and define R = ( 2,5 ) , ( 5, 2 ) , ( 2, 2 ) . Then R is

(a) reflexive and symmetric (b) symmetric only

(c) transitive and symmetric (d) equivalence

2 1 0  x 
47. If  x 4 −1 1 0 2   4  = 0, then absolute value of difference of possible values of x is
 0 2 4   −1

(a) 4 (b) 4 10 (c) 2 10 (d) 2

48. If m  −3 4 + n  4 −3 = 10 −11 then 3m − 7 n =

(a) 13 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) −13

49. If a = iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ, b = 3iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ, c = iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ and a +  b is parallel to c , then  =

−2 2
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) −1
3 3
2
50. Let a = iˆ − 2 ˆj + 3kˆ if b is a vector such that a  b = b and a − b = 6 , then b = _____

(a) 21 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 2

Section II
This contains 10 numerical type questions for which the answer should be rounded off to nearest integer.
Candidates have to attempt any five questions out of ten questions in this section. A correct answer carries
4 marks and wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark. 5 x 4 = 20
3 6
51. If sin −1 x + sin −1 y + sin −1 z = , then the value of x100 + y100 + z100 − 101 101 101 is __________
2 x +y +z

52. If the value of lim

( x + 1)10 + ( x + 2 )10 + ( x + 3)10 + ... + ( x + 100 )10 is 20 then  =
10 10
x → x + 10

1/ x 2
 1 + 5x2 
53. If lim   = e then  =
x →0  1 + 3 x 2 

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 2x − 3  −1
54. Let f be a real – valued invertible function such that f   = 5 x − 2, x  2. then the value of f (13)
 x−2 

is ______

 x 5 
55. If sin −1   + cosec−1   = , then x =
5 3 2

56. If the system of equations x + ky + 3z = 0 , 3 x + ky − 2 z = 0 , 2 x + 3 y − 4 z = 0 has a non-trivial solution then

2k − 5 =

57. The projection of vector a = 2iˆ − ˆj + kˆ along b = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 2kˆ is of length l then 3l =

 1 2  x 
58. If x  N and  2 x 3     = O , then x =
 −3 0  8 

59. If the line joining the points ( k , 1, 3) , ( 2, 4, 8 ) is parallel to the line joining the points ( −2, 1, −4 ) ,

( 3, 10, l ) , then ( l − 6k ) =
60. Number of onto functions from a set of five elements to a set of two elements is

Physics
Section I
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong
answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. 20 x 4 = 80
d
61. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by a distance d . A dielectric slab of thickness t =
4
of dielectric constant k1 = 2 is inserted in the space between the plates of the capacitor and the remaining

space is filled with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant k2 = 4 . Area of both dielectric plates is same as

that of the plates of capacitor. If Q is the charge on the capacitor and area of plates is A each, then

potential difference between the plates is

3Qd 4Qd 5Qd 6Qd
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 0 A 16 0 A 16 0 A 16 0 A

62. A capacitor of capacitance C 0 , which is charged to potential 2V0 , is connected across a capacitor of

capacitance 3C0 , charged to potential 4V0 , such that oppositely charged plates are connected to each

other. What is the heat developed in the process?

(a) 6C0V02 (b) 13.5C0V02 (c) 18C0V02 (d) 24C0V02

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63. Light (  = 5000 Å ) illuminates a single slit whose width is 0.1 mm . What is the distance between two

nearest dark lines on either side of the central maximum if the diffraction pattern is viewed on a screen
that is 1.5 m from the slit?

(a) 15 mm (b) 18 mm (c) 21 mm (d) 24 mm

64. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act as coherent sources of waves of equal amplitude A
and wavelength  . In another experiment with the same arrangement, the two slits are made to act as
incoherent sources of waves of same amplitude and wavelength.
(a) In the first case, if the intensity at the midpoint of the screen (symmetric with respect to the
I
sources) is I1 and in the second case it is I 2 , then 1 = 2
I2

(b) In the first case, if the intensity at a point Q on the screen is one-fourth of that at the central

maximum, then in the second case also this relationship holds true
(c) In the first case, if the intensity at a point P on the screen is one-third of that at the central
maximum, then in the second case also this relationship holds true
(d) In the first case, if the phase difference between waves reaching a point R on the screen is 1 ,

and in the second case, it is  2 , then (2 − 1 ) is constant

65. While conducting the Young’s double slit experiment, a student replaced the two slits with a large,

opaque plate in the x-y plane containing two small holes that act as two coherent point sources ( S1 , S 2 )

emitting light of wavelength 600 nm . The student mistakenly placed the screen parallel to the x-z plane

(for z  0 ) at a distance D = 3 m from the mid-point of S1S 2 as shown schematically in the figure. The

distance between the sources d = 0.6006 mm . The origin O is at the intersection of the screen and the

line joining S1S 2 . Which of the following is true about the intensity pattern on the screen?

z
Screen
O
y
S1 S2
d x
D
(a) No fringes are formed
(b) Point O will be bright
(c) Hyperbolic bright and dark bands form, with foci symmetrically placed about O in the x-
direction
(d) Number of fringes formed around O (excluding the point O ) will be 500

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66. In a single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern,

(a) Effectively only one-half of the slit contributes to the intensity at the first secondary maxima
(b) Effectively only one-third of the slit contributes to the intensity at the first secondary maxima
(c) Waves emitted from the ends of the slit reach at the first minimum with a phase difference of 
(d) If the set-up is immersed in a liquid, then the size of central maximum increases
67. Find the equivalent capacitance between A and B in the circuit shown in the figure. Given C = 5 μF .

C 2C

A C B

2C C
(a) 1.1 μF (b) 2.8 μF (c) 3.5 μF (d) 7 μF

68. For an electron to move in a circular path in an environment of purely uniform electric field
(a) It must be released from rest
(b) It must have an initial velocity at an angle of 45º to the direction of electric field
(c) It must have an initial velocity perpendicular to the direction of electric field
(d) Circular motion cannot be achieved
69. Time period of a simple pendulum of a certain length and having a positively charged bob oscillating
near Earth’s surface in a region devoid of electric field is T . How can the time period be decreased?
(a) By applying a uniform electric field acting upwards keeping the charge unchanged
(b) By applying a uniform electric field acting downwards keeping the charge unchanged
(c) By reducing the positive charge on the bob and applying a uniform electric field acting upwards
(d) By making the charge of the bob negative and applying a uniform electric field acting
downwards

70. The electric field in a region is given by E = 3E0iˆ + 4 E0 ˆj with E0 = 20 N C−1 . The electric flux of this field

through a rectangular surface of area 1 m 2 parallel to the x − y plane (in N m 2 C −1 ) is

(a) zero (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 80

71. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A , the ejected photoelectrons have

maximum kinetic energy TA eV and de- Broglie wavelength  A . The maximum kinetic energy of

photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA − 1.50 ) eV . If

the de Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2 A, then which is the incorrect statement?

(a) the work function of A is 2.25 eV (b) the work function of B is 4.20 eV

(c) TA = 2.00 eV (d) TB = 2.75 eV

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72. Two identical non-relativistic particles A and B move at right angles to each other, having de Broglie
wavelengths 1 and 2 , respectively. The de Broglie wavelength of each particle in their centre of mass

frame of reference is
212 12
(a) 2 12 + 22 (b) 12 + 22 (c) (d)
12 + 22 12 + 22

73. Three different media - A, B and C - have refractive indices for a specific colour of light as

5 6 7
 A = ;  B = ; C = respectively. For which pair of media is critical angle least?
4 5 6
(a) A, B only (b) A, C only
(c) B, C only (d) It is least and equal for A, B and A, C

74. A horizontal ray of light passes through a prism of refractive index 1.5 whose apex angle is 4 and then
strikes a vertical mirror M as shown in the figure. In order to have a total deviation for the ray equal to
180 , the angle through which the mirror should be rotated is
M
4

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

75. The same size images are formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at 20 cm or at 10 cm from

the lens. The focal length of the convex lens is

(a) 12.5 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm

76. Nine wires each of resistance r are connected to make a prism as shown. Find the equivalent resistance
of the arrangement across: (i) AD (ii) AB
C
E

D B
F
A

10r 3r 3r 10r 5r 2r 2r 5r
(a) ; (b) ; (c) ; (d) ;
3 5 5 3 6 3 3 6

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2
77. A thread carrying a uniform negative charge per unit length = − (   0 ) has the configuration as
3
shown. Assuming the curvature radius R to be considerbly less than the length of the thread, find the
magnitude of the electric field strength at O .

x
O
R

2 3k  6k  2k  2 2k 
(a) (b) (c) (d)
R R 3R 3R

78. Find the electric potential energy of the system of charges as shown in the figure below.

+q a +q

−q −q

1  − 2q 2  1  −q 2  1  −q 2  1  q2 
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
4 0  a  4 0  a  8 0  a  8 0  a 

79. In the circuit shown below, the readings of the voltmeter (ideal) and the ammeter (ideal) respectively
will be
10  i1

V1 A1

10 V

(a) V1 =10V, A1 =1A (b) V1 = 0V, A1 = 0 A (c) V1 =10V, A1 = 0A (d) V1 = 0V, A1 =1A

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80. Radiation force experienced by a spherical body exposed to radiation of intensity I = 1Wm −2 (assuming

radius R = 1m , body be perfectly absorbing) is

I
R

  10−8 10−8   10−6 10−6

(a) N (b) N (c) N (d) N
3 3 3 3

Section II
This contains 10 numerical type questions for which the answer should be rounded off to nearest integer.
Candidates have to attempt any five questions out of ten questions in this section. A correct answer carries
4 marks and wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark. 5 x 4 = 20

81. The equivalent capacitance between A and B in the adjacent circuit is

(
C 1+ N ) . Consider C = C and
1
6
K = 3 . The value of N is ____________.

A C1 KC1 K 2C1 K 3C1

C KC K 2C K 3C To infinity

B
82. A battery of emf 24 V and internal resistance R is connected to a resistance network as shown in the

figure. The value of R (in ohms) for which the thermal power dissipated in it is maximum is _______  .
1 6

2 10 
6

12

83. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly. Electrostatic potential at a point, P , is

0.7 times of its value at the centre. Distance of P from the centre of the sphere is 3R / N . N is equal to
__________.

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84. A converging lens and a diverging mirror are placed at a separation of 15 cm . The focal length of the lens

is 20 cm and that of the mirror is 40 cm . A point source is placed between the lens and the mirror so that

the light, after getting reflected by the mirror and then getting transmitted by the lens, comes out parallel
to the principal axis. The distance of the point source from the lens is ________ cm.
85. A point object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens. The image is formed on the other side

at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. When a concave lens is placed in contact with the convex lens, the

image shifts away further by 20 cm . Focal length of the concave lens (absolute value) is _________ cm.

86. A wire has a resistance of 12  . It is bent in the form of a circle. The effective resistance between two

points of any diameter is ___________  .

87. Double-convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55 , with both faces of the
same radius of curvature. The radius of curvature required if the focal length is to be 20 cm is

________cm.
88. In the circuit, given below, potential difference across the capacitor of 3 μF is _________ volts.
2 μF
3 μF
e d
5 μF
f c
4 μF
a + −
b
6V

89. The electrostatic potential energy ( in J ) of a system consisting of two charges 7 μC and 7 μC placed at

( −10 cm, 0, 0 ) and (10 cm, 0, 0 ) respectively in free space is ____________ J.

90. Potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected in series with 490  resistance and 2 V battery as shown

in the figure. If 0.2 mV/cm is the potential gradient, then resistance of the potentiometer wire is

_________  .
2V 490 

B
J
G

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