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Pleas e read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specific ally for this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION–I is Physics, SECTION–II is Chemistry and SECTION–III is Mathematics.
4. Each section is further divided into one part: Part – A
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are
not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink
your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All One Part.
Part–A (01 – 07) contains 07 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct answer. Each question
will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Part–A (08 – 14) contains 07 Multiple Choice Questions which have Only One Correct answer. Each question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +3 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Part–A (15 – 18) contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 Multiple Choice Questions have to be answered.
Each question has Only One Correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer and 0 mark for a wrong answer.
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SECTION – I : PHYSICS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
2 = 0.1
(A) The velocity of block A just after collision is 6 m/s
(B) The velocity of block A just after collision is 4 m/s
(C) The velocity of block B just after collision is 4 m/s
(D) The velocity of block B just after collision is 3 m/s
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4m
4. A sphere of radius r and mass m has a linear velocity v 0 m/s directed to the left and no angular
velocity as it is placed on a horizontal platform moving to the right with a constant velocity 10 m/s. If
after sliding on the platform the sphere is to have no linear velocity relative to the ground as it starts
rolling on the platform without sliding. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the sphere and the
platform is k. Then
v0
v1
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5. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a circular orbit around the earth of mass M and radius R
with a speed equal to half of the magnitude of escape velocity on the surface of the earth (g =
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth). Then
(A) If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit and is allowed to fall freely towards the earth, the
speed with which it hits the surface of earth is gR .
GM
(B) The escape velocity with respect to the earth in the same orbit is .
R
(C) The energy spent in shifting this satellite to an orbit at a further height R/2 from the present orbit is
GM m
.
20 R
(D) The energy spent in shifting this satellite to an orbit at a further height R/2 from the present orbit is
GM m
.
10 R
3v
(B) the (angular speed) of system just after collision is .
5L
v
(C) velocity of centre of mass of the system just after impact is .
2
5v
(D) the (angular speed) of system just after collision is .
3L
7. Figure shows roughly how the force F between two adjacent atoms
in a solid varies with separation ‘r’
(A) OQ is equilibrium separation F
P Q
(B) Hooke’s law is obeyed around P O r
(C) The potential energy of the atom is the gradient of the graph at
all points
(D) The energy to separate the atoms completely is obtained from
the area enclosed below the axis or r.
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This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
8. A binary star system is revolving in a circular path with angular speed ‘’ and mass of the stars are
‘m’ and ‘4m’ respectively. Both stars stop suddenly, then the speed of heavier star when the
separation between the stars becomes half of initial is:
1/3 1/3
(Gm )2 2 (Gm )2
(A) 2 (B)
2 5 5
1/3 1/3
(Gm )2 (Gm )2
(C) (D) 2
5 5
10. A uniform circular disc is being pulled by a force F through a string attached
to its centre of mass. Assume that the disc is rolling without slipping. At a II I
certain instant of time, in which region of the disc (if any) is there a point with III IV F
zero acceleration?
(A) Region II
(B) Region III
(C) Region IV
(D) All points on the disc have non zero acceleration.
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a 2a 2a
(i) (ii)
13. Block of mass m is connected with the springs at their Small separation
Massless plate
natural length as shown in figure. When block slightly 2K 2K 2K 2K
displaced then find the time period of oscillation.
m m K K
(A) (B) 2
4 7k 7k 3K 6K m 3K 6K
m m
(C) 3 (D)
7k 2 7k
14. The variation of gravitational intensity g for a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R is given by
(A) g (B) g
r r
O r=R O r=R
(C) g (D) g
r r
O r=R O r=R
Space for rough work
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This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A double star is system of two stars moving around the centre of mass of the system due to gravitation. If
mass of one star is twice of other and total mass of stars is 3m and time period of revolution is T, then
16. If ‘r’ is separation between the stars then total energy of given binary star system is
Gm2 2Gm2
(A) (B)
2r r
2
3Gm Gm2
(C) (D)
2r r
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A ring of radius R is made of a thin wire of material of density , having cross–section area a and Young’s
Modulus y. The ring rotates about an axis perpendicular to its plane and through its centre. Angular frequency
of rotation is .
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2. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AxBy in water at 25oC is 1.4 × 10–4 M. The solubility product is
1.1 × 10 –11 . The possibilities are.
(A) x = 1, y = 2 (B) x = 2, y = 1
(C) x = 1, y = 3 (D) x =3, y = 1
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6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the ionic product of water?
(A) Ki (ionization constant of water) < Kw (ionic product of water)
(B) pKi > pKw
(C) at 25o, Ki = 1.8 × 10-14
o -14
(D) ionic product of water at 10 C is 10
7. Which of the following is/are the correct set of compounds in increasing order of pKb value?
NH2 NH
(A) (B) N NH < N NH
<
(C) Cyclohexylamine < aniline < N-phenyl (D) p-chloroaniline < m-chloroaniline <
aniline o-chloroaniline
8. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?
(A) 0.2 L (B) 9.0 L
(C) 0.1 L (D) 0.9 L
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10. A mixture of 2 gases – A (reactive) and X(inert) is kept in a closed flask when A decomposes as per
the following reaction at 500 K:
A g 2B g 3C 4D s
Po (initial pressure) = 210 mm Hg
Pt (total pressure after 10 mins) = 330 mm Hg
P (total pressure after completion of reaction) = 430 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of C at 500 K is 20 mm Hg.
Calculate the half life for A:
(A) 5 mins (B) 10 mins
(C) 12 mins (D) given data is not sufficient to answer
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13. 100 ml of 0.005 M H2SO4 is diluted to one litre. The pH of resulting solution is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 2
14. Which of the following graphs is correct for zero order reaction?
Conc Conc
(Conc)2 (Conc)3
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Salt hydrolysis is an acid-base reaction of a cation or anion or both ions of a salt with water. The resultant
- –
solution after hydrolysis may be acidic, basic or neutral. The anion X which is a weaker base than OH and
+
which has its conjugate acid HX stronger than water but weaker than H3O shows the phenomenon of
– – –
hydrolysis. e.g. CH3COO , NO2 , CN etc.
+ +
The cation M which is weaker acid than H3O and which has its conjugate base MOH stronger than water but
– + + +
weaker than OH shows the phenomenon of hydrolysis, e.g. N2H5 , C6H5NH , NH4 . etc.
Answer, the following questions:
15. The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid (HA) and weak base (BOH) in its 0.1 M solution is
found to be 0.1. If the molarity of the solution is 0.05 M, the percentage hydrolysis of salt should be:
(A) 5% (B) 10%
(C) 20% (D) none of these
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The dynamic method in the study of equilibria had been peculiarly followed by Haber and Nernst. The
principle is to run the mixture of reactant gases through a hot tube containing a suitable catalyst, in the case
of N2 and H2 in NH3 synthesis, H for the formation of NH3 is –46 kJ/mol. Reaction for the formation of NH3 is;
N2 3H2 2NH3
17. If at 480K, KP for formation of NH3 is x, then at what temperature it will be 2x?
(A) 960.20 K (B) 414.40 0C
0
(C) 240.30 K (D) 179.77 C
18. If an inert gas is added at constant pressure in the equilibrium mixture, what will be the first effect on
the yield of NH3(g)?
(A) Yield will increase (B) Yield will decrease
(C) Yield will remain the same (D) Can not be predicted
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This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex numbers representing vertices A, B, C of a triangle. It is known that
|z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1, and there exists 0, such that z1 + z2 cos + z3 sin = 0, then
2
(A) ABC can be an isosceles triangle, with greatest side length of 2 unit
1
(B) the maximum value of area of ABC is unit2
2 2 1
(C) triangle ABC can be a right angled triangle
(D) triangle ABC can not be an equilateral triangle
8 8
2. If the equation |z|(z + 1) = z |z + 1| where z is a complex number and z(z + 1) 0 has distinct roots
z1, z2, z3 ….. zn (where n N), then
(A) z1, z2, z3, ….. zn are cyclic points (B) z1, z2, z3, ….. zn are collinear points
n m
7
(C)
r 1
Re zr
2
(D) I
r 1
m zr 0
th th th
3. If p , q and r terms of a H.P. with rational terms be a, b and c, then the roots of the quadratic
2
equation ab(q p)x + bc(r q) x + ca(p r) = 0 cannot be
(A) real (B) rational
(C) irrational (D) imaginary
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2
6. If two distinct chords of a parabola y = 4ax, passing through (a, 2a) are bisected on the line
x + y =1, then length of the latus-rectum can be
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 5
2
7. If AFB is a focal chord of the parabola y = 4ax and AF = 4, FB = 5, then the latus-rectum of the
parabola is equal to
80 9
(A) (B)
9 80
(C) 9 (D) 80
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
n
r
9. Let rth term of a series be given by Tr = . Then lim T r is
1 3r 2 r 4 n
r 1
(A) 3/2 (B) 1/2
(C) –1/2 (D) –3/2
x+1 2 x
10. If 9 + (a – 4a – 2)3 + 1 > 0 x R, then
+
(A) a R (B) a R
(C) a [1, ) (D) a R – {2}
2
11. If the equation |x + 4x + 3| mx + 2m = 0 has exactly three solutions, then the value of m will be
(A) 8 2 15 (B) 8 2 15
(C) 3 (D) none of these
13. If the standard deviation of x1, x2 ….., xn is 3.5, the standard deviation of
–2x1 – 3, –2x2 – 3, ….., –2xn – 3 is
(A) –7 (B) –4
(C) 7 (D) 1.75
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This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Tangents are drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x from the point P(6, 5) to touch the parabola at Q and R. C1 is a
circle which touches the parabola at Q and C2 is a circle which touches the parabola at R. Both the circles C1
and C2 pass through the focus of the parabola.
Let A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) be the vertices of ABC such that z3 + iωz2 = (1 + iω)z1 where ω( 1) is a cube root of
unity, then
17. ABC is
(A) Equilateral (B) Isosceles
(C) Scalene (D) Right angled isosceles
z3 z1
18. arg equals
z2 z3 2z1
(A) /6 (B) /3
(C) /12 (D) /4
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