1.

Which of the following is a muscle of inspiration

a. Internal intercostal
b. Transversus abdominis
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Transversus thoracis
e. Scalenes
2. Ventilation rate and depth decreases with
a. Prolonged pain
b. Decrease in arterial blood H+ levels
c. Increase in pulse from proprioception
d. Increase in body temperature
e. Stretching the anal sphincter
3. The carotid bodies
a. Are stretch receptors in the body of internal carotid arteries
b. Have a blood flow per unit volume similar to that in the brain
c. Are influenced more by blood PO2 than by its oxygen content
d. Generate less afferent impulses when blood H ion concentration rises
e. And the aortic bodies are not mainly responsible for the increased ventilation in
hypoxia
4. With aging
a. The lung becomes more elastic
b. The lung becomes less compliant
c. Vital capacity increases
d. Pulmonary ventilation increases
e. Costal cartilages becomes more flexible
5. Which of the follow in false in relation to McArdle disease
a. A family history of McArdle disease increases the risk
b. A person whoreceives a nonworking gene from only one parent usually does
not develop this syndrome
c. Caused by flaw in the gene that makes an enzyme called glycogen
phosphorylase
d. It is an autosomal dorminant genetic disorder
e. The body can synthesize glycogen in the musles
6. Concerning ATP and creatine phosphate(CP) relationship in energy metabolism within
the muscle
a. ADP and creatine are products when ATP is metabolized within the muscle.
b. Excess ATP are utilised immediately and cannot be stored.
c. Excess ATP transfers energy to creatine.
d. Skeletal muscle makes less ATP than it needs during resting periods
e. Skeletal muscle makes more ATP than it needs during resting periods
7. Practical application of the respiratory quotient includes which of the following
 a. A relative decrease in the amount of CO2 produced suggests a reduction in the
protein in diet
b. Can be found in severe cases of acute obstructive pulmonary disease
c. Detects patients who spend a significant amount of energy on respiratory effort
d. Enables increase of the respiratory quotient by increasing the proportion of the
fat in the diet
8. Glycogen balance in the blood is mainly done by
a. Brain
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Red blood cells
9. Which of the following has some nerve supply from the radial nerve
a. Long head of biceps
b. Coracobrachialis
c. Short head of biceps
d. Brachialis
10. Regarding the brachial plexus, which is incorrect
a. It is derived from the anterior rami of C5-T1 after they have given off
segmental supply to the prevertebral and scalene muscles
b. The roots give off three branches including the long thoracic nerve to the
latissimus dorsi
c. The cords are divided into anterior and posterior divisions that supply the flexor
and extensor
d. The lateral cord supplies part of the median nerve
11. The following is incorrect about the brachial plexus except
a. The five roots lie in behind the scalenius anterior muscle
b. The anterior division of the central trunk runs on as the medial cord
c. The suprascapular nerve is the only branche from the trunk
d. The radial nerve is a branch of the lateral cord
e. The ulnar nerve is a branch of the posterior cord
12. The rotator cuff muscles associated with supporting the shoulder joint does not consist of
a. Subscapularis
b. Teres major
c. Teres minor
d. Infraspinatus
e. Supraspinatus
13. The radial nerve is
a. A branch of the anterior cord
b. A branch of the upper trunk
c. Contains fibers from C4, C5, and C8
d. It innervates the brachialis muscle
 e. Supplies most part of the skin of the lower limb
14. Which of the following muscles connect the scapular to the humerus.
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Serratus anterior
c. Rhomboid major
d. Supraspinous
15. Which of the following bony parts characterize the distal end of the humerus
a. Coronoid process
b. Dorsal tubercle
c. Trochlea
d. Intertubercular groove
16. The following muscles is/are lateral rotators of the thigh except
a. Piriformis
b. Obturator internus
c. Quadratus femoris
d. Biceps femoris
17. Which of the following muscles are attached to the iliotibial tract
a. Vastus lateralis
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Biceps femoris
d. Semitendinosus
18. The muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg includes
a. Tibialis posterior
b. Peroneus tertius
c. Peroneus longus
d. Extensor digitorum brevis
e. Tibialis anterior
19. The following nerves may be damaged when the associated part of the humerus is
fractured
a. Musculocutaneous
b. Thoracodorsal nerve
c. Ulnar
d. Long thoracic nerve
20. The anatomical snuffbox
a. The tendon of the extensor pollicis longus lies on its radial side
b. The tendon of the pollicis brevis lies on the radial side
c. The radial artery lies on its roof
d. The trapezium is readily palpable in its floor
21. Barbara is playing in an intramural football game , when he is tackled so hard that he
breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through his skin and he is
having a difficulty time breathing. Barbara is probably suffering from
 a. A collapsed trachea
b. An obstruction in the bronchi
c. A pneumothorax
d. A decreased surfactant production
22. In a condition known as pleurisy, there is excess fluid in the pleural space. How would
expect this to affect the process of pulmonary ventilation
a. Ventilation would require less energy
b. Breathing will be labored and difficult
c. It would be easier to expand the lung on inspiration
d. More air would be forced out during an expiration
e. Tidal volume would increase
23. Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic
bodies would interfere with the brains ability to regulate breathing in response to
a. Changes in PCO2
b. Changes in PO2
c. Changes in PH due to CO2 levels
d. Changes in blood pressure
e. Changes in PN2
24. A drug that depress the activity of the pneumotaxic center would result in
a. Increase respiratory rate
b. Increase tidal volume
c. A short inspiratory cycle
d. Less activity in the apneustic center
e. Decreased total lung capacity
25. If the neural connection between the pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are severed,
a. A person will stop breathing
b. Pulmonary ventilation will decrease
c. The respiratory minute volume will increase
d. Tidal volume will decrease
e. Alveolar ventilation will increase
26. A molecule that block the activity of carbonic anhydrase would
a. Interfere with oxygen binding to haemoglobin
b. Cause a decrease in blood PH
c. Increase the amount of bicarbonate formed in the blood
d. Decreased the amount of CO2 dissolved in the plasma
e. None of the above
27. If a student inhale as deep as possible and then blows the air out until he can not exhale
anymore, the amount of air that he expelled would be
a. Tidal volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
 d. Minimal volume
e. Vital capacity
28. In quiet breathing
a. Inspiration and expiration involves muscular contraction
b. Inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contraction
c. Inspiration involves muscular contraction and expiration is passive
d. Inspiration and expiration are both passive processes
e. None of the above
29. The Hering-Breuer reflex
a. Functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure
b. Alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes
c. Alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes
d. Protect lungs from damage due to over ventilation
e. Is an important aspect of normal quiet ventilation
30. When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract
a. The volume of the thorax increases
b. The volume of the thorax decreases
c. The volume of the lung decreases
d. The lung collapse
e. Expiration occurs
31. The goal of respiration is to control the concentration of which substance dissolved in the
blood
a. Oxygen
b. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
c. Oxygen, carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
d. Oxygen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen ions and ATP
e. Carbon dioxide, hydrogen ions and bicarbonate
32. The central chemoreceptors in the brain stem increase breathing rate in response to which
stimulig
a. An increase in CO2 concentration in the CSF
b. An increase in the CO2 and H+ concentration in the CSF
c. A decrease in O2 concentration in the CSF
d. A decrease in O2 concentration in the blood
e. A decrease in the O2 and CO2 concentration in the blood
33. The following equation was generated when a glucose molecule went through
respiration: C6H12O6 +6O2-6CO2 +16H2O Deduce the respiratory quotient (RQ)
a. 0.6
b. 1
c. 1.5
d. 2
e. 3
34. A student was given a lipid compound in the laboratory for an experiment to generate
energy. After the reaction, the following equation was obtained: C16H32O2 +23O2-
16CO2 + 16H2O. Deduce the respiratory quotient (RQ)
a. 0.369
b. 0.696
c. 1.437
d. 1.469
e. 7.696
35. Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogenolysis in animals by
releasing glucose-1-phosphate from the terminal
a. α-1,2-glycosidic bond
b. α-1,3-glycosidic bond
c. α-1,4-glycosidic bond
d. β-1,5-glycosidic bond
e. α-1,6-glycosidic bond
36. the reaction CP(creatine phosphate) + ADPcreatine + ATP is catalyzed by
a. creatine phosphatase
b. creatine phosphorylase
c. creatine phosphokinase
d. creatinine phosphorylase
e. creatinine phosphokinase
37. One of the major significance of creatine phosphate is that
a. it is a by-product of Glycolysis
b. it is a relevant molecule for electron transport chain(ETC)
c. it is an intermediary product for the Krebs cycle
d. it is more stable that ATP
e. it takes less time to be synthesized
38. During muscle contraction,
a. The contractile protein actin breaks down ADP producing AMP and phosphate
b. The contractile protein actin breaks down ATP producing ADP and phosphate
c. The contractile protein myosin breaks down ADP producing AMP and
phosphate
d. The contractile protein myosin initiates AMP reacting with phosphate
producing ATP
e. The contractile protein myosin breaks down ATP producing ADP and
phosphate
39. Measurement of respirator quotient (RQ) or uptake of oxygen uptake, are forms of
indirect….
a. Calorimetry
b. Respirometry
c. Respiratory
 d. Spectrophotometry
e. Thermometry
40. Respiratory quotient is measured using a
a. Densitomer
b. Respirometer
c. Spectrophotometry
d. Sphignanometer
e. Thermometry
41. Deduce the respiratory quotient of a protein molecule with the following equation after
subjecting it to the respiratory process: C72H112N12O22S + 77O263CO2 + 38H2O +
SO3 + 9CO(NH2)2
a. 0.556
b. 0.600
c. 0.656
d. 0.728
e. 0.800
42. A relative decrease in the amount of CO2 produced suggests
a. Decrease the amount of energy spent of respirations
b. Increase in the respiratory burden to eliminate CO2
c. Increase the amount of energy spent on respiration
d. Reduction in the respiratory burden to eliminate CO2
e. Reduction in the respiratory burden to eliminate O2
43. The hyoid bone is at what level
a. C2 vertebra
b. C3 vertebra
c. C4 vertebra
d. C5 vertebra
e. C6 vertebra
44. Regarding the cervical spine
a. All the seven cervical vertebrae have spinous processes
b. Rotatory movement of the head occur mostly at the atlanto-occipital joints
c. The odontoid process(peg) is encased by a bony canal in the axis
d. All seven cervical vertebrae have foramina transversaria for the vertebral artery
to pass through it
e. Spinous processes, where present, are all bifid except for C7
45. For the great neck vessels, which is true
a. The carotid sheath contains the ansor cervicalis, vagus and recurrent laryngeal
nerve
b. The external carotid artery has three branches
c. The internal carotid artery has six branches
d. The internal jugular vein lies lateral to the carotid artery throughout its course
 e. The carotid sinus lies at the commencement of the common carotid artery
46. Which is considered a content of the posterior triangle of the neck
a. Subclavian artery
b. Trunks of the brachial plexus
c. Internal jugular vein
d. Branches of the cervical plexus
e. Accessory nerve
47. For sternocleidomastoid, which is true
a. Contraction of one muscle rotates the head to the ipsilateral shoulder
b. It is crossed superficially by the external jugular vein
c. It is supplied by the transverse cervical nerve
d. Its clavicular fiber mainly insert into the superior nucal line
e. It is superficial to the deep cervical fascia
48. Regarding fascia and sheaths in the neck
a. The pretracheal fascia contains both trachea and oesophagus and also
splits to envelop the lobes of the thyroid gland
b. The prevertebral fascia encloses vertebrae and muscles acting on the vertebrae,
but does not contribute to the investment over the brachial plexus as it passes
between scalene muscles
c. The investing fascia encloses trapezius, sternomastoid and platysma muscles
d. The structures contained within the carotid sheath include carotid artery,
sympathetic chain and jugular vein, but not phrenic nerve or vagus
e. Infection may track in the pretracheal space to mediastinum
49. The internal jugular vein
a. Drains into the subclavian vein on the left
b. Lies in the carotid sheath with the carotid artery and the sympathetic trunk
c. Lies lateral to the internal carotid artery at the base of the skull
d. Lies lateral to the carotid artery in the lower neck
e. Lies anterior to the sternocleidomastoid
50. The carotid triangle contains
a. Subclavian artery
b. Omohyoid muscle
c. Occipital artery
d. Internal laryngeal nerve
e. External jugular vein
51. The inferior surface of the clavicle gives attachment to all of the following except
a. Conoid ligament
b. Trapezoid ligament
c. Costoclavicular ligament
d. Pectoralis major muscle
e. Subclavius muscle
52. One of the following is not attached to the medial border of the scapula
a. Levator scapula
b. Teres minor
c. Serratus anterior
d. Rhombideus minor
e. Rhombideus major
53. The usual number of branches of the medial cord of the brachial plexus
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
54. In movement of the arm, the coracobrachialis assist in
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Abduction
d. Rotation
e. Supination
55. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is derived from the
a. C5
b. C6
c. C7
d. C5, 6, 7
e. C6, 7, 8
56. The cubital fossa contains all the following except
a. Brachial artery
b. Radial artery
c. Radial nerve
d. Ulnar nerve
e. Median nerve
57. The lesser tuberosity of the humerus gives attachment to the
a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus
c. Teres minor
d. Teres major
e. Subscapularis
58. Structure crossing superficial to the flexor retinaculum
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Flexor digitorum superficialis
d. Flexor pollicis longus
 e. None of the above
59. The following muscles are innervated by the median nerve except
a. Pronator teres
b. Pronator quadratus
c. Flexor pollicis longus
d. Opponens pollicis
e. Adductor pollicis
60. Stabilizing factor of the shoulder joint include all but
a. A tight capsule
b. Tendons that fuse with the capsule
c. Glenohumeral and coracohumeral ligaments
d. Labrum
e. Splinting of the humeral head between the tendons of the biceps and triceps
61. The musculocutaneous nerve passes through which muscle
a. Coracobrachialis
b. Short head of biceps
c. Brachialis
d. Medial head of triceps
e. Long head of biceps
62. Which nerve supplies serratus anterior
a. Axillary nerve
b. Long thoracic nerve
c. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. Thoracodorsal nerve
e. Suprascapular nerve
63. The nerve supply of the rhomboid major and minor is from the
a. Pectoral nerve
b. Thoracodorsal nerve
c. Axillary nerve
d. Long thoracic nerve
e. Dorsal scapular nerve
64. A student was knifed on his forearm during an attack and could no longer abduct his
thumb. The knife might have directly injured his……….
a. Median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Axillary nerve
d. Radial nerve
e. Ulnar nerve
65. Quick examination showed that a boy had a closed fracture in his upper arm afterhe was
hit by a tennis bat. After the boy was able to abduct and rotate the arm, the doctor
diagnosed damage to the
 a. Median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Axillary nerve
d. Radial nerve
e. Ulnar nerve
66. The carpal bone forming part of the floor of the anatomical snuffbox which is most often
fractured is the
a. Triquetral bone
b. Pisiform bone
c. Scaphoid bone
d. Lunate bone
e. Trapezium
67. The medial wall of the anatomical snuffbox consist of the tendon from
a. Extensor pollicis brevis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Flexor carpi radialis
d. Extensor pollicis longus
e. Abductor pollicis longus
68. If Elizabeth did fracture one of her carpal bones in the snuffbox of the wrist there might
be a danger of bone necrosis. The artery travelling through the snuffbox and supplying
the bones in this area is the
a. Radial artery
b. Ulnar artery
c. Median artery
d. Thenar artery
e. None of the above
69. An inability to oppose the thumb to the little finger can result from damage to the --------
nerve
a. Anterior interosseous
b. Posterior interosseous
c. Radial
d. Ulnar
e. Median
70. A friend after reading the drug insert found that among the excipients is a chemical
substance magnesium stearate. What is its role in the formulation
a. Antiadherent
b. Binder
c. Disintegrant
d. Glidant
e. Sweeteners
71. These are all true about dosage forms except
 a. An elixir is an example of a dosage form
b. The contain both active pharmaceutical ingredient and excipients
c. The API is only for the treatment and prevention of diseases
d. The process of producing a dosage is known as a drug formulation
e. The usually inactive or inert excipient is to act as the carrier of the API
72. These are all advantages of tablets as a dosage form except
a. Coating can be colored or stamped to aid tablet recognition
b. Easy and convenient to use
c. Manufacturing processes and techniques can provide tablets special properties
d. Normally breaks down in 4 minutes
e. They provide an accurately measured dosage in a convenient portable package
73. Capsule shell cannot be made from one of the following substance
a. Bones
b. Cellulose
c. Intestines
d. Plastic
e. Starch
74. Which of these statements is not entirely true about lozenges as a dosage form
a. Molded lozenges are sometimes referred to as troches
b. Some lozenges are compressed into tablets
c. They are intended to be dissolved inside the mouth or pharynx to treat local
infections or irritations
d. They are sometimes used to relieve cough
e. They contain one or more medications in a flavored and sweetened base
75. I am a dosage form covered with a polymer, which may be natural or synthetic, and in
suitable environment in the body, active agents is released from the material in a
predesigned manner by diffusion
a. Coated tablet
b. Controlled released dosage form
c. Enteric coated tablet
d. Hard shelled capsule
e. Transdermal preparations
76. Active pharmaceutical ingredients in sustained released dosage are released under which
order kinetics
a. Zero order
b. First order
c. Second order
d. Third order
e. Fourth order
77. Which of these is best in delivering active ingredients into the skin
a. Cream
 b. Gel
c. Lotion
d. Ointments
e. Suppository
78. Solution that has an alcohol and water base and are applied topically are called
a. Elixirs
b. Gargles
c. Lotion
d. Mixture
e. Tinctures
79. Administration of injections into the subarachnoid space is referred to as
a. Epidural
b. Intra-articular
c. Intrarachnoid
d. Intrasubarachnoid
e. Intrathecal
80. The fear of needles and injections is known as
a. Belonephobia
b. Jectiphobia
c. Needlephobia
d. Parentephobia
e. Pierciphobia
81. This parenteral route has the largest number of possible side of administration
a. Hypodermic
b. Intra-articular
c. Intramuscular
d. Intraosseous
e. Intraveneous
82. With respect to the posterior compartment of the thigh
a. The semimembranosus arises from the ischial tuberosity
b. The blood supply is from the obturator a
c. The nerve supply to all muscles is via the tibial component of the sciatic nerve
d. The biceps femoris inserts around the tibial collateral ligament
e. The tendon of the semitendinosus passes in front of the medial femoral condyle
83. The sciatic nerve
a. Lies midway between the ischial tuberosity and the lesser trochanter
b. Passes anterior to obturator internus
c. Emerges through the lesser sciatic foramen
d. Lies deep to the long head of the biceps femoris
e. Divides into tibial and peroneal components in the lower part of the popliteal
fossa
84. Muscles of the lower leg which can initiate dorsiflexion and inversion is
a. Tibialis posterior
b. Tibialis anterior
c. Peroneus tertius
d. Peroneus longus
e. Peroneus brevis
85. The dermatome supplying the big toe is usually
a. L3
b. S1
c. L5
d. S2
e. L4
86. The deep peroneal nerve travels with
a. Posterior tibial artery
b. The common peroneal artery
c. Deep peroneal artery
d. Anterior tibial artery
e. None of the above
87. Which ligament forms part of the knee capsule
a. Lateral collateral
b. Medial collateral
c. Anterior cruciate
d. Posterior cruciate
e. Popliteus tendon
88. The popliteal fossa
a. Has a floor made of fascia lata
b. Contains femoral artery, popliteal vein and common peroneal nerve
c. Contain 4 geniculate artery
d. Has superior margin of semimembranosus laterally and biceps femoris medially
e. Has a roof pierced by small saphenous vein
89. The femoral vein (NAVEL)
a. Lies medial to the femoral artery throughout the course in the femoral
triangle
b. Is joined by the great saphenous vein below the femoral sheath
c. Continues in the pelvis as the internal iliac artery
d. Does not have any other tributaries apart from the great saphenous vein
e. Passes over the inguinal ligament
90. All the muscles are supplied by the femoral nerve except
a. Iliacus
b. Psoas major
c. Pectineus
 d. Sartorius
e. Obturator externus
91. One quadriceps femoris muscle perform extension as well as flexion…
a. Sartorius
b. Vastus medialis
c. Vastus intermedius
d. Rectus femoris
e. Biceps femoris
92. One of these muscles extends(dorsoflex) and inverts the foot at the ankle joint
a. Tibialis posterior
b. Extensor digitorum longus
c. Extensor pollicis longus
d. Rectus femoris
e. Tibialis anterior
93. Which of the following muscles has dual nerve supply
a. Sartorius
b. Gluteus Maximus
c. Adductor longus
d. Adductor Magnus
e. Adductor brevis
94. At the level of the popliteal fossa, the common peroneal nerve is cut. Which of these
muscles will be spared of paralysis
a. Soleus
b. Fibularis tertius
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Extensor halucis longus
e. Fibularis brevis
95. Which two muscles has a common point of insertion
a. Tibial anterior and peroneus longus
b. Extensor digitorium longus and extensor halucis longus
c. Extensor digitorium longus and Extensor digitorium brevis
d. Flexor digitorium longus and Flexor digitorium brevis
e. Peroneus tertius and peroneus longus
96. Muscles contains……. Types of fibers
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
97. One of these dosage forms containing aerosol has a dose release lever to deliver a new
dose of the drug during administration
a. Dental spray
 b. Dry powder inhaler
c. Metered dose inhaler
d. Nebulizer
e. Sublingual spray
98. Large multinucleated cell responsible for the dissolution and absorption of bone
a. Osteoclast
b. Osteoblast
c. Osteomast
d. Mesenchyme cells
e. Chondrocytes
99. The primary purpose of corticospinal tract is for…..
a. Involuntary motor control of the body and limbs
b. Reflex action
c. Voluntary motor control of the body and limbs
d. Sensory perception
e. None of the above
100. The equipment usually used to measure the oxygen uptake in the estimation of
respiratory quotient(RQ) is called
a. Calorimeter
b. Mettler balance
c. Quotientometer
d. Respirometer
e. Tespirometer