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FIITJEE SANKALP RANK ENHANCEMENT TEST SERIES


PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
(PAPER-2)

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183

 Pleas e read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specific ally for this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION–I is Physics, SECTION–II is Chemistry and SECTION–III is Mathematics.
4. Each section is further divided into one part: Part – A
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are
not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink
your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All One Part.
Part–A (01 – 07) contains 07 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct answer. Each question
will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Part–A (08 – 14) contains 07 Multiple Choice Questions which have Only One Correct answer. Each question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +3 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Part–A (15 – 18) contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 Multiple Choice Questions have to be answered.
Each question has Only One Correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer and 0 mark for a wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate :_________________________________________________________________

Batch :__________________________________ Date of Examination :_________________________

Enrolment Number :____________________________________________________________________

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SECTION – I : PHYSICS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. A ball of mass 2 kg moving horizontally with velocity 10 m/s hits a


wedge of mass 5 kg placed on a horizontal surface as shown in the
10 m/s
figure. Just after collision velocity of wedge is 3.2 m/s. There is no
friction at any contact surface. Then (take sin 37 = 3/5)
(A) Speed of ball just after collision is 210 m/s 53
(B) Impulse applied by ball on the wedge is 20 N-s
(C) Coefficient of restitution for the collision is approximately 0.68
(D) If the time of contact between ball and wedge during collision is 0.05 sec, the average force
exerted by the horizontal surface on the wedge during collision is 260 N.

2. A ball of mass m moving with a velocity v 0 = 50 m/s at an angle


37 from vertical collides with the block A and gets stuck to it as 37
shown in the figure. The mass of each block A and B is 2m. The m
coefficient of friction between the blocks A and B is 1 = 0.3 and v0 = 50 m/s
that between the block B and the horizontal surface is 2 = 0.1. A 2m
Then choose the correct option(s).
1 = 0.3 B 2m

2 = 0.1
(A) The velocity of block A just after collision is 6 m/s
(B) The velocity of block A just after collision is 4 m/s
(C) The velocity of block B just after collision is 4 m/s
(D) The velocity of block B just after collision is 3 m/s

Space for rough work

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3. A small ball is moving with the speed of 6 m/s on 6 m/s


horizontal surface falls in a vertical trench 4m-wide and
20m deep. Consider all collisions elastic and friction is
absent every where. Choose the correct statement(s). A B
(A) The ball will come out of the trench at A
(B) The ball will come out of the trench at B
(C) The ball takes time 4s time and comes out
(D) The ball never comes out of it 20 m

4m

4. A sphere of radius r and mass m has a linear velocity v 0 m/s directed to the left and no angular
velocity as it is placed on a horizontal platform moving to the right with a constant velocity 10 m/s. If
after sliding on the platform the sphere is to have no linear velocity relative to the ground as it starts
rolling on the platform without sliding. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the sphere and the
platform is k. Then
v0
v1

(A) The required value of v0 is 4 m/s


(B) The required value of v 0 is 6 m/s
10
(C) The angular velocity when the rolling starts is anticlockwise
r
10
(D) The angular velocity when the rolling starts is clockwise
r

Space for rough work

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5. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a circular orbit around the earth of mass M and radius R
with a speed equal to half of the magnitude of escape velocity on the surface of the earth (g =
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth). Then
(A) If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit and is allowed to fall freely towards the earth, the
speed with which it hits the surface of earth is gR .
GM
(B) The escape velocity with respect to the earth in the same orbit is .
R
(C) The energy spent in shifting this satellite to an orbit at a further height R/2 from the present orbit is
GM m
.
20 R
(D) The energy spent in shifting this satellite to an orbit at a further height R/2 from the present orbit is
GM m
.
10 R

6. A rod CD of length L and mass M is placed horizontally on a frictionless D


horizontal surface as shown. A second identical rod AB which is also
placed horizontally (perpendicular to CD) on the same horizontal
surface is moving along the surface with a velocity v in a direction L
perpendicular to rod CD and its end B strikes the rod CD at end C and
sticks to it rigidly. Then, v
A L B C
v
(A) velocity of centre of mass of the system just after impact is .
4

3v
(B) the (angular speed) of system just after collision is .
5L
v
(C) velocity of centre of mass of the system just after impact is .
2
5v
(D) the (angular speed) of system just after collision is .
3L

7. Figure shows roughly how the force F between two adjacent atoms
in a solid varies with separation ‘r’
(A) OQ is equilibrium separation F
P Q
(B) Hooke’s law is obeyed around P O r
(C) The potential energy of the atom is the gradient of the graph at
all points
(D) The energy to separate the atoms completely is obtained from
the area enclosed below the axis or r.

Space for rough work

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PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. A binary star system is revolving in a circular path with angular speed ‘’ and mass of the stars are
‘m’ and ‘4m’ respectively. Both stars stop suddenly, then the speed of heavier star when the
separation between the stars becomes half of initial is:
1/3 1/3
 (Gm )2  2  (Gm )2 
(A) 2  (B)  
 2  5  5 
1/3 1/3
 (Gm )2   (Gm )2 
(C)   (D) 2 
 5   5 

9. Two rods of equal length AC and BC are freely joined at C. Two C


ends A and B are pulled with velocities 8 m/s and 10 m/s
respectively as shown in the figure, at a particular instant. The
velocity of the point C at this instant is 
(A) 2 7 m/s (B) 3 7 m/s 
(C) 4 7 m/s (D) 6 7 m/s A 60 60 B
vA = 8 m/s vB = 10m/s

10. A uniform circular disc is being pulled by a force F through a string attached
to its centre of mass. Assume that the disc is rolling without slipping. At a II I
certain instant of time, in which region of the disc (if any) is there a point with III IV F
zero acceleration?
(A) Region II
(B) Region III
(C) Region IV
(D) All points on the disc have non zero acceleration.

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11. Gravitational potential due to a symmetric triangular pyramid at Q


point ‘P’ is V0 as shown in figure-(i). Find the gravitational P a
potential at point ‘Q’ due to given portion as shown in figure-(ii). a
(A) V0 (B) 3V0 a
a
(C) 4V0 (D) 7V0

a 2a 2a
(i) (ii)

12. If A is the areal velocity of planet of mass M, its angular momentum is


(A) M (B) 2MA
(C) A2M (D) AM2

13. Block of mass m is connected with the springs at their Small separation
Massless plate
natural length as shown in figure. When block slightly 2K 2K 2K 2K
displaced then find the time period of oscillation.
 m m K K
(A) (B) 2
4 7k 7k 3K 6K m 3K 6K

m  m
(C) 3  (D)
7k 2 7k

14. The variation of gravitational intensity g for a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R is given by
(A) g (B) g

r r
O r=R O r=R
(C) g (D) g

r r
O r=R O r=R
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PART – A: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

A double star is system of two stars moving around the centre of mass of the system due to gravitation. If
mass of one star is twice of other and total mass of stars is 3m and time period of revolution is T, then

15. The separation between stars is


2 1/3 2 1/3
  T     T  
(A)  2Gm    (B) Gm   
  2     2  
2 1/3 2 1/3
  T   3  T  
(C) 3Gm    (D)  Gm   
  2    2  2  

16. If ‘r’ is separation between the stars then total energy of given binary star system is
Gm2 2Gm2
(A)  (B) 
2r r
2
3Gm Gm2
(C)  (D) 
2r r

Space for rough work

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

A ring of radius R is made of a thin wire of material of density , having cross–section area a and Young’s
Modulus y. The ring rotates about an axis perpendicular to its plane and through its centre. Angular frequency
of rotation is .

17. The tension in the ring will be


aR 2 2
(A) (B) a  R22
2
aR 2 2
(C) 2a  R22 (D) .
4

18. The ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is


y 2y
(A)  2
(B)
R  R 2
y y
(C) (D) .
2R  2 4R 2

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SECTION- II: CHEMISTRY


PART– A (One or More Than One Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct.

1. For the gas phase reaction: C2H4 + H2  


 C2H6 (H = 32.7 kcal)
carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by:
(A) increasing the temperature (B) decreasing the pressure
(C) removing some H2 (D) adding some C2H6

2. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AxBy in water at 25oC is 1.4 × 10–4 M. The solubility product is
1.1 × 10 –11 . The possibilities are.
(A) x = 1, y = 2 (B) x = 2, y = 1
(C) x = 1, y = 3 (D) x =3, y = 1

3. Which is the correct order of relative acidic strength of the following?


Br Br
(A) OH (B) OH
H2O > > C2H2 > NH3 > H2O > C2H2 > NH3
Br Br
(C) OH (D) OH
HCOOH > > H2O > NH3 > H2O > NH3 > C2H2

4. Which of the following are correct about equilibrium of a reaction?


(A) Equilibrium state can only be attained from the forward direction and not from the backward
direction
(B) G° = 0
(C) Catalyst does not affect the position of equilibrium
(D) Equilibrium constant is independent of initial concentration of reaction

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5. Which of the following pair represents structural isomers?


H3C C2 H5 H3C H
(A) C=C and C=C
H H H C2H5
(B) CH3COC2H5 and CH3CH2CH2COH
O O
(C) CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 and CH3OCHCH2CH3
CH3
(D) CH3CH2N=O and CH3CH=NOH

6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the ionic product of water?
(A) Ki (ionization constant of water) < Kw (ionic product of water)
(B) pKi > pKw
(C) at 25o, Ki = 1.8 × 10-14
o -14
(D) ionic product of water at 10 C is 10

7. Which of the following is/are the correct set of compounds in increasing order of pKb value?

NH2 NH
(A) (B) N NH < N NH
<

(C) Cyclohexylamine < aniline < N-phenyl (D) p-chloroaniline < m-chloroaniline <
aniline o-chloroaniline

PART – A (Single Correct Type)


This section contains 7 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONLY ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct.

8. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?
(A) 0.2 L (B) 9.0 L
(C) 0.1 L (D) 0.9 L

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9. At what pH an basic indicator with pkb = 4 changes colour:


(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12

10. A mixture of 2 gases – A (reactive) and X(inert) is kept in a closed flask when A decomposes as per
the following reaction at 500 K:
A  g  2B  g  3C     4D  s 
Po (initial pressure) = 210 mm Hg
Pt (total pressure after 10 mins) = 330 mm Hg
P (total pressure after completion of reaction) = 430 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of C    at 500 K is 20 mm Hg.
Calculate the half life for A:
(A) 5 mins (B) 10 mins
(C) 12 mins (D) given data is not sufficient to answer

11. For the following reaction:



A  B  
 C  D, K c  16
If 0.4 mole of A, 0.4 mole of B, 2 moles of C and 2 moles of D are mixed in container of volume
4 litre. Then the equilibrium concentration of B will be:
(A) 2.6 M (B) 1. 33 M
(C) 0. 33 M (D) 0.12 M

12. Heptene decomposes according to following reaction


C7H14  g 

 2C2H4  g   C3H6  g
–4 –1
Rate constant was found to be 1  10 sec . In what time (approximately) molar ratio of heptene to
ethene in the reaction mixture will attain the value 1?
[log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771]
(A) 68 min (B) 4055 min
(C) 1736 min (D) 228 min

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13. 100 ml of 0.005 M H2SO4 is diluted to one litre. The pH of resulting solution is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 2

14. Which of the following graphs is correct for zero order reaction?

(A) Rate (B) Rate

Conc Conc

(C) Rate (D) Rate

(Conc)2 (Conc)3

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PART – A (Paragraph Type)


This section contains 2 questions. Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 and 16

Salt hydrolysis is an acid-base reaction of a cation or anion or both ions of a salt with water. The resultant
- –
solution after hydrolysis may be acidic, basic or neutral. The anion X which is a weaker base than OH and
+
which has its conjugate acid HX stronger than water but weaker than H3O shows the phenomenon of
– – –
hydrolysis. e.g. CH3COO , NO2 , CN etc.
+ +
The cation M which is weaker acid than H3O and which has its conjugate base MOH stronger than water but
– + + +
weaker than OH shows the phenomenon of hydrolysis, e.g. N2H5 , C6H5NH , NH4 . etc.
Answer, the following questions:

15. The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid (HA) and weak base (BOH) in its 0.1 M solution is
found to be 0.1. If the molarity of the solution is 0.05 M, the percentage hydrolysis of salt should be:
(A) 5% (B) 10%
(C) 20% (D) none of these

16. Find the pH of the mixture of following species:


–5
(X) H3PO4(0.2 M, 20 ml) Given, Ka1 (H3PO4) = 10
-8
(Y) Ca(OH)2 (0.1 M, 40 ml) Ka2 (H3PO4) = 10
-11
(Z) HCl(0.2 M, 10 ml) Ka3(H3PO4) = 10
(W) H2O(50 ml)
(A) 6.5 (B) 8
(C) 9.5 (D) 5

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Paragraph for Questions 17 and 18

The dynamic method in the study of equilibria had been peculiarly followed by Haber and Nernst. The
principle is to run the mixture of reactant gases through a hot tube containing a suitable catalyst, in the case
of N2 and H2 in NH3 synthesis, H for the formation of NH3 is –46 kJ/mol. Reaction for the formation of NH3 is;

N2  3H2   2NH3

17. If at 480K, KP for formation of NH3 is x, then at what temperature it will be 2x?
(A) 960.20 K (B) 414.40 0C
0
(C) 240.30 K (D) 179.77 C

18. If an inert gas is added at constant pressure in the equilibrium mixture, what will be the first effect on
the yield of NH3(g)?
(A) Yield will increase (B) Yield will decrease
(C) Yield will remain the same (D) Can not be predicted

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SECTION – III : MATHEMATICS


PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex numbers representing vertices A, B, C of a triangle. It is known that
 
|z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1, and there exists    0,  such that z1 + z2 cos  + z3 sin  = 0, then
 2
(A) ABC can be an isosceles triangle, with greatest side length of 2 unit
1
(B) the maximum value of area of ABC is unit2
2 2 1  
(C) triangle ABC can be a right angled triangle
(D) triangle ABC can not be an equilateral triangle
8 8
2. If the equation |z|(z + 1) = z |z + 1| where z is a complex number and z(z + 1)  0 has distinct roots
z1, z2, z3 ….. zn (where n  N), then
(A) z1, z2, z3, ….. zn are cyclic points (B) z1, z2, z3, ….. zn are collinear points
n m
7
(C) 
r 1
Re  zr  
2
(D) I
r 1
m  zr   0

th th th
3. If p , q and r terms of a H.P. with rational terms be a, b and c, then the roots of the quadratic
2
equation ab(q  p)x + bc(r  q) x + ca(p  r) = 0 cannot be
(A) real (B) rational
(C) irrational (D) imaginary

4. The values of b for which the equation 3x  3  3x  9  2x  b has no solution can be


(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 5
2 2
5. If the line k (x  1) + k(y  2) + 1 = 0 touches the parabola y  4x  4y + 8 = 0, then k can be
1
(A) 1 (B)
2
7
(C)  (D) 2
2

Space for rough work

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website: www.fiitjee.com.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
SANKALP RANK ENHANCEMENT TEST SERIES-Paper-2 (Ph-2)-PCM(000000.1)-16
2
6. If two distinct chords of a parabola y = 4ax, passing through (a, 2a) are bisected on the line
x + y =1, then length of the latus-rectum can be
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 5
2
7. If AFB is a focal chord of the parabola y = 4ax and AF = 4, FB = 5, then the latus-rectum of the
parabola is equal to
80 9
(A) (B)
9 80
(C) 9 (D) 80

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. The least possible value of |z + 3|2 + |z + 3i|2 + |z – 3i|2 is


(A) 36 (B) 27
(C) 24 (D) 32

n
r
9. Let rth term of a series be given by Tr = . Then lim T r is
1  3r 2  r 4 n 
r 1
(A) 3/2 (B) 1/2
(C) –1/2 (D) –3/2
x+1 2 x
10. If 9 + (a – 4a – 2)3 + 1 > 0  x  R, then
+
(A) a  R (B) a  R
(C) a  [1, ) (D) a  R – {2}
2
11. If the equation |x + 4x + 3|  mx + 2m = 0 has exactly three solutions, then the value of m will be
(A) 8  2 15 (B) 8  2 15
(C) 3 (D) none of these

6  log a x log10 a  loga 5 log 2x  log 22 2


12. The value of x for the given equation a  3log10 x  log10 10 = 9 10 is satisfied, is
5
(A) 100 (B) 10
(C) 1 (D) 2

13. If the standard deviation of x1, x2 ….., xn is 3.5, the standard deviation of
–2x1 – 3, –2x2 – 3, ….., –2xn – 3 is
(A) –7 (B) –4
(C) 7 (D) 1.75

14. The solution set of the inequality log0.3  x  1  < log0.09  x  1  is


(A) (2, ) (B) (1, 2)
(C) (–2, –1) (D) (– , –2)

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
TG ~ @bohring_bot SANKALP RANK ENHANCEMENT TEST SERIES-Paper-2 (Ph-2)-PCM(000000.1)-17

PART – A: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

Tangents are drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x from the point P(6, 5) to touch the parabola at Q and R. C1 is a
circle which touches the parabola at Q and C2 is a circle which touches the parabola at R. Both the circles C1
and C2 pass through the focus of the parabola.

15. Area of the PQR equals


(A) 1/2 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 1/4

16. Radius of the circle C2 is


(A) 5 5 (B) 5 10
(C) 10 2 (D) 210

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

Let A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) be the vertices of ABC such that z3 + iωz2 = (1 + iω)z1 where ω( 1) is a cube root of
unity, then

17. ABC is
(A) Equilateral (B) Isosceles
(C) Scalene (D) Right angled isosceles

 z3  z1 
18. arg   equals
 z2  z3  2z1 
(A) /6 (B) /3
(C) /12 (D) /4

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.

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