All India Integrated Test Series: JEE (Advanced) - 2022

ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 02-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
 The test consists of total 54 questions.
 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of

inclination 370 (tan 370 = 3/4). The coefficient of friction between 10kg
block and surface is 0.4. A horizontal force F = 50 N is applied on the F
block, then (g = 10 m/s2)
=0.4
(A) acceleration of block is zero.
(B) acceleration of block is 2.4 m/s2 along the inclined plane. 370
(C) frictional force between block and surface is 44 N.
(D) frictional force between block and surface is 20 N.
2. An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity Cv at constant volume. The molar heat capacity
of this gas as a function of its volume, V
 R 
(A) is  Cv  if the gas undergoes the process T  T0 eV
 V 
 2R  V
(B) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes the process T  T0 e
  V 
 R  V
(C) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes the process P  P0 e
 (1  V) 
 R 
(D) is  Cv  if the gas undergoes process P  P0 eV
 V 
3. A metallic circular disc having a circular hole at its centre rotates about an axis passing
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. When the disc is heated:
(A) its speed will decrease
(B) its diameter will decrease
(C) its moment of inertia will increase
(D) its speed will increase
4. A particle is projected at an angle  = 30º with the horizontal, with a velocity of 10 m/s
then
(A) After 2 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(B) At 1 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(C) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 10 m/s
(D) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 5 m/s
5. A 10 kg block is resting on a rough horizontal F (N)
surface. A horizontal force F is applied to it for 4s.
The variation of force with time is shown in the 10 kg F 100 N
figure. (µs = µk = 0.5, g = 10 m/s2). Then
(A) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s 4s
(B) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is zero
(C) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 20 m/s
(D) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s
3 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
6. A turning fork is found to give 5 beats in three seconds when sounded in conjunction
with a stretched string vibrating transversely under a tension of either 10.2 kgf or 9.9 kgf,
Then
(A) Frequency of the fork is approximately 224 Hz
(B) Frequency of the fork is approximately 125 Hz
(C) Frequency of the string vibrating under a tension of either 10.2 kgf is
approximately 125 Hz
(D) Frequency of the string vibrating under a tension of either 9.9 kgf is
approximately 222 Hz
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
7. A stone is projected with initial velocity u  2 2 m / s at an angle  = 450 with the

horizontal, find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of
projection, when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)
8. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational forces.
It is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the original mutual
separation a. Find the initial velocity (assuming all values in S.I. units) that should be
GM 
given to each particle.  take a 
 16 
9. A circular disc with a groove along its diameter is placed

horizontally. A block of mass 1kg is placed as shown. The
co efficient of friction between the block and all surfaces of
a=20 m/s2
2
groove in contact is   . The disc has an acceleration of
5
20 m/s2. Then acceleration of the block w.r.t disc will be in 
nearest integer. ( = 370)
10. A bead is free to slide down on a smooth wire tightly stretched A

between point A and B on a vertical circle of radius 10 m. Find
the time taken (In s) by the bead to reach the point B, if the 
bead slide from rest from the highest point A on the circle.
O
11. Velocity versus displacement curve of a particle moving in v(m/s)

straight line is shown in the figure. From a point P, a line is
P
drawn perpendicular to displacement axis and line PR is
drawn normal to the curve at P. The magnitude of
acceleration of the particle at point P is (in m/s 2) Q R s(m)
(2, 0) (3, 0)
12. P –V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown, work done P

by the gas in the process ABCD is n P0 V0
C D
2P0
A
P0
B
V
V0 2V0 3V0
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
13. A motor cycle starts form rest and accelerates along a straight path at 25 m/s2. At the
starting point of the motor cycle, there is a stationary electric siren. How far has the
motor cycle gone when the driver hears frequency of siren at 94% of its value when
motor cycle was at rest (Speed of sound = 330 m/s)
x
14. A transverse wave is described by he equation y  y 0 sin  2  ft    . The maximum
   
particle velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if   ny 0 where n is
15. The centrifugal force per unit mass (F) acting on a satellite in a circular orbit around the
sun satisfies (T : time period of the satellite) F  Tn where n is
16. A uniform slender rod of length L, cross sectional L/3

area A and Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by the
forces in the figure. The elongation of the rod is 3F F 2F
nFL
where n is close to
AY
17. A conical flask of mass 11 kg and base area 103 cm2 is

floating in liquid of specific gravity 1.2 as shown in the figure.
The force that liquid exerts on curved surface of conical flask  10cm
is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
18. The mass collide in air stick together. After how much time m Just dropped
combined mass will fall to the ground (calculate the time from
the starting when the motion was started) (g = 10 m/s2)
20 m
20 m/s
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. In each option one litre solution containing different quantity of acids, bases and salt are
given. In which option the pH of the solution mixture is/are correct? [log2 = 0.3]
 10 2 mol HCl 
 
(A)  10 2 mol HNO3  pH  1.7
 2 
 10 mol NaCl 
 
 10 M HCl
4 
 
(B)  10 5 M NaNO3  pH  2
 2 
 10 M NaOH 
 
 10 M NaOH 
4
 
(C)  10 4 M KOH  pH  10.3
 3 
 10 M KNO3 
 
 10 6 M H3O 
 
(D)  10 2 M NaCl  pH  6
 4 
 10 M KNO3 
 
20. Which of the following substance(s) form(s) polymers under given processes?
(A) (CH3)2SiCl2 upon hydrolysis
(B) BeCl2 vapour upon solidification
(C) Sodium (Na) metal upon heating
(D) Na2CO3 upon crystallization
21. CH2Cl
NaNH  excess  CH Br  excess 

2
P  
3
 Q 
CH2Cl
The characteristics of compound(Q) is/are
(A) it forms trans-alkene when treated with Na in liquid NH3
(B) it forms cis-alkene when treated with H2/Ni
(C) it forms 2-butanone upon treatment with H2O/HgSO4/H2SO4
(D) it is oxidized to formic acid
O
22. Which of the following isomer(s) of has/have higher boiling point?
(A) OH
(B) O
(C) O
(D)
OH
23. The product(s) of which of the following reactions form(s) gas(es) when react with
water?
(A) CaC2  N2 
High temperature
(B) CaO  C  
air
(C) Mg  
oxygen
(D) Na  
24. Which of the following compound(s) is/are more reactive than phenol towards
electrophilic substitution reaction with a common electrophile E+ in solvents like
C2H5OC2H5?
(A) ONa (B) NH2
(C) CH3 (D) NO2
SECTION – B
25. The characteristic properties of the ionic compound MnF2 are given below:
x = Number of unpaired electrons present in it.
y = Number of p-orbital electrons present in the compound
 y
Find the value of  x  
 8
26. How many of the following species has bond order equal to 2.

N2 , O2+ +
2 , NO , CN
O 2 , N22 , NO  , NO+2
NO, NΘ2 , O+2 , NO 2+
27. NH4NO3  N2O  2H2O

If the equivalent mass of NH4NO3 in above reaction is expressed as 5y, what is the value
of ‘y’?
28. The vapour density of a gas is 32. How many moles of the gas weighs 128g?
29. How many moles of B2O3 is formed by decomposition of one mole of borax(Na2B4O7)?
30. OH
Conc.H SO

2 4
 Pr oducts
,
If x = Maximum number of exocyclic products
y = Maximum number of 1, 2-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene
& z = Maximum number of 1, 6-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene
What is (x + y + z)?
SECTION – C
31. A  g   2B  g   C  g 
Following data are given for above reaction
Expt [A]0 in mol L–1 [B]0 in mol L–1 Rate in mol L–1 s–1
1. 0.2 0.2 4  10–6
2. 0.4 0.4 8  10–6
3. 0.4 0.8 8  10–6
4. 0.8 0.4 16  10–6
If the rate constant of the reaction is expressed as (y  10–6) in proper unit. What is ‘y’?
32. What is the pH of 100 mL of an aqueous solution containing 0.01 mole of CH3COO– and
0.01 moles of Cl– ion?
[pka of CH3COOH = 4.78]
33. How many geometrical isomer(s) is/are possible for the given diene?
C2H5CH = CH – CH = CHC2H5
B H ,THF
34. CH3CH  CH2 
2 6
NaOH,H O
Product
2 2
What is the molar mass of the organic product of above reaction?
35. The solubility product constant of a sparingly soluble base M(OH)2 is 32  10–12. What is
the pH of the saturated solution of the base?
[log2 = 0.3]
36. Siderite is an ore of iron. It contains FeCO3 with impurities. How much gram of pure
FeCO3 should be added to 200 mL of 0.4 M acidified KMnO4 solution in order to
decolourize it completely?
[At. Wt of Fe = 56]
MnO4  Fe2  H  Mn2  Fe3   H2O
Mathematics PART – III
SECTION – A
37. Which of the following expansions will not have term containing x 3 ?
25
 1 3
(A)  x  2x 5 
5
 
 
24
 3  
1
(B)  x  2x 
5 5
 
 
23
 3  
1
(C)  x  2x 
5 5
 
 
22
 3  
1
(D)  x  2x 
5 5
 
 
1 1
38. A solution (x, y) of the system of equations x  y  and cos2 ( x)  sin2 ( y)  is given
3 2
by :
7 5 
(A)  , 
6 6 
2 1
(B)  , 
3 3 
 5 7
(C)  ,  
 6 6
13 11
(D)  , 
6 6
A B C
39. If in the triangle ABC, tan , tan and tan are in harmonic progression, then the
2 2 2
B
least value of cot is M where M can not be equals to
2
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
40. All the chords of the hyperbola 3x 2  y 2  2x  4y  0 subtending a right angle at the
origin pass through the fixed point (h, k). Which of the following do not represent (h, k)
(A) (1, –2)
(B) (–1, 2)
(C) (1, 2)
(D) (–1, –2)
1  nz   1   
c n
41. If 1  c 2  nc  1 and z  ei , then
2n  z
(A) 1  c cos 

(B) 2c cos2  1  c 
2
(C) 1  2c cos 

(D) 2c cos2  1  c 
2
42. If ,  are the roots of the equation 375 x2  25x  2  0 and Sn  n  n , then
n
Lt  Sr is A where A can not be equals to
n
r 1
7
(A)
12
1
(B)
12
35
(C)
12
5
(D)
12
SECTION – B
43. If x,y  0,10 , then the number of solutions (x, y) of the inequation
2
x 1
3sec 9y 2  6y  2  1 equals to
4  3i
44. The reflection of the complex number , in the straight line iz  z is x + iy where
1  2i
3x + y equals to
45. Let a, b, c be distinct positive numbers such that each of the quadratics
2
ax 2  bx  c, bx 2  cx  a and cx  ax  b is non – negative for all x  R . If
2 2 2
a b c
R , then number of integral values of R is
ab  bc  ca
46. If p(x) = ax2 + bx and q(x) = lx2 + mx + n with p(1) = q(1), p(2) – q(2) = 1, and p(3) – q(3)
= 4, then p(4) – q(4) is equal to
47. The number of integral solutions of x  y  z  29 such that x  0, y  1, z  2 , having

four digits in the form of abcd, then a + b =
48. From a point P on the normal y  x  c of the circle x 2  y 2  2x  4y  5   2  0, two

tangents are drawn to the same circle touching it at points B and C. If the area of the
quadrilateral OBPC (where O is the centre of the circle) is 36 sq. units, then the possible
positive value of , if it is given that the point P is at a distance of   
2  1 from the
circle, is
SECTION – C
1
49. The orbit of the earth is an ellipse with eccentricity with the sun at one focus, the
60
major axis being approximately 186  106 miles in length. If the shortest and longest
distance of the earth from the sun is m and M then M  m   104 equals to
50. How many numbers greater than 0 and less than a million can be formed with the digits
from 0 to 9, whose sum of digits equals to 18.
 x  1
  y  2  1 and  x  7    y  10   4 increases
2 2 2 2
51. Let the radii of the circles
uniformly by 0.3 unit/sec and 0.4 unit/sec respectively with respect to time. If t1 and t 2
are the time when they touch externally and internally respectively, then the value of
t
(235.79) 2 is ________
t1
52. The points on the axis of the parabola 3y 2  4y  6x  8  0 from where 3 distinct
 2
normals can be drawn is given by  a,   where the least integral value of a is k, then
 3
(1079.5)k equals to
1 1 P
53. For x  1,   , if P  x 3  3
and Q  x  , If the minimum value of 2 equals to M,
x x Q
then 105 3 M equals to
54. If the point of concurrency of the lines ax  by  c  0 , where a, b, c satisfy the relation
3a  2b  4c  0 is (x, y) then (x + y) equals to

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

1. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of

7. A stone is projected with initial velocity u  2 2 m / s at an angle  = 450 with the

9. A circular disc with a groove along its diameter is placed

10. A bead is free to slide down on a smooth wire tightly stretched A

11. Velocity versus displacement curve of a particle moving in v(m/s)

12. P –V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown, work done P

16. A uniform slender rod of length L, cross sectional L/3

17. A conical flask of mass 11 kg and base area 103 cm2 is

(C) CH3 (D) NO2

27. NH4NO3  N2O  2H2O

What is the molar mass of the organic product of above reaction?

Mathematics PART – III

47. The number of integral solutions of x  y  z  29 such that x  0, y  1, z  2 , having

48. From a point P on the normal y  x  c of the circle x 2  y 2  2x  4y  5   2  0, two

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